NEET PG 2017 Question Paper with Solutions PDF Download

Identify the type of muscle shown in the image below.

• (A) Cruciate
• (B) Multipennate
• (C) Parallel
• (D) Unipennate

Nerves of the branchial arch are derived from:

• (A) Mesoderm
• (B) Endoderm
• (C) Neural crest
• (D) Neuroectoderm

The hard palate contains:

• (A) Keratinised epithelium, submucosa, minor salivary gland
• (B) Keratinised epithelium, absent submucosal layer, minor salivary gland
• (C) Non-keratinised epithelium, submucosal layer, minor salivary gland
• (D) Non-keratinised epithelium, absent submucosa, minor salivary gland

What is the tensor of the vocal cords?

• (A) Cricothyroid
• (B) Lateral cricoarytenoid
• (C) Thyroarytenoid
• (D) Posterior cricoarytenoid

The ureteric bud develops from:

• (A) Mesonephros
• (B) Metanephros
• (C) Pronephros
• (D) Genital sinus

Regarding Weber's syndrome, which of the following is incorrect?

• (A) Contralateral hemiplegia
• (B) Ipsilateral oculomotor nerve palsy
• (C) Contralateral parkinsonism
• (D) Anterior cerebral peduncle

Regarding Sibson's fascia, which of the following is incorrect?

• (A) Attached to the inner border of the 2nd rib
• (B) Covers the apical part of the lung
• (C) Part of the scalenus anterior muscle
• (D) Vessels pass above the fascia

Thrombosis of the posterior inferior cerebellar artery causes:

• (A) Lateral medullary syndrome
• (B) Weber syndrome
• (C) Medial medullary syndrome
• (D) None

Broca's area is situated in the:

• (A) Inferior frontal gyrus
• (B) Superior temporal gyrus
• (C) Angular gyrus
• (D) None of the above

What is the function of the muscle shown in the picture?

• (A) Flexion
• (B) Extension
• (C) Adduction
• (D) Abduction

Acute tonsillitis affects which nerve?

• (A) Glossopharyngeal nerve
• (B) Facial nerve
• (C) Trigeminal nerve
• (D) Vagus nerve

Which structure does NOT pass through the aortic opening of the diaphragm?

• (A) Azygos vein
• (B) Aorta
• (C) Thoracic duct
• (D) Vagus

A newly erupted tooth is covered by:

• (A) Perikymata
• (B) Nasmyth's membrane
• (C) Fibrous tissue
• (D) All of the above

What should the value of BMI be to be considered as 'lethal' in men?

• (A) 12
• (B) 18
• (C) 13
• (D) 14

Which receptors are blocked in myasthenia gravis?

• (A) Acetylcholine (Ach) receptors
• (B) Ca2+ receptors
• (C) Na+ receptors
• (D) Opioid receptors

What is the characteristic pattern seen in Brown-Sequard syndrome?

• (A) Contralateral loss of joint sense and position
• (B) Contralateral loss of pain
• (C) Ipsilateral loss of complete sensory functions
• (D) Contralateral motor functions

When is the ventilation-perfusion ratio (Va/Q) equal to infinity?

• (A) Partial pressure of O2 becomes zero
• (B) No exchange of O2 and CO2
• (C) Partial pressure of CO2 alone becomes zero
• (D) Partial pressures of both CO2 and O2 remain normal

The 'c' wave of the jugular venous pulse is seen in:

• (A) Isovolumetric contraction
• (B) Slow filling at the end of diastole
• (C) End of systole
• (D) Start of diastole

Alpha waves on the EEG are seen during which state?

• (A) Sleep
• (B) REM movements
• (C) Relaxed state
• (D) Active state

In hypovolemic shock, there is:

• (A) Afferent arteriolar constriction
• (B) Efferent arteriolar constriction
• (C) Increased blood flow to the kidney
• (D) Normal cardiac output

The components responsible for the counter-current mechanism in the kidney are all of the following EXCEPT:

• (A) Sodium outflow in the thick ascending limb
• (B) Water outflow in the thin descending limb
• (C) Sodium outflow in the thin ascending limb
• (D) Flow of tubular fluid from PCT to DCT

Glucose is absorbed in the intestine by which transport mechanism?

• (A) Secondary active transport
• (B) Facilitated diffusion
• (C) Simple diffusion
• (D) Primary active transport

Insulin-like growth factor (IGF) is secreted mainly by which organ?

• (A) Liver
• (B) Pituitary gland
• (C) Pancreas
• (D) Adrenal glands

What is prosopagnosia?

• (A) Impairment of consciousness
• (B) Being unaware of one's own problems
• (C) Difficulty in identifying known faces
• (D) Failure to identify objects

Transport across the nucleus is carried out by all of the following except?

• (A) Caveolins
• (B) Local signals
• (C) Importins
• (D) Rat proteins

Iron is taken up from the gut lumen into enterocytes through which transporter?

• (A) DMT1
• (B) DMT2
• (C) Ferroportin 1
• (D) GLUT1

Serotonin is also known as?

• (A) 5-hydroxytryptamine (5-HT)
• (B) N-methyl phenylamine
• (C) 3-Methoxytyramine
• (D) Phenethylamine

Tyrosinosis is caused due to deficiency of which enzyme?

• (A) Fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase
• (B) p-hydroxyphenylpyruvate dehydrogenase
• (C) Tyrosine transaminase
• (D) Tyrosine ligase

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is caused by deficiency of which enzyme?

• (A) Orotate phosphoribosyltransferase
• (B) Uracil phosphoribosyltransferase
• (C) Quinolinate phosphoribosyltransferase
• (D) Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT)

Fish odour syndrome is caused by deficiency of which enzyme?

• (A) Fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase
• (B) Methane monooxygenase
• (C) Flavin-containing monooxygenase 3 (FMO3)
• (D) D-amino acid oxidase

Classic galactosemia is due to deficiency of which enzyme?

• (A) Galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase
• (B) HGPRT
• (C) Galactokinase
• (D) Epimerase

Which of the following is the most abundant end product of fatty acid synthesis?

• (A) Oleic acid
• (B) Palmitic acid
• (C) Arachidonic acid
• (D) Glucose

Regarding DNA polymerase I, which one of the following is correct?

• (A) Not required in bacteria
• (B) Repairs any damage within DNA
• (C) Involved in Okazaki fragment processing
• (D) Participates in DNA replication

What do chaperones assist in?

• (A) Protein cleavage
• (B) Protein folding
• (C) Protein degradation
• (D) Protein modification

A fishy body odour can occur due to dietary deficiency of which vitamin?

• (A) Biotin
• (B) Thiamine
• (C) Riboflavin
• (D) Vitamin A

Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) is excreted in urine in which condition?

• (A) Alkaptonuria
• (B) Phenylketonuria
• (C) Pheochromocytoma
• (D) Diabetic ketoacidosis

All of the following are excreted in excess in cystinuria except?

• (A) Cystine
• (B) Cysteine
• (C) Arginine
• (D) Ornithine

Fibrinopeptide A and fibrinopeptide B are acidic due to the presence of which amino acids in their structure?

• (A) Serine and threonine
• (B) Glutamate and aspartate
• (C) Histidine and lysine
• (D) Glutamine and valine

5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (HIAA) is present in urine in which condition?

• (A) Alkaptonuria
• (B) Albinism
• (C) Carcinoid syndrome
• (D) Phenylketonuria

Warthin-Finkeldey cells are seen in which disease?

• (A) Measles
• (B) Rubella
• (C) Rabies
• (D) Typhoid

CD59 is a marker of which disease?

• (A) Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)
• (B) PTEN syndrome
• (C) BRR syndrome
• (D) Cowden syndrome

Which complement component acts as an opsonin?

• (A) C3a
• (B) C3b
• (C) C5a
• (D) C6

Bernard-Soulier syndrome is due to a deficiency of which platelet glycoprotein?

• (A) Gp IIb/IIIa
• (B) Gp Ib
• (C) von Willebrand factor (vWF)
• (D) TNF

Cowden syndrome is associated with mutation of which gene?

• (A) P53
• (B) PTEN
• (C) Rb
• (D) Ras

The chromosome involved in myotonic dystrophy is:

• (A) Chromosome 19
• (B) Chromosome 20
• (C) Chromosome 21
• (D) Chromosome 22

TRALI (transfusion-related acute lung injury) occurs within how many hours of transfusion?

• (A) 48 hours
• (B) 72 hours
• (C) 6 hours
• (D) 12 hours

How does the kidney respond to shock?

• (A) Decreases renal blood flow
• (B) Increases afferent arteriole resistance
• (C) GFR remains unaltered
• (D) Perfusion of the kidney increases

Choose the best method of diagnosis for the clinical sign represented in the image.

• (A) Serum copper
• (B) Serum ceruloplasmin
• (C) Karyotyping
• (D) PCR

Which of the following is an epithelial tumour of the stomach?

• (A) Carcinoid
• (B) Lymphoma
• (C) GIST
• (D) Gastric adenocarcinoma

Identify an X-linked disorder.

• (A) Colour blindness
• (B) Thalassemia
• (C) Azoospermia
• (D) Retinitis pigmentosa

H and L (lymphocytic and histiocytic) cells are seen in which type of Hodgkin lymphoma?

• (A) Mixed cellularity Hodgkin
• (B) Lymphocyte depleted
• (C) Lymphocyte predominance
• (D) Nodular sclerosis

Stellate granuloma is seen in:

• (A) Sarcoidosis
• (B) Cat scratch disease
• (C) Cryptococcosis
• (D) Histoplasmosis

Which option best explains the LDH flipped (flipping) pattern?

• (A) LDH 1 > LDH 2
• (B) LDH 2 > LDH 1
• (C) LDH 2 > LDH 3
• (D) LDH 3 > LDH 2

Nude mice are not resistant to xenografts because of the absence of which cells?

• (A) B cells
• (B) T cells
• (C) Both B and T cells
• (D) None

Identify the condition represented in the image.

• (A) Seminoma
• (B) Germ cell differentiated tumour
• (C) Non-seminoma
• (D) Teratoma

Anaplasia is:

• (A) Changing one type of epithelium to another
• (B) Nuclear chromatin
• (C) Lack of differentiation
• (D) Morphological changes

Which level of prolactin definitely suggests a prolactinoma?

• (A) 200 ng/ml
• (B) 150 ng/ml
• (C) 50 ng/ml
• (D) 100 ng/ml

Laxative abuse causes which of the following renal stones?

• (A) Uric acid
• (B) Ammonium urate
• (C) Struvite
• (D) Calcium oxalate

Identify the condition shown in the image.

• (A) Lobar pneumonia
• (B) Bronchopneumonia
• (C) Acute glomerulonephritis
• (D) Congested kidney

Identify the condition represented in the image below.

• (A) Miliary tuberculosis
• (B) Bronchiectasis
• (C) COPD
• (D) Lung cancer

Which of the following can result in dactylitis?

• (A) Hemophilia
• (B) Von Willebrand disease type 1
• (C) Measles
• (D) Sickle cell anemia

Which chromosome is responsible for the production of MIF (Mullerian inhibiting factor)?

• (A) Chromosome 16
• (B) Chromosome 22
• (C) X chromosome
• (D) Y chromosome

Burkholderia cepacia is resistant to which of the following drugs?

• (A) Ceftazidime
• (B) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
• (C) Temocillin
• (D) Cefotetan

Shingles is caused by which of the following?

• (A) Varicella-zoster
• (B) Herpes simplex
• (C) CMV
• (D) None

Urea breath test is used for diagnosis of:

• (A) H. pylori
• (B) Campylobacter jejuni
• (C) E. coli
• (D) Lactobacillus

Hyperacute graft rejection occurs after how much time?

• (A) 24 hours
• (B) 2 weeks
• (C) In minutes
• (D) Years

Australian antigen for hepatitis B is?

• (A) HBsAg
• (B) HBeAg
• (C) HBdAg
• (D) HBV DNA

Which fungus is most commonly associated with orbital cellulitis in patients with diabetic ketoacidosis?

• (A) Candida
• (B) Mucor
• (C) Aspergillus
• (D) Rhizopus

Sabin-Feldman dye test is used for diagnosis of which of the following conditions:

• (A) Botulism
• (B) Toxoplasmosis
• (C) Sarcoidosis
• (D) Yellow fever

Acute haemorrhagic conjunctivitis is caused by which enterovirus type?

• (A) 69
• (B) 68
• (C) 70
• (D) 71

Echinococcus granulosus is commonly seen in which of the given animals:

• (A) Dog
• (B) Cat
• (C) Fox
• (D) Pig

An anaerobe causing multiple abscesses with discharging sinuses, demonstrating sulphur granules in pus, is?

• (A) Actinomycetes
• (B) Nocardia
• (C) Salmonella
• (D) Tularemia

Whole blood is used as a sample for which test?

• (A) Bacteria
• (B) IGRA
• (C) GeneXpert
• (D) Virus

Which organism causes acute bacterial prostatitis?

• (A) Enterococcus
• (B) Streptococcus viridans
• (C) Peptostreptococcus
• (D) E. coli

Which of the following organisms releases histamine and causes scombroid fish poisoning?

• (A) Salmonella
• (B) Staphylococcus
• (C) P. aeruginosa
• (D) Weissella

Who is the father of microbiology?

• (A) A. van Leeuwenhoek
• (B) Robert Brown
• (C) J. C. Bose
• (D) Pasteur

Cutaneous larva migrans is caused by which organism?

• (A) Strongyloides
• (B) Toxocara canis
• (C) Ancylostoma braziliense
• (D) Necator americanus

After kidney transplantation, infection with which organism is more likely to happen?

• (A) CMV
• (B) Klebsiella
• (C) Streptococcus
• (D) Staphylococcus

Microbial cause of catheter infection in a young female.

• (A) S. aureus
• (B) S. viridans
• (C) P. mallei
• (D) P. cepacia

Identify the organism related to the blood smear image.

• (A) Plasmodium malariae
• (B) S. Typhi
• (C) Treponema pallidum
• (D) Toxoplasma gondii

Which of the following is an endogenous pyrogen?

• (A) PGE2
• (B) PGD2
• (C) PGF2 alpha
• (D) PGI2

In Bartter syndrome, the defect is seen in:

• (A) Defect in PCT
• (B) Defect in DCT
• (C) Defect in thick ascending limb of loop of Henle
• (D) None

Not seen in allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis is:

• (A) High IgE level
• (B) Recurrent pneumonia
• (C) Occurrence in patients with old cavitary lesions
• (D) Pleural effusion

Pseudo P pulmonale is seen in:

• (A) Hypokalemia
• (B) Hyponatremia
• (C) Hypocalcemia
• (D) Hypercalcemia

An Automatic Implantable Cardioverter Defibrillator (AICD) implantation is done for which of the following conditions?

• (A) Brugada syndrome
• (B) Ventricular fibrillation
• (C) Acute coronary syndrome with low ejection fraction
• (D) All of the above

What is the line of treatment for intractable Sydenham chorea?

• (A) Haloperidol
• (B) Valproate
• (C) Warfarin
• (D) Risperidone

All of the following are diagnostic criteria for Neurofibromatosis type 1 EXCEPT:

• (A) Brain tumor
• (B) Acoustic neuromas
• (C) Pseudoarthrosis
• (D) Cafe-au-lait spots

What is the most common site of a chronic gastric ulcer?

• (A) Pyloric antrum
• (B) Upper part of lesser curvature
• (C) Lower part of lesser curvature
• (D) Segment of large intestine

The approximate time interval between HIV infection and the manifestation of AIDS is:

• (A) 7.5 years
• (B) 10 years
• (C) 12 years
• (D) 11 years

Heller's myotomy is done for:

• (A) Zenker's diverticulum
• (B) Achalasia cardia
• (C) Bunions
• (D) Knee arthroscopy

A patient shows a pattern of myocardial stunning that does not match the territory of a single coronary artery on the ECG. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• (A) Takotsubo cardiomyopathy
• (B) Restrictive cardiomyopathy
• (C) Brugada cardiomyopathy
• (D) Pericardial disease

An alternative drug for cardiac arrest in place of epinephrine is:

• (A) Amiodarone infusion
• (B) Atropine
• (C) High dose vasopressin
• (D) Adenosine

A patient presents with cutaneous vasculitis, glomerulonephritis and peripheral neuropathy. Which investigation should be performed next to help diagnose the condition?

• (A) ANCA
• (B) Rheumatoid factor
• (C) HBsAg
• (D) MIF

Cryoglobulinemia is most commonly associated with which of the following?

• (A) Hepatitis C
• (B) Ovarian cancer
• (C) Diabetes
• (D) Leukemia

Which of the following causes hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis WITH hypertension?

• (A) Liddle syndrome
• (B) Bartter syndrome
• (C) Gitelman syndrome
• (D) Renal tubular acidosis

According to the GOLD criteria, very severe COPD is defined by:

• (A) FEV1/FVC < 70 and FEV1 < 30
• (B) FEV1/FVC < 70 and FEV1 < 70
• (C) FEV1/FVC < 70 and FEV1 < 50
• (D) Both A and C

The Ankle-Brachial Pressure Index (ABPI) is artificially increased in:

• (A) Arteriosclerosis with calcified arteries
• (B) Ischemic ulcers
• (C) Intermittent claudication
• (D) Deep vein thrombosis

Minimal brain dysfunction syndrome is seen in:

• (A) Dyslexia
• (B) ADHD
• (C) Mental subnormality
• (D) Down's syndrome

The site of action of amphotericin B is:

• (A) Ribosomes
• (B) Cell wall
• (C) Plasma membrane
• (D) Protein

Which antiretroviral drug also has anti-hepatitis activity?

• (A) Abacavir
• (B) Tenofovir
• (C) Nevirapine
• (D) Emtricitabine

The drug of choice for resistant rheumatic chorea is:

• (A) Valproate
• (B) Haloperidol
• (C) Diazepam
• (D) Probenecid

At pKa = pH, which of the following is true for a drug?

• (A) Concentration of drug is 50% ionic and 50% non-ionic
• (B) Absorption of drug is 50% ionic and 50% ionic
• (C) Concentration of drug is 75% ionic and 25% non-ionic
• (D) Concentration of drug is 25% ionic and 75% non-ionic

The physiological dose of hydrocortisone (mg/kg/day) is:

• (A) 5 mg/kg/day
• (B) 10 mg/kg/day
• (C) 15 mg/kg/day
• (D) 20 mg/kg/day

What is the mechanism of action of colchicine in acute gout?

• (A) Inhibition of purine metabolism
• (B) Inhibition of uric acid conversion
• (C) Migration of leukocytes
• (D) Leukocyte and lymphocyte migration inhibition and microtubular inhibition

Basiliximab is an:

• (A) IL-1 receptor antagonist
• (B) Anti-CD3 antibody
• (C) IL-2 receptor antagonist
• (D) TNF inhibitor

Pirenzepine is used in the treatment of:

• (A) Gastric ulcer
• (B) Glaucoma
• (C) Hypertension
• (D) Congestive cardiac failure

Which of the following antipsychotics is most associated with increased prolactin secretion?

• (A) Olanzapine
• (B) Ziprasidone
• (C) Clozapine
• (D) Risperidone

Which of the following is a glucocorticoid synthesis inhibitor?

• (A) Mifepristone
• (B) Flutamide
• (C) Finasteride
• (D) Metyrapone

Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to prasugrel?

• (A) Not a prodrug
• (B) P2Y purinergic receptor blocker
• (C) Has strong antiplatelet activity
• (D) Causes intracranial hemorrhage in TIA patients

Q-T prolongation is most characteristically seen with which drug?

• (A) Quinidine
• (B) Amiodarone
• (C) Magnesium sulfate
• (D) Lignocaine

Sacubitril is a:

• (A) ACE inhibitor
• (B) Neutral endopeptidase inhibitor
• (C) Calcium channel inhibitor
• (D) Beta adrenergic blocker

Niacin therapy is relatively contraindicated in diabetes because it:

• (A) Increases the blood sugar levels
• (B) Causes scleroderma
• (C) Is difficult to give by injection
• (D) Increases the metabolism of oral hypoglycemic drugs

Endothelin acts through which second messenger / receptor pathway?

• (A) cAMP
• (B) cGMP
• (C) Na+ receptors
• (D) Calcium receptors

Which is the centrally acting alpha-2 agonist muscle relaxant?

• (A) Diazepam
• (B) Bromocriptine
• (C) Tizanidine
• (D) Methocarbamol

Apixaban is a:

• (A) Antithrombin inhibitor
• (B) Direct factor Xa inhibitor
• (C) Platelet activator
• (D) Clotting factor XII

Anaerobes are intrinsically resistant to which class of antibiotics?

• (A) Beta lactam antibiotics
• (B) Aminoglycosides
• (C) Azithromycin
• (D) Metronidazole

Which of the following is NOT a bacteriostatic antibiotic?

• (A) Clindamycin
• (B) Vancomycin
• (C) Tetracycline
• (D) Cephalosporins

Which of the following causes melanosis coli?

• (A) Senna
• (B) Sorbitol
• (C) Magnesium sulphate
• (D) Bisacodyl

Which is the antibiotic of choice for a bedridden patient with catheter-related UTI and pneumonia?

• (A) Amoxicillin
• (B) Beta lactam antibiotic with a beta lactamase inhibitor
• (C) 3rd generation cephalosporins
• (D) 2nd generation cephalosporins

Mycoplasma is intrinsically resistant to which antibiotic?

• (A) Ceftriaxone
• (B) Cephalosporins
• (C) Aminoglycosides
• (D) Fluoroquinolones

Tadalafil should not be given together with:

• (A) Vasodilators
• (B) Antibiotics
• (C) Vasoconstrictors
• (D) Valproate

Estimate the volume of Ringer lactate to be given in the first 8 hours for a 50 kg male with 40% second-degree burns.

• (A) 8 litres
• (B) 4 litres
• (C) 2 litres
• (D) 6 litres

A posthumous child is one who is:

• (A) Delivered after the death of the biological mother
• (B) Delivered after the death of the biological father
• (C) Born after the death of both parents
• (D) Abandoned by the parents

The M'Naghten rule comes under which section of the IPC?

• (A) CrPC 84
• (B) CrPC 48
• (C) IPC 84
• (D) IPC 48

Bluish discoloration of the gastric mucosa is seen in poisoning with which substance?

• (A) Mercury
• (B) Cadmium
• (C) Amytal sodium (amobarbital)
• (D) Arsenic

Muscle pain along with nephropathy is caused by which metal poisoning?

• (A) Arsenic
• (B) Cadmium
• (C) Mercury
• (D) Lead

Which is the first organ to putrefy?

• (A) Brain
• (B) Heart
• (C) Prostate
• (D) Kidney

Locard is famous for:

• (A) Theory of exchange
• (B) Fingerprint study
• (C) Formula for estimation of stature
• (D) System of personal identification using body measurements

When does the basiocciput fuse with the basisphenoid?

• (A) 18 to 22 years
• (B) 22 to 25 years
• (C) 14 to 16 years
• (D) 12 to 14 years

What is the smell of a mummified body?

• (A) Odourless
• (B) Putrid
• (C) Pungent
• (D) Offensive

A patient presents with proximal tubule proteinuria. Which metal is most likely associated with it?

• (A) Cadmium
• (B) Mercury
• (C) Gold
• (D) Lead

Which of the following constitutional articles is NOT related to children?

• (A) Article 23
• (B) Article 21-A
• (C) Article 42
• (D) Article 24

Which of the following statements regarding the Factory Act is correct?

• (A) A child under 14 years can do serious work to earn more money
• (B) Children under 14 years are not employed under the Factory Act
• (C) More than 72 hours of work per week is allowed
• (D) More than 82 hours of work per week is allowed

The incidence of a disease is 4 per 1000 of population with a duration of 2 years. Calculate the prevalence.

• (A) 8/1000
• (B) 4/1000
• (C) 2/1000
• (D) 6/1000

Disposal of cytotoxic and expired drugs is done by which method?

• (A) Dumping
• (B) Autoclave
• (C) Landfill
• (D) Burning

For the net reproduction rate (NRR) to be 1, the couple protection rate should be:

• (A) 50%
• (B) 60%
• (C) 55%
• (D) 75%

The new RNTCP online software to monitor the TB control programme is:

• (A) NIKSHAY
• (B) NICHAY
• (C) E-DOTS
• (D) NIRBHAI

The unit of study in an ecological study is:

• (A) Population
• (B) Patient
• (C) Community
• (D) Case

In a screening test for diabetes mellitus, out of 1000 population, 90 were positive. The gold standard test was then done, in which 100 were positive. Calculate the sensitivity.

• (A) 90/100
• (B) 100/110
• (C) 80/100
• (D) 100/100

What is the mass chemoprophylaxis for meningococcal meningitis?

• (A) Rifampicin
• (B) Chloramphenicol
• (C) Tetracycline
• (D) Penicillin

Which among the following is the active form of chlorine in chlorination?

• (A) Hypochlorite ion
• (B) Hydrogen chloride
• (C) Hypochlorous acid
• (D) Chloride ion

Kala-azar is found in all of the following endemic areas EXCEPT:

• (A) West Bengal
• (B) Uttar Pradesh
• (C) Bihar
• (D) Assam

The risk among the exposed divided by the risk among the non-exposed is defined as:

• (A) Relative risk
• (B) Odds ratio
• (C) Attributable risk
• (D) None of the above

Pasteurization of milk by the holder method is done at:

• (A) 73 degrees C for 20 minutes
• (B) 63 degrees C for 30 minutes
• (C) 72 degrees C for 30 seconds
• (D) 63 degrees C for 30 seconds

The ideal time gap between two live vaccinations is:

• (A) 2 weeks
• (B) 4 weeks
• (C) 8 weeks
• (D) 12 weeks

A susceptible person develops disease within the range of the incubation period after coming in contact with a primary case. This is measured by:

• (A) Secondary attack rate
• (B) Case fatality rate
• (C) Primary attack rate
• (D) Tertiary attack rate

Out of 100 women offered oral contraceptive pills (OCP) for contraception, 10 women became pregnant when followed for 24 months. What is the Pearl index?

• (A) 10
• (B) 5
• (C) 4
• (D) 2

Which of the following does not cause hardness of water?

• (A) Calcium carbonate
• (B) Calcium sulphate
• (C) Calcium bicarbonate
• (D) Magnesium bicarbonate

Which of the following is not an example of direct transmission in communicable diseases?

• (A) Transplacental (vertical)
• (B) Soil
• (C) Respiratory
• (D) STD

Water's view is used to obtain diagnostic information of:

• (A) Maxillary sinus
• (B) Ethmoidal sinuses
• (C) Frontal sinus
• (D) Sphenoid sinus

Tracheostomy indication is:

• (A) Vocal cord replacement
• (B) Pharynx replacement
• (C) Tracheomalacia
• (D) Foreign body obstructing airway

Which is the thickened nerve shown here?

• (A) Facial nerve
• (B) Greater auricular nerve
• (C) Vagus nerve
• (D) Glossopharyngeal nerve

Caldwell's view is used for:

• (A) Maxillary sinus
• (B) Frontal sinus
• (C) Ethmoidal sinus
• (D) All of the above

Presbyopic correction in an old patient is:

• (A) +1 D
• (B) +2 D
• (C) +3 D
• (D) +4 D

100 day glaucoma is seen in which of the following conditions?

• (A) Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO)
• (B) Neovascular glaucoma
• (C) Central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO)
• (D) Steroid induced glaucoma

Roth spots are seen in:

• (A) Uveal melanoma
• (B) Acute leukaemia
• (C) Both a and b
• (D) None of the above

The yoke muscle of the right lateral rectus is:

• (A) Left medial rectus
• (B) Left superior rectus
• (C) Left lateral rectus
• (D) Left inferior oblique

Severe (hyperacute) conjunctivitis is caused by:

• (A) Neisseria
• (B) Staphylococcus
• (C) Streptococcus
• (D) Haemophilus

Which is an example of simple myopic astigmatism among the prescriptions given below?

• (A) Rx (+) sphere
• (B) Rx will be plano (-)
• (C) Rx will be (-) sphere
• (D) (-)(+) (+)(-) on both 90 and 180 degree axis

Blow out fracture of the orbit involves the:

• (A) Floor
• (B) Medial wall
• (C) Lateral wall
• (D) Roof

Which type of retractor is shown in the image?

• (A) Morris retractor
• (B) Czerny retractor
• (C) Richardson retractor
• (D) Lower lid retractor

Which of the following statements is true about the suture material in the image?

• (A) Made of rabbit submucosa
• (B) Made of cat submucosa
• (C) Not degraded
• (D) Degraded by enzymatic degradation

The Van Nuys prognostic index is not based on:

• (A) Age
• (B) Microcalcification
• (C) Size
• (D) ER status

The common cause of chronic pancreatitis is:

• (A) Chronic alcohol
• (B) Chronic pancreatic calculi
• (C) Pancreas divisum
• (D) Gall bladder stones

The following statement about keloid is true:

• (A) It contains growth factor
• (B) Extended excision is the treatment of choice
• (C) It does not extend beyond the wound
• (D) None of the above

Which of the following layers are cut during fasciotomy?

• (A) Skin
• (B) Skin + subcutaneous fascia
• (C) Skin + subcutaneous tissue + superficial fascia
• (D) Skin + subcutaneous tissue + superficial fascia + deep fascia

Which statement is not true regarding Crohn's disease?

• (A) Rectum is not involved
• (B) Continuous lesion visualized on endoscopy
• (C) Non caseating granulomas
• (D) Cobblestone appearance

Which is the best investigation for carcinoma of the head of pancreas?

• (A) Guided biopsy
• (B) ERCP
• (C) Transduodenal / transperitoneal sampling
• (D) EUS

In congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, the abdominal mass is best demonstrated:

• (A) On palpation over the epigastrium
• (B) In the left hypochondrium
• (C) During feeding
• (D) In the right iliac fossa

Calculate the Glasgow Coma Scale of a 25-year-old head injury patient who is confused, opens eyes in response to pain, and localises to pain.

• (A) 6
• (B) 11
• (C) 12
• (D) 7

The RET proto-oncogene is associated with the development of:

• (A) Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
• (B) Astrocytoma
• (C) Paraganglioma
• (D) Hurthle cell tumour of the thyroid

The size cut-off for surgical repair of an asymptomatic abdominal aortic aneurysm is:

• (A) 5.5 cm
• (B) 6.5 cm
• (C) 7.5 cm
• (D) 8.5 cm

The tendons affected in De Quervain tenosynovitis are those of:

• (A) Abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis
• (B) Adductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis
• (C) Abductor pollicis longus and flexor pollicis brevis
• (D) Adductor pollicis longus and flexor pollicis brevis

A patient with a history of road traffic accident 2 years back now develops pain and swelling at the same site. The X-ray shows the features below. What is the diagnosis?

• (A) Osteogenic sarcoma
• (B) Ewing's sarcoma
• (C) Chronic osteomyelitis
• (D) Multiple myeloma

What is meant by a perilunate dislocation?

• (A) Lower radius, scaphoid, lunate and capitate all in the same plane
• (B) Lower radius, scaphoid and capitate in alignment, lunate alone out of plane
• (C) Lower radius, scaphoid and lunate in alignment, capitate alone out of plane
• (D) Both the lunate and capitate are out of plane

Identify the numbered bone in the X-ray below that most commonly fractures when a person falls on an outstretched hand.

• (A) 1
• (B) 2
• (C) 3
• (D) 4

The fallen fragment sign is characteristic of:

• (A) Simple bone cyst
• (B) Osteosarcoma
• (C) Adamantinoma
• (D) Aneurysmal bone cyst

You are an intern in casualty. Among the following fracture patients, who should be your first priority to call the orthopaedic resident about?

• (A) A patient whose finger is blackening
• (B) A patient who cannot extend his arm
• (C) A 10 cm abrasion
• (D) An intra-articular fracture of the elbow joint

In rheumatoid arthritis, which type of cell is prominently present in the hypertrophied synovial lining?

• (A) B cells
• (B) T cells
• (C) Macrophages
• (D) Dendritic cells

The costal cartilages of the 8th and 9th ribs articulate with each other to form which type of joint?

• (A) Costochondral joint
• (B) Interchondral joint
• (C) Synovial joint
• (D) Costovertebral joint

Tom Smith septic arthritis refers to:

• (A) Acute gonococcal arthritis
• (B) Smallpox arthritis
• (C) Septic arthritis of infancy
• (D) Chronic pyogenic arthritis

Which fontanelle is the last to close?

• (A) Anterolateral
• (B) Anterior
• (C) Lateral
• (D) Occipital

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is caused by deficiency of which enzyme?

• (A) Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT)
• (B) Xanthine oxidase
• (C) Adenine phosphoribosyltransferase (APRT)
• (D) AMP deaminase

Which vaccine is NOT included in the Mission Indradhanush?

• (A) Tuberculosis
• (B) Measles
• (C) Japanese encephalitis
• (D) Diphtheria

Identify the condition shown in the CT scan image below.

• (A) Dandy-Walker malformation
• (B) Cerebellar vermis hypoplasia
• (C) Mega cisterna magna
• (D) None

Which is the most common cause of neonatal blindness?

• (A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
• (B) Chlamydia trachomatis
• (C) Klebsiella
• (D) Enterobacter

Shoulder dystocia is managed by:

• (A) Sharp flexion of the hip joints towards the abdomen
• (B) Suprapubic pressure
• (C) 90 degree rotation of the posterior shoulder
• (D) Emergency caesarean section

Identify the uterine anomaly shown in the hysterosalpingogram (HSG) X-ray below.

• (A) Septate uterus
• (B) Uterus didelphys
• (C) Unicornuate uterus
• (D) Bicornuate uterus

The most common karyotype in true hermaphroditism is:

• (A) 45 X0 with streak gonads
• (B) 46 XX with ovotestis
• (C) 47 XY +9
• (D) 47 XX

Peripartum cardiomyopathy occurs within which time period relative to delivery?

• (A) Within 7 days
• (B) Within 6 weeks
• (C) Within 24 months
• (D) Within 5 months

Which nerve is most commonly compressed during pregnancy and the puerperium?

• (A) Radial nerve
• (B) Median nerve
• (C) Femoral nerve
• (D) Facial nerve

In pregnancy, which of the following is altered the most?

• (A) TSH
• (B) Free T3
• (C) Free T4
• (D) T3 binding globulin

Paget's disease of this type is associated with cancer of which organ?

• (A) Vulva
• (B) Vagina
• (C) Cervix
• (D) Uterus

What is meant by superfecundation?

• (A) Fertilization of two or more ova in one intercourse
• (B) Fertilization of two or more ova in different intercourses in the same menstrual cycle
• (C) Fertilization of an ovum and then its division
• (D) Fertilization of a second ovum, the first being already implanted

The fetal heart starts contracting at approximately what age of gestation?

• (A) 10-12 days
• (B) 10-12 weeks
• (C) 3-5 weeks
• (D) 3-5 months

Which is the anaesthesia of choice for caesarean section in severe pre-eclampsia?

• (A) Spinal
• (B) General anaesthesia
• (C) Epidural
• (D) Spinal plus epidural

Which of the following is NOT a high-risk pregnancy?

• (A) Previous history of manual removal of placenta
• (B) Anemia
• (C) Diabetes
• (D) Obesity

Which of the following drugs is NOT used in pre-eclampsia?

• (A) Methyldopa
• (B) Atenolol
• (C) Labetalol
• (D) Hydralazine

Dilatation and curettage (D&C) is contraindicated in which condition?

• (A) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
• (B) Endometriosis
• (C) Ectopic pregnancy
• (D) None

Which of the following statements regarding the placenta and umbilical cord is correct?

• (A) The placental artery provides nutrients through the umbilical cord to the baby
• (B) The cord has Wharton's jelly
• (C) The cord has 2 veins and 1 artery
• (D) Estrogen is secreted only by the placenta

Acute fatty liver of pregnancy is commonly seen at which stage?

• (A) 3rd trimester
• (B) 1st trimester
• (C) Immediate postpartum
• (D) Intrapartum

The establishment of fetoplacental circulation is seen at which day?

• (A) 11 to 13 days
• (B) 20 to 22 days
• (C) 7 days
• (D) 25 to 26 days

The fimbriectomy method of tubal sterilization is also known as which technique?

• (A) Uchida method
• (B) Irving method
• (C) Madlener technique
• (D) Kroener method

What is the recommended dietary allowance (RDA) of iodine during lactation, in micrograms?

• (A) 150
• (B) 220
• (C) 100
• (D) 250

Which one of the following is NOT a cause of secondary postpartum haemorrhage?

• (A) Placenta previa
• (B) Retained bits of placenta
• (C) Endometritis
• (D) Polyp

What is the best time to perform the quadruple (quad) test?

• (A) 8-12 weeks
• (B) 11-15 weeks
• (C) 15-20 weeks
• (D) 18-22 weeks

Which drug is used to promote fetal lung maturity?

• (A) Dexamethasone
• (B) Folic acid
• (C) Beclomethasone
• (D) None

In a woman complaining of abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB), the image shown was seen on endoscopic (hysteroscopic) examination of the uterus. What is the diagnosis?

• (A) Leiomyoma
• (B) Adenomyosis
• (C) Ovarian neoplasm
• (D) Carcinoma of uterus

In uterine prolapse managed with a ring pessary, how do you know the ring is correctly in place?

• (A) If it is not expelled after increased abdominal pressure
• (B) If bleeding does not occur
• (C) If the patient feels discomfort
• (D) None

Hormone therapy (HT) in menopausal women is indicated for which of the following?

• (A) Hot flashes
• (B) Carcinoma of the breast
• (C) Endometriosis
• (D) Uterine bleeding

Murphy's eye is seen in which device?

• (A) Macintosh laryngoscope
• (B) Endotracheal tube
• (C) LMA
• (D) Flexible laryngoscope

Modified Mallampati grading is used in the assessment of:

• (A) Difficult intubation
• (B) Airway obstruction
• (C) Death due to aspiration
• (D) Intubation

Which nerve is tested for adequacy of anaesthesia?

• (A) Median nerve
• (B) Ulnar nerve
• (C) Radial nerve
• (D) Mandibular nerve

The most effective breathing circuit during spontaneous ventilation is:

• (A) Mapleson A
• (B) Mapleson B
• (C) Mapleson C
• (D) Mapleson D

What is the mechanism of action of curonium drugs as muscle relaxants?

• (A) Persistently depolarizing at the neuromuscular junction
• (B) Act competitively on acetylcholine receptors, blocking them post-synaptically
• (C) Repetitive stimulation of acetylcholine receptors on the muscle end plate
• (D) Inhibiting the calcium channel on the presynaptic membrane

Identify the following lesion shown in the image.

• (A) Becker nevus
• (B) Hypopigmented macule
• (C) Spitz nevus
• (D) Epidermal nevus

Cutis marmorata occurs due to exposure to:

• (A) Cold temperature
• (B) Dust
• (C) Hot temperature
• (D) Humidity

A child has a rash as shown in the picture. The family history is positive for asthma. What is the most probable diagnosis?

• (A) Seborrheic dermatitis
• (B) Atopic dermatitis
• (C) Allergic contact dermatitis
• (D) Erysipelas

Which dye is used in the diagnosis of esophageal perforation?

• (A) Iohexol
• (B) Barium sulphate
• (C) Gadolinium
• (D) Iodine dye

The Bragg peak effect is most pronounced in:

• (A) X-ray
• (B) Proton
• (C) Neutron
• (D) Electron

Salt and pepper pot appearance of the skull is seen in:

• (A) Hyperparathyroidism
• (B) Multiple myeloma
• (C) Hyperthyroidism
• (D) Pseudo-hyperparathyroidism

All of the following imaging techniques are used in uterine anomalies EXCEPT:

• (A) HSG
• (B) MRI-guided HSG
• (C) CT-guided HSG
• (D) USG

This spot radiograph is from a double-contrast esophagram. The image represents:

• (A) Esophageal atresia
• (B) Esophageal stenosis
• (C) Feline esophagus
• (D) Tracheoesophageal fistula

This MRI of the skull represents:

• (A) Vein of Galen
• (B) Dandy-Walker syndrome
• (C) Pneumocephalus
• (D) Crouzon syndrome

What is the diagnosis based on the given image?

• (A) Uterus didelphys
• (B) Bicornuate uterus
• (C) Unicornuate uterus
• (D) Septate uterus

This X-ray of the skull shows which lesion?

• (A) Paget's disease
• (B) Multiple myeloma
• (C) Osteosarcoma
• (D) Osteomyelitis

This CT of the thorax represents:

• (A) Ascending aortic dissection
• (B) Descending aortic dissection
• (C) Aortic aneurysm
• (D) Cystic fibrosis

This CT scan of the abdomen shows a structure branching into the liver. Identify the structure.

• (A) SVC
• (B) IVC
• (C) Portal vein
• (D) Splenic vein

Identify artery 'X' in the given angiography anatomy image.

• (A) Superior mesenteric artery
• (B) Subclavian artery
• (C) Celiac artery
• (D) Brachiocephalic artery

The semen (squeeze) technique is used in the management of:

• (A) Erectile dysfunction
• (B) Premature ejaculation
• (C) Retrograde ejaculation
• (D) Antegrade ejaculation

A patient with a history of a road traffic accident 2 months ago presents with dreams of accidents. He is able to visualize the same scene whenever he visits the place and is afraid to go back to the accident site. Identify the type of disorder he might be suffering from.

• (A) Adjustment disorder
• (B) PTSD
• (C) Anxiety disorder
• (D) OCD

Freud's theory of dream includes all of the following except:

• (A) Displacement
• (B) Condensation
• (C) Symbolisation
• (D) Correlation

Expression and consequent release of a previously repressed emotion is called:

• (A) Regression
• (B) Dissociation
• (C) Abreaction
• (D) All of the above

All of the following are habit disorders except:

• (A) Nail biting
• (B) Thumb sucking
• (C) Temper tantrum
• (D) Tics

The new name for mental retardation, according to the American Association on Mental Retardation, is:

• (A) Feeble mindedness
• (B) Madness
• (C) Intellectual disability
• (D) Mentally unstable

Nowadays, Down syndrome is referred to as:

• (A) Submental disorder
• (B) Oligophrenia
• (C) Madness
• (D) Mentally unstable

A 55-year-old chronic alcoholic man presents with irrelevant talk, tremor, and sweating. He had his last drink 3 days ago. What is the probable diagnosis?

• (A) Delirium tremens
• (B) Korsakoff psychosis
• (C) Post-acute withdrawal syndrome
• (D) Discontinuation syndrome

Which of the following is the carrying agent (vector) for the disease showing the given characteristic appearance on microscopy?

• (A) Anopheles
• (B) Ixodes scapularis tick
• (C) Louse
• (D) Rat flea

Which of the following is the best stent material for a femoropopliteal bypass intervention?

• (A) Dacron
• (B) Reversed saphenous vein
• (C) PTFE
• (D) None

Trilene (trichloroethylene) is degraded by:

• (A) Enzymatic degradation
• (B) Non-enzymatic degradation
• (C) Chemical degradation
• (D) None

The earliest feature of third cranial nerve involvement in a patient with diabetes mellitus is:

• (A) Normal light reflex
• (B) Abnormal light reflex
• (C) Normal light and accommodation reflex
• (D) Abnormal light and accommodation reflex

During squint surgery, the anaesthesiologist notices on the monitor that the blood pressure (and heart rate) suddenly drops to a dangerously low level. What is the best immediate management?

• (A) Give atropine
• (B) Increase the level of anaesthesia
• (C) Ask the surgeon to stop the surgery
• (D) Give adrenaline

All of the following belong to the special visceral efferent column except:

• (A) Glossopharyngeal nerve
• (B) Nucleus ambiguus
• (C) Vagus nerve
• (D) Trigeminal nerve

Which of the following conditions is NOT caused by parvovirus B19?

• (A) Roseola infantum
• (B) Aplastic anemia in sickle cell disease
• (C) Fetal hydrops
• (D) Erythema infectiosum

Which of the following statements is NOT true about the iliolumbar ligament?

• (A) Upper fibres are attached to the iliac crest
• (B) Lower fibres are attached to the base of the sacrum
• (C) It helps maintain lumbosacral joint stability
• (D) Upper attachment is to the transverse process of T12

Where is the placement location for an auditory brainstem implant?

• (A) Scala tympani
• (B) Recess of the 4th ventricle
• (C) Internal auditory canal (IAC)
• (D) Back of the ear

Which condition is associated with congenital adrenal hypoplasia?

• (A) Male pseudohermaphroditism
• (B) Female pseudohermaphroditism
• (C) True pseudohermaphroditism
• (D) Sequential pseudohermaphroditism

Which of the following is true regarding ataxia telangiectasia?

• (A) Increase in AFP (alpha-fetoprotein)
• (B) Increases the risk of squamous cell carcinoma
• (C) Autosomal dominant
• (D) None of the above

A diabetic patient develops hypopyon 2 days after cataract surgery. What is the management?

• (A) Intravitreal antibiotics
• (B) Eye drops
• (C) Surgery
• (D) No treatment required

According to the ISNT rule, what is the thinnest part of the neuro-retinal rim?

• (A) Inferior
• (B) Superficial
• (C) Temporal
• (D) Medial

Leiden thrombophilia is caused by a mutational abnormality of which of the following factors?

• (A) Factor V
• (B) Factor VII
• (C) Factor IX
• (D) Factor X

Anteversion of the uterus is maintained by which ligament?

• (A) Cardinal ligament
• (B) Uterosacral ligament
• (C) Pubocervical ligament
• (D) Round ligament

Long standing pelvic inflammation may lead to which of the following conditions?

• (A) Pyometra
• (B) Uterine polyposis
• (C) Pseudopregnancy
• (D) Cystic endometrial hyperplasia

A red soft to firm swelling on the sternum, biopsied with the histology shown above. What is the diagnosis?

• (A) Hemangioma
• (B) Osteochondroma
• (C) Osteoid osteoma
• (D) Paget disease

What differentiates delirium from dementia?

• (A) Confusion
• (B) Difficulty in communicating
• (C) Hallucination
• (D) Sudden change

Genital warts are caused by which virus?

• (A) Herpes simplex
• (B) Human papilloma
• (C) Cytomegalovirus
• (D) Varicella zoster

Which drug regimen is given in a pregnant woman with HIV infection?

• (A) Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate with emtricitabine
• (B) Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate with lamivudine
• (C) Abacavir with lamivudine
• (D) All

Which of the following structures develops from the dorsal mesentery?

• (A) Greater omentum
• (B) Lesser omentum
• (C) Liver
• (D) Diaphragm

What is the structure seen in the given X-ray below?

• (A) Stent
• (B) Surgical clips
• (C) Foley catheter
• (D) Intravesical wire

What is the diagnosis based on the following X-ray?

• (A) Uterine Fibroid
• (B) Bladder Carcinoma
• (C) Bladder stone
• (D) Renal Tuberculosis

By which method is foreign DNA introduced into a cell by a virus or viral vector?

• (A) Transduction
• (B) Transcription
• (C) Lysogenic conversion
• (D) Transformation

Which one of the following shows allosteric inhibition?

• (A) Malonic acid & succinate
• (B) 2,3 BPG
• (C) Amino acid alanine & pyruvate kinase
• (D) Citrate

Which of the following is seen in seropositive rheumatoid arthritis?

• (A) Multiple joints affected
• (B) Symmetrical joint symptoms
• (C) Joint pain and swelling
• (D) All

Which of the following is not seen in the anterior mediastinum?

• (A) Thyroid tumour
• (B) Thymoma
• (C) Lymphoma
• (D) Neurogenic tumor

Struvite stone is caused by which metal?

• (A) Magnesium
• (B) Calcium
• (C) Sodium & potassium
• (D) Both (a) & (b)

Which of the following statements about Graves disease is false?

• (A) Results in hyperthyroidism
• (B) Autoimmune disorder
• (C) Common in male
• (D) Referred as toxic diffuse goitre

Aldosterone synthesis is stimulated by which of the following?

• (A) ACTH
• (B) Hyperkalemia
• (C) Hypernatremia
• (D) Exogenous steroids

Which of the following is false about Alzheimer's disease?

• (A) One in 10 people age 65 and older has Alzheimer's disease.
• (B) Alzheimer's disease is curable.
• (C) Causes dementia
• (D) All of the above

Which of the following is true about vitamin K?

• (A) Anticoagulant
• (B) Prolonged use of antimicrobials leads to deficiency
• (C) Dietary allowance is 15-20 mg
• (D) All of the above

Which drug needs continuous monitoring of prothrombin time?

• (A) Aspirin
• (B) Lepirudin
• (C) Digoxin
• (D) Coumadin

Which of the following are risk factors for cutaneous lymphoma?

• (A) Age
• (B) Gender
• (C) Weakened immune system
• (D) All

Which is not included in AIDS related complex?

• (A) Ectopic pregnancy
• (B) Recurrent genital candidiasis
• (C) Generalised lymphadenopathy
• (D) Chronic diarrhea

Which is the treatment of choice for irradiation in chordoma?

• (A) Protons
• (B) Electrons
• (C) Gamma radiation
• (D) 3D-CRT

A woman presents with massive pulmonary thromboembolism. The gross appearance of the liver at autopsy is shown. Which of the following statements best characterizes the patient's condition?

• (A) Metastasis from pulmonary embolism
• (B) Angiosarcoma
• (C) Colonic adenocarcinoma with metastasis
• (D) Locally invaded hepatocellular carcinoma

Which of the following statements is FALSE about the Measles-Rubella (MR) vaccination campaign launched by WHO?

• (A) Children from 9 months to less than 15 years are vaccinated
• (B) Targets congenital rubella syndrome (CRS), responsible for irreversible birth defects
• (C) India has not yet launched this campaign
• (D) Will replace the routine immunization measles vaccine

Which of the following is TRUE regarding Hemophilia A?

• (A) Serum levels of factor VIII are decreased
• (B) Deficiency of factor IX
• (C) PT is increased
• (D) PTT is decreased

Marked bleeding is seen in which of the following conditions?

• (A) von Willebrand disease
• (B) Haemophilia A
• (C) Haemophilia B
• (D) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)

Reed-Sternberg cells are found in:

• (A) Hodgkin's disease
• (B) Sickle cell anaemia
• (C) Thalassemia
• (D) Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)

A bedridden patient experiences acute chest pain that is worsened by breathing. Which imaging technique would be most helpful?

• (A) USG
• (B) X-ray chest
• (C) Ventilation perfusion scan
• (D) CT scan

Chordoma arises from:

• (A) Pharyngeal bursa
• (B) Notochord
• (C) Rathke's pouch
• (D) Luschka's bursa

What is the effect of progesterone-only pills?

• (A) Completely suppresses ovulation
• (B) Thins the lining of the uterus
• (C) Thickens the cervical mucus
• (D) All of the above

Which metal results in "saturnine gout" formation?

• (A) Cadmium
• (B) Lead
• (C) Beryllium
• (D) Mercury

Which drug decreases bone resorption in osteoporosis?

• (A) Teriparatide
• (B) Risedronate
• (C) Cortisone
• (D) Cimetidine

Phenylketonuria is due to deficiency of:

• (A) Phenylalanine
• (B) Phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH)
• (C) Phenylene
• (D) All of these

Regarding the management of intracranial haematoma, which statement is NOT correct?

• (A) MRI is needed to assess haemorrhage
• (B) GCS assessment helps in prognosis
• (C) Haematoma must always be operated
• (D) All of the above

In the Maastricht classification of donation after cardiac death, what does category (stage) 3 represent?

• (A) Awaiting cardiac arrest
• (B) Brought in dead
• (C) Unsuccessful resuscitation
• (D) Cardiac arrest after brain-stem death

What is a cause of cardiogenic shock other than myocardial infarction?

• (A) Acute mitral regurgitation
• (B) Ventricular septal rupture
• (C) Isolated right ventricular shock
• (D) All of the above

Nitric oxide acts by increasing:

• (A) BRCA 1
• (B) BRCA 2
• (C) Interleukin
• (D) cGMP

Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) positive macrophages are seen in:

• (A) Whipple's disease
• (B) Crohn's disease
• (C) AIDS
• (D) None of the above

A boy presents with multiple non-suppurative osteomyelitis along with sickle cell anaemia. What is the most likely causative organism?

• (A) Salmonella
• (B) S. aureus
• (C) H. influenzae
• (D) Enterobacter species

The term "pathology" refers to:

• (A) Work
• (B) Function
• (C) Details
• (D) Explains

A 1-year-old child weighing 6 kg has acute gastroenteritis with sunken eyes and a skin pinch that goes back very rapidly (severe dehydration). What is the appropriate IV fluid management?

• (A) RL infusion 120 ml in the first hour followed by 360 ml over the next 5 hours
• (B) RL infusion 180 ml in the first hour followed by 420 ml over the next 5 hours
• (C) RL infusion 180 ml in the first hour followed by 480 ml over the next 5 hours
• (D) RL infusion 240 ml in the first hour followed by 360 ml over the next 5 hours

What constitutes the Malpighian layer of the skin?

• (A) Stratum corneum and stratum lucidum
• (B) Stratum corneum and stratum spinosum
• (C) Stratum spinosum and stratum basale
• (D) Stratum basale and stratum granulosum

Regarding gout, which of the following is the underlying metabolic basis?

• (A) Uric acid nephrolithiasis
• (B) Deficiency of the enzyme involved in purine metabolism
• (C) Increase in serum urate concentration
• (D) Renal disease involving the interstitial tissues

Oxygen therapy may NOT be useful (and may be harmful) in:

• (A) Asthma
• (B) Pneumonia
• (C) Subglottic stenosis
• (D) Pulmonary fibrosis

A newborn baby with a heart rate of less than 60 beats per minute can be resuscitated by all of the following EXCEPT:

• (A) Chest compression
• (B) Oxygen therapy
• (C) Tactile stimulation
• (D) Slapping the back

Mobitz type 2 second-degree AV block is seen in all of the following EXCEPT:

• (A) Hypothyroidism
• (B) Coronary artery disease
• (C) Sarcoidosis
• (D) Cushing syndrome

On what basis can one diagnose acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) in a child?

• (A) Onset within 7 days of a known clinical insult
• (B) Respiratory failure not fully explained by cardiac failure or fluid overload
• (C) Presence of left ventricular dysfunction
• (D) All of the above

A 6-year-old boy developed life-threatening shock; his CT scan showed a large amount of ascites, bowel wall thickening, and poor or absent enhancement of a strangulated bowel segment. Surgical exploration revealed gangrenous bowel. Which of the following is TRUE about the bowel anastomosis?

• (A) It should be done in continuous layers as it takes less time
• (B) It should be done with catgut
• (C) It should be done by single-layer seromuscular Lembert sutures
• (D) It should be done by a single layer taking the submucosa

In ACLS, which drug can be given following ventricular fibrillation after cardiac arrest, other than epinephrine?

• (A) Amiodarone
• (B) Dopamine
• (C) Adenosine
• (D) Atropine