NEET PG 2014 Question Paper with Solutions PDF: Free Download

Anterior interosseous nerve is a branch of?

• (A) Radial nerve
• (B) Median nerve
• (C) Ulnar nerve
• (D) Axillary nerve

Posterior wall of axilla is formed by?

• (A) Pectoralis major
• (B) Pectoralis minor
• (C) Subscapularis
• (D) Intercostal muscles

True about popliteus are all except?

• (A) Flexor of knee
• (B) Intracapsular origin
• (C) Supplied by tibial nerve
• (D) Causes locking of knee

Lower limit of the sacroiliac joint lies up to which level in females?

• (A) 1 to 1 1/2
• (B) 2 to 2 1/2
• (C) 3 to 3 1/2
• (D) 4 to 4 1/2

Which structure lies posterior to the transverse pericardial sinus?

• (A) Aorta
• (B) Pulmonary trunk
• (C) SVC
• (D) Left atrium

Superior rectal vein drains into?

• (A) Inferior mesenteric vein
• (B) External iliac vein
• (C) Internal iliac vein
• (D) Internal pudendal vein

Ligament extending from cervix and vagina to the lateral pelvic wall is?

• (A) Broad ligament
• (B) Pubocervical ligament
• (C) Round ligament
• (D) Transverse cervical ligament

Killian's dehiscence is seen in?

• (A) Oropharynx
• (B) Nasopharynx
• (C) Cricopharynx
• (D) Vocal cords

Which valve is present at the opening of the nasolacrimal duct?

• (A) Hasner's valve
• (B) Heister valve
• (C) Spiral valve
• (D) None

Scutum is present in which part of the middle ear?

• (A) Roof
• (B) Lateral wall
• (C) Medial wall
• (D) Floor

Optic cup is derived from?

• (A) Neural ectoderm
• (B) Surface ectoderm
• (C) Mesoderm
• (D) Neural crest

The 2nd part of the duodenum is derived from?

• (A) Foregut
• (B) Midgut
• (C) Both foregut and midgut
• (D) Hindgut

Innervated structures of joints are all except?

• (A) Synovium
• (B) Capsule
• (C) Articular cartilage
• (D) Ligaments

Mismatch of ventilation/perfusion ratio is seen in?

• (A) Apex
• (B) Base
• (C) Both
• (D) None

Capacitance vessels have in their wall:

• (A) More elastic tissue and less muscle
• (B) Less elastic tissue and more muscle
• (C) More elastic tissue and more muscle
• (D) Less elastic tissue and less muscle

Umami taste is evoked by:

• (A) Glucose
• (B) Glutamic acid
• (C) Quinine
• (D) Sodium chloride

Which of the following increases appetite?

• (A) CART
• (B) α-MSH
• (C) AGRP
• (D) Insulin

S1 and S2 nerve roots are checked by which reflex?

• (A) Knee jerk
• (B) Patellar reflex
• (C) Calcaneal reflex
• (D) None

Implantation occurs on which menstrual cycle day?

• (A) 5-7 days
• (B) 20-22 days
• (C) 14-18 days
• (D) 26-28 days

FSH and LH both are inhibited by:

• (A) Cortisol
• (B) Aldosterone
• (C) Estrogen
• (D) Progesterone

Maximum amount of K+ ion is seen in which GI secretion?

• (A) Saliva
• (B) Colonic
• (C) Gastric
• (D) Jejunal

Maximum water reabsorption in the gastrointestinal tract occurs in?

• (A) Stomach
• (B) Jejunum
• (C) Ileum
• (D) Colon

Most diffusible ion across the cell membrane is?

• (A) Na+
• (B) K+
• (C) Cl-
• (D) None

Which of the following is present in the cornea?

• (A) Hyaluronic acid
• (B) Chondroitin sulfate
• (C) Dermatan sulfate
• (D) Heparan sulfate

The extrinsic system of coagulation is activated by?

• (A) Factor XI
• (B) Factor X
• (C) Factor XII
• (D) Factor III

NADH-CoQ reductase is inhibited by?

• (A) Rotenone
• (B) Carbon monoxide
• (C) Antimycin
• (D) Atractyloside

UDP-glucose is NOT used in?

• (A) Uronic acid pathway
• (B) Glycogen synthesis
• (C) Galactose metabolism
• (D) HMP shunt

Which of the following steps is specific for gluconeogenesis?

• (A) Pyruvate to acetyl CoA
• (B) Oxaloacetate to citrate
• (C) Oxaloacetate to phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP)
• (D) Malate to oxaloacetate

Which of the following is increased in lipoprotein lipase deficiency?

• (A) VLDL
• (B) LDL
• (C) HDL
• (D) Chylomicrons

Tay-Sachs disease is due to deficiency of which enzyme?

• (A) Hexosaminidase A
• (B) Hexosaminidase B
• (C) Sphingomyelinase
• (D) Alpha-galactosidase

The rate limiting step in the urea cycle is catalyzed by which enzyme?

• (A) Arginase
• (B) Argininosuccinase
• (C) Carbamoyl-phosphate synthase
• (D) Ornithine transcarbamylase

Which of the following is a neutral amino acid?

• (A) Aspartate
• (B) Arginine
• (C) Glycine
• (D) Histidine

Which is the first purine nucleotide synthesized in purine biosynthesis?

• (A) AMP
• (B) GMP
• (C) IMP
• (D) UMP

Which of the following is a nucleoside?

• (A) Adenine
• (B) Uridine
• (C) Thymine
• (D) Guanine

Which is the strongest interaction among the following?

• (A) Covalent
• (B) Hydrogen
• (C) Electrostatic
• (D) Van der Waals

Hypertrophy is -

• (A) Increase in cell number
• (B) Increase in cell size
• (C) Decrease in cell number
• (D) Decrease in cell size

Matrix metalloproteinases are -

• (A) Cathepsin
• (B) Zn metalloproteinases
• (C) Cu metalloproteinases
• (D) Cd metalloproteinases

Which of the following interleukin is secreted by T helper 2 cells?

• (A) IL 11
• (B) IL 7
• (C) IL 1
• (D) IL 13

Leukocyte migration through endothelium is induced by -

• (A) Selectin
• (B) N CAM
• (C) C CAM
• (D) PECAM

Pendred syndrome is due to mutation of -

• (A) Bartillin
• (B) Pendrin
• (C) Fibrillin
• (D) Reticulin

Which is not a feature of Down syndrome?

• (A) Clinodactyly
• (B) Pigmented birth marks
• (C) Hypotonia
• (D) Respiratory tract infections

Keratinization and pearl formation is characteristic of -

• (A) Squamous cell carcinoma
• (B) Basal cell carcinoma
• (C) Melanoma
• (D) Lymphoma

The phenomenon by which cancer cells are able to sustain and proliferate under adverse conditions of hypoxia is?

• (A) Warburg
• (B) Wanton
• (C) Wormian
• (D) Wolf

Which of the following is not a large vessel vasculitis?

• (A) Takayasu arteritis
• (B) Cogan syndrome
• (C) Churg-Strauss syndrome
• (D) Giant cell arteritis

True about gastric lymphoma:

• (A) Non-Hodgkin lymphoma is the commonest variety
• (B) Diagnosis is made by biopsy
• (C) H. pylori has a direct relationship
• (D) All of the above

Maintenance dose is calculated by using the value of?

• (A) Clearance
• (B) Volume of distribution
• (C) Oral bioavailability
• (D) Daily dosage

A young child weighing 20 kg was given a drug in the dose 100 mg/kg body weight. The plasma concentration of the drug is 2 mg/dl and the clearance is 200 ml/hr. What is the time required to reach steady state plasma concentration?

• (A) 10 hrs
• (B) 20 hrs
• (C) 30 hrs
• (D) 40 hrs

Most common cytochrome P-450 enzyme for drug metabolism detoxification reactions is?

• (A) CYP 3A4
• (B) CYP 1A2
• (C) CYP 2A6
• (D) CYP 2B6

A patient on verapamil should not be given a beta blocker as?

• (A) Conduction block
• (B) Bronchospasm
• (C) Neurogenic shock
• (D) Anaphylaxis

Which of the following is an inverse agonist at the benzodiazepine receptor?

• (A) Phenobarbitone
• (B) Flumazenil
• (C) Beta carboline
• (D) Gabapentin

A patient on carbidopa plus levodopa for 10 years now has a wearing-off effect. Which drug should be added to restore the action?

• (A) Tolcapone
• (B) Amantadine
• (C) Rasagiline
• (D) Benzhexol

Let A = ACE inhibitor, B = beta blocker, C = calcium channel blocker, and D = diuretic. For an elderly patient with hypertension, the antihypertensive drug of choice is?

• (A) A or D
• (B) A or B
• (C) A or C
• (D) C or D

Colistin is obtained from which of the following?

• (A) Bacteria
• (B) Fungi
• (C) Actinomycetes
• (D) Herbs

Which cephalosporin characteristically causes thrombocytopenia?

• (A) Cefixime
• (B) Ceftazidime
• (C) Cefoperazone
• (D) Cefdinir

Irreversible hearing loss is caused by which of the following?

• (A) Gentamicin
• (B) Clarithromycin
• (C) Both of the above
• (D) None of the above

Regarding nicotinic acid (niacin), which of the following is correct?

• (A) Increases HDL
• (B) Increases triglyceride synthesis
• (C) Used for type II hyperlipoproteinemia
• (D) Decreases hydrolysis of VLDL

Prophylactic dose of vitamin K given to newborn infants at delivery is?

• (A) 1 mg
• (B) 5 mg
• (C) 10 mg
• (D) 15 mg

DMPA (Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate) is given once in?

• (A) 3 months
• (B) 6 months
• (C) 9 months
• (D) 45 days

Drug which decreases efficacy of testosterone?

• (A) Isoniazid
• (B) Ketoconazole
• (C) Rifampicin
• (D) None

Mechanism of action of actinomycin D is?

• (A) Inhibits DNA dependent RNA synthesis
• (B) Activates DNA dependent RNA synthesis
• (C) Inhibits RNA dependent DNA synthesis
• (D) Activates RNA dependent DNA synthesis

Grievous hurt comes under which section of the Indian Penal Code?

• (A) 319
• (B) 320
• (C) 324
• (D) 326

Which of Gustafson's parameters is the most accurate?

• (A) Attrition
• (B) Periodontosis
• (C) Root resorption
• (D) Transparency of the tooth

Preauricular sulcus is a part of?

• (A) Humerus
• (B) Femur
• (C) Pelvis
• (D) Skull

Maximum soft tissue bruising in the neck is seen in -

• (A) Strangulation
• (B) Hanging
• (C) Burking
• (D) Smothering

Lucid interval may be seen in?

• (A) Intracerebral hemorrhage
• (B) Alcohol intake
• (C) Insanity
• (D) Subdural hemorrhage

Legal age by which a fetus is capable of independent existence is?

• (A) 240 days
• (B) 230 days
• (C) 220 days
• (D) 210 days

Postmortem blood is collected from which vessel?

• (A) Femoral artery
• (B) Femoral vein
• (C) Cephalic vein
• (D) Brachial artery

Chocolate brown postmortem staining is seen in?

• (A) KCl poisoning
• (B) Opium poisoning
• (C) H2S poisoning
• (D) Cyanide poisoning

For phage typing, how many phages of Staphylococcus aureus are used?

• (A) 12
• (B) 15
• (C) 20
• (D) 23

Infective endocarditis after tooth extraction is probably due to?

• (A) Streptococcus viridans
• (B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
• (C) Streptococcus pyogenes
• (D) Staphylococcus aureus

Which Vibrio species is the most halophilic (most salt tolerant)?

• (A) V. cholerae
• (B) V. vulnificus
• (C) V. alginolyticus
• (D) V. parahaemolyticus

Which of the following is a liquid medium used for the culture of tuberculosis bacilli?

• (A) LJ medium
• (B) Dorset medium
• (C) Loeffler's medium
• (D) MGIT

Indian tick typhus is caused by which organism?

• (A) R. typhi
• (B) R. conorii
• (C) R. akari
• (D) C. burnetii

What is the natural reservoir of plague?

• (A) Domestic rat
• (B) Wild rat
• (C) Rat flea
• (D) Man

Molluscum contagiosum virus belongs to which group of viruses?

• (A) Poxviruses
• (B) Herpesviruses
• (C) Picornaviruses
• (D) Adenovirus

Exanthema subitum is caused by which virus?

• (A) HHV-6
• (B) HHV-8
• (C) Parvovirus
• (D) Coxsackievirus

Which serum marker appears after successful Hepatitis B vaccination?

• (A) Anti-HBsAg
• (B) Anti-HBeAg
• (C) Anti-HBcAg
• (D) HBsAg

The chance that a health worker gets HIV from an accidental needle prick is:

• (A) 1%
• (B) 10%
• (C) 95%
• (D) 100%

The band form of Plasmodium malariae is which stage?

• (A) Schizont stage
• (B) Trophozoite stage
• (C) Merozoite stage
• (D) Gametocyte stage

Which of the following fungi is difficult to isolate in culture?

• (A) Candida
• (B) Dermatophytes
• (C) Cryptococcus
• (D) Malassezia furfur

Heat labile liquids are sterilized by which method?

• (A) Hot air oven
• (B) Autoclaving
• (C) Membrane filter
• (D) Moist heat

Blood agar is an example of which type of medium?

• (A) Enriched media
• (B) Indicator media
• (C) Enrichment media
• (D) Selective media

Which of the following is true about endotoxin?

• (A) Protein
• (B) Highly antigenic
• (C) No enzymatic activity
• (D) Produced by gram positive bacteria

Which of the following staphylococcal infections is not toxin mediated?

• (A) Toxic shock syndrome
• (B) Scalded skin syndrome
• (C) Food poisoning
• (D) Septic shock

Primordial prevention is done to prevent the development of?

• (A) Disease
• (B) Risk factors
• (C) Impairment
• (D) Disability

Which of the following is NOT true about vaccines?

• (A) Two live vaccines can be given at the same time at different sites
• (B) Two live vaccines at the same site should be given at least 3 weeks apart
• (C) In a vaccine vial monitor, if the colour of the inner square is the same as the outer background, the vaccine is good for use
• (D) Live and killed vaccines can be given together

Missing cases are detected by?

• (A) Active surveillance
• (B) Passive surveillance
• (C) Sentinel surveillance
• (D) Prevalence rate

Matching is not required in which epidemiological study?

• (A) Case control study
• (B) Cohort study
• (C) Case report
• (D) Randomized control trial

Which of the following is a positive mortality indicator?

• (A) IMR (Infant mortality rate)
• (B) Child mortality rate
• (C) MMR (Maternal mortality rate)
• (D) Life expectancy

The STOP TB Strategy was launched in?

• (A) 2002
• (B) 2006
• (C) 2010
• (D) 2013

The incubation period of measles is?

• (A) 18 to 72 hours
• (B) 10 to 14 days
• (C) 3 to 4 days
• (D) 20 to 25 days

In the National AIDS Control Programme, for the syndromic management of STDs, the blue colored kit is used for the treatment of which condition?

• (A) Urethral discharge
• (B) Scrotal swelling
• (C) Genital ulcers
• (D) Ano-rectal discharge

What is the recommended dose of equine rabies immunoglobulin for post-exposure prophylaxis?

• (A) 10 IU/kg
• (B) 20 IU/kg
• (C) 30 IU/kg
• (D) 40 IU/kg

Endemic typhus is transmitted by which vector?

• (A) Louse
• (B) Flea
• (C) Tick
• (D) Mite

Among the following states, the least neonatal mortality rate is seen in which state?

• (A) Delhi
• (B) Tamil Nadu
• (C) Karnataka
• (D) Maharashtra

What is the recommended level of fluoride in drinking water?

• (A) 0.2 to 0.5 mg/L
• (B) 0.5 to 0.8 mg/L
• (C) 0.8 to 1.2 mg/L
• (D) 1.2 to 2.0 mg/L

Which of the following is true about the Indian reference female?

• (A) Height 161 cm
• (B) Weight 60 kg
• (C) BMI 22
• (D) None of the above

Which disease is associated with an excessive maize diet?

• (A) Wernicke's encephalopathy
• (B) Pellagra
• (C) Beri-Beri
• (D) Scurvy

Which virus is NOT sensitive to disinfection of water by chlorination?

• (A) Rotavirus
• (B) Norwalk virus
• (C) Poliovirus
• (D) None

The most common cause of blindness in India is?

• (A) Cataract
• (B) Trachoma
• (C) Refractive errors
• (D) Vitamin A deficiency

The "3 by 5" initiative in the AIDS control programme refers to?

• (A) Providing 3 million people treatment by the end of 2005
• (B) Providing treatment to 3 out of 5 patients
• (C) Reducing the incidence of AIDS by 3% by 2005
• (D) All of the above

The most common cause of trigeminal neuralgia is?

• (A) Infection
• (B) Trauma
• (C) Vascular compression
• (D) Iatrogenic

Potato tumor (rhinophyma) is due to?

• (A) Hypotrophy of sebaceous glands of the nose
• (B) Hypertrophy of sebaceous glands of the nose
• (C) Hypotrophy of sweat glands of the nose
• (D) Hypertrophy of sweat glands of the nose

Acute suppurative otitis media in children is most commonly caused by?

• (A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
• (B) Staphylococcus epidermidis
• (C) Staphylococcus aureus
• (D) Pseudomonas

The length of the external auditory meatus is?

• (A) 12 mm
• (B) 16 mm
• (C) 20 mm
• (D) 24 mm

When a patient fails to understand normal speech but can understand shouted or amplified speech, the hearing loss is termed?

• (A) Mild hearing loss
• (B) Moderate hearing loss
• (C) Severe hearing loss
• (D) Profound hearing loss

The most common bacterial cause of rhinitis is?

• (A) Haemophilus influenzae
• (B) Streptococcus haemolyticus
• (C) Pasteurella multocida
• (D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Turban epiglottis is seen in?

• (A) TB
• (B) Leprosy
• (C) Laryngeal papilloma
• (D) Epiglottitis

Amsler's grid is used to evaluate?

• (A) Central 10 degrees of vision
• (B) Central 20 degrees of vision
• (C) Peripheral vision
• (D) Lens opacity

Munson's sign is a feature of?

• (A) Keratoconus
• (B) Corneal ulcer
• (C) Pterygium
• (D) Posterior staphyloma

The gland of Moll opens in or on the?

• (A) Skin
• (B) Hair follicle
• (C) Tarsal plate
• (D) Ducts of Meibomian glands

Diabetic ischemic maculopathy is characterized by all of the following except?

• (A) It occurs due to microvascular blockage
• (B) Mild visual loss
• (C) Areas of non-perfusion are evident on fluorescein angiography
• (D) Microaneurysms and hemorrhages are seen

Bilateral inferior dislocation of the lens (ectopia lentis) is characteristically seen in which condition?

• (A) Marfan's syndrome
• (B) Homocystinuria
• (C) Weil-Marchesani syndrome
• (D) Trauma

All of the following are clinical features of Leber's hereditary optic neuropathy EXCEPT:

• (A) Seen in the 2nd or 3rd decade of life
• (B) It is an example of gradual painless visual loss
• (C) Males can transmit the disease
• (D) No leak of dye is observed on fluorescein angiography

Retinoblastoma occurs bilaterally in what percentage of cases?

• (A) 10 - 15%
• (B) 15 - 20%
• (C) 20 - 25%
• (D) 25 - 30%

Bett's classification deals with which of the following?

• (A) Ocular trauma
• (B) Ocular foreign body
• (C) Squint
• (D) Maculopathy

Which metabolic derangement is normally seen in pregnancy?

• (A) Metabolic acidosis
• (B) Metabolic alkalosis
• (C) Respiratory acidosis
• (D) Respiratory alkalosis

High steppage gait is seen in which of the following?

• (A) Foot drop
• (B) Frontal lobe stroke
• (C) Tabes dorsalis
• (D) Leprosy

Aphasia which affects the arcuate fibres (arcuate fasciculus) is called:

• (A) Global aphasia
• (B) Anomic aphasia
• (C) Conduction aphasia
• (D) Broca's aphasia

Interstitial nephritis is common with

• (A) NSAID
• (B) Black water fever
• (C) Rhabdomyolysis
• (D) Tumor lysis syndrome

A patient is diagnosed with HIV and tuberculosis together. How should anti-tubercular treatment (ATT) and combination antiretroviral therapy (cART) be started?

• (A) Start ATT first
• (B) Start cART first
• (C) Start both simultaneously
• (D) Start cART only

All of the following are true about Rheumatoid arthritis, except

• (A) PIP and DIP joints involved equally
• (B) Pathology limited to articular cartilage
• (C) Women are affected 3 times more commonly than men
• (D) 20% of patients have extra articular manifestations

The finger-in-glove sign is seen in

• (A) Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis
• (B) Pneumocystis carinii
• (C) Tuberculosis
• (D) Bronchocele

The vitamin B12 level in chronic myeloid leukemia is

• (A) Elevated
• (B) Decreased
• (C) Normal
• (D) Markedly decreased

Brock's syndrome is

• (A) Bronchiectasis sicca
• (B) Middle lobe bronchiectasis
• (C) Kartagener's syndrome
• (D) Sarcoidosis

Which of the following is given to treat thrombocytopenia secondary to anti-cancer therapy and is known to stimulate progenitor megakaryocytes?

• (A) Filgrastim
• (B) Oprelvekin
• (C) Erythropoietin
• (D) Anagrelide

Which of the following is NOT true regarding obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)?

• (A) Nocturnal asphyxia
• (B) Alcoholism is a cofactor
• (C) Prone to hypertension
• (D) Overnight oximetry is diagnostic and can replace polysomnography

The most common acute complication of dialysis is:

• (A) Hypotension
• (B) Bleeding
• (C) Dementia
• (D) Muscle cramps

All of the following statements about the genetics of G6PD deficiency are true, EXCEPT:

• (A) X-linked inheritance
• (B) More severe in men
• (C) Contradicts the Lyon hypothesis
• (D) May affect heterozygous females

Asbestosis causes all of the following EXCEPT:

• (A) Shaggy heart borders
• (B) Honeycombing
• (C) Hilar lymphadenopathy
• (D) Basal peribronchial fibrosis

Gout can be precipitated by all of the following EXCEPT:

• (A) Thiazides
• (B) Furosemide
• (C) Cyclosporine
• (D) High dose salicylates

Rupture of a berry aneurysm most commonly results in:

• (A) Subarachnoid hemorrhage
• (B) Subdural hemorrhage
• (C) Extradural hemorrhage
• (D) Intra-parenchymal hemorrhage

Round pneumonia is seen with:

• (A) Streptococcal pneumonia
• (B) Kerosene oil aspiration
• (C) Lung cancer
• (D) Mendelson syndrome

HIV RNA detection by PCR (viral load assay) can reliably detect as low as how many copies of viral RNA per millilitre of blood?

• (A) 30 copies viral RNA/ml of blood
• (B) 40 copies viral RNA/ml of blood
• (C) 50 copies of viral RNA/ml of blood
• (D) 60 copies of viral RNA/ml of blood

What is the most common cause of complete heart block (acquired complete AV block) in infants and children?

• (A) SLE
• (B) Surgery for congenital heart disease
• (C) Viral myocarditis
• (D) Rheumatic fever

A banana shaped left ventricle on imaging is characteristically seen in which condition?

• (A) HOCM (hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy)
• (B) DCM (dilated cardiomyopathy)
• (C) RCM (restrictive cardiomyopathy)
• (D) Takotsubo cardiomyopathy

Which of the following is NOT a high pitched heart sound?

• (A) Mid systolic click
• (B) Pericardial shudder
• (C) Opening snap
• (D) Tumor plop sound

A Mentzer index of more than 13 suggests a diagnosis of which condition?

• (A) Iron deficiency anemia
• (B) Thalassemia
• (C) Hereditary spherocytosis
• (D) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

Chronic non-spherocytic hemolytic anemia is seen in which WHO class of G6PD deficiency?

• (A) Class I
• (B) Class II
• (C) Class III
• (D) Class IV

All of the following are markers of acute kidney injury EXCEPT?

• (A) Clusterin
• (B) Osteopontin
• (C) Alanine aminopeptidase
• (D) Acid phosphatase

Sialolithiasis is most commonly seen in which gland?

• (A) Parotid
• (B) Sublingual
• (C) Submandibular
• (D) Minor salivary gland

ABPI (ankle brachial pressure index) of imminent necrosis is

• (A) < 0.3
• (B) 0.3
• (C) < 0.6
• (D) > 0.6

Indications of liver transplantation are all EXCEPT

• (A) Biliary atresia
• (B) Sclerosing cholangitis
• (C) Hepatitis A
• (D) Cirrhosis

Commonest type of anal canal carcinoma is?

• (A) Squamous cell carcinoma
• (B) Adenocarcinoma
• (C) Adenoacanthoma
• (D) Papillary type

True about blind loop syndrome, all EXCEPT

• (A) Syndrome of bacterial overgrowth
• (B) Steatorrhea, megaloblastic anemia and deficiency of fat soluble vitamins
• (C) Surgery is not indicated
• (D) 14C-xylose or 14C-cholylglycine breath tests are indirect tests for bacterial overgrowth

Prophylactic thyroidectomy is indicated in

• (A) Hashimoto thyroiditis
• (B) MEN type 2
• (C) Riedel thyroiditis
• (D) De-Quervain's thyroiditis

Choledochal cyst is dilatation of

• (A) Gall bladder
• (B) CBD
• (C) Hepatic duct
• (D) Bile duct

A gum tumor measures 5 cm in dimension with contralateral lymph node enlargement of 2 cm. There is no distant metastasis. What is the stage of the tumor?

• (A) T3N2M0
• (B) T2N2M0
• (C) T1N2M0
• (D) T3N3M0

What is the appropriate management of a carcinoma of the lateral border of the tongue after primary resection?

• (A) Chemotherapy
• (B) Radiotherapy
• (C) Observation
• (D) Neck dissection

Over the last decade, the morbidity of duodenal ulcer has been reduced mainly due to which of the following?

• (A) Life style modification
• (B) Eradication of H. pylori
• (C) Proton pump inhibitors
• (D) None

What is the most common conotruncal anomaly?

• (A) TGA
• (B) Tetralogy of Fallot
• (C) Truncus arteriosus
• (D) Double outlet right ventricle

Which of the following is NOT included as a major criterion in the modified Jones criteria?

• (A) Polyarthralgia
• (B) Carditis
• (C) Chorea
• (D) Erythema marginatum

The swallowing and breathing reflex is NOT seen in the fetus until which gestational age?

• (A) 14 weeks
• (B) 12 weeks
• (C) 16 weeks
• (D) Appears in all the above periods

What is the most common bacterial cause of lower respiratory tract infection in a 3 year old child?

• (A) Klebsiella
• (B) H. influenzae
• (C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
• (D) Staphylococcus aureus

Pedigree analysis chart is used for which of the following purposes?

• (A) Used for growth monitoring
• (B) To assess side effect during chemotherapy
• (C) Used to see genetic transmission
• (D) To assess developmental delay in infant

In exchange blood transfusion, which blood product is used?

• (A) Whole blood
• (B) EPP
• (C) Serum
• (D) Packed cells

The most common organ involved in congenital tuberculosis is?

• (A) Liver
• (B) Pancreas
• (C) Kidney
• (D) Lung

Antiendomysial antibody is used in the screening of?

• (A) Myasthenia gravis
• (B) Autoimmune hepatitis
• (C) Coeliac disease
• (D) Graves disease

Regarding Reye syndrome, the FALSE statement is?

• (A) Associated with salicylate ingestion
• (B) Hepatomegaly
• (C) Jaundice
• (D) Hypoglycemia

A child has a lesion on the buttocks for 2 years, spreading peripherally with central scarring and non symptomatic. The diagnosis is?

• (A) Erythema annulare centrifugum
• (B) Erythema migrans
• (C) Erythema marginatum
• (D) Erythema gyratum repens

The most common cause of amputation in India is?

• (A) Diabetic gangrene
• (B) Gas gangrene
• (C) Road traffic accident
• (D) Tumors

Which of the following is NOT a complication of fracture of the neck of the femur?

• (A) Non-union
• (B) Malunion
• (C) Avascular necrosis (AVN)
• (D) Osteoarthritis

The most common site for an osteoporotic vertebral fracture is?

• (A) Dorsolumbar spine
• (B) Cervical spine
• (C) Lumbosacral spine
• (D) Dorsal spine

Froment's sign is positive in cases of weakness of?

• (A) Thumb adduction
• (B) Thumb abduction
• (C) Thumb flexion
• (D) Thumb extension

CASPAR criteria are used in the diagnosis of?

• (A) Psoriatic arthritis
• (B) Rheumatoid arthritis
• (C) Ankylosing spondylitis
• (D) Reactive synovitis

The development of chondrosarcoma is related with?

• (A) Maffucci syndrome
• (B) Felty syndrome
• (C) Both a and b
• (D) None of the above

Infection of the index finger spreads to which space?

• (A) Thenar space
• (B) Mid palmar space
• (C) Hypothenar space
• (D) Flexion space

The amniotic fluid volume is maximum at?

• (A) 32 weeks
• (B) 34 weeks
• (C) 36 weeks
• (D) 40 weeks

Beta hCG is detected earliest in serum by which day of conception?

• (A) 8 days
• (B) 15 days
• (C) 21 days
• (D) 30 days

Which of the following is true about the expected date of delivery (EDD)?

• (A) Less than 10% of deliveries occur on EDD
• (B) Less than 20% of deliveries occur on EDD
• (C) 80% of the deliveries occur on EDD
• (D) 90% of the deliveries occur on EDD

What is the most common cause of tenth day (secondary) postpartum bleeding?

• (A) Retained bits of membrane or placenta
• (B) Infection
• (C) Endometritis
• (D) Blood coagulopathy

Which of the following is true about luteoma of pregnancy?

• (A) Usually bilateral
• (B) It is a benign self limiting condition
• (C) It consists of luteinized cells
• (D) All of the above

The investigation of choice for the diagnosis of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is?

• (A) Laparoscopy
• (B) Colposcopy
• (C) Hysteroscopy
• (D) Ultrasonography

All of the following are true regarding the management of intrauterine fetal death EXCEPT?

• (A) In 50% of cases spontaneous expulsion occurs in 2 weeks
• (B) Fibrinogen levels should be checked weekly
• (C) Delivery by medical induction is preferred if spontaneous expulsion does not occur
• (D) Caesarean section has a limited place in the management of intrauterine fetal death

Mediolateral episiotomy is preferred because it?

• (A) Reduces damage to the anal sphincter and anal canal
• (B) Causes less blood loss
• (C) Is easy to suture
• (D) Is an easy technique

The following are causes of oligohydramnios EXCEPT?

• (A) IUGR
• (B) Postmaturity
• (C) Maternal dehydration
• (D) Labetolol

The most common breech presentation in a primigravida is?

• (A) Flexed breech
• (B) Frank breech
• (C) Footling presentation
• (D) Incomplete breech

The most common malignant ovarian tumor is?

• (A) Serous cystadenocarcinoma
• (B) Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma
• (C) Malignant teratoma
• (D) Sarcoma

The first line treatment of infertility in PCOS is?

• (A) Clomiphene
• (B) FSH
• (C) GnRH
• (D) Assisted reproductive techniques

A patient presents with discharge per urethra and microscopy shows the presence of intracytoplasmic gram negative cocci. What is the most probable diagnosis?

• (A) Gonorrhea
• (B) Donovanosis
• (C) Bacterial vaginosis
• (D) Syphilis

The treatment of nodulocystic acne is?

• (A) Erythromycin
• (B) Tetracycline
• (C) Isotretinoin (Retinoic acid)
• (D) Steroids

Alopecia areata is a/an?

• (A) Autoimmune disorder
• (B) Allergic disorder
• (C) Anaphylactic disorder
• (D) Bacterial infection

Groove sign of Greenblatt is seen in?

• (A) LGV
• (B) Donovanosis
• (C) Chancroid
• (D) Genital Herpes

Post spinal headache lasts for?

• (A) 10 min
• (B) 1 hr
• (C) 10 days
• (D) 1 week

False about local anesthetics?

• (A) Prilocaine is less toxic than lignocaine
• (B) Lignocaine is used as an antiarrhythmic
• (C) Mixture of lignocaine and prilocaine is known as eutectic
• (D) Lidocaine is shorter acting than bupivacaine

Anesthetic agent or agents which have a tocolytic effect are?

• (A) Halothane
• (B) Enflurane
• (C) Isoflurane
• (D) All the above

Shortest acting non depolarizing muscle relaxant is?

• (A) Mivacurium
• (B) Doxacurium
• (C) Pipecuronium
• (D) Vecuronium

Henry's law states that?

• (A) At a constant temperature gas dissolves in solution in proportion to its partial pressure
• (B) At a constant pressure gas dissolves in solution in proportion to its temperature
• (C) At a constant temperature gas dissolves in solution in proportion to its fat solubility
• (D) At a constant pressure gas dissolves in solution in proportion to its fat solubility

Radiocontrast is contraindicated in all of the following conditions except?

• (A) Renal failure
• (B) Patient on metformin
• (C) Dehydration
• (D) Obesity

Radiological features of coarctation of aorta is/are -

• (A) Reverse figure of 3 sign
• (B) Rock sign
• (C) Double aortic knuckle
• (D) All of the above

Best view for sphenoid sinus is -

• (A) Water's view
• (B) Caldwell view
• (C) Basal view
• (D) Towne's view

Which of the following is/are radiological features of fluorosis?

• (A) Osteosclerosis
• (B) Cortical thickening
• (C) Enthesopathy
• (D) All the above

Best imaging modality in patients with breast implants is:

• (A) MRI scan
• (B) CT scan
• (C) Mammography
• (D) Radionuclide scan

Obsessive attention by an individual towards another person is called?

• (A) Stalking
• (B) Perceiving
• (C) Following
• (D) Pressurizing

A woman firmly and persistently feels her husband is cheating on her and she refuses to accept any proof given in the husband's support. The other family members do not support her belief. This is an example of -

• (A) Illusion
• (B) Delusion
• (C) Hallucination
• (D) Perversion

All the following are true regarding pseudocyesis, EXCEPT:

• (A) The patients usually have an intense desire to have children
• (B) Change in the breast may be present
• (C) There may be considerable increase in the size of the abdomen
• (D) The labour pain invariably continues to persist even if she is told that she is not pregnant

Which is the most common type of persistent delusional disorder?

• (A) Delusion of persecution
• (B) Somatic delusion
• (C) Delusion of jealousy
• (D) Delusion of grandeur

Following are the major symptoms of obsessive compulsive disorder?

• (A) Contamination
• (B) Pathological doubts
• (C) Intrusive thoughts
• (D) All the above

Mania is characterized by:

• (A) Paranoid delusion
• (B) Loss of orientation
• (C) High self esteem
• (D) All

What percentage of the normal distribution curve is represented by the shaded area?

• (A) 1%
• (B) 3%
• (C) 5%
• (D) 7%