NEET PG 2012 Question Paper with Solutions PDF

Which muscle is inserted into the floor of the intertubercular sulcus of the humerus?

• (A) Latissimus dorsi
• (B) Teres major
• (C) Pectoralis major
• (D) Deltoid

All are derived from ectoderm except -

• (A) Hypophysis
• (B) Retina
• (C) Spinal cord
• (D) Adrenal cortex

Cytotrophoblast invades which structure?

• (A) Decidua parietalis
• (B) Decidua basalis
• (C) Decidua capsularis
• (D) None

Inferior parathyroid develops from which pharyngeal arch?

• (A) 1st
• (B) 2nd
• (C) 3rd
• (D) 4th

Multi-unit smooth muscle is present at all of the following except?

• (A) Blood vessels
• (B) Iris
• (C) Gut
• (D) Ductus deferens

A patient is found to have a melanoma originating in the skin of the left forearm. After removal of the tumor from the forearm, all axillary lymph nodes lateral to the medial edge of the pectoralis minor muscle are removed. Which axillary nodes would NOT be removed?

• (A) Apical lymph nodes
• (B) Central lymph nodes
• (C) Lateral lymph nodes
• (D) Pectoral lymph nodes

Which structure(s) passes behind the inguinal ligament?

• (A) Femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve
• (B) Femoral vein
• (C) Psoas major
• (D) All

An inferior vena cava (IVC) filter is used for all of the following purposes except:

• (A) To reduce symptoms
• (B) Negligible size of emboli
• (C) To prolong life
• (D) To prevent progression of native blood vessel disease

The surface marking of the oblique fissure of the lung includes all of the following except:

• (A) T3 spine
• (B) 5th rib
• (C) 7th rib
• (D) 6th costal cartilage

Which of the following structures is seen passing through the cavernous sinus?

• (A) Maxillary division of the V nerve
• (B) Mandibular division of the V nerve
• (C) Internal carotid artery
• (D) Facial nerve

Renal vein thrombosis is associated with all of the following except:

• (A) Trauma
• (B) Sickle cell anemia
• (C) Nephrotic syndrome
• (D) Dehydration

Regarding celiac plexus block, all of the following are true except:

• (A) Relieves pain from gastric malignancy
• (B) Causes hypotension
• (C) Can be used to provide anesthesia for intra-abdominal surgery
• (D) Can be given only by the retrocrural (classic) approach

All of the following are branches of the inferior mesenteric artery except:

• (A) Left colic artery
• (B) Sigmoidal artery
• (C) Middle rectal artery
• (D) Superior rectal artery

The ophthalmic artery is a branch of which of the following?

• (A) Cavernous part of the internal carotid artery (ICA)
• (B) Cerebral part of the internal carotid artery (ICA)
• (C) Middle cerebral artery (MCA)
• (D) Facial artery

Which of the following is not a part of the ethmoid bone?

• (A) Agger nasi
• (B) Crista galli
• (C) Uncinate process
• (D) Inferior turbinate

Which of the following laryngeal cartilages is hyaline?

• (A) Epiglottis
• (B) Corniculate
• (C) Cricoid
• (D) Cuneiform

The thyrocervical trunk is a branch of which part of the subclavian artery?

• (A) 1st
• (B) 2nd
• (C) 3rd
• (D) None

All of the following are lateral branches of the abdominal aorta, EXCEPT:

• (A) Right testicular artery
• (B) Left renal artery
• (C) Inferior mesenteric artery
• (D) Middle suprarenal artery

What is the difference between the amount of O2 inspired (taken up) and the CO2 expired per minute?

• (A) 20 ml/min
• (B) 50 ml/min
• (C) 75 ml/min
• (D) 100 ml/min

What is the approximate daily volume of pancreatic secretion?

• (A) 1.5 L
• (B) 2.5 L
• (C) 5.0 L
• (D) 10 L

Einthoven's law is best expressed as:

• (A) I + III = II
• (B) I - III = II
• (C) I + II + III = 0
• (D) I + III = aVL

Normal interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure is?

• (A) 10 to 15 mmHg
• (B) -5 to 0 mmHg
• (C) 20 to 30 mmHg
• (D) -10 to -20 mmHg

CSF to plasma glucose ratio is?

• (A) 0.2 - 0.4
• (B) 0.6 - 0.8
• (C) 1.2 - 1.6
• (D) 1.6 - 2.2

The distance by which two touch stimuli must be separated to be perceived as two separate stimuli is greatest at?

• (A) The lips
• (B) The palm of the hand
• (C) The back over the scapula
• (D) The dorsum of the hand

The resting membrane potential in a nerve fibre:

• (A) Is equal to the potential of ventricular muscle fibre
• (B) Can be measured by surface electrodes
• (C) Increases as extracellular K+ increases
• (D) Depends upon K+ equilibrium

Which of the following is NOT TRUE about CSF?

• (A) Removal of CSF during dural tap causes intense intracranial headache
• (B) Normally contains no neutrophils
• (C) Formed by arachnoid villi within the ventricles
• (D) pH is less than that of plasma

The cephalic phase of gastric secretion occurs?

• (A) On food entering the stomach
• (B) On food entering the intestine
• (C) On seeing food
• (D) On stress

What is the effect of acetylcholine on the lower oesophageal sphincter (LES)?

• (A) Contraction
• (B) Relaxation
• (C) No effect
• (D) Contraction followed by relaxation

Major adrenal androgen is?

• (A) Testosterone
• (B) 11-hydroxy derivative of androstenedione
• (C) 17-ketosteroid dehydroepiandrosterone
• (D) Cortisol

Growth hormone level is decreased in?

• (A) Hypoglycemia
• (B) Fasting
• (C) Sleep
• (D) Exercise

Glucose is transported in renal tubular cells by?

• (A) K symport
• (B) K antiport
• (C) Na antiport
• (D) Na cotransport

Myosin filament has a fixed length of?

• (A) 0.16 nm
• (B) 1.6 micrometers
• (C) 16 nm
• (D) 1.6 mm

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase needs?

• (A) NAD
• (B) NADP
• (C) FAD
• (D) FMN

Km value is defined as?

• (A) Substrate concentration at Vmax/2
• (B) Substrate concentration of twice Vmax
• (C) Substrate concentration of thrice Vmax
• (D) Substrate concentration of one third Vmax

In the electron transport chain, cyanide inhibits?

• (A) Complex I
• (B) Cytochrome C oxidase
• (C) Complex IV
• (D) Complex III

Enzymes of glycolysis are found in:

• (A) Cytosol
• (B) Cell membrane
• (C) Mitochondria
• (D) Ribosomes

Rate limiting step in TCA cycle is catalyzed by:

• (A) Alpha-ketoglutarate synthase
• (B) Fumarase
• (C) Aconitase
• (D) Thiokinase

Glycogen storage disease which presents as a lysosomal storage disease is:

• (A) Von Gierke's disease
• (B) Pompe's disease
• (C) McArdle's disease
• (D) Andersen's disease

Mutation in GLUT-2 causes:

• (A) Dandy-Walker syndrome
• (B) Fanconi-Bickel syndrome
• (C) Beckwith syndrome
• (D) Menke's disease

Citrate used in fatty acid synthesis uses which enzyme?

• (A) Citrate synthase
• (B) ATP citrate lyase
• (C) Aconitase
• (D) Malic enzyme

Regarding apoprotein-C, which of the following is true?

• (A) Activates lipoprotein lipase
• (B) Inactivates lipoprotein lipase
• (C) Facilitates triglyceride transport
• (D) All of the above

What will you give in the diet to stop chyluria?

• (A) Short chain fatty acids
• (B) Medium chain fatty acids
• (C) Long chain fatty acids
• (D) Omega-3 unsaturated fatty acids

In Zellweger syndrome, there is accumulation of which type of fatty acids?

• (A) Accumulation of long fatty acids
• (B) Accumulation of short chain fatty acids
• (C) Accumulation of very long chain fatty acids
• (D) Accumulation of medium chain fatty acids

Selenocysteine is associated with which of the following?

• (A) Carbonic anhydrase
• (B) Catalase
• (C) Deiodinase
• (D) Transferase

The urea cycle and the Krebs cycle are linked at which intermediate?

• (A) Arginine
• (B) Ornithine
• (C) Oxaloacetate
• (D) Fumarate

Light of 250 nm wavelength is absorbed by which amino acid?

• (A) Arginine
• (B) Alanine
• (C) Tyrosine
• (D) Histidine

Why is the citric acid cycle called an amphibolic pathway?

• (A) Both exergonic and endergonic reactions take place
• (B) Metabolites are utilized in other pathways
• (C) It can proceed both in forward and backward direction
• (D) Same enzymes can be used in reverse directions

Which one of the following statements concerning gluconeogenesis is correct?

• (A) It occurs in muscle
• (B) It is stimulated by fructose 2,6-bisphosphate
• (C) It is inhibited by elevated levels of acetyl CoA
• (D) It is important in maintaining blood glucose during the normal overnight fast

During overnight fasting, what occurs?

• (A) Glucose decreases
• (B) FFA increases
• (C) Increased gluconeogenesis
• (D) Increased beta-hydroxybutyrate

The coenzyme form of pyridoxine (vitamin B6) is?

• (A) ADP
• (B) NAD
• (C) PLP
• (D) FAD

Uric acid is formed by?

• (A) Catabolism of proteins
• (B) Catabolism of ketones
• (C) Catabolism of purines
• (D) Catabolism of pyrimidines

A nucleotide consists of all of the following except?

• (A) Sugar
• (B) Phosphate
• (C) Fatty acid
• (D) Base

The function of a primer is in?

• (A) Transcription
• (B) Translation
• (C) Initiation of DNA replication
• (D) Termination of DNA replication

Which of the following usually requires an RNA intermediate for cloning or replication?

• (A) Transposons
• (B) Plasmids
• (C) Phages
• (D) Cosmids

The folds in collagen are due to?

• (A) Glycine
• (B) Alanine
• (C) Arginine
• (D) Histidine

This molecule attaches to a protein before its destruction?

• (A) Ubiquitin
• (B) RNAse F
• (C) Zymase
• (D) Chaperone

Which isoform of LDH is raised in anemia?

• (A) LDH 5
• (B) LDH 4
• (C) LDH 3
• (D) LDH 2

Cell-matrix adhesions are mediated by?

• (A) Cadherins
• (B) Integrins
• (C) Selectins
• (D) Calmodulin

Regarding neurofibromatosis, all are true except:

• (A) Autosomal recessive
• (B) Associated with cataract
• (C) Scoliosis
• (D) Multiple fibroma

Regarding desmoid tumour, which is not correct?

• (A) Often seen below the umbilicus
• (B) Unencapsulated
• (C) More common in women
• (D) Highly radiosensitive

Most common cause of dissecting hematoma is because of:

• (A) Hypertension
• (B) Marfan's syndrome
• (C) Iatrogenic
• (D) Kawasaki disease

Creola bodies are seen in:

• (A) Bronchial asthma
• (B) Chronic bronchitis
• (C) Emphysema
• (D) Bronchiectasis

Renal papillary necrosis is almost always associated with one of the following conditions:

• (A) Diabetes mellitus
• (B) Analgesic nephropathy
• (C) Chronic pyelonephritis
• (D) Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis

Starry sky appearance is seen in -

• (A) Burkitt lymphoma
• (B) CLL
• (C) Diffuse large B cell lymphoma
• (D) ALCL

Russell bodies are found in -

• (A) Multiple myeloma
• (B) Gonadal tumor
• (C) Parkinsonism
• (D) Intracranial neoplasms

The anaemia associated with leukaemia is?

• (A) Iron deficiency
• (B) Megaloblastic type
• (C) Myelophthisic type
• (D) All of the above

Pathological manifestation of chronic alcoholism includes all of the following except -

• (A) Piecemeal necrosis
• (B) Ballooning degeneration
• (C) Microvesicular fatty changes
• (D) Central hyaline sclerosis

What is the histological appearance of brain in Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease -

• (A) Neuronophagia
• (B) Spongiform change in brain
• (C) Microabscesses
• (D) Demyelination

Most common malignancy of fallopian tube

• (A) Squamous cell carcinoma
• (B) Serous carcinoma
• (C) Teratoma
• (D) Choriocarcinoma

Glomus tumor is seen in -

• (A) Retroperitoneum
• (B) Soft tissue
• (C) Distal portion of digits
• (D) Proximal portion of digits

Type B adverse drug reaction is -

• (A) Augmented effect of drug
• (B) Unpredictable bizarre reaction
• (C) Effect seen on chronic use of drug
• (D) Delayed effect of drug

Which of the following causes increased renin on prolonged use?

• (A) Clonidine
• (B) Enalapril
• (C) Methyldopa
• (D) Beta blocker

Which drug is not included among DMARDs?

• (A) Chloroquine
• (B) Vincristine
• (C) Azathioprine
• (D) Leflunomide

Desmopressin is preferred over vasopressin because desmopressin -

• (A) More potent
• (B) More selective for V1 receptor
• (C) Has little vasoconstrictor activity
• (D) a and c

Which is a short acting non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker?

• (A) Rocuronium
• (B) Suxamethonium
• (C) Mivacurium
• (D) Pancuronium

Finasteride is a:

• (A) 5 alpha reductase inhibitor
• (B) PDE inhibitor
• (C) Alpha 1a blocker
• (D) Androgen receptor blocker

An 86 year old lady presented with severe constipation. She was a known hypertensive on medications for 10 years. In clinic, her BP was 157/98 mm Hg with a heart rate of 58/min. On taking her BP in the supine position it was found to be 90/60 mm Hg. She had a recent history of depression. She is taking atenolol, thiazide, imipramine, haloperidol and docusate. What will be the next best step in the management?

• (A) Change atenolol and thiazide to a calcium channel blocker and ACE inhibitor and add bisacodyl for constipation
• (B) Change imipramine and haloperidol to fluoxetine and risperidone and add bisacodyl for constipation
• (C) Only add bisacodyl for constipation and continue rest of the medications
• (D) Discontinue all her medications and start her on steroids

Longest acting sulphonamide is -

• (A) Sulfadiazine
• (B) Sulphadoxine
• (C) Sulfamethoxazole
• (D) Sulfamethiazole

Sulphonamide injection causes decrease in folic acid by?

• (A) Competitive inhibition
• (B) Non competitive inhibition
• (C) Uncompetitive inhibition
• (D) Allosteric inhibition

All are true regarding Sunitinib except -

• (A) It inhibits tyrosine kinase receptors
• (B) It is used for renal cell carcinoma
• (C) It is used for the treatment of GIST
• (D) It is excreted primarily in urine

Plaintiff is a person who?

• (A) Files case in civil court
• (B) Acts as defender
• (C) Gives judgement
• (D) None

Which of the following is not seen in finger prints?

• (A) Loop
• (B) Circles
• (C) Whorl
• (D) Arch

In medicolegal autopsy, cavity to be opened first is?

• (A) Thoracic
• (B) Abdomen
• (C) Cervical
• (D) Any of the above

Marshall's triad is seen in?

• (A) Explosive injury
• (B) Gunshot injury
• (C) Drowning injury
• (D) None

A victim was choked with the mouth and nose covered, while the neck was held in the bend of the assailant's elbow from behind. This method of strangulation is called?

• (A) Mugging
• (B) Garrotting
• (C) Bansdola
• (D) None of the above

Which of the following substances acts as both a poison and an antidote?

• (A) Copper sulphate (CuSO4)
• (B) Mercuric chloride (HgCl2)
• (C) Arsenic trioxide (As2O3)
• (D) Thallium arsenate

Muttering delirium is characteristically seen in poisoning with:

• (A) Ricinus (castor)
• (B) Dhatura (Datura)
• (C) Cocaine
• (D) Aconite

The term vitriolage means:

• (A) Using vitriol for suicide
• (B) Using vitriol for murder
• (C) Vitriol throwing
• (D) Perforation of the stomach caused by H2SO4

Who is regarded as the Father of Toxicology?

• (A) Paracelsus
• (B) Galen
• (C) Galton
• (D) Orfila

Lendrum stain (Phloxine-Tartrazine) is done at autopsy for the diagnosis of?

• (A) Air embolism
• (B) Fat embolism
• (C) Amniotic fluid embolism
• (D) None

In nutrient agar, the concentration of agar is:

• (A) 1%
• (B) 1.5%
• (C) 3%
• (D) 4%

A child comes with fever, cold, cough and a membrane over the tonsils. A nasal swab is taken. Culture should be done on which medium for the earliest diagnosis?

• (A) Loeffler's serum slope
• (B) L. J. medium
• (C) MacConkey's agar
• (D) Citrate medium

Cholera toxin is due to -

• (A) Chromosome
• (B) Plasmid
• (C) Phage
• (D) Transposons

A child with fever, red blood cells (RBCs) and pus in the stool. The causative organism is?

• (A) ETEC (Enterotoxigenic E. coli)
• (B) EHEC (Enterohaemorrhagic E. coli)
• (C) EPEC (Enteropathogenic E. coli)
• (D) EAEC (Enteroaggregative E. coli)

Reactive tubercular arthritis is known as:

• (A) Spina ventosa
• (B) Pott's disease
• (C) Poncet's disease
• (D) None

In malaria, the sexual cycle is -

• (A) Sporozoite to gametocytes
• (B) Gametocytes to sporozoite
• (C) Occurs in humans
• (D) Responsible for relapse

Toxoplasma in children causes:

• (A) Chorioretinitis
• (B) Conjunctivitis
• (C) Keratitis
• (D) Papillitis

Which of the following is a primary cell line?

• (A) Chick embryo fibroblast
• (B) HeLa cells
• (C) Vero cells
• (D) WI-38

Bollinger bodies are seen in?

• (A) Chickenpox
• (B) Cowpox
• (C) Fowlpox
• (D) Smallpox

Binding of gp120 causes:

• (A) Infection of target cell
• (B) Facilitation of co-receptor
• (C) Fusing of virus and target cell
• (D) None

Prozone phenomenon is seen with?

• (A) Same concentration of antibody and antigen
• (B) Antigen excess to antibody
• (C) Antibody excess to antigen
• (D) Hyperimmune reaction

Which of the following T cell independent antigen acts through?

• (A) T-cell
• (B) B-cell
• (C) Macrophages
• (D) CD8+ T cells

Complement components formed in the liver are?

• (A) C2, C4
• (B) C3, C6, C9
• (C) C5, C8
• (D) C1

An 18 year old girl presents with watery diarrhea. The most likely causative agent is?

• (A) Rotavirus
• (B) V. cholerae
• (C) Salmonella
• (D) Shigella

Use of iodized salt in the iodine deficiency control programme is an example of?

• (A) Primary prevention
• (B) Secondary prevention
• (C) Tertiary prevention
• (D) None

Which study is best to establish the definitive cause of a disease?

• (A) Case-control
• (B) Cohort
• (C) Ecological
• (D) Cross-sectional

The time interval between receipt of infection and the point of maximum infectivity of the host is known as?

• (A) Incubation period
• (B) Serial interval
• (C) Generation time
• (D) Communicable period

Mass vaccination is ineffective in which of the following?

• (A) Measles
• (B) Polio
• (C) Tetanus
• (D) None

At what age is the first dose of measles vaccination given?

• (A) 9 months
• (B) At birth
• (C) 4 weeks
• (D) 8 weeks

What is the amount of diphtheria toxoid present in the pediatric DT vaccine?

• (A) 5 Lf
• (B) 10 Lf
• (C) 15 Lf
• (D) 25 Lf

What is the osmolarity of the new (reduced osmolarity) ORS in mmol per litre?

• (A) 270
• (B) 245
• (C) 290
• (D) 310

In leprosy, a duration of 2 years is relevant with regard to which of the following?

• (A) Treatment of paucibacillary leprosy
• (B) Treatment of multibacillary leprosy
• (C) Post-treatment surveillance of paucibacillary leprosy
• (D) Post-treatment surveillance of multibacillary leprosy

Which of the following is the most common cancer in men?

• (A) Bladder cancer
• (B) Colorectal cancer
• (C) Prostate cancer
• (D) Oral cancer

Net reproduction rate is defined as which of the following?

• (A) Number of live births per 1000 mid-year population
• (B) Number of live births per 1000 women of child bearing age
• (C) Number of daughters a newborn girl will have during her life time
• (D) None of the above

Which of the following is the least common cause of infant mortality in India?

• (A) Infections
• (B) Prematurity
• (C) Birth injuries
• (D) Congenital malformations

What is the approximate total daily energy requirement in late pregnancy?

• (A) 2500 cal
• (B) 1400 cal
• (C) 1000 cal
• (D) 1800 cal

Which toxin is responsible for epidemic dropsy?

• (A) BOAA
• (B) Aflatoxin
• (C) Sanguinarine
• (D) Pyrrolizidine

Which is the recommended measure for the iodine deficiency control programme?

• (A) Health education
• (B) Water testing
• (C) Fortification of salt
• (D) None

What amount of bleaching powder is necessary to disinfect choleric stools?

• (A) 50 gm/lit
• (B) 75 gm/lit
• (C) 90 gm/lit
• (D) 100 gm/lit

Which is the most common heavy metal poisoning in the world?

• (A) Lead
• (B) Arsenic
• (C) Mercury
• (D) Cadmium

What is the approximate amount of infectious waste produced in hospitals (as a fraction of total hospital waste)?

• (A) 45%
• (B) 65%
• (C) 80%
• (D) 100%

In a left (negatively) skewed distribution curve, which statement is true?

• (A) Mean = Median
• (B) Mean < Mode
• (C) Mean > Mode
• (D) Mean = Mode

The Ujjwala scheme is meant for the prevention of which problem?

• (A) Child abuse
• (B) Child trafficking
• (C) Child labour
• (D) None

Above which level of the heat stress index (HSI) is it not possible to work comfortably?

• (A) 20 - 40
• (B) 40 - 60
• (C) 60 - 80
• (D) 80 - 100

The visual axis of the eye is best defined as the line from the:

• (A) Center of cornea to retina
• (B) Object to fovea
• (C) Center of lens to cornea
• (D) None

Which of the following are features of vernal keratoconjunctivitis?

• (A) Shield ulcer
• (B) Horner-Trantas spots
• (C) Papillary hypertrophy
• (D) All of the above

Disciform keratitis is seen in infection with which of the following?

• (A) HSV
• (B) HIV
• (C) HBV
• (D) Rubella

What is the most common cause of anterior uveitis?

• (A) CMV
• (B) Ankylosing spondylitis
• (C) Toxoplasma
• (D) None

Second sight is seen in which type of cataract?

• (A) Nuclear cataract
• (B) Cortical cataract
• (C) Zonular cataract
• (D) Punctate cataract

Laser iridotomy is done in which type of glaucoma?

• (A) Angle closure glaucoma
• (B) Open angle glaucoma
• (C) Pigmentary glaucoma
• (D) None

What is the characteristic deposit seen in retinal macular degeneration?

• (A) Iron
• (B) Drusen
• (C) Lipochrome
• (D) Hemosiderin

All of the following are seen in third (3rd) cranial nerve palsy EXCEPT?

• (A) Mydriasis
• (B) Loss of light reflex
• (C) Loss of abduction
• (D) Ptosis

Which of the following is the longest extraocular muscle?

• (A) Superior rectus (SR)
• (B) Medial rectus (MR)
• (C) Superior oblique (SO)
• (D) Inferior oblique (IO)

The most common orbital tumor has its origin from which structure?

• (A) Blood vessels
• (B) Nerves
• (C) Muscle
• (D) Lymph node

An abnormally eccentric placed pupil is called?

• (A) Polycoria
• (B) Corectopia
• (C) Aniridia
• (D) Ectopia lentis

Iris coloboma is most commonly located in which quadrant?

• (A) Inferotemporal
• (B) Superotemporal
• (C) Inferonasal
• (D) Superonasal

A left axis deviation of \(-30^\circ\) to \(-60^\circ\) on the ECG is seen in?

• (A) Left ventricular hypertrophy
• (B) Right ventricular hypertrophy
• (C) Aortic stenosis
• (D) Left atrial enlargement

A person has asthma attacks more than once during the day and at least once during the night. This is classified as?

• (A) Mild intermittent asthma
• (B) Mild persistent asthma
• (C) Moderate asthma
• (D) Severe asthma

The most common presentation of IgA nephropathy is?

• (A) Nephrotic syndrome
• (B) Nephritic syndrome
• (C) Microscopic hematuria
• (D) Repeated gross hematuria

All of the following are used for treatment of H. pylori, except?

• (A) Gentamycin
• (B) Clarithromycin
• (C) Metronidazole
• (D) Amoxicillin

Secretory diarrhea is NOT seen in which of the following conditions?

• (A) Phenolphthalein
• (B) Celiac disease
• (C) Cholera
• (D) Addison's disease

Predominantly sensory neuropathy is/are caused by:

• (A) Cisplatin
• (B) Pyridoxine excess
• (C) Suramin
• (D) a and b

Regarding herpes encephalitis, all are true EXCEPT:

• (A) Focal symptoms common
• (B) Temporal lobe involved
• (C) MRI is diagnostic
• (D) EEG not diagnostic

The immunoglobulin most commonly involved in multiple myeloma is:

• (A) IgG
• (B) IgM
• (C) IgA
• (D) IgD

The most classical symptom of VIPoma is:

• (A) Gall stones
• (B) Secretory diarrhea
• (C) Steatorrhea
• (D) Flushing

Antibodies most commonly seen in drug-induced lupus are:

• (A) Anti-ds DNA antibodies
• (B) Anti-Sm antibodies
• (C) Anti-Ro antibodies
• (D) Antihistone antibodies

Muir-Torre syndrome shows:

• (A) Sebaceous keratomas
• (B) Lisch nodules
• (C) Intestinal polyp
• (D) Hyperelastic joints

All of the following are risk factors for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) except -

• (A) Duration of surgery more than thirty minutes
• (B) Obesity
• (C) Age less than forty years
• (D) Use of the oestrogen-progesterone contraceptive pills

Inverted Champagne bottle appearance is seen in -

• (A) Varicose veins
• (B) DVT
• (C) Lipodermatosclerosis
• (D) Venous ulceration

Which of the following findings in ascitic fluid is diagnostic of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?

• (A) Neutrophils > 250/mm3
• (B) WBC < 100/mL
• (C) Ascitic lactate level < 25 mg/dL
• (D) Ascitic fluid pH > 7.35

Ogilvie's syndrome most commonly involves -

• (A) Stomach
• (B) Colon
• (C) Gallbladder
• (D) Small intestine

Raspberry tumor is seen in -

• (A) Umbilical fistula
• (B) Meckel's diverticulum
• (C) Umbilical adenoma
• (D) Umbilical granuloma

In injury to the penis, which of the following prevents extravasation of blood -

• (A) Buck's fascia
• (B) Fascia of Camper
• (C) Fascia transversalis
• (D) None

Which of the following is FALSE about hepatic adenoma?

• (A) Benign lesion
• (B) OCP use
• (C) Older females
• (D) Cold on isotope scan

VIPoma is associated with which syndrome?

• (A) Zollinger Ellison
• (B) Verner Morrison
• (C) Carcinoid syndrome
• (D) Cushing's syndrome

In Marfan's syndrome, aortic aneurysm occurs most commonly in:

• (A) Ascending aorta
• (B) Descending aorta
• (C) Abdominal aorta
• (D) Arch of aorta

Dosage of intravenous fluid for a 2 month old child with diarrhoea and severe dehydration:

• (A) 100 ml/kg in 6 hours
• (B) 50 ml/kg in 6 hours
• (C) 75 ml/kg in 6 hours
• (D) 80 ml/kg in 6 hours

LEOPARD syndrome includes all except:

• (A) Growth retardation
• (B) ECG changes
• (C) Hypertelorism
• (D) Hypergonadism

Most common cerebellar tumour in children?

• (A) Astrocytoma
• (B) Medulloblastoma
• (C) Ependymoma
• (D) DNET

Upper segment to lower segment ratio in a 3 year old child is:

• (A) 1.2
• (B) 1.3
• (C) 1.4
• (D) 1.6

Diarrhoea in a child of 12 months, the dose of zinc is?

• (A) 1 mg / 10 to 14 days
• (B) 10 mg / 10 to 14 days
• (C) 15 mg / 10 to 14 days
• (D) 20 mg / 10 to 14 days

A baby is born at 27 weeks of gestation, required mechanical ventilation for the next 4 weeks and oxygen for the next 1 week. He was maintained at room air subsequently. As per the new Bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD) definition, he has which of the following?

• (A) Mild BPD
• (B) Moderate BPD
• (C) Severe BPD
• (D) No BPD

Which of the following statements regarding fetal circulation is correct?

• (A) The liver and heart of the fetus receive blood with very high oxygen saturation
• (B) PO2 of fetal blood leaving the placenta is slightly greater than maternal mixed venous PO2
• (C) The presence of fetal hemoglobin shifts the oxyhemoglobin dissociation to the right
• (D) The foramen ovale closes during the third trimester unless the fetus has an atrial septal defect

Cause of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia is?

• (A) Rotor syndrome
• (B) Breast milk jaundice
• (C) Crigler-Najjar syndrome
• (D) Gilbert syndrome

Highest cure rate is of:

• (A) Wilms tumor
• (B) Retinoblastoma
• (C) Rhabdomyosarcoma
• (D) All

The MOST common type of dislocation of the elbow joint is:

• (A) Posterior
• (B) Posterolateral
• (C) Posteromedial
• (D) Lateral

Most common complication of fracture neck of femur is:

• (A) Malunion
• (B) Avascular necrosis (AVN)
• (C) Nonunion
• (D) Arthritis

Partial anterior dislocation of one segment of the spine over another is:

• (A) Spondylosis
• (B) Spondylolisthesis
• (C) Kyphosis
• (D) Scoliosis

In a child with suspected developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH), what is the investigation of choice?

• (A) X-ray
• (B) MRI
• (C) USG
• (D) CT scan

Which is the most common organism causing infection after an open fracture?

• (A) Pseudomonas
• (B) Staphylococcus aureus
• (C) Klebsiella
• (D) Gonococcus

In tuberculosis of the spine, which is the most common site of involvement?

• (A) Sacral
• (B) Cervical
• (C) Dorsolumbar
• (D) Lumbosacral

In Volkmann's ischaemic contracture, which artery is involved?

• (A) Radial
• (B) Brachial
• (C) Ulnar
• (D) Interosseous

Why should a fracture of the shaft of the femur be stabilised early?

• (A) To prevent blood loss
• (B) ARDS
• (C) Non union
• (D) Compartment syndrome

Hydrops fetalis is due to?

• (A) Rh mismatch
• (B) Hyperproteinemia
• (C) Placental hypoplasia
• (D) All of the above

What is the most common type of degeneration seen in uterine fibroids (leiomyomas)?

• (A) Calcareous
• (B) Hyaline
• (C) Red
• (D) Cystic

Which of the following is true regarding fallopian tube tuberculosis?

• (A) Most common type of genital TB
• (B) Size of the tubes is unchanged
• (C) Is asymptomatic
• (D) Primary focus of infection is always in the fallopian tubes

Regarding intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, the FALSE statement is?

• (A) Bilirubin level > 2 mg%
• (B) Most common cause of jaundice in pregnancy
• (C) Oestrogen is involved
• (D) Manifestations usually appear in the last trimester

Which of the following pelvic measurements is most commonly used clinically?

• (A) Diagonal conjugate
• (B) Anteroposterior diameter of the inlet
• (C) Transverse diameter of the outlet
• (D) Oblique diameter of the pelvis

Maximum chance of transmission to the baby during delivery is seen with which infection?

• (A) HSV (Herpes simplex virus)
• (B) CMV (Cytomegalovirus)
• (C) VZV (Varicella zoster virus)
• (D) Rubella

What is the preferred treatment for menorrhagia in the reproductive age group?

• (A) NOVA T (copper IUCD)
• (B) Cu IUD (copper intrauterine device)
• (C) OCPs (oral contraceptive pills)
• (D) Hysterectomy

A 45 year old female patient underwent hysterectomy. On the 7th post-operative day she complains of continuous dribbling of urine and fever. Micturition was not voluntary. What is the diagnosis?

• (A) Vesicovaginal fistula
• (B) Ureterovaginal fistula
• (C) Vesicouterine fistula
• (D) Urethrovaginal fistula

Regarding Hegar's sign, all are true EXCEPT?

• (A) It is elicited by the bimanual palpation method
• (B) It is difficult to elicit in obese women
• (C) It can be done at 14 weeks
• (D) It is present in about two-thirds of cases

In a non-stress test (NST), all of the following are assessed except?

• (A) Variability
• (B) Acceleration
• (C) Time period
• (D) Oxytocin

During pregnancy, cardiac output increases to its maximum at which week?

• (A) 26-28 weeks
• (B) 30-32 weeks
• (C) 32-34 weeks
• (D) 34-36 weeks

What is the presenting part in a transverse lie?

• (A) Shoulder
• (B) Face
• (C) Vertex
• (D) Brow

Which of the following is NOT a nevus of melanocytic origin?

• (A) Mongolian spot
• (B) Nevus of Ito
• (C) Nevus of Ota
• (D) Becker nevus

Oculo-oro-genital ulcers are a feature of which condition?

• (A) Behcet disease
• (B) Lichen planus
• (C) SLE
• (D) Psoriasis

The levels (stages) of ether anaesthesia were demonstrated by whom?

• (A) Morton
• (B) Guedel
• (C) Thompson
• (D) None

Which anaesthetic agent is neither metabolised by the liver nor by the kidney?

• (A) Atracurium
• (B) Vecuronium
• (C) Pancuronium
• (D) Rocuronium

Which is the inducing agent of choice in a patient presenting with shock?

• (A) Isoflurane
• (B) Desflurane
• (C) Ketamine
• (D) Thiopentone

Which drug is used for analgesia in OPD or day-care (outpatient) surgical settings?

• (A) Morphine
• (B) Pethidine
• (C) Fentanyl
• (D) Alfentanil

The Hounsfield unit (HU) is a measure used in which imaging modality?

• (A) CT
• (B) MRI
• (C) PET
• (D) USG

Corkscrew esophagus on a barium study is characteristically seen in which of the following conditions?

• (A) Carcinoma esophagus
• (B) Scleroderma
• (C) Achalasia cardia
• (D) Diffuse esophageal spasm

What is the investigation of choice for screening of proximal internal carotid artery stenosis?

• (A) Doppler flow USG
• (B) CT subtraction angiography
• (C) MRI
• (D) Angiography (DSA)

What is the physical half-life of Iodine-131?

• (A) 8 hours
• (B) 8 days
• (C) 8 weeks
• (D) 8 months

Formication (a sensation of insects crawling on or under the skin) is characteristically seen with which of the following?

• (A) Acute amphetamine intoxication
• (B) Chronic use of amphetamine
• (C) Alcohol withdrawal
• (D) Cannabis poisoning

In depression, there is a deficiency of which neurotransmitter?

• (A) 5-HT
• (B) Acetylcholine
• (C) Dopamine
• (D) GABA

Persistent preoccupation with having a serious illness despite normal body function is called?

• (A) Obsession
• (B) Somatization
• (C) Hypochondriasis
• (D) Conversion disorder

How do you differentiate between psychological and organic erectile dysfunction?

• (A) Nocturnal penile tumescence
• (B) PIPE therapy
• (C) Sildenafil induced erection
• (D) Squeeze technique

The type of connective tissue present in the arrow-marked area is:

• (A) Loose and irregular
• (B) Specialized
• (C) Dense irregular
• (D) Dense regular