NEET PG 2013 Question Paper with Solutions PDF: Free Download

Which is the first carpal bone to ossify (appear)?

• (A) Trapezium
• (B) Capitate
• (C) Pisiform
• (D) Lunate

Which muscle is derived from the third pharyngeal arch?

• (A) Tensor tympani
• (B) Stylopharyngeus
• (C) Cricothyroid
• (D) None

Which of the following is true about cardiac muscle?

• (A) Spindle shaped
• (B) Large central nucleus
• (C) No gap junctions
• (D) Arranged in sheets

The radial bursa is the synovial sheath covering the tendon of which muscle?

• (A) Flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS)
• (B) Flexor digitorum profundus (FDP)
• (C) Flexor pollicis longus (FPL)
• (D) Flexor carpi radialis (FCR)

All of the following are contents of the midpalmar space EXCEPT:

• (A) 2nd lumbrical
• (B) Flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendon of the 3rd finger
• (C) 1st lumbrical
• (D) Flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendon of the 4th finger

Which structure passes deep to the flexor retinaculum at the ankle?

• (A) Posterior tibial artery
• (B) Long (great) saphenous vein
• (C) Tibialis anterior tendon
• (D) Peroneus tertius

The skin and fascia of the great toe drain into which group of lymph nodes?

• (A) Superficial inguinal lymph nodes
• (B) External iliac nodes
• (C) Internal iliac nodes
• (D) Deep inguinal nodes

Which of the following is NOT true about the right principal (main) bronchus?

• (A) Shorter
• (B) Wider
• (C) More horizontal
• (D) In the line of trachea

Which part of the levator ani provides support to the prostate (levator prostatae)?

• (A) Pubococcygeus
• (B) Ischiococcygeus
• (C) Iliococcygeus
• (D) None of the above

What is the approximate length of the anal canal?

• (A) 10 - 15 mm
• (B) 15 - 20 mm
• (C) 25 - 30 mm
• (D) 35 - 40 mm

The chorda tympani is a content of which part of the ear?

• (A) Middle ear
• (B) Inner ear
• (C) External auditory canal
• (D) None of the above

Which is the chief (main) artery supplying the lateral surface of the cerebral hemisphere?

• (A) Anterior cerebral artery
• (B) Posterior cerebral artery
• (C) Middle cerebral artery
• (D) Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

Type 3 respiratory failure occurs due to which of the following?

• (A) Post-operative atelectasis
• (B) Kyphoscoliosis
• (C) Flail chest
• (D) Pulmonary fibrosis

Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction is best described as which of the following?

• (A) Irreversible pulmonary vasoconstriction due to hypoxia
• (B) Reversible pulmonary vasoconstriction due to hypoxia
• (C) Directs blood to poorly ventilated areas
• (D) Occurs hours after pulmonary vasoconstriction

Direct Fick method of measuring cardiac output requires estimation of:

• (A) O2 content of arterial blood
• (B) O2 consumption per unit time
• (C) Arteriovenous O2 difference
• (D) All of the above

The temperature regulating centre is located in the:

• (A) Supraoptic nucleus of hypothalamus
• (B) Paraventricular nucleus of hypothalamus
• (C) Preoptic nucleus of hypothalamus
• (D) Suprachiasmatic nucleus of hypothalamus

Joint position sense and vibration sense are carried by which type of nerve fibre?

• (A) A alpha
• (B) A beta
• (C) A gamma
• (D) B

Normal cerebral blood flow is approximately how many ml/min?

• (A) 55
• (B) 150
• (C) 750
• (D) 1000

Cell bodies of orexigenic neurons are present in the:

• (A) Dorsal raphe
• (B) Locus coeruleus
• (C) Lateral hypothalamic area
• (D) Hippocampus

Hyperosmolarity of the renal medulla is most importantly due to:

• (A) Potassium
• (B) Sodium
• (C) Glucose
• (D) Chloride

Which cells are referred to as pacemaker cells in relation to the basic electrical rhythm (BER) of the gut?

• (A) SA node
• (B) AV node
• (C) Interstitial cells of Cajal
• (D) Pyramidal cells

Which hormone increases with age?

• (A) GH
• (B) Prolactin
• (C) Parathormone
• (D) Insulin

In the breast, lactiferous ducts are formed under the influence of which hormone?

• (A) Estrogen
• (B) Progesterone
• (C) LH
• (D) FSH

The most common type of calcium channels in skeletal muscle are?

• (A) T type
• (B) L type
• (C) R type
• (D) N type

Blood supply of the liver (in ml/100 g/min) is?

• (A) 1500-2000
• (B) 1000-1500
• (C) 50-60
• (D) 250-300

Von Willebrand factor is synthesized by all except?

• (A) Endothelial cells
• (B) Megakaryocytes
• (C) Hepatocytes
• (D) None

Which element is required by phosphofructokinase?

• (A) Magnesium
• (B) Inorganic phosphate
• (C) Manganese
• (D) Copper

Which of the following is a serine protease?

• (A) Pepsin
• (B) Trypsin
• (C) Carboxypeptidase
• (D) None

Which of the following is an aldosugar?

• (A) Fructose
• (B) Erythrulose
• (C) Glucose
• (D) None

Gluconeogenesis from lactate needs all of the following except?

• (A) Transport of lactate from muscle to liver
• (B) Conversion of lactate to pyruvate
• (C) Transamination of pyruvate to alanine
• (D) None of the above

Reducing sugar in urine can be detected by?

• (A) Benedict's test
• (B) Fehling's solution
• (C) Glucose-oxidase test
• (D) All of the above

Ketone body formation without glycosuria is seen in?

• (A) Diabetes mellitus
• (B) Diabetes insipidus
• (C) Starvation
• (D) Obesity

Apolipoprotein E is rich in which amino acid?

• (A) Lysine
• (B) Arginine
• (C) Histidine
• (D) Methionine

Ninhydrin test is used for the detection of?

• (A) Bile salts
• (B) Amino acids
• (C) Nucleic acid
• (D) Lipids

Sweaty feet odour in urine is seen in?

• (A) Phenylketonuria
• (B) Maple syrup urine disease
• (C) Isovaleric acidemia
• (D) Alkaptonuria

Okazaki fragments are formed during which process?

• (A) Transcription
• (B) Translation
• (C) DNA replication
• (D) None

The chemical process involved in the conversion of progesterone to glucocorticoids is:

• (A) Methylation
• (B) Hydroxylation
• (C) Carboxylation
• (D) None

Glutathione requires which vitamin to act as an antioxidant?

• (A) Vitamin E
• (B) Niacin
• (C) Vitamin C
• (D) Vitamin A

During starvation, muscle primarily uses which fuel?

• (A) Fatty acids
• (B) Ketone bodies
• (C) Glucose
• (D) Proteins

All are true about chaperones except:

• (A) Cause folding of proteins
• (B) Are lipid in nature
• (C) May have ATPase activity
• (D) Include heat shock proteins

Amyloidosis occurs in all of the following except:

• (A) Tuberculosis
• (B) Chronic bronchitis
• (C) Osteomyelitis
• (D) Bronchiectasis

An example of apoptosis is:

• (A) Councilman bodies
• (B) Gamna Gandy body
• (C) Russell bodies
• (D) None

Syphilitic aneurysm most commonly involves which part of the aorta?

• (A) Arch of aorta
• (B) Descending aorta
• (C) Abdominal aorta above the renal arteries
• (D) Abdominal aorta below the renal arteries

Increased vascular permeability in acute inflammation is mainly due to which mediator?

• (A) Histamine
• (B) IL-2
• (C) TGF-beta
• (D) FGF

Which cytokine activates macrophages?

• (A) IL-8
• (B) IFN-gamma
• (C) PAF
• (D) Leukotriene B4

What is the chance of a child having cystic fibrosis if one parent is affected and the other parent is a carrier?

• (A) 25%
• (B) 50%
• (C) 70%
• (D) 80%

What is the terminal (final) stage of lobar pneumonia?

• (A) Congestion
• (B) Red hepatization
• (C) Gray hepatization
• (D) Resolution

Michaelis-Gutmann bodies are seen in which condition?

• (A) Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis
• (B) Pyelonephritis
• (C) Malakoplakia
• (D) Nail patella syndrome

All of the following immunohistochemical markers are positive in the neoplastic cells of granulocytic sarcoma, except:

• (A) CD45 RO
• (B) CD43
• (C) Myeloperoxidase
• (D) Lysozyme

Donath-Landsteiner antibody is seen in?

• (A) PNH
• (B) Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia
• (C) Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria
• (D) Malaria

Multiple epidermoid cysts are seen in?

• (A) Turcot's syndrome
• (B) Gardner's syndrome
• (C) Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
• (D) Familial polyposis coli

Perifascicular atrophy of muscle fibres is seen in?

• (A) Steroid myopathy
• (B) Dermatomyositis
• (C) Inclusion body myositis
• (D) Nemaline myopathy

Flexner-Wintersteiner rosette is seen in?

• (A) Hepatoblastoma
• (B) Nephroblastoma
• (C) Neuroblastoma
• (D) Retinoblastoma

Elimination after 4 half lives in first order kinetics is?

• (A) 84%
• (B) 93%
• (C) 80.5%
• (D) 4.75%

Type E adverse reaction is?

• (A) Toxicity
• (B) Augmented effect
• (C) Teratogenesis
• (D) Withdrawal reaction

Besides its property of decreasing intraocular pressure, timolol is preferred in the treatment of glaucoma because it?

• (A) Produces no miosis
• (B) Possesses membrane stabilizing activity
• (C) Increases outflow of aqueous humor
• (D) Is a selective beta-adrenoceptor blocker

Which of the following is true about calcium channel blockers?

• (A) Verapamil causes reflex tachycardia
• (B) Diltiazem causes reflex tachycardia
• (C) Nifedipine causes reflex tachycardia
• (D) Nifedipine has a longer t1/2 than felodipine

Which second generation antihistaminic does NOT produce an active metabolite?

• (A) Loratadine
• (B) Terfenadine
• (C) Cetirizine
• (D) None

Thiazide diuretics act on which part of the nephron?

• (A) Proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)
• (B) Distal convoluted tubule (DCT)
• (C) Glomerulus
• (D) Descending limb of the loop of Henle

Which of the following is true about lamotrigine?

• (A) Decreased efficacy in depression
• (B) First choice in absence seizure
• (C) t1/2 is 24 hours
• (D) Not metabolised in liver

Anandamide is which type of substance?

• (A) Opioid
• (B) CK 1 antagonist
• (C) D2 blocker
• (D) Cannabinoid neurotransmitter

Metformin is used in the treatment and control of which condition(s)?

• (A) Diabetes
• (B) Polycystic ovarian disease (PCOD)
• (C) Pregnancy induced hypertension
• (D) Both a and b

Which of the following drugs reduces the efficacy of oral contraceptives?

• (A) Erythromycin
• (B) Griseofulvin
• (C) Cimetidine
• (D) Disulfiram

Which drug binds bile acids in the intestine and prevents their return to the liver via the enterohepatic circulation?

• (A) Niacin
• (B) Fenofibrate
• (C) Cholestyramine
• (D) Gugulipid

Which of the following anticoagulants is given orally?

• (A) Argatroban
• (B) Alteplase
• (C) Rivaroxaban
• (D) Fondaparinux

Raltegravir can cause which of the following?

• (A) Hypokalemia
• (B) Hypocalcemia
• (C) Hyperkalemia
• (D) Hypercalcemia

Which one of the following statements is FALSE regarding vincristine?

• (A) It is an alkaloid
• (B) Its use is associated with neurotoxicity
• (C) It does not cause alopecia
• (D) It is a useful drug for induction of remission in acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

Which of the following is NOT a hepatotoxic drug?

• (A) Chlorpropamide
• (B) Allopurinol
• (C) Streptomycin
• (D) Halothane

IPC Section 197 is related to:

• (A) Causing disappearance of evidence
• (B) Issuing false certificate by a doctor
• (C) Giving false evidence
• (D) b and c both

A Class I judicial magistrate has the power to give a punishment of:

• (A) 5 years, Rs. 3000
• (B) 3 years, Rs. 5000
• (C) 5 years, Rs. 5000
• (D) 3 years, Rs. 3000

The first fingerprint bureau of the world was first established in which country?

• (A) England
• (B) China
• (C) India
• (D) Singapore

The ideal site to record the body temperature in a dead body is?

• (A) Rectum
• (B) Axilla
• (C) Mouth
• (D) Groin

A graze is a type of?

• (A) Bruise
• (B) Contusion
• (C) Laceration
• (D) Abrasion

Choking of the respiratory passage by a bolus of food is known as?

• (A) Gagging
• (B) Overlying
• (C) Cafe coronary
• (D) Burking

Immersion syndrome is also called as?

• (A) Hydrocution
• (B) Wet drowning
• (C) Dry drowning
• (D) Secondary drowning

The term Quoad Hanc means?

• (A) Passive partner in sexual intercourse
• (B) Woman having high sexual desire
• (C) Sexual partner in pedophilia
• (D) Male impotent to a particular woman

Regarding pseudomembranous colitis, all of the following are true except?

• (A) Toxin A is responsible for the clinical manifestations
• (B) Toxin B is responsible for the clinical manifestations
• (C) Blood in stools is a common feature
• (D) Summit lesions are an early histopathological finding

Spores of bacteria are destroyed by which of the following agents?

• (A) Alcohol
• (B) Lysol
• (C) Halogen
• (D) Ionizing radiation

What is the correct arrangement of lenses from the eye to the source of light in a light microscope?

• (A) Ocular lens : Objective lens : Condenser lens
• (B) Objective lens : Ocular lens : Condenser lens
• (C) Condenser lens : Objective lens : Ocular lens
• (D) Objective lens : Condenser lens : Ocular lens

The vaccine against Neisseria meningitidis contains which of the following?

• (A) Whole bacteria
• (B) Capsular polysaccharide
• (C) Somatic 'O' antigen
• (D) None of these

Glomerulonephritis following streptococcal infection is diagnosed by which of the following tests?

• (A) Blood culture
• (B) Throat culture
• (C) ASO titre
• (D) PCR

All of the following are non-sporing anaerobes of medical importance except:

• (A) Actinomyces
• (B) Bacteroides
• (C) Clostridia
• (D) Fusobacterium

Consumption of uncooked pork is likely to cause which of the following helminthic diseases?

• (A) Taenia saginata
• (B) Taenia solium
• (C) Trichuris trichiura
• (D) None of these

A case of giardiasis typically presents with which of the following?

• (A) Nausea and vomiting
• (B) Abdominal pain
• (C) Steatorrhea and flatulence
• (D) All of the above

Aspergillus causes all of the following except?

• (A) Bronchopulmonary allergy
• (B) Otomycosis
• (C) Dermatophytosis
• (D) Allergic sinusitis

What is the site for injection of cell culture rabies vaccine?

• (A) Gluteus
• (B) Subcutaneous
• (C) Deltoid
• (D) Anterior abdominal wall

The immunoglobulin antigenic determinant that changes in the variable region is the?

• (A) Idiotype
• (B) Isotype
• (C) Allotype
• (D) Epitope

The cytolytic activity of the membrane attack complex is modulated by?

• (A) Factor I
• (B) Factor B
• (C) Factor S
• (D) Factor H

Which of the following is a bioterrorism Category A agent?

• (A) Q fever
• (B) Typhus fever
• (C) Brucella
• (D) Anthrax

What is the most common organism causing ventilator associated pneumonia?

• (A) Legionella
• (B) Pneumococcus
• (C) Pseudomonas
• (D) Coagulase negative staphylococcus

According to the Millennium Development Goals, by how much was child mortality to be reduced by 2015?

• (A) One third
• (B) Half
• (C) Two third
• (D) One fourth

A person has lost his leg in an accident because of which he is not able to walk. This is -

• (A) Disease
• (B) Disability
• (C) Impairment
• (D) Handicap

Ideal temperature for DPT storage?

• (A) Room temperature
• (B) 4 to 8 degree C
• (C) 0 to -20 degree C
• (D) None

A 3 month old infant with no chest indrawing and a respiratory rate of 52 per minute. Diagnosis is -

• (A) No pneumonia
• (B) Pneumonia
• (C) Severe pneumonia
• (D) Very severe disease

Shortest incubation period is of which infection?

• (A) Chicken pox
• (B) Measles
• (C) Rubella
• (D) Influenza

Dose of chloroquine at 4 to 8 years is -

• (A) 150 mg
• (B) 300 mg
• (C) 450 mg
• (D) 600 mg

Based on the type of life cycle, zoonoses are classified into all of the following except -

• (A) Cyclo-zoonoses
• (B) Meta-zoonoses
• (C) Anthropozoonoses
• (D) Sporo-zoonoses

Disease not covered under the Integrated Disease Surveillance Project (IDSP) is?

• (A) Meningococcal disease
• (B) Tuberculosis
• (C) Herpes zoster
• (D) Cholera

Which of the following is a natural family planning method?

• (A) Abstinence
• (B) Coitus interruptus
• (C) BBT (basal body temperature method)
• (D) Safe period

What is the present general fertility rate (per 1000 women aged 15-49 years)?

• (A) 84
• (B) 118
• (C) 128
• (D) 138

The richest source of vitamin D is:

• (A) Fish
• (B) Soyabean
• (C) Halibut liver oil
• (D) Vegetables

Sandfly transmits all of the following diseases, EXCEPT:

• (A) Oriental sore
• (B) Leishmaniasis
• (C) Kala-azar
• (D) Relapsing fever

The pattern of inter-relationships between persons in a society is called:

• (A) Social structure
• (B) Social psychology
• (C) Herd structure
• (D) Social science

People are separated into groups, and from each group people are selected randomly. What type of sampling is this?

• (A) Simple random
• (B) Stratified random
• (C) Systematic random
• (D) Cluster

One Primary Health Centre (PHC) covers how much population in a hilly area?

• (A) 10000
• (B) 20000
• (C) 30000
• (D) 50000

Indira Gandhi Matritva Sahyog Yojana (IGMSY) is for women of which age group?

• (A) > 65 years old
• (B) > 50 years old
• (C) > 30 years old
• (D) > 19 years old

The ossicles of the middle ear are mainly responsible for which of the following?

• (A) Amplification of sound intensity
• (B) Reduction of sound intensity
• (C) Protecting the inner ear
• (D) Reduction of impedance to sound transmission

In pure tone audiometry, the red line on the audiogram represents which of the following?

• (A) Bone conduction
• (B) Air conduction
• (C) Right ear
• (D) Left ear

Bullous myringitis is most commonly caused by which of the following organisms?

• (A) Pseudomonas
• (B) Mycoplasma
• (C) Pneumococcus
• (D) Candida

The delta sign on imaging is seen in which of the following conditions?

• (A) Petrositis
• (B) Acute mastoiditis
• (C) Sigmoid sinus thrombosis
• (D) Glomus tumor

Gelle's test is used in the diagnosis of which of the following conditions?

• (A) Otosclerosis
• (B) Juvenile angiofibroma
• (C) Nasal polyp
• (D) None

All of the following cranial nerves may be involved in acoustic neuroma, EXCEPT?

• (A) Vagus
• (B) Glossopharyngeal
• (C) Oculomotor
• (D) Facial

Which of the following is true about the external nose?

• (A) Upper 2/3 is bony
• (B) Lower 1/3 is cartilaginous
• (C) Single lateral cartilage
• (D) Two nasal bones

Posterior epistaxis occurs from which of the following?

• (A) Woodruff's plexus
• (B) Kiesselbach's plexus
• (C) Atherosclerosis
• (D) Little's area

What is the investigation of choice for nasopharyngeal angiofibroma?

• (A) X-ray
• (B) MRI
• (C) Plain CT
• (D) CT with contrast

Regarding acute retropharyngeal abscess, which of the following is NOT true?

• (A) Due to lymphadenitis
• (B) Common in adults
• (C) Swelling on one side of midline
• (D) Incision and drainage

What is the most common cause of oroantral fistula?

• (A) Tuberculosis
• (B) Penetrating injury
• (C) Tooth extraction
• (D) Iatrogenic

Killian's incision is used for which of the following procedures?

• (A) Septoplasty
• (B) Submucous resection (SMR)
• (C) Proof puncture
• (D) Modified radical mastoidectomy

A child has a congenital cataract involving the visual axis which was detected by the parents right at birth. This child should be operated:

• (A) Immediately
• (B) At 2 months of age
• (C) At 1 year of age when the globe becomes normal sized
• (D) After 4 years when entire ocular and orbital growth becomes normal

Which are the first order neurons in the optic pathway?

• (A) Bipolar cells
• (B) Ganglionic cells
• (C) Cells of lateral geniculate body
• (D) Astrocytes

During retinoscopy of a 30 year old male, which cycloplegic is used routinely?

• (A) Atropine 1% ointment
• (B) Cyclopentolate 1% drop
• (C) Homatropine 2% drop
• (D) None of the above

All statements are true about trachoma except:

• (A) Trachoma is caused by a bedsonian organism of the psittacosis-lymphogranuloma-trachoma (PLT) group.
• (B) Strains mainly responsible are A, B, Ba and C.
• (C) Marked papillary hyperplasia with limbal follicles is seen in stage III.
• (D) Corneal ulceration is a complication.

Immune ring is a feature of?

• (A) Interstitial keratitis
• (B) Fungal corneal ulcer
• (C) Bacterial corneal ulcer
• (D) Herpes simplex keratitis

Red keratic precipitates are seen in?

• (A) Granulomatous uveitis
• (B) Hemorrhagic uveitis
• (C) Old healed uveitis
• (D) Acute anterior uveitis

Posterior lenticonus is seen in?

• (A) Alport's syndrome
• (B) Lowe's syndrome
• (C) Marfan syndrome
• (D) Homocystinuria

Acute angle closure glaucoma first line treatment?

• (A) IV mannitol
• (B) Acetazolamide
• (C) Pilocarpine
• (D) Beta blocker eyedrops

Photoretinitis is due to?

• (A) Snow reflection
• (B) Solar eclipse
• (C) Blunt trauma
• (D) None of the above

Altitudinal visual field defect is seen in?

• (A) Papilloedema
• (B) Retinitis pigmentosa
• (C) Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy
• (D) Buphthalmos

Positive forced duction test is seen in?

• (A) Extraocular muscle palsy
• (B) Mechanical restriction of ocular movement
• (C) Concomitant squint
• (D) None

Dacryocystorhinostomy involves?

• (A) Opening up the terminal blocked end of nasolacrimal duct
• (B) Connecting the lacrimal sac to nose by breaking the medial wall
• (C) Complete excision of lacrimal sac
• (D) Insertion of drainage tube in the lacrimal sac

Parachute lesions (sea-fan neovascularization) are seen in?

• (A) Eales disease
• (B) Diabetes
• (C) Sickle cell anemia
• (D) All of the above

Nelson syndrome is most likely seen after:

• (A) Hypophysectomy
• (B) Adrenalectomy
• (C) Thyroidectomy
• (D) Orchidectomy

Blood transfusion should be completed within how many hours of initiation?

• (A) 1 to 4 hours
• (B) 3 to 6 hours
• (C) 4 to 8 hours
• (D) 8 to 12 hours

A patient has ascitic fluid with a serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) greater than 1.1 g/dL and an ascitic total protein concentration of 2.8 g/dL. The most likely cause is:

• (A) Nephritic syndrome
• (B) Cardiac failure
• (C) Tuberculosis
• (D) Portal hypertension

In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which of the following spirometry findings is true?

• (A) FEV1/FVC less than 0.7
• (B) Normal FEV1/FVC ratio
• (C) Reduced residual volume
• (D) Increased FEV1

A chest X-ray shows bilateral lung infiltrates suggestive of diffuse parenchymal lung disease. The next most appropriate investigation is:

• (A) Sputum examination
• (B) CT scan (HRCT)
• (C) Bronchoscopy
• (D) Empirical antibiotics

Calciphylaxis is a severe, life-threatening condition that occurs most commonly in:

• (A) Parathyroidectomy
• (B) Medullary carcinoma of thyroid
• (C) Hyperthyroidism
• (D) End-stage renal disease

Excluding head trauma, the most common cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is:

• (A) Arterio-venous malformation
• (B) Cavernous angioma
• (C) Aneurysm
• (D) Hypertension

Liver biopsy is indicated in all of the following except:

• (A) Amoebic hepatitis
• (B) Wilson's disease
• (C) Chronic hepatitis B and C
• (D) Autoimmune hepatitis

Treatment of hypercalcemia includes all of the following except:

• (A) Steroids
• (B) Bisphosphonates
• (C) Phosphate
• (D) Strontium

Which is the most common malignancy associated with rheumatoid arthritis?

• (A) Diffuse large B cell lymphoma
• (B) Large granular lymphocytic leukemia
• (C) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
• (D) None of the above

Deficiency of vitamin E typically causes which of the following?

• (A) Hemorrhagic stroke
• (B) Cardiac failure
• (C) Ataxia
• (D) Megaloblastic anemia

A 25 year old woman presents with generalized restriction of eye movement in all directions, intermittent ptosis, proximal muscle weakness, and fatigability. Which is the MOST useful test in making the diagnosis?

• (A) CPK
• (B) Edrophonium test
• (C) EMG
• (D) Muscle biopsy

The tensile strength of a healing wound reaches that of unwounded tissue by which time?

• (A) 6 weeks
• (B) 2 months
• (C) 4 months
• (D) None

Complications of total parenteral nutrition include which of the following?

• (A) Hyperglycemia
• (B) Hyperkalemia
• (C) Hyperosmolar dehydration
• (D) a and b

Which is a premalignant lesion for carcinoma of the rectum?

• (A) Familial polyposis
• (B) Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)
• (C) Juvenile polyp
• (D) Adenomatous polyp

Which are clinical or investigative features of intestinal obstruction?

• (A) Abdominal distension
• (B) Vomiting
• (C) Fluid level in X-ray more than 4
• (D) a and b

Carcinoma of the breast is least commonly seen in which quadrant?

• (A) Superior outer quadrant
• (B) Inferior outer quadrant
• (C) Subareolar region
• (D) Lower inner quadrant

Sistrunk's operation is used in the treatment of which of the following?

• (A) Parotid tumour
• (B) Thyroglossal fistula
• (C) Thyroglossal cyst
• (D) Both b and c

Which of the following nerves is commonly damaged during a McBurney's incision?

• (A) Subcostal nerve
• (B) 10th thoracic nerve
• (C) 11th thoracic nerve
• (D) Iliohypogastric nerve

During functional endoscopic sinus surgery (FESS), the patient is usually placed in which position?

• (A) Trendelenburg
• (B) Lateral
• (C) Reverse Trendelenburg
• (D) Lithotomy

In rheumatic fever, steroids are indicated when there is which of the following?

• (A) Carditis
• (B) Chorea
• (C) Subcutaneous nodules
• (D) All of the above

Nocturnal enuresis may be considered normal up to what age?

• (A) 3 years
• (B) 4 years
• (C) 5 years
• (D) 6 years

Which prostaglandin analogue is used to keep the ductus arteriosus patent in patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)?

• (A) Anaprostone
• (B) Misoprostol
• (C) Danaprostone
• (D) PGE-2

In which of the following conditions is differential cyanosis found?

• (A) VSD with reversal of shunt
• (B) PDA with reversal of shunt
• (C) ASD with reversal of shunt
• (D) Tetralogy of Fallot

Treatment of bronchiolitis includes all except:

• (A) Macrolides
• (B) Humid oxygen
• (C) Bronchodilator
• (D) All of the above

Which of the following is best for transport of the newborn with maintenance of warm temperature?

• (A) Kangaroo Mother Care (KMC)
• (B) Transport incubator
• (C) Thermacol box
• (D) Hot bottle

Features of hypothyroidism in infancy include the following except:

• (A) Premature closure of posterior fontanelle
• (B) Coarse facies
• (C) Umbilical hernia
• (D) Constipation

Features of Refsum disease are all except:

• (A) Ataxia
• (B) CCF
• (C) Ichthyosis
• (D) Retinitis pigmentosa

Diagnostic sign of a fracture:

• (A) Abnormal mobility at fracture site
• (B) Pain at the fracture site
• (C) Tenderness
• (D) Swelling

For a fracture of the proximal forearm, the cast position is:

• (A) Pronated flexion
• (B) Neutral position
• (C) Supinated position
• (D) Position does not matter

Block vertebrae are seen in which of the following conditions?

• (A) Paget's disease
• (B) Leukemia
• (C) Tuberculosis
• (D) Klippel-Feil syndrome

Which of the following is a radiological sign in Perthes disease?

• (A) Epiphyseal calcification
• (B) Organized calcification
• (C) Lateral subluxation of femoral head
• (D) Restriction of abduction

Picture frame vertebra is seen in which of the following?

• (A) Paget's disease
• (B) Osteopetrosis
• (C) Osteoporosis
• (D) Ankylosing spondylitis

All of the following are common sites of primary tumour for bone metastasis EXCEPT:

• (A) Breast
• (B) Prostate
• (C) Brain
• (D) Lung

Which arthritis causes NO periosteal reaction?

• (A) Psoriatic arthritis
• (B) Reactive arthritis
• (C) Neuropathic arthritis
• (D) Rheumatoid arthritis

A short fourth metacarpal is a feature of which condition?

• (A) Hyperparathyroidism
• (B) Acromegaly
• (C) Pseudohypoparathyroidism
• (D) Scleroderma

Ovarian reserve is best indicated by which of the following?

• (A) LH
• (B) FSH
• (C) LH/FSH ratio
• (D) Estrogen

Oligomenorrhoea means?

• (A) Cycle < 20 days
• (B) Cycle more than 45 days
• (C) Cycle more than 28 days
• (D) Cycle more than 35 days

Trial of labour in previous caesarean section can be done in?

• (A) Placenta previa type III
• (B) Previous two classical caesarean section
• (C) Suspected CPD
• (D) Previous caesarean section with adequate pelvis

Type of suture used in complete perineal tear is?

• (A) Catgut
• (B) Silk
• (C) Vicryl
• (D) Vicryl and catgut

Red degeneration of fibroid is seen in?

• (A) Early pregnancy
• (B) Mid pregnancy
• (C) Puerperium
• (D) Nulliparous women

Percentage of ectopic pregnancy seen in fallopian tube is?

• (A) 75%
• (B) 90%
• (C) 80%
• (D) 67%

Most common presenting symptom of TB endometritis is?

• (A) Abdominal pain
• (B) Infertility
• (C) Amenorrhoea
• (D) Vaginal discharge

A female with hirsutism, amenorrhoea and obesity. Diagnosis?

• (A) PCOD
• (B) Ovarian tumor
• (C) Androgen insensitivity syndrome
• (D) Turner syndrome

A young sexually active female presents with intense pruritus and a watery vaginal discharge. A wet-mount smear is examined. What does the smear most likely show?

• (A) Trichomonas vaginalis
• (B) Candida vaginitis
• (C) Gardnerella vaginalis
• (D) HIV

Which hormone is most responsible for the development of acne?

• (A) Estrogen
• (B) Thyroid hormone
• (C) Testosterone
• (D) Gonadotropins

Nikolsky's sign is seen in which of the following conditions?

• (A) Pemphigus
• (B) Herpes zoster
• (C) Bullous impetigo
• (D) All of the above

An ulceronecrotic nodule is characteristically seen in which type of leprosy?

• (A) Lucio leprosy
• (B) Lepromatous leprosy
• (C) Indeterminate leprosy
• (D) Histoid leprosy

All of the following are features of Behcet's syndrome EXCEPT:

• (A) Genital ulcers
• (B) Uveitis
• (C) Oral ulcers
• (D) Pyoderma gangrenosum

Schamberg's purpura is most characteristically seen on the:

• (A) Face
• (B) Feet and lower legs
• (C) Chest
• (D) Arms

Ether was first publicly used as a surgical anaesthetic by:

• (A) Priestley
• (B) Morton
• (C) Wells
• (D) Simpson

In ophthalmology, a patient is allergic to amino-ester local anaesthetics. Which agent can be safely used instead?

• (A) Cocaine
• (B) Procaine
• (C) Prilocaine
• (D) Bupivacaine

Which of the following intravenous anaesthetic agents is safe even if accidentally injected intra-arterially?

• (A) Thiopentone
• (B) Propofol
• (C) Midazolam
• (D) Methohexitone

Which inhalational anaesthetic agent is contraindicated in renal failure?

• (A) Isoflurane
• (B) Desflurane
• (C) Halothane
• (D) Methoxyflurane

High spinal anaesthesia is associated with which of the following haemodynamic changes?

• (A) Decreased blood pressure and decreased heart rate
• (B) Increased blood pressure and decreased heart rate
• (C) Decreased blood pressure and increased heart rate
• (D) Increased blood pressure and increased heart rate

The Doppler effect results from a change in which property of sound?

• (A) Amplitude of sound
• (B) Frequency of sound
• (C) Direction of sound
• (D) None of the above

In a patient with a high clinical suspicion of pulmonary thromboembolism, which is the best investigation?

• (A) D-dimer
• (B) CT angiography
• (C) Catheter angiography
• (D) Colour Doppler

For detecting pericardial calcification, which is the best investigation?

• (A) MRI
• (B) Transesophageal echocardiography
• (C) USG
• (D) CT scan

Wireless capsule endoscopy is done to visualize which of the following conditions?

• (A) Esophageal varices
• (B) Gastric carcinoma
• (C) Crohn's disease
• (D) Ulcerative colitis

Investigation of choice for whole body imaging in metastasis is

• (A) Magnetic Resonance Imaging
• (B) Angiography
• (C) Venography
• (D) CT Scan

The term Psychiatry was coined by?

• (A) Moral
• (B) Johann Reil
• (C) Bleuler
• (D) Pinel

A patient is a known alcoholic since the last 20 years. He suddenly develops restless tremors and agitation. The diagnosis is?

• (A) Delirium tremens
• (B) Psychosis
• (C) Wernicke's encephalopathy
• (D) Korsakoff's syndrome

Bleuler's symptoms for schizophrenia are all except?

• (A) Loosening of association
• (B) Affect disturbances
• (C) Autism
• (D) Hallucinations

The neurotransmitter change in mania is

• (A) Increased dopamine
• (B) Decreased dopamine
• (C) Increased norepinephrine
• (D) Decreased norepinephrine

Doppelganger is

• (A) Shadow following a person
• (B) Feeling of a double of oneself
• (C) Identification of a stranger as familiar
• (D) None of the above

Suspiciousness is a characteristic feature of which personality disorder?

• (A) Paranoid personality disorder
• (B) Schizoid personality disorder
• (C) Schizotypal personality disorder
• (D) Anankastic personality disorder

Sleep walking is seen in which stage of sleep?

• (A) REM
• (B) Stage 1-2 NREM
• (C) Stage 2-3 NREM
• (D) Stage 3-4 NREM

Repressed information can be brought into the conscious mind by all of the following except?

• (A) Dream
• (B) Focused attention
• (C) Hypnosis
• (D) Somatic stimulation

Read the following ECG. It demonstrates which of the following?

• (A) SVT
• (B) WPW syndrome
• (C) Atrial fibrillation
• (D) Ventricular fibrillation