NEET PG 2018 Question Paper with Solutions PDF Download

Nerves of the branchial (pharyngeal) arch are derived from:

• (A) Mesoderm
• (B) Endoderm
• (C) Neural crest
• (D) Neuroectoderm

The hard palate contains:

• (A) Keratinised epithelium, submucosa, minor salivary gland
• (B) Keratinised epithelium, absent submucosal layer, minor salivary gland
• (C) Non-keratinised epithelium, submucosal layer, minor salivary gland
• (D) Non-keratinised epithelium, absent submucosa, minor salivary gland

What is the tensor of the vocal cords?

• (A) Cricothyroid
• (B) Lateral cricoarytenoid
• (C) Thyroarytenoid
• (D) Posterior cricoarytenoid

The ureteric bud develops from:

• (A) Mesonephros
• (B) Metanephros
• (C) Pronephros
• (D) Genital sinus

Regarding Weber's syndrome, which statement is INCORRECT?

• (A) Contralateral hemiplegia
• (B) Ipsilateral oculomotor nerve palsy
• (C) Contralateral parkinsonism
• (D) Anterior cerebral peduncle

Regarding Sibson's fascia, which statement is INCORRECT?

• (A) Attached to the inner border of the 2nd rib
• (B) Covers the apical part of the lung
• (C) Is a part of the scalenus anterior muscle
• (D) Vessels pass above the fascia

Thrombosis of the posterior inferior cerebellar artery causes:

• (A) Lateral medullary syndrome
• (B) Weber syndrome
• (C) Medial medullary syndrome
• (D) None

Broca's area is situated in:

• (A) Inferior frontal gyrus
• (B) Superior temporal gyrus
• (C) Angular gyrus
• (D) None of the above

Acute tonsillitis affects which nerve?

• (A) Glossopharyngeal nerve
• (B) Facial nerve
• (C) Trigeminal nerve
• (D) Vagus nerve

Which of the following structures does NOT pass through the aortic opening of the diaphragm?

• (A) Azygos vein
• (B) Aorta
• (C) Thoracic duct
• (D) Vagus

What value of BMI is considered "lethal" in men?

• (A) 12
• (B) 18
• (C) 13
• (D) 14

Which receptors are blocked in Myasthenia Gravis?

• (A) Acetylcholine (ACh) receptors
• (B) Ca++ receptors
• (C) Na2+ receptors
• (D) Opioid receptors

What is the characteristic pattern seen in Brown-Sequard syndrome?

• (A) Contralateral loss of joint sense and position
• (B) Contralateral loss of pain
• (C) Ipsilateral loss of complete sensory functions
• (D) Contralateral motor functions

When is the ventilation-perfusion ratio (Va/Q) infinity?

• (A) Partial pressure of O2 becomes zero
• (B) No exchange of O2 and CO2
• (C) Partial pressure of CO2 alone becomes zero
• (D) Partial pressure of both CO2 and O2 remain normal

The 'c' wave of the jugular venous pulse (JVP) is seen during which phase of the cardiac cycle?

• (A) Isovolumetric contraction
• (B) Slow filling at end of diastole
• (C) End of systole
• (D) Start of diastole

Alpha waves on the electroencephalogram (EEG) are seen during which state?

• (A) Sleep
• (B) REM movements
• (C) Relaxed state
• (D) Active state

In hypovolemic shock, which of the following renal vascular changes occurs?

• (A) Afferent arteriolar constriction
• (B) Efferent arteriolar constriction
• (C) Increased blood flow to kidney
• (D) Normal cardiac output

The components responsible for the counter-current mechanism in the kidney include all of the following EXCEPT:

• (A) Sodium outflow in thick ascending limb
• (B) Water outflow in thin descending limb
• (C) Sodium outflow in thin ascending limb
• (D) Flow of tubular fluid from PCT to DCT

Glucose is absorbed across the intestinal epithelium into the blood (at the basolateral membrane) by which mechanism?

• (A) Secondary active transport
• (B) Facilitated diffusion
• (C) Simple diffusion
• (D) Primary active transport

Insulin-like growth factor (IGF-1, somatomedin C) is secreted mainly by which organ?

• (A) Liver
• (B) Pituitary gland
• (C) Pancreas
• (D) Adrenal glands

What is prosopagnosia?

• (A) Impairment of consciousness
• (B) Being unaware of one's problems
• (C) Difficulty in identifying known faces
• (D) Failure to identify objects

Tyrosinosis is caused due to deficiency of which enzyme?

• (A) Fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase
• (B) p-hydroxy phenylpyruvate dehydrogenase
• (C) Tyrosine transaminase
• (D) Tyrosine ligase

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is caused by deficiency of which enzyme?

• (A) Orotate phosphoribosyltransferase
• (B) Uracil phosphoribosyltransferase
• (C) Quinolinate phosphoribosyltransferase
• (D) Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT)

Fish odor syndrome is caused by deficiency of which enzyme?

• (A) Fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase
• (B) Methane monooxygenase
• (C) Flavin monooxygenase 3 (FMO3)
• (D) D-amino acid oxidase

Classic galactosemia is due to deficiency of which enzyme?

• (A) Galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase
• (B) HGPRT
• (C) Galactokinase
• (D) Epimerase

Which of the following is the most abundant end product of fatty acid synthesis?

• (A) Oleic acid
• (B) Palmitic acid
• (C) Arachidonic acid
• (D) Glucose

About DNA polymerase I, which one of the following statements is correct?

• (A) Not required in bacteria
• (B) Repairs any damage within DNA
• (C) Involved in Okazaki fragment processing
• (D) Participates in DNA replication

What do chaperones assist in?

• (A) Protein cleavage
• (B) Protein folding
• (C) Protein degradation
• (D) Protein modification

Fishy odour occurs due to deficiency of which vitamin from the diet?

• (A) Biotin
• (B) Thiamine
• (C) Riboflavin
• (D) Vitamin A

VMA is excreted in the urine in which condition?

• (A) Alkaptonuria
• (B) Phenylketonuria
• (C) Pheochromocytoma
• (D) Diabetic ketoacidosis

In cystinuria, a reabsorption defect is present for all of the following amino acids, EXCEPT:

• (A) Lysine
• (B) Citrulline
• (C) Arginine
• (D) Ornithine

Fibrinopeptide A and fibrinopeptide B are acidic due to the presence of which amino acids in their structure?

• (A) Serine and threonine
• (B) Glutamate and aspartate
• (C) Histidine and lysine
• (D) Glutamine and valine

HIAA (5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid) is present in the urine in which condition?

• (A) Alkaptonuria
• (B) Albinism
• (C) Carcinoid
• (D) Phenylketonuria

Warthin-Finkeldey cells are seen in which infection?

• (A) Measles
• (B) Rubella
• (C) Rabies
• (D) Typhoid

CD59 is a marker of which disease?

• (A) PNH
• (B) PTEN
• (C) BRR
• (D) Cowden syndrome

Opsonin is

• (A) C3a
• (B) C3b
• (C) C5a
• (D) C6

Bernard-Soulier syndrome is due to deficiency of

• (A) Gp 2b/3a
• (B) Gp 1b
• (C) vWf
• (D) TNF

Cowden syndrome is associated with mutation in

• (A) P53
• (B) PTEN
• (C) Rb
• (D) Ras

The chromosome involved in myotonic dystrophy is

• (A) Chromosome 19
• (B) Chromosome 20
• (C) Chromosome 21
• (D) Chromosome 22

TRALI occurs within how many hours of transfusion?

• (A) 48 Hrs
• (B) 72 Hrs
• (C) 6 Hrs
• (D) 12 Hrs

The kidney responds to shock by

• (A) Decreases renal blood flow
• (B) Increases afferent arteriole resistance
• (C) GFR remains unaltered
• (D) Perfusion of kidney increases

Which of the following is an epithelial tumor of stomach?

• (A) Carcinoid
• (B) Lymphoma
• (C) GIST
• (D) Gastric adenocarcinoma

Identify an X linked disorder?

• (A) Color blindness
• (B) Thalassemia
• (C) Azoospermia
• (D) Retinitis Pigmentosa

H and L variety cells are seen in which type of Hodgkin lymphoma?

• (A) Mixed cellularity Hodgkin
• (B) Lymphocyte depleted
• (C) Lymphocyte predominance
• (D) Nodular sclerosis

Stellate granuloma is seen in which of the following?

• (A) Sarcoidosis
• (B) Cat scratch disease
• (C) Cryptococcosis
• (D) Histoplasmosis

Which best explains the LDH "Flipping effect"?

• (A) LDH 1 > LDH 2
• (B) LDH 2 > LDH 1
• (C) LDH 2 > LDH 3
• (D) LDH 3 > LDH 2

Nude mice are not resistant to xenografts due to the absence of which cells?

• (A) B cell
• (B) T cell
• (C) Both B and T cell
• (D) None

Anaplasia is defined as?

• (A) Changing one type of epithelium to another
• (B) Nuclear chromatin
• (C) Lack of differentiation
• (D) Morphological changes

Which level of prolactin definitely suggests a prolactinoma?

• (A) 300 ng/ml
• (B) 150 ng/ml
• (C) 200 ng/ml
• (D) 100 ng/ml

Laxative abuse causes which of the following renal stones?

• (A) Uric acid
• (B) Ammonium urate
• (C) Struvite
• (D) Ca oxalate

Which of the following can result in dactylitis?

• (A) Hemophilia
• (B) Von Willebrand disease 1
• (C) Measles
• (D) Sickle Cell Anemia

Which chromosome is responsible for the production of MIF (Mullerian Inhibiting Factor)?

• (A) Chromosome 16
• (B) Chromosome 22
• (C) X Chromosome
• (D) Y chromosome

Site of action of amphotericin B is:

• (A) Ribosomes
• (B) Cell wall
• (C) Plasma membrane
• (D) Protein

Which antiretroviral drug also has anti-hepatitis activity?

• (A) Abacavir
• (B) Tenofovir
• (C) Nevirapine
• (D) Emtricitabine

Drug of choice for resistant rheumatic chorea?

• (A) Valproate
• (B) Haloperidol
• (C) Diazepam
• (D) Probenecid

At pKa = pH -

• (A) Conc. of drug is 50% ionic and 50% non-ionic
• (B) Absorption of drug is 50% ionic and 50% ionic
• (C) Conc. of drug is 75% ionic and 25% non-ionic
• (D) Conc. of drug is 25% ionic and 75% non-ionic

The physiological dose of hydrocortisone (mg/kg/day) is:

• (A) 5 mg/kg/day
• (B) 10 mg/kg/day
• (C) 15 mg/kg/day
• (D) 20 mg/kg/day

What is the mechanism of action of colchicine in acute gout?

• (A) Inhibition of purine metabolism
• (B) Inhibition of uric acid conversion
• (C) Migration of leukocytes
• (D) Leukocyte and lymphocyte migration inhibition & microtubular inhibitor

Basiliximab is an:

• (A) IL-1 receptor antagonist
• (B) Anti-CD3 antibody
• (C) IL-2 receptor antagonist
• (D) TNF inhibitor

Pirenzepine is used in:

• (A) Gastric ulcer
• (B) Glaucoma
• (C) Hypertension
• (D) Congestive cardiac failure

Which of the following antipsychotics has increased prolactin secretion?

• (A) Olanzapine
• (B) Ziprasidone
• (C) Clozapine
• (D) Risperidone

Which of the following is a glucocorticoid synthesis inhibitor?

• (A) Mifepristone
• (B) Flutamide
• (C) Finasteride
• (D) Metyrapone

Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to prasugrel?

• (A) Not a prodrug
• (B) P2Y purinergic receptor blocker
• (C) Has a strong antiplatelet activity
• (D) Causes intracranial haemorrhage in TIA patients

Q-T elongation is seen in which drug?

• (A) Quinidine
• (B) Amiodarone
• (C) Magnesium Sulfate
• (D) Lignocaine

Sacubitril is,

• (A) ACE inhibitor
• (B) Neutral endopeptidase inhibitor
• (C) Calcium channel inhibitor
• (D) Beta adrenergic blocker

Niacin therapy is contraindicated in diabetes because -

• (A) Increases the blood sugar levels
• (B) Causes scleroderma
• (C) Difficult to give injection
• (D) Increases the metabolism of oral hypoglycemic drugs

Endothelin acts through which receptors?

• (A) cAMP
• (B) cGMP
• (C) Na+ receptors
• (D) Calcium receptos

Which is the centrally acting alpha 2 agonist muscle relaxant -

• (A) Diazepam
• (B) Bromocriptine
• (C) Tizanidine
• (D) Methocarbamol

Apixaban is -

• (A) Antithrombin inhibitor
• (B) Direct Xa inhibitor
• (C) Platelet activator
• (D) Clotting Factor XII

Anaerobes are resistant intrinsically against -

• (A) Beta lactam antibiotics
• (B) Aminoglycosides
• (C) Azithromycin
• (D) Metronidazole

Which of the following is NOT a bacteriostatic antibiotic?

• (A) Clindamycin
• (B) Vancomycin
• (C) Tetracycline
• (D) Cephalosporins

Which of the following causes melanosis coli?

• (A) Senna
• (B) Sorbitol
• (C) Magnesium Sulphate
• (D) Bisacodyl

Which among the following will be the choice of antibiotic for a bedridden patient with catheter-related UTI and pneumonia?

• (A) Amoxicillin
• (B) Beta lactam antibiotic with beta lactamase inhibitor
• (C) 3rd generation cephalosporins
• (D) 2nd generation cephalosporins

Mycoplasma is resistant to which of the following?

• (A) Ceftriaxone
• (B) Cephalosporins
• (C) Aminoglycosides
• (D) Fluoroquinolones

Tadalafil should NOT be given together with which of the following?

• (A) Vasodilator
• (B) Antibiotics
• (C) Vasoconstrictors
• (D) Valproate

Estimate the volume of Ringer lactate required in the first 8 hours for a 50 kg male with 40% second-degree burns.

• (A) 8 litres
• (B) 4 litres
• (C) 2 litres
• (D) 6 litres

A posthumous child is defined as:

• (A) A child delivered after the death of the biological mother
• (B) A child delivered after the death of the biological father
• (C) A child born after the death of both parents
• (D) A child who has been abandoned by the parents

M'naghten rule comes under which section of IPC?

• (A) CrPC 84
• (B) CPC 48
• (C) IPC 84
• (D) IPC 48

Bluish discoloration of gastric mucosa is seen in which poisoning?

• (A) Mercury
• (B) Cadmium
• (C) Amytal sodium
• (D) Arsenic

Muscle pain and nephropathy are caused by which metal poisoning?

• (A) Arsenic
• (B) Cadmium
• (C) Mercury
• (D) Lead

Which is the first organ to putrefy?

• (A) Brain
• (B) Heart
• (C) Prostate
• (D) Kidney

Locard is famous for:

• (A) Theory of exchange
• (B) Fingerprint study
• (C) Formula for estimation of stature
• (D) System of personal identification using body measurements

When does the basiocciput fuse with the basisphenoid?

• (A) 18 to 22 years
• (B) 22 to 25 years
• (C) 14 to 16 years
• (D) 12 to 14 years

What is the smell of a mummified body?

• (A) Odourless
• (B) Putrid
• (C) Pungent
• (D) Offensive

A patient presented with proximal tubule proteinuria. Which metal is most likely to be associated with it?

• (A) Cadmium
• (B) Mercury
• (C) Gold
• (D) Lead

Which of the following constitutional articles is NOT related to children?

• (A) Article 23
• (B) Article 21-A
• (C) Article 42
• (D) Article 24

Which of the following statements regarding the Factory Act is correct?

• (A) A child aged less than 14 years carrying out serious work earns more money
• (B) A child less than 14 years is not permitted to work under the Factory Act
• (C) More than 72 hours of work per week is allowed
• (D) More than 82 hours a week is allowed

Burkholderia cepacia is resistant to which of the following drugs?

• (A) Ceftazidime
• (B) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
• (C) Temocillin
• (D) Cefotetan

Shingles is caused by which of the following?

• (A) Varicella-zoster virus
• (B) Herpes simplex virus
• (C) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
• (D) None

The urea breath test is used for diagnosis of infection by which organism?

• (A) Helicobacter pylori
• (B) Campylobacter jejuni
• (C) Escherichia coli
• (D) Lactobacillus

Hyperacute graft rejection occurs after how much time following transplantation?

• (A) 24 hours
• (B) 2 weeks
• (C) Within minutes
• (D) Years

Australian antigen for hepatitis B is?

• (A) HBsAg
• (B) HBeAg
• (C) HBcAg
• (D) HBV DNA

Which fungus is most commonly associated with orbital cellulitis in patients with diabetic ketoacidosis?

• (A) Candida
• (B) Mucor
• (C) Aspergillus
• (D) Rhizopus

Sabin Feldman dye test is used for diagnosis of which of the following conditions?

• (A) Botulism
• (B) Toxoplasmosis
• (C) Sarcoidosis
• (D) Yellow fever

Acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis is caused by which enterovirus type?

• (A) 69
• (B) 68
• (C) 70
• (D) 71

Echinococcus granulosus is commonly seen in which of the given animals?

• (A) Dog
• (B) Cat
• (C) Fox
• (D) Pig

An anaerobe causing multiple abscesses with discharging sinuses, demonstrating sulphur granules in pus is?

• (A) Actinomyces
• (B) Nocardia
• (C) Salmonella
• (D) Tularemia

Whole blood is used as a sample for which test?

• (A) Bacteria
• (B) IGRA
• (C) GeneXpert
• (D) Virus

Which organism causes acute bacterial prostatitis?

• (A) Enterococcus
• (B) Streptococcus viridans
• (C) Peptostreptococcus
• (D) E. coli

Which of the following organisms releases histamine and causes scombroid fish poisoning?

• (A) Salmonella
• (B) Staphylococcus
• (C) P. aeruginosa
• (D) Weissella

Who is the father of microbiology?

• (A) A. V. Leeuwenhoek
• (B) Robert Brown
• (C) J. C. Bose
• (D) Pasteur

Cutaneous larva migrans is caused by which organism?

• (A) Strongyloides
• (B) Toxocara canis
• (C) Ancylostoma braziliense
• (D) Necator americanus

After kidney transplantation, infection with which organism is most likely to occur?

• (A) CMV
• (B) Klebsiella
• (C) Streptococcus
• (D) Staphylococcus

The incidence of a disease is 4 per 1000 of population with a duration of 2 years. Calculate the prevalence.

• (A) 8/1000
• (B) 4/1000
• (C) 2/1000
• (D) 6/1000

Disposal of cytotoxic and expired drugs is done by which method?

• (A) Dumping
• (B) Autoclave
• (C) Landfill
• (D) Burning

For the Net Reproduction Rate (NRR) to be equal to 1, the couple protection rate should be at least?

• (A) 50%
• (B) 60%
• (C) 55%
• (D) 75%

The new RNTCP online software introduced to monitor the TB control programme is?

• (A) NIKSHAY
• (B) NICHAY
• (C) E-DOTS
• (D) NIRBHAI

The unit of study in an ecological study is?

• (A) Population
• (B) Patient
• (C) Community
• (D) Case

In a screening test for diabetes mellitus, out of a population of 1000, 90 were positive. The gold standard test was then done, in which 100 were positive. Calculate the sensitivity of the screening test.

• (A) 90/100
• (B) 100/110
• (C) 80/100
• (D) 100/100

What is the drug of choice for mass chemoprophylaxis of meningococcal meningitis?

• (A) Rifampicin
• (B) Chloramphenicol
• (C) Tetracycline
• (D) Penicillin

Which among the following is the active form of chlorine responsible for disinfection during chlorination?

• (A) Hypochlorite ion
• (B) Hydrogen chloride
• (C) Hypochlorous acid
• (D) Chloride ion

Kala-azar is found in all of the following endemic areas in India except?

• (A) West Bengal
• (B) Uttar Pradesh
• (C) Bihar
• (D) Assam

The ratio of the risk of disease among those exposed to a factor to the risk among those not exposed is defined as:

• (A) Relative risk
• (B) Odds ratio
• (C) Attributable risk
• (D) None of the above

The holder (low-temperature) method of pasteurization of milk is done at:

• (A) 73 degrees C for 20 min
• (B) 63 degrees C for 30 min
• (C) 72 degrees C for 30 seconds
• (D) 63 degrees C for 30 seconds

When two live vaccines are not given at the same visit, the ideal minimum time gap between them is:

• (A) 2 weeks
• (B) 4 weeks
• (C) 8 weeks
• (D) 12 weeks

The number of susceptible persons who develop the disease within the range of the incubation period after contact with a primary case is the:

• (A) Secondary attack rate
• (B) Case fatality rate
• (C) Primary attack rate
• (D) Tertiary attack rate

Out of 100 women offered oral contraceptive pills, 10 women became pregnant when followed for 24 months. What is the Pearl Index?

• (A) 10
• (B) 5
• (C) 4
• (D) 2

Which of the following does NOT cause hardness of water?

• (A) Calcium carbonate
• (B) Calcium sulphate
• (C) Calcium bicarbonate
• (D) Magnesium bicarbonate

Which of the following is NOT an example of direct transmission in communicable diseases?

• (A) Transplacental (vertical)
• (B) Soil
• (C) Respiratory
• (D) STD

Water's view is used to obtain diagnostic information of:

• (A) Maxillary sinus
• (B) Ethmoidal sinuses
• (C) Frontal sinus
• (D) Sphenoid sinus

Tracheostomy indication is:

• (A) Vocal cord replacement
• (B) Pharynx replacement
• (C) Tracheomalacia
• (D) Foreign body obstructing airway

Caldwell's view is used for:

• (A) Maxillary sinus
• (B) Frontal sinus
• (C) Ethmoidal sinus
• (D) All of the above

Astigmatism in an emmetropic eye of an elderly person contributes to (the threshold above which laser/bioptics correction is needed):

• (A) +1D
• (B) +2D
• (C) +3D
• (D) +4D

100 day glaucoma is seen in which of the following conditions:

• (A) Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO)
• (B) Neovascular glaucoma
• (C) Central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO)
• (D) Steroid induced glaucoma

Roth spots are seen in:

• (A) Uveal melanoma
• (B) Acute leukaemia
• (C) Both a & b
• (D) None of the above

Yoke muscle of the right lateral rectus is:

• (A) Left medial rectus
• (B) Left superior rectus
• (C) Left lateral rectus
• (D) Left inferior oblique

Severe (hyperacute) conjunctivitis is caused by which of the following organisms?

• (A) Neisseria
• (B) Staphylococcus
• (C) Streptococcus
• (D) Haemophilus

Which of the following spectacle prescriptions is an example of Simple Myopic Astigmatism?

• (A) Rx (+) sphere
• (B) Rx will be plano (-)
• (C) Rx will be (-) sphere
• (D) (-)(+) (+)(-) on both 90 and 180 degree axis

A blow out fracture of the orbit most commonly involves the:

• (A) Floor
• (B) Medial wall
• (C) Lateral wall
• (D) Roof

Which of the following prostaglandins is the principal final mediator of fever (pyrogenesis) in the hypothalamus?

• (A) PG E2
• (B) PG D2
• (C) PGF2 alpha
• (D) PG I2

In Bartter syndrome, the genetic defect is located in the:

• (A) Defect in PCT
• (B) Defect in DCT
• (C) Defect in thick ascending limb of loop of Henle
• (D) None

Which of the following is NOT a feature of allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA)?

• (A) High IgE level
• (B) Recurrent pneumonia
• (C) Occurrence in patients with old cavitary lesions
• (D) Pleural effusion

Pseudo P pulmonale on the ECG is associated with which electrolyte abnormality?

• (A) Hypokalemia
• (B) Hyponatremia
• (C) Hypocalcemia
• (D) Hypercalcemia

Automatic Implantable Cardioverter Defibrillator (AICD) implantation is done for which of the following conditions?

• (A) Brugada syndrome
• (B) Ventricular fibrillation
• (C) Acute coronary syndrome with low ejection fraction
• (D) All of the above

What is the line of treatment for intractable Sydenham chorea?

• (A) Haloperidol
• (B) Valproate
• (C) Warfarin
• (D) Risperidone

All of the following are criteria for Neurofibromatosis type 1 EXCEPT:

• (A) Brain tumor
• (B) Acoustic neuromas
• (C) Pseudoarthrosis
• (D) Cafe-au-lait spots

What is the most common site of a chronic gastric ulcer?

• (A) Pyloric antrum
• (B) Upper part of lesser curvature
• (C) Lower part of lesser curvature
• (D) Segment of large intestine

The approximate time interval between HIV infection and the manifestation of AIDS is?

• (A) 7.5 years
• (B) 10 years
• (C) 12 years
• (D) 11 years

Heller's myotomy is done for which condition?

• (A) Zenker's diverticulum
• (B) Achalasia cardia
• (C) Bunions
• (D) Knee arthroscopy

A patient shows a myocardial stunning pattern that does not match the territory of the ECG changes. What is the diagnosis?

• (A) Takotsubo cardiomyopathy
• (B) Restrictive cardiomyopathy
• (C) Brugada cardiomyopathy
• (D) Pericardial disease

Alternative drug for cardiac arrest in place of epinephrine is?

• (A) Amiodarone infusion
• (B) Atropine
• (C) High dose vasopressin
• (D) Adenosine

A patient presents with cutaneous vasculitis, glomerulonephritis and peripheral neuropathy. Which investigation should be performed next to help diagnose the condition?

• (A) ANCA
• (B) RA factor
• (C) HBsAg
• (D) MIF

Cryoglobulinemia is most commonly associated with which of the following?

• (A) Hepatitis C
• (B) Ovarian cancer
• (C) Diabetes
• (D) Leukemia

Which of the following causes hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis with hypertension?

• (A) Liddle syndrome
• (B) Bartter syndrome
• (C) Gitelman syndrome
• (D) Renal tubular acidosis

According to the GOLD criteria, very severe COPD is defined by which of the following?

• (A) FEV1/FVC <70 and FEV1 < 30
• (B) FEV1/FVC <70 and FEV1 < 70
• (C) FEV1/FVC <70 and FEV1 < 50
• (D) Both A and C

The Ankle-Brachial Pressure Index (ABPI) is artificially increased in which of the following?

• (A) Arteriosclerosis with calcified arteries
• (B) Ischemic ulcers
• (C) Intermittent claudication
• (D) DVT

Minimal dysfunction syndrome (minimal brain dysfunction) is seen in?

• (A) Dyslexia
• (B) ADHD
• (C) Mental subnormality
• (D) Down's syndrome

Van Nuys prognostic index is not based on:

• (A) Age
• (B) Microcalcification
• (C) Size
• (D) ER status

Common cause of chronic pancreatitis:

• (A) Chronic alcohol
• (B) Chronic pancreatic calculi
• (C) Pancreas divisum
• (D) Gall bladder stones

The following statement about Keloid is true:

• (A) It contains growth factor
• (B) Extended excision is the treatment of choice
• (C) It does not extend beyond the wound
• (D) None of the above

Which of the following layers are cut during fasciotomy?

• (A) Skin
• (B) Skin + subcutaneous fascia
• (C) Skin + subcutaneous tissue + superficial fascia
• (D) Skin + subcutaneous tissue + superficial fascia + deep fascia

Which statement is not true regarding Crohn's disease?

• (A) Rectum is not involved
• (B) Continuous lesion visualized in endoscopy
• (C) Non-caseating granulomas
• (D) Cobblestone appearance

Which is the best investigation for carcinoma head of pancreas?

• (A) Guided biopsy
• (B) ERCP
• (C) Transduodenal / transperitoneal sampling
• (D) EUS

An abdominal mass is best demonstrated in congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis by:

• (A) In palpation over the epigastrium
• (B) In left hypochondriac region
• (C) Right iliac fossa
• (D) During feeding

Calculate the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) of a 25-year-old head injury patient with the following parameters: confused, opening eyes in response to pain, and localizing pain.

• (A) 6
• (B) 11
• (C) 12
• (D) 7

The RET proto-oncogene is associated with the development of which of the following?

• (A) Medullary carcinoma thyroid
• (B) Astrocytoma
• (C) Paraganglioma
• (D) Hurthle cell tumor thyroid

What is the cutoff for surgery in an abdominal aortic aneurysm in asymptomatic patients?

• (A) 5.5 cm
• (B) 6.5 cm
• (C) 7.5 cm
• (D) 8.5 cm

Which of the following fontanelles is the last to close?

• (A) Anterolateral
• (B) Anterior
• (C) Lateral
• (D) Occipital

Which enzyme deficiency causes Lesch-Nyhan syndrome?

• (A) Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT)
• (B) Xanthine oxidase
• (C) Adenine phosphoribosyltransferase (APRT)
• (D) AMP deaminase

Which vaccine is NOT included in the Mission Indradhanush immunization programme?

• (A) Tuberculosis
• (B) Measles
• (C) Japanese Encephalitis
• (D) Diphtheria

Which among the following is the most common cause of neonatal blindness?

• (A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
• (B) Chlamydia trachomatis
• (C) Klebsiella
• (D) Enterobacter

Muscles affected in De Quervain tenosynovitis are -

• (A) Abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis
• (B) Adductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis
• (C) Abductor pollicis longus and flexor pollicis brevis
• (D) Adductor pollicis longus and flexor pollicis brevis

What is meant by perilunate dislocation?

• (A) Lower radius, scaphoid, lunate and capitate all in same plane
• (B) Lower radius, scaphoid and capitate in alignment, lunate alone out of plane
• (C) Lower radius, scaphoid and lunate in alignment, capitate alone is out of plane
• (D) Both lunate and capitate are out of plane

Fallen fragment sign is seen in -

• (A) Simple bone cyst
• (B) Osteosarcoma
• (C) Adamantinoma
• (D) Aneurysmal bone cyst

You are posted as an intern in casualty. Among the following patients with fracture, which will be your first priority to call the ortho PG and inform?

• (A) Patient's finger is blackening
• (B) Patient cannot extend his arm
• (C) A 10 cm abrasion
• (D) Intra-articular fracture of the elbow joint

In rheumatoid arthritis, which type of cells are prominently present in the hypertrophied synovial lining?

• (A) B cells
• (B) T cells
• (C) Macrophages
• (D) Dendritic cells

The 8th and 9th rib costal cartilages form which type of joint with each other?

• (A) Costochondral joint
• (B) Interchondral joint
• (C) Synovial joint
• (D) Costovertebral joint

Tom Smith septic arthritis is -

• (A) Acute gonococcal arthritis
• (B) Smallpox arthritis
• (C) Septic arthritis of infancy
• (D) Chronic pyogenic arthritis

Which of the following is correct regarding the placenta and umbilical cord?

• (A) Placental artery provides nutrients through the umbilical cord to the baby
• (B) Placenta has Wharton's jelly
• (C) Placenta has 2 veins and 1 artery
• (D) Estrogen is secreted by the placenta

Acute fatty liver of pregnancy is commonly seen at which stage of pregnancy?

• (A) 3rd trimester
• (B) 1st trimester
• (C) Immediate postpartum
• (D) Intrapartum

Establishment of the fetoplacental circulation is seen at which day after fertilization?

• (A) 11 to 13 days
• (B) 20 to 22 days
• (C) 7 days
• (D) 25 to 26 days

The fimbriectomy procedure of tubal sterilization is known as which method?

• (A) Uchida method
• (B) Irving method
• (C) Madlener technique
• (D) Kroener method

What is the recommended dietary allowance (RDA) of iodine during lactation, in micrograms per day?

• (A) 150
• (B) 220
• (C) 100
• (D) 250

Which one of the following is NOT a cause of secondary postpartum haemorrhage?

• (A) Placenta previa
• (B) Retained bits of placenta
• (C) Endometritis
• (D) Polyp

What is the best time during pregnancy to perform the quadruple (quad) test?

• (A) 8-12 weeks
• (B) 11-15 weeks
• (C) 15-20 weeks
• (D) 18-22 weeks

Drug that is used for fetal lung maturity is:

• (A) Dexamethasone
• (B) Folic acid
• (C) Beclomethasone
• (D) None

In uterine prolapse, how to know if the ring pessary is in place?

• (A) If not expelled after increased abdominal pressure
• (B) If bleeding does not occur
• (C) If patient feels discomfort
• (D) None

Hormone therapy (HT) is indicated in menopausal women for:

• (A) Hot flash
• (B) Ca breast
• (C) Endometriosis
• (D) Uterine bleeding

Dilatation and curettage (D&C) is contraindicated in:

• (A) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
• (B) Endometriosis
• (C) Ectopic pregnancy
• (D) None

Which of these steps is followed first for the management of shoulder dystocia after the McRoberts maneuver?

• (A) Sharp flexion of hip joints towards abdomen
• (B) Suprapubic pressure
• (C) 90 degree rotation of posterior shoulder
• (D) Emergency c-section

True hermaphroditism (ovotesticular DSD) most commonly has which karyotype?

• (A) 45 X0 with streak gonads
• (B) 46 XX with ovotestis
• (C) 47 XY +9
• (D) 47 XX

Peripartum cardiomyopathy occurs within what period of delivery?

• (A) Within 7 days
• (B) Within 6 weeks
• (C) Within 24 months
• (D) Within 5 months

Which nerve is most commonly compressed during pregnancy and the puerperium?

• (A) Radial nerve
• (B) Median nerve
• (C) Femoral nerve
• (D) Facial nerve

In pregnancy, which of the following levels is altered the most?

• (A) Total T3
• (B) Free T3
• (C) Free T4
• (D) TSH

Paget's disease is associated with which other cancer?

• (A) Vulva
• (B) Vagina
• (C) Cervix
• (D) Uterus

What is meant by Superfecundation?

• (A) Fertilization of two or more ova in one intercourse
• (B) Fertilization of two or more ova in different intercourses in same menstrual cycle
• (C) Fertilization of ovum and then its division
• (D) Fertilization of second ovum, first being implanted

The fetal heart starts contracting at:

• (A) 10-12 days
• (B) 10-12 weeks
• (C) 3-5 weeks
• (D) 3-5 months

Anaesthesia of choice for cesarean section in severe pre-eclampsia:

• (A) Spinal
• (B) GA (general anaesthesia)
• (C) Epidural
• (D) Spinal + epidural

Which of the following is NOT a high-risk pregnancy?

• (A) Previous history of manual removal of placenta
• (B) Anemia
• (C) Diabetes
• (D) Obesity

Which of the following is not used in pre-eclampsia?

• (A) Methyldopa
• (B) Atenolol
• (C) Labetalol
• (D) Hydralazine

Cutis marmorata occurs due to exposure to:

• (A) Cold temperature
• (B) Dust
• (C) Hot temperature
• (D) Humidity

Murphy's eye is seen in:

• (A) Macintosh laryngoscope
• (B) Endotracheal tube
• (C) LMA
• (D) Flexible laryngoscope

Modified Mallampati grading is used in assessment of:

• (A) Difficult intubation
• (B) Airway obstruction
• (C) Death due to aspiration
• (D) Intubation

Which nerve is tested for adequacy of anaesthesia?

• (A) Median Nerve
• (B) Ulnar Nerve
• (C) Radial nerve
• (D) Mandibular nerve

Most effective circuit in spontaneous anaesthesia is:

• (A) Mapleson A
• (B) Mapleson B
• (C) Mapleson C
• (D) Mapleson D

What is the mechanism of action of curonium drugs as muscle relaxants?

• (A) Persistently depolarizing at neuromuscular junction
• (B) Act competitively on ACh receptors blocking post-synaptically
• (C) Repetitive stimulation of ACh receptors on muscle end plate
• (D) Inhibiting the calcium channel on presynaptic membrane

Dye used in the diagnosis of esophageal perforation:

• (A) Iohexol
• (B) Barium sulphate
• (C) Gadolinium
• (D) Iodine dye

The Bragg peak effect is most pronounced in:

• (A) X-ray
• (B) Proton
• (C) Neutron
• (D) Electron

The salt and pepper pot appearance of the skull is seen in:

• (A) Hyperparathyroidism
• (B) Multiple myeloma
• (C) Hyperthyroidism
• (D) Pseudohyperparathyroidism

Imaging techniques used to evaluate uterine anomalies include all of the following EXCEPT:

• (A) HSG
• (B) MRI guided HSG
• (C) CT guided HSG
• (D) USG

The semen squeeze technique is used in the treatment of:

• (A) Erectile dysfunction
• (B) Premature ejaculation
• (C) Retrograde ejaculation
• (D) Antegrade ejaculation

A patient with a history of a road traffic accident 2 months ago presents with complaints of dreams of accidents. He is able to visualize the same scene whenever he visits the place and is afraid to go back to the accident site. Identify the type of disorder he might be suffering from:

• (A) Adjustment disorder
• (B) PTSD
• (C) Anxiety disorder
• (D) OCD

Freud's theory of dreams includes all of the following EXCEPT:

• (A) Displacement
• (B) Condensation
• (C) Symbolisation
• (D) Correlation

Expression and consequent release of a previously repressed emotion is called as

• (A) Regression
• (B) Dissociation
• (C) Abreaction
• (D) All of the above

All are habit disorders except

• (A) Nail biting
• (B) Thumb sucking
• (C) Temper tantrum
• (D) Tics

New name of mental retardation according to the American Association on Mental Retardation

• (A) Feeble mindedness
• (B) Madness
• (C) Intellectual disability
• (D) Mentally unstable

Now-a-days Down syndrome is referred to as

• (A) Submental disorder
• (B) Oligophrenia
• (C) Madness
• (D) Mentally unstable

A 55-year-old chronic alcoholic male presents with irrelevant talks, tremor and sweating. He had his last drink 3 days back. What is the probable diagnosis?

• (A) Delirium tremens
• (B) Korsakoff psychosis
• (C) Post-acute withdrawal syndrome
• (D) Discontinuation syndrome

Identify the type of muscle shown in the image below.

• (A) Cruciate
• (B) Multipennate
• (C) Parallel
• (D) Unipennate

Function of the muscle shown in the picture

• (A) Flexion
• (B) Extension
• (C) Adduction
• (D) Abduction

The chemical structure shown in the image is also known as?

• (A) 5-hydroxytryptamine (5-HT)
• (B) N-methyl phenylamine
• (C) 3-Methoxytyramine
• (D) Phenethylamine

Choose the best method of diagnosis for the clinical sign represented in the image.

• (A) Serum copper
• (B) Serum ceruloplasmin
• (C) Karyotyping
• (D) PCR

Identify the condition represented in the image.

• (A) Seminoma
• (B) Germ cell differentiate tumor
• (C) Non-seminoma
• (D) Teratoma

Identify the condition shown in the image.

• (A) Lobar Pneumonia
• (B) Bronchopneumonia
• (C) Acute glomerulonephritis
• (D) Congested kidney

Identify the condition represented in the below image.

• (A) Miliary tuberculosis
• (B) Bronchiectasis
• (C) COPD
• (D) Lung cancer

Identify the organism related to the blood smear image.

• (A) P. falciparum
• (B) S. Typhi
• (C) Treponema pallidum
• (D) Toxoplasma gondii

Which thickened nerve is shown here?

• (A) Facial Nerve
• (B) Greater auricular nerve
• (C) Vagus Nerve
• (D) Glossopharyngeal Nerve

Which type of retractor is shown in the image?

• (A) Morris retractor
• (B) Czerny retractor
• (C) Richardson retractor
• (D) Lower lid retractor

Which of the following statements is true about the suture material shown in the image?

• (A) Made of rabbit submucosa
• (B) Made of cat submucosa
• (C) Not degraded
• (D) Degraded by enzymatic degradation

A patient has a history of road traffic accident 2 years back, and at the same site has developed pain and swelling. X-ray shows the following features. What will be the diagnosis?

• (A) Osteogenic sarcoma
• (B) Ewing's sarcoma
• (C) Chronic osteomyelitis
• (D) Multiple myeloma

Identify the bone numbered in the X-ray below that most commonly fractures when a person falls on outstretched hands.

• (A) 1
• (B) 2
• (C) 3
• (D) 4

Identify the condition shown in the CT scan image below.

• (A) Dandy Walker malformation
• (B) Cerebellar vermis hypoplasia
• (C) Mega cisterna magna
• (D) None

Identify the X-ray HSG (hysterosalpingogram) shown below.

• (A) Septate uterus
• (B) Uterus didelphys
• (C) Unicornuate uterus
• (D) Bicornuate uterus

In a woman complaining of abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB), the following image was seen on endoscopic (hysteroscopic) examination of the uterus. What will be the diagnosis?

• (A) Leiomyoma
• (B) Adenomyosis
• (C) Ovarian neoplasm
• (D) Carcinoma of uterus

Identify the following lesion.

• (A) Becker nevus
• (B) Hypopigmented macule
• (C) Spitz nevus
• (D) Epidermal nevus

A child has a rash as shown in the picture. His family history is positive for asthma. What could be the most probable diagnosis?

• (A) Seborrheic dermatitis
• (B) Atopic dermatitis
• (C) Allergic contact dermatitis
• (D) Erysipelas

Spot radiograph from a double contrast esophagram. Image represents:

• (A) Esophageal atresia
• (B) Esophageal stenosis
• (C) Feline oesophagus
• (D) Tracheoesophageal fistula

MRI of skull represents:

• (A) Vein of Galen
• (B) Dandy Walker syndrome
• (C) Pneumocephalus
• (D) Crouzon syndrome

What is a diagnosis based on a given image:

• (A) Uterus didelphys
• (B) Bicornuate uterus
• (C) Unicornuate uterus
• (D) Septate uterus

X-ray of skull showing which lesions in the brain:

• (A) Paget's disease
• (B) Multiple myeloma
• (C) Osteosarcoma
• (D) Osteomyelitis

CT of thorax represents:

• (A) Ascending aortic dissection
• (B) Descending aortic dissection
• (C) Aortic aneurysm
• (D) Cystic fibrosis

CT scan of the abdomen shows a vascular structure that branches as it enters the liver. Identify the structure.

• (A) SVC
• (B) IVC
• (C) Portal vein
• (D) Splenic vein

Identify artery 'X' in the given angiography anatomy image.

• (A) Superior mesenteric artery
• (B) Subclavian artery
• (C) Celiac artery
• (D) Brachiocephalic artery

A woman shows symptoms of massive pulmonary thromboembolism. The gross appearance of the liver at autopsy is shown. Which of the following statements best characterizes the patient's condition?

• (A) Metastasis from PE
• (B) Angiosarcoma
• (C) Colonic adenocarcinoma with metastasis
• (D) Locally invaded hepatocellular carcinoma

What is the structure seen in the given X-ray below?

• (A) Stent
• (B) Surgical clips
• (C) Foley catheter
• (D) Intravesical wire

What is the diagnosis based on the following X-ray?

• (A) Uterine Fibroid
• (B) Bladder Carcinoma
• (C) Bladder stone
• (D) Renal Tuberculosis

A red soft-to-firm swelling on the sternum, that on biopsy shows the following histology. What is the diagnosis?

• (A) Hemangioma
• (B) Osteochondroma
• (C) Osteoid osteoma
• (D) Paget disease

Which of the following is the carrying agent (vector) for the disease with the given characteristic on polarized microscopy?

• (A) Anopheles
• (B) Ixodes scapularis ticks
• (C) Louse
• (D) Rat flea

Chordoma arises from:

• (A) Pharyngeal bursa
• (B) Notochord
• (C) Rathke's pouch
• (D) Luschka's bursa

What is the effect of progesterone only pills?

• (A) Completely suppresses ovulation
• (B) Thin lining of uterus
• (C) Thick cervical mucus
• (D) All of the above

Which metal results in "saturnine gout" formation?

• (A) Cadmium
• (B) Lead
• (C) Beryllium
• (D) Mercury

Which drug decreases the bone resorption in osteoporosis?

• (A) Teriparatide
• (B) Risedronate
• (C) Cortisone
• (D) Cimetidine

Phenylketonuria is due to deficiency of:

• (A) Phenylalanine
• (B) Phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH)
• (C) Phenylene
• (D) All of these

Which is NOT correct?

• (A) MRI needed to assess haemorrhage
• (B) GCS assessment helps in prognosis
• (C) Haematoma must be operated
• (D) All of the above

Maastricht classification of donation after cardiac death. What category is stage 3?

• (A) Awaiting cardiac arrest
• (B) Brought in dead
• (C) Unsuccessful resuscitation
• (D) Cardiac arrest after brain-stem death

What is the cause of cardiogenic (myocardial) shock other than acute myocardial infarction?

• (A) Acute mitral regurgitation
• (B) Ventricular septal rupture
• (C) Isolated right ventricular shock
• (D) All of the above

Nitric oxide acts by increasing which of the following?

• (A) BRCA 1
• (B) BRCA 2
• (C) Interleukin
• (D) cGMP

Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) positive macrophages are seen in which condition?

• (A) Whipple's disease
• (B) Crohn's disease
• (C) AIDS
• (D) None of the above

A boy presented with multiple non-suppurative osteomyelitis along with sickle cell anaemia. What will be the causative organism?

• (A) Salmonella
• (B) S. aureus
• (C) H. influenzae
• (D) Enterobacter species

The term pathology refers to:

• (A) Work
• (B) Function
• (C) Details
• (D) Explains

A 1-year-old child weighing 6 kg is suffering from acute gastroenteritis with signs of sunken eyes and a skin pinch going back to normal very rapidly. What will be your management?

• (A) RL infusion 120 ml in the first hour followed by 360 ml in the next 5 hours
• (B) RL infusion 180 ml in the first hour followed by 420 ml in the next 5 hours
• (C) RL infusion 180 ml in the first hour followed by 480 ml in the next 5 hours
• (D) RL infusion 240 ml in the first hour followed by 360 ml in the next 5 hours

What constitutes the Malpighian layer of the epidermis?

• (A) Stratum corneum and stratum lucidum
• (B) Stratum corneum and stratum spinosum
• (C) Stratum spinosum and stratum basale
• (D) Stratum basale and stratum granulosum

Which of the following is the underlying metabolic basis of acute gout?

• (A) Uric acid nephrolithiasis
• (B) Deficiency of enzyme xanthine oxidase
• (C) Increase in serum urate concentration
• (D) Renal disease involving interstitial tissues

Oxygen therapy may NOT be useful (or may be harmful) in which of the following conditions?

• (A) Asthma
• (B) Pneumonia
• (C) Subglottic stenosis
• (D) Pulmonary fibrosis

A newborn baby with a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute can be resuscitated by all of the following EXCEPT:

• (A) Chest compression
• (B) Oxygen therapy
• (C) Tactile stimulation
• (D) Slapping the back

Mobitz type 2 second degree AV block is seen in all of the following EXCEPT:

• (A) Hypothyroidism
• (B) Coronary artery disease
• (C) Sarcoidosis
• (D) Cushing syndrome

By which of the following criteria can one diagnose acute respiratory distress (pediatric ARDS) in a child?

• (A) Within 7 days of known clinical insult
• (B) Respiratory failure not fully explained by cardiac failure
• (C) Left ventricular dysfunction excluded as sole cause
• (D) All of the above

A 6-year-old boy presented with life-threatening shock. CT showed large ascites, bowel wall thickening and poor or absent enhancement of a strangulated bowel segment, with gangrenous bowel found on surgical exploration. After resection, which statement about the intestinal anastomosis is TRUE?

• (A) Should be done by continuous layers as it takes less time
• (B) Should be done with catgut
• (C) Should be done by single layer seromuscular Lembert sutures
• (D) Should be done by single layer taking submucosa

In ACLS, which drug can be given for ventricular fibrillation after cardiac arrest, other than epinephrine?

• (A) Amiodarone
• (B) Dopamine
• (C) Adenosine
• (D) Atropine

Which of the following statement is false about the MR vaccination campaign launched by WHO?

• (A) Children from 9 months to less than 15 years are vaccinated
• (B) Targets congenital rubella syndrome (CRS), which is responsible for irreversible birth defects
• (C) India has not yet launched this campaign
• (D) It will replace routine immunization for measles vaccine

Which of the following is true regarding Hemophilia A?

• (A) Serum levels of factor VIII are decreased
• (B) Deficiency of factor IX
• (C) PT is increased
• (D) FIT decreased

Marked bleeding is seen in which of the following conditions?

• (A) VMA disease
• (B) Haemophilia A
• (C) Haemophilia B
• (D) All

Reed-Sternberg cells are found in which condition?

• (A) Hodgkin's disease
• (B) Sickle cell anaemia
• (C) Thalassemia
• (D) CML

By which method is foreign DNA introduced into a cell by a virus or viral vector?

• (A) Transduction
• (B) Transcription
• (C) Lysogenic conversion
• (D) Transformation

Which one of the following shows allosteric inhibition?

• (A) Malonic acid & succinate
• (B) 2,3 BPG
• (C) Amino acid alanine & pyruvate kinase
• (D) Citrate

Which of the following is seen in seropositive rheumatoid arthritis?

• (A) Multiple joints affected
• (B) Symmetrical joint symptoms
• (C) Joint pain and swelling
• (D) All

Which of the following is not seen in the anterior mediastinum?

• (A) Thyroid tumour
• (B) Thymoma
• (C) Lymphoma
• (D) Neurogenic tumor

Struvite stone is caused by which metal?

• (A) Magnesium
• (B) Calcium
• (C) Sodium & potassium
• (D) Both (a) & (b)

Which of the following statements about Graves disease is false?

• (A) Results in hyperthyroidism
• (B) Autoimmune disorder
• (C) Common in male
• (D) Referred as toxic diffuse goitre

Aldosterone synthesis is stimulated by which of the following?

• (A) ACTH
• (B) Hyperkalemia
• (C) Hypernatremia
• (D) Exogenous steroids

Which of the following is false about Alzheimer's disease?

• (A) One in 10 people age 65 and older has Alzheimer's disease
• (B) Alzheimer's disease is curable
• (C) Causes dementia
• (D) All of the above

Which of the following is true about vitamin K?

• (A) Anticoagulant
• (B) Prolonged use of antimicrobial leads to deficiency
• (C) Dietary allowance is 15-20 mg
• (D) All of the above

Which drug needs continuous monitoring of prothrombin time?

• (A) Aspirin
• (B) Lepirudin
• (C) Digoxin
• (D) Coumadin

Which of the following are risk factors for cutaneous lymphoma?

• (A) Age
• (B) Gender
• (C) Weakened immune system
• (D) All

Which of the following is NOT included in AIDS-related complex (ARC)?

• (A) Ectopic pregnancy
• (B) Recurrent genital candidiasis
• (C) Generalised lymphadenopathy
• (D) Chronic diarrhea

Which is the treatment of choice for irradiation in chordoma?

• (A) Protons
• (B) Electrons
• (C) Gamma radiation
• (D) 3D-CRT

What differentiates delirium from dementia?

• (A) Confusion
• (B) Difficulty in communicating
• (C) Hallucination
• (D) Sudden change

Genital warts are caused by which virus?

• (A) Herpes simplex
• (B) Human papilloma
• (C) Cytomegalovirus
• (D) Varicella zoster

Which drug regimen is given in a pregnant woman with HIV infection?

• (A) Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate with emtricitabine
• (B) Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate with lamivudine
• (C) Abacavir with lamivudine
• (D) All

Which of the following structures develops from the dorsal mesentery?

• (A) Greater omentum
• (B) Lesser omentum
• (C) Liver
• (D) Diaphragm

Which of the following is the best graft/stent for a femoropopliteal bypass?

• (A) Dacron
• (B) Reversed saphenous vein
• (C) PTFE
• (D) None

Trilene (trichloroethylene) is degraded by:

• (A) Enzymatic degradation
• (B) Non-enzymatic degradation
• (C) Chemical degradation
• (D) None

The earliest feature of third cranial nerve involvement in a diabetes mellitus patient is:

• (A) Normal light reflex
• (B) Abnormal light reflex
• (C) Normal light and accommodation reflex
• (D) Abnormal light and accommodation reflex

During squint surgery the anaesthesiologist sees the blood pressure suddenly drop to 40. What is the best immediate management?

• (A) Give atropine
• (B) Increase level of anaesthesia
• (C) Ask the surgeon to stop the surgery
• (D) Give adrenaline

All of the following belong to the special visceral efferent column EXCEPT:

• (A) Glossopharyngeal nerve
• (B) Nucleus ambiguus
• (C) Vagus nerve
• (D) Trigeminal nerve

Which of the following conditions is NOT caused by Parvovirus B19?

• (A) Roseola infantum
• (B) Aplastic anaemia in sickle cell disease
• (C) Fetal hydrops
• (D) Erythema infectiosum

Which of the following statements is NOT true about the iliolumbar ligament?

• (A) Upper fibres attached to iliac crest
• (B) Lower fibres attached to base of sacrum
• (C) Helps in maintaining lumbosacral joint stability
• (D) Upper attachment to transverse process of T12

Where will be the placement location for an Auditory Brainstem Implant (ABI)?

• (A) Scala tympani
• (B) Recess of 4th ventricle
• (C) Internal auditory canal (IAC)
• (D) Back of ear

Which condition is associated with congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

• (A) Male pseudohermaphroditism
• (B) Female pseudohermaphroditism
• (C) True pseudohermaphroditism
• (D) Sequential pseudohermaphroditism

Which of the following is true regarding ataxia telangiectasia?

• (A) Increase in AFP (alpha-fetoprotein)
• (B) Increases the risk of squamous cell carcinoma
• (C) Autosomal dominant
• (D) None of the above

A diabetic patient develops hypopyon 2 days after cataract surgery. What is the management?

• (A) Intravitreal antibiotics
• (B) Eye drops
• (C) Surgery
• (D) No treatment required

What is the thinnest part of the neuro-retinal rim according to the ISNT rule?

• (A) Inferior
• (B) Superficial
• (C) Temporal
• (D) Medial

Leiden thrombophilia is caused by a mutational deficiency involving which of the following factors?

• (A) Factor V
• (B) Factor VII
• (C) Factor IX
• (D) Factor X

Anteversion of the uterus is maintained by which ligament?

• (A) Cardinal ligament
• (B) Uterosacral ligament
• (C) Pubocervical ligament
• (D) Round ligament

Long-standing pelvic inflammation may lead to which of the following conditions?

• (A) Pyometra
• (B) Uterine polyposis
• (C) Pseudopregnancy
• (D) Cystic endometrial hyperplasia