CAT 2005 Question Paper (Available) :Download Solutions with Answer Key

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Chanpreet Kaur

Content Writer | MBA Professional | Updated on - Sep 25, 2025

CAT 2005 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF is available for download. CAT 2005 was held on November 20, 2005 and more than 1.5 lakh candidates appeared for the exam. A total of 90 questions constituted the question paper of CAT 2005. Each section carried 30 questions.

  • The overall difficulty level of CAT 2005 question paper was rated moderate to tough. Data Interpretation and Logical Reasoning section was rated the toughest of all the sections.

Candidates preparing for CAT 2025 can download the CAT 2006 question paper with the solution PDF to get a better idea about the type of questions asked in the paper and their difficulty level.

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CAT 2005 Question Paper with Answer Key PDFs

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CAT 2005 question paper



Question 1:

If \(x = (16^3 + 17^3 + 18^3 + 19^3)\), then \(x\) divided by \(70\) leaves a remainder of:

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 69
  • (4) 35
Correct Answer:
(2) 1
View Solution

Question 2:

A chemical plant has four tanks (A, B, C, D), each containing \(1000\) litres. Chemical is pumped between tanks at the given rates:

A → B: 20 L/min,

C → A: 90 L/min,

A → D: 10 L/min,

C → D: 50 L/min,

B → C: 100 L/min,

D → B: 110 L/min.

Which tank empties first and how long does it take (minutes) after pumping starts?

  • (1) A, 16.66
  • (2) C, 20
  • (3) D, 20
  • (4) D, 25
Correct Answer:
(3) D, 20
View Solution

Question 3:

Two identical circles intersect so that their centers and intersection points form a square of side 1 cm. The area in sq. cm of the portion common to both circles is:

  • (1) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\pi}{2} - 1\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\pi}{5}\)
  • (4) \(\sqrt{2} - 1\)
Correct Answer:
(2) \(\frac{\pi}{2} - 1\)
View Solution

Question 4:

A jogging park has two identical circular tracks touching each other, enclosed by a rectangular track tangent to both circles. A jogger A runs around rectangle, jogger B runs a figure eight along circles. How much faster must B run to finish together with A?

  • (1) 3.88%
  • (2) 4.22%
  • (3) 4.44%
  • (4) 4.72%
Correct Answer:
(3) 4.44%
View Solution

Question 5:

In a chess competition with boys and girls, each student plays exactly one game with each other student. Total 45 games were boy-boy, 190 games boy-girl. Number of girls = ?

  • (1) 200
  • (2) 216
  • (3) 235
  • (4) 256
Correct Answer:
 (2) 216
View Solution
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Question 6:

At what time do Ram and Shyam first meet each other?

  • (1) 10:00 a.m.
  • (2) 10:10 a.m.
  • (3) 10:20 a.m.
  • (4) 10:30 a.m.
Correct Answer:
 (2) 10:10 a.m.
View Solution

Question 7:

At what time does Shyam overtake Ram?

  • (1) 10:20 a.m.
  • (2) 10:30 a.m.
  • (3) 10:40 a.m.
  • (4) 10:50 a.m.
Correct Answer:
(3) 10:40 a.m.
View Solution

Question 8:

If \(R = \frac{30^{65} - 29^{65}}{30^{64} + 29^{64}}\), then:

  • (1) \(0 < R \leq 0.1\)
  • (2) \(0.1 < R \leq 0.5\)
  • (3) \(0.5 < R \leq 1.0\)
  • (4) \(R > 1.0\)
Correct Answer:
(4) \(R > 1.0\)
View Solution

Question 9:

What is the distance in cm between two parallel chords of lengths 32 cm and 24 cm in a circle of radius 20 cm?

  • (1) 1 or 7
  • (2) 2 or 14
  • (3) 3 or 21
  • (4) 4 or 28
    % Correct answer \textbf{Correct answer:} (2) 2 or 14
Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 10:

For which value of \(k\) does the pair of equations yield a unique positive \(x\) solution?
\[ x^2 - y^2 = 0 \] \[ (x - k)^2 + y^2 = 1 \]

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 0
  • (3) \(\sqrt{2}\)
  • (4) \(-\sqrt{2}\)
Correct Answer:
 (3) \(\sqrt{2}\)
View Solution

Question 11:

Let \(n! = 1 \times 2 \times 3 \times \dots \times n\) for integer \(n \geq 1\). If \(p = 11! + (2 \times 2!) + (3 \times 3!) + \dots + (10 \times 10!)\), then \(p+2\) when divided by \(11!\) leaves a remainder of:

  • (1) 10
  • (2) 0
  • (3) 7
  • (4) 1
Correct Answer:
(2) 0
View Solution

Question 12:

Consider a triangle on X–Y plane with vertices \((41,0)\), \((0,41)\), \((0,0)\). Number of integer-coordinate points strictly inside is:

  • (1) 780
  • (2) 800
  • (3) 820
  • (4) 741
Correct Answer:
(1) 780
View Solution

Question 13:

Digits of 3-digit \(A\) reversed to make \(B\). If \(B>A\) and \(B-A\) divisible by 7, then:

  • (1) \(100 < A < 299\)
  • (2) \(106 < A < 305\)
  • (3) \(112 < A < 311\)
  • (4) \(118 < A < 317\)
Correct Answer:
(3) \(112 < A < 311\)
View Solution

Question 14:

If \(a_1=1\) and \(a_{n+1} - 3a_n + 2 = 4n\), find \(a_{100}\).

  • (1) \(3^{99} - 200\)
  • (2) \(3^{99} + 200\)
  • (3) \(3^{100} - 200\)
  • (4) \(3^{100} + 200\)
Correct Answer:
(2) \(3^{99} + 200\)
View Solution

Question 15:

Set \(S\): five-digit numbers from digits 1–5 exactly once, exactly 2 odd positions have odd digits. Find sum of rightmost digits of all numbers in S.

  • (1) 228
  • (2) 216
  • (3) 294
  • (4) 192
Correct Answer:
(1) 228
View Solution

Question 16:

Rightmost non-zero digits of \(30^{270}\) is:

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 7
  • (4) 9
     
Correct Answer:

(1) 1


View Solution

Question 17:

Four points A,B,C,D on a line: AB=BC=CD, length AB=1m. Ant at A to reach sugar at D, but repellents at B and C: ant cannot come within 1m of repellents.

  • (1) \(3\sqrt{2}\)
  • (2) \(1+\pi\)
  • (3) \(\frac{4\pi}{3}\)
  • (4) 5
Correct Answer:
 (2) \(1 + \pi\)
View Solution

Question 18:

If \(x \geq y > 1\), the value of \(\log_x\left(\frac{x}{y}\right) + \log_y\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)\) can never be:

  • (1) -1
  • (2) -0.5
  • (3) 0
  • (4) 1
Correct Answer:
 (1) -1
View Solution

Question 19:

For a positive integer \(n\), let \(p_n\) be the product of the digits of \(n\) and \(s_n\) be the sum of the digits of \(n\). The number of integers between 10 and 1000 for which \(p_n + s_n = n\) is:

  • (1) 81
  • (2) 16
  • (3) 18
  • (4) 9
Correct Answer:
 (2) 16
View Solution

Question 20:

Rectangular tiles of size \(70\) cm × \(30\) cm to be placed on floor \(110\) cm × \(130\) cm, aligned to edges. Max tiles without overhanging?

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 5
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 7
Correct Answer:
(1) 4
View Solution

Question 21:

In XY-plane, area bounded by \(|x+y| + |x-y| = 4\):

  • (1) 8
  • (2) 12
  • (3) 16
  • (4) 20
Correct Answer:
 (3) 16
View Solution

Question 22:

Circle diameter = 3 cm. AB and MN are diameters, perpendicular. CG ⟂ AB, AE:EB = 1:2, DF ⟂ MN, NL:LM = 1:2. Find DH in cm.



  • (1) \(2\sqrt{2} - 1\)
  • (2) \(\frac{(2\sqrt{2} - 1)}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{(3\sqrt{2} - 1)}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{(2\sqrt{2} - 1)}{3}\)
Correct Answer:
 (2) \(\frac{(2\sqrt{2} - 1)}{2}\)
View Solution

Question 23:

Consider the triangle \(ABC\) where \(BC = 12\) cm, \(DB = 9\) cm, \(CD = 6\) cm, and \(\angle BCD = \angle BAC\).





What is the ratio of the perimeter of \(\triangle ADC\) to that of \(\triangle BDC\)?

  • (1) \(\frac{7}{9}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{8}{9}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{6}{9}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{5}{9}\)
Correct Answer:
 (2) \(\frac{8}{9}\)
View Solution

Question 24:

\(P, Q, S, R\) are points on a circle of radius \(r\), such that \(PQR\) is an equilateral triangle and \(PS\) is a diameter. What is the perimeter of quadrilateral \(PQSR\)?

  • (1) \(2r(1+\sqrt{3})\)
  • (2) \(2r(2+\sqrt{3})\)
  • (3) \(r(1+\sqrt{5})\)
  • (4) \(2r+\sqrt{3}\)
Correct Answer:
(1) \(2r(1+\sqrt{3})\)
View Solution

Question 25:

Let \(S\) be a set of integers \(n\) with \(1000 \leq n \leq 1200\) and all digits odd. How many \(n \in S\) are divisible by 3?

  • (1) 9
  • (2) 10
  • (3) 11
  • (4) 12
Correct Answer:
 (1) 9
View Solution

Question 26:

Let \(x = \sqrt{4+\sqrt{4+\sqrt{4+\dots}}}\). Find \(x\).

  • (1) 3
  • (2) \(\frac{\sqrt{13}-1}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\sqrt{13}+1}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\sqrt{13}\)
Correct Answer:
 (3) \(\frac{\sqrt{13}+1}{2}\)
View Solution

Question 27:

Let \(g(x)\) be a function such that \(g(x+1)+g(x-1) = g(x)\) for all real \(x\). For what \(p\) does \(g(x+p) = g(x)\) hold for all \(x\)?

  • (1) 5
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 6
Correct Answer:
 (2) 3
View Solution

Question 28:

A telecom provider hires male and female operators to answer 1000 calls/day. Male can handle 40 calls/day, female 50. Fixed pay: Rs. 250 (male), Rs. 300 (female). Per call pay: Rs. 15 (male), Rs. 10 (female). Must employ more than 7 of the 12 females available. How many male operators minimize cost?

  • (1) 15
  • (2) 14
  • (3) 12
  • (4) 10
Correct Answer:
(4) 10
View Solution

Question 29:

Three Englishmen and three Frenchmen each know one unique secret. Only one Englishman knows French, no Frenchman knows English. They exchange secrets via person-to-person calls so all know all secrets. What is minimum number of calls?

  • (1) 5
  • (2) 10
  • (3) 9
  • (4) 15
Correct Answer:
 (3) 9
View Solution

Question 30:

Square floor tiled with equal-size square tiles. Edge tiles are white, interior red. White tile count = red tile count. Possible number of tiles per edge?

  • (1) 10
  • (2) 12
  • (3) 14
  • (4) 16
Correct Answer:
 (2) 12
View Solution

Question 31:

According to the passage, internal conflicts are psychologically more interesting than external conflicts because:

  • (1) Internal conflicts, rather than external conflicts, form an important component of serious literature as distinguished from less serious genres.
  • (2) Only juveniles or very few “adults” actually experience external conflict, while internal conflict is more widely prevalent in society.
  • (3) In situations of internal conflict, individuals experience a dilemma in resolving their own preferences for different outcomes.
  • (4) There are no threats to the reader (or viewer) in case of external conflicts.
Correct Answer:
  • (1) Internal conflicts, rather than external conflicts, form an important component of serious literature as distinguished from less serious genres.

    View Solution






  •  

Question 32:

Which, according to the author, would qualify as interesting psychology?

  • (1) A statistician’s dilemma over choosing the best method to solve an optimization problem.
  • (2) A chess player’s predicament over adopting a defensive strategy against an aggressive opponent.
  • (3) A mountaineer’s choice of the best path to Mt. Everest from base camp.
  • (4) A finance manager’s quandary over the best way of raising money from the market.
Correct Answer:
(2)
View Solution

Question 33:

According to the passage, which of the following options about the application of game theory to a conflict-of-interest situation is true?

  • (1) Assuming that the rank order of preferences for options is different for different players.
  • (2) Accepting that the interests of different players are often in conflict.
  • (3) Not assuming that the interests are in complete disagreement.
  • (4) All of the above.
Correct Answer:
(4) All of the above.
View Solution

Question 34:

The problem-solving process of a scientist is different from that of a detective because:

  • (1) Scientists study inanimate objects, while detectives deal with living criminals or law offenders.
  • (2) Scientists study known objects, while detectives have to deal with unknown criminals or law offenders.
  • (3) Scientists study phenomena not actively altered, while detectives deal with phenomena deliberately influenced to mislead.
  • (4) Scientists study psychologically interesting phenomena, while detectives deal with “adult” analogues of juvenile adventure tales.
Correct Answer:

(3) Scientists study phenomena not actively altered, while detectives deal with phenomena deliberately influenced to mislead


View Solution

Question 35:

Arrange the sentences to form a coherent paragraph:


A. Similarly, turning to caste, even though being lower caste is undoubtedly a separate cause of disparity, its impact is all the greater when the lower-caste families also happen to be poor.

B. Belonging to a privileged class can help a woman to overcome many barriers that obstruct women from less thriving classes.

C. It is the interactive presence of these two kinds of deprivation – being low caste and being female – that massively impoverishes women from the less privileged classes.

D. A congruence of class deprivation and gender discrimination can blight the lives of poorer women very severely.

E. Gender is certainly a contributor to societal inequality, but it does not act independently of class.

  • (1) EABDC
  • (2) EBDCA
  • (3) DA EBC
  • (4) BECDA
Correct Answer:
(1) EABDC
View Solution

Question 36:

Arrange the sentences to form a coherent paragraph:

A. What identity is thus ‘defined by contrast’, divergence with the West becomes central.

B. Indian religious literature such as the \textit{Bhagavad Gita or the Tantric texts, which are identified as differing from secular writings seen as ‘western’, elicits much greater interest in the West than do other Indian writings, including India’s long history of heterodoxy.

C. There is a similar neglect of Indian writing on non-religious subjects, from mathematics, epistemology and natural science to economics and linguistics.

D. Through selective emphasis that point up differences with the West, other civilizations can, in this way, be redefined in alien terms, which can be exotic and charming, or else bizarre and terrifying, or simply strange and engaging.

E. The exception is the \textit{Kamasutra in which western readers have managed to cultivate an interest.

  • (1) B D A C E
  • (2) D E A B C
  • (3) B D E C A
  • (4) B C E D A
Correct Answer:
(1) B D A C E
View Solution

Question 37:

Arrange the sentences to form a coherent paragraph:

A. This is now orthodoxy to which I subscribe – up to a point.

B. It emerged from the mathematics of chance and statistics.

C. Therefore the risk is measurable and manageable.

D. The fundamental concept: Prices are not predictable, but the mathematical laws of chance can describe their fluctuations.

E. This is how what business schools now call modern finance was born.

  • (1) A D B C E
  • (2) E B D C A
  • (3) A B D C E
  • (4) D C B E A
Correct Answer:
(1) A D B C E
View Solution

Question 38:

Word: \textbf{Near} — Choose the option where its usage is incorrect or inappropriate.

  • (1) I got there just after you left – a near miss!
  • (2) She and her near friend left early.
  • (3) The war led to a near doubling of oil prices.
  • (4) They came near to tears seeing the plight of the victims.
Correct Answer:
(2)
View Solution

Question 39:

Word: \textbf{Hand} — Choose the option where its usage is incorrect or inappropriate.

  • (1) I have my hand full, I cannot do it today.
  • (2) The minister visited the jail to see the breach at first hand.
  • (3) The situation is getting out of hand here!
  • (4) When the roof of my house was blown away, he was willing to lend me a hand.
     
Correct Answer:
 (1)
View Solution

Question 40:

Word: \textbf{For} — Choose the option where its usage is incorrect or inappropriate.

  • (1) He has a great eye for detail.
  • (2) We are waiting for the day.
  • (3) I can’t bear for her to be angry.
  • (4) It couldn’t be done for ever.
Correct Answer:
 (4)
View Solution

Question 41:

By the expression ‘Edwardian Summer’, the author refers to a period in which there is

  • (1) unparalleled luxury and opulence.
  • (2) a sense of complacency among people because of all-round prosperity.
  • (3) a culmination of all-round economic prosperity.
  • (4) an imminent danger lurking behind economic prosperity.
Correct Answer:
(4) an imminent danger lurking behind economic prosperity.
View Solution

Question 42:

What, according to the author, has resulted in a widespread belief in the resilience of modern capitalism?

  • (1) Growth in the economies of Western countries despite shocks in the form of increase in levels of indebtedness and inflated asset prices.
  • (2) Increase in the prosperity of Western countries and China despite rising oil prices.
  • (3) Continued growth of Western economies despite a rise in terrorism, an increase in oil prices and other similar shocks.
  • (4) The success of continued reforms aimed at making Western economies more dynamic, competitive and efficient.
Correct Answer:

(3) Continued growth of Western economies despite a rise in terrorism, an increase in oil prices and other similar shocks.
View Solution


Question 43:

Which of the following best represents the key argument made by the author?

  • (1) The rise in oil prices, the flux in the global balance of power and historical precedents should make us question our belief that the global economic prosperity would continue.
  • (2) The belief that modern industrial capitalism is highly resilient and capable of overcoming shocks will be belied soon.
  • (3) Widespread prosperity leads to neglect of early signs of underlying economic weakness, manifested in higher oil prices and a flux in the global balance of power.
  • (4) A crisis is imminent in the West given the growth of countries like China and India and the increase in oil prices.
Correct Answer:
(1)
View Solution

Question 44:

What can be inferred about the author’s view when he states ‘As Tommy Cooper used to say “just like that”’?

  • (1) Industry has incentives to build new production and refining capacity and therefore oil prices would reduce.
  • (2) There would be a correction in the price levels of oil once new production capacity is added.
  • (3) The decline in oil prices is likely to be short-term in nature.
  • (4) It is not necessary that oil prices would go down to earlier levels.
Correct Answer:
(1)
View Solution

Question 45:

According to the passage, Derrida believes that:

  • (1) Reality can be construed only through the use of rational analysis.
  • (2) Language limits our construction of reality.
  • (3) A universal language will facilitate a common understanding of reality.
  • (4) We need to uncover the hidden meaning in a system of relations expressed by language.
Correct Answer:
(4) We need to uncover the hidden meaning in a system of relations expressed by language.
View Solution

Question 46:

To Derrida, ‘logocentrism’ does not imply:

  • (1) A totalitarian impulse.
  • (2) A domain of representative language.
  • (3) Interdependence of the meanings of dichotomous terms.
  • (4) A strategy that seeks to suppress hidden meanings in a text.
Correct Answer:

(3) Interdependence of the meanings of dichotomous terms.
View Solution


Question 47:

According to the passage, Derrida believes that the system of binary opposition:

  • (1) Represents a prioritization or hierarchy.
  • (2) Reconciles contradictions and dualities.
  • (3) Weakens the process of marginalization and ordering of truth.
  • (4) Deconstructs reality.
Correct Answer:
 (1) Represents a prioritization or hierarchy.
View Solution

Question 48:

Derrida rejects the idea of ‘definitive authority of the subject’ because:

  • (1) Interpretation of the text may not make the unseen visible.
  • (2) The meaning of the text is based on binary opposites.
  • (3) The implicit power relationship is often ignored.
  • (4) Any act of interpretation must refer to what the author intends.
Correct Answer:
(2) The meaning of the text is based on binary opposites.
View Solution

Question 49:

The audiences for crosswords and sudoku, understandably, overlap greatly, but there are differences, too. A crossword attracts a more literary person, while sudoku appeals to a keenly logical mind. Some crossword enthusiasts turn up their noses at sudoku because they feel it lacks depth. A good crossword requires vocabulary, knowledge, mental flexibility and sometimes even a sense of humor to complete. It touches numerous areas of life and provides an “Aha!” or two along the way.

  • (1) Sudoku, on the other hand, is just a logical exercise, each one similar to the last.
  • (2) Sudoku, incidentally, is growing faster in popularity than crosswords, even among the literati.
  • (3) Sudoku, on the other hand, can be attempted and enjoyed even by children.
  • (4) Sudoku, however, is not exciting in any sense of the term.
     
Correct Answer:
 (1) Sudoku, on the other hand, is just a logical exercise, each one similar to the last.
View Solution

Question 50:

Most firms consider expert individuals to be too elitist, temperamental, egocentric, and difficult to work with. Force such people to collaborate on a high-stakes project and they might just come to fisticuffs. Even the very notion of managing such a group seems unimaginable. So most organizations fall into default mode, setting up project teams of people who get along nicely.

  • (1) The result, however, is disastrous.
  • (2) The result is mediocrity.
  • (3) The result is creation of experts who then become elitist.
  • (4) Naturally, they drive innovations.
Correct Answer:
(2) The result is mediocrity.
View Solution

Question 51:

Federer’s fifth grand slam win prompted a reporter to ask whether he was the best ever. Federer is certainly not lacking in confidence, but he wasn’t about to proclaim himself the best ever. “The best player of this generation, yes”, he said. “But nowhere close to ever. Just look at the records that some guys have. I’m a minnow.”

  • (1) His win against Agassi, a genius from the previous generation, contradicts that.
  • (2) Sampras, the king of an earlier generation, was as humble.
  • (3) He is more than a minnow to his contemporaries.
  • (4) The difference between ‘the best of this generation’ and ‘the best ever’ is a matter of perception.
Correct Answer:

(4) The difference between ‘the best of this generation’ and ‘the best ever’ is a matter of perception.
View Solution


Question 52:

Thus the end of knowledge and the closing of the frontier that it symbolizes is not a looming crisis at all, but merely one of many embarrassing fits of hubris in civilization’s long industry. In the end, it will pass away and be forgotten. Ours is not the first generation to struggle to understand the organizational laws of the frontier, deceive itself that it has succeeded, and go to its grave having failed.

  • (1) One would be wise to be humble.
  • (2) But we might be the first generation to actually reach the frontier.
  • (3) But we might be the first generation to deal with the crisis.
  • (4) However, this time the success is not illusory.
Correct Answer:
 (1) One would be wise to be humble.
View Solution

Question 53:

A.When virtuoso teams begin their work, individuals are in and group consensus is out.

B.As project progresses, however, the individual stars harness themselves to the product of the group.

C.Sooner or later, the members break through their own egocentrism and become a plurality with single-minded focus on the goal.

D.In short, they morph into a powerful team with a shared identity. Select the grammatically correct and appropriate sentence(s):

  • (1) A\&C
  • (2) A\&D
  • (3) B\&D
  • (4) A, C\&D
Correct Answer:
 (4) A, C\&D
View Solution

Question 54:

A.Large reductions in the ozone layer, which sits about 15–30 km above the Earth, take place each winter over the polar regions, especially the Antarctic, as low temperatures allow the formation of stratospheric clouds that assist chemical reactions breaking down ozone.

B.Industrial chemicals containing chlorine and bromine have been blamed for thinning the layer because they attack the ozone molecules, making them to break apart.

C.Many an offending chemicals have now been banned.

D.It will still take several decades before these substances have disappeared from the atmosphere. Select the grammatically correct and appropriate sentence(s):

  • (1) D
  • (2) B\&D
  • (3) A\&D
  • (4) A\&C
Correct Answer:
(3) A\&D
View Solution

Question 55:

A.The balance of power will shift to the East as China and India evolve.

B.Rarely the economic ascent of two still relatively poor nations has been watched with such a mixture of awe, opportunism, and trepidation.

C.Postwar era witnessed economic miracles in Japan and South Korea, but neither was populous enough to power worldwide growth or change the game in a complete spectrum of industries.

D.China and India, by contrast, posses the weight and dynamism to transform the 21st-century global economy. Select the grammatically correct and appropriate sentence(s):

  • (1) A\&B\&C
  • (2) A\&D
  • (3) C
  • (4) C\&D
Correct Answer:
(4) C\&D
View Solution

Question 56:

A.People have good reason to care about the welfare of animals.

B.Ever since Enlightenment, their treatment has been seen as a measure of mankind’s humanity.

C.It is no coincidence that William Wilberforce and Sir Thomas Foxwell Buxton, two leaders of the movement to abolish the slave trade, helped found the Royal Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals in 1820s.

D.An increasing number of people for figure: mankind has a duty not to cause pain to animals that have the capacity to suffer. Select the grammatically correct and appropriate sentence(s):

  • (1) A\&B
  • (2) B\&C
  • (3) A\&C
  • (4) C\&D
Correct Answer:
 (1) A\&B
View Solution

Question 57:

Intelligent design derives from an early 19th-century explanation of the natural world given by an English clergyman, William Paley. Paley was the populariser of the famous watchmaker analogy. Proponents of intelligent design are crupping Paley’s argument with a new gloss from molecular biology. Choose the most appropriate replacement for the italicized word.

  • (1) destroying
  • (2) testing
  • (3) resurrecting
  • (4) questioning
Correct Answer:
 (3) resurrecting
View Solution

Question 58:

Women squat, heads covered, beside huge piles of limp fodder and blunk oil lamps, and just about all the cows in the three towns converge upon this spot. Choose the most appropriate replacement for the italicized word.

  • (1) shining
  • (2) bright
  • (3) sputtering
  • (4) effulgent
Correct Answer:
 (3) sputtering
View Solution

Question 59:

It is klang to a sensitive traveler who walks through this great town, when he sees the streets, the roads and cabin doors crowded with beggars. Choose the most appropriate replacement for the italicized word.

  • (1) amusing
  • (2) irritating
  • (3) disgusting
  • (4) distressing
Correct Answer:
(4) distressing
View Solution

Question 60:

Or there is the most fingummy diplomatic note on record: when Philip of Macedon wrote to the Spartans that, if he came within their borders, he would leave not one stone of their city, they wrote back the one word – “If”. Choose the most appropriate replacement for the italicized word.

  • (1) witty
  • (2) rude
  • (3) simple
  • (4) terse
Correct Answer:
(4) terse
View Solution

Question 61:

From which area did the faculty member retire?

  • (1) Finance
  • (2) Marketing
  • (3) OB
  • (4) OM
Correct Answer:
(3) OB
View Solution

Question 62:

Professors Naresh and Devesh, two faculty members in the Marketing area, who have been with the Institute since inception, share a birthday on 20th November. One was born in 1947 and the other in 1950. On April 1, 2005, what was the age of the third faculty member, who has been in the same area since inception?

  • (1) 47
  • (2) 50
  • (3) 51
  • (4) 52
Correct Answer:
(1) 47
View Solution

Question 63:

In which year did the new faculty member join the Finance area?

  • (1) 2000
  • (2) 2001
  • (3) 2002
  • (4) 2003
Correct Answer:
(2) 2001
View Solution

Question 64:

What was the age of the new faculty member, who joined the OM area, as on April 1, 2003?

  • (1) 25
  • (2) 26
  • (3) 27
  • (4) 28
Correct Answer:
 (2) 26
View Solution

Question 65:

Which two states account for the highest productivity of rice (tons produced per hectare of rice cultivation)?

  • (1) Haryana and Punjab
  • (2) Punjab and Andhra Pradesh
  • (3) Andhra Pradesh and Haryana
  • (4) Uttar Pradesh and Haryana
Correct Answer:
 (2) Punjab and Andhra Pradesh
View Solution

Question 66:

How many states have a per capita production of rice (defined as total rice production divided by its population) greater than Gujarat?

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 5
  • (4) 6
Correct Answer:
(3) 5
View Solution

Question 67:

An intensive rice producing state is defined as one whose annual rice production per million of population is at least 400,000 tons. How many states are intensive rice producing states?

  • (1) 5
  • (2) 6
  • (3) 7
  • (4) 8
Correct Answer:
 (2) 6
View Solution

Question 68:

Assuming that Parul and Hari are attending the workshop on Communication Skills (CS), then which of the following employees can possibly attend the CS workshop?

  • (1) Rahul and Yamini
  • (2) Dinesh and Lavanya
  • (3) Anshul and Yamini
  • (4) Fatima and Zeena
Correct Answer:
 (1) Rahul and Yamini
View Solution

Question 69:

How many Executives (Exe) cannot attend more than one workshop?

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 15
  • (4) 16
Correct Answer:
(2) 3
View Solution

Question 70:

Which of the following employees cannot attend any of the workshops?

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 4
Correct Answer:
(1) 1
View Solution

Question 71:

If there are no upsets (a lower seeded player beating a higher seeded player) in the first round, and only match Nos. 6, 7, and 8 of the second round result in upsets, then who would meet Lindsay Davenport in quarter finals, in case Davenport reaches quarter finals?

  • (1) Justine Henin
  • (2) Nadia Petrova
  • (3) Patty Schnyder
  • (4) Venus Williams
Correct Answer:
 (2) Nadia Petrova
View Solution

Question 72:

If Elena Dementieva and Serena Williams lose in the second round, while Justine Henin and Nadia Petrova make it to the semi-finals, and there are no upsets in the second round, then who would play Maria Sharapova in the quarterfinals, in the event Sharapova reaches quarterfinals?

  • (1) Dinara Safina
  • (2) Justine Henin
  • (3) Nadia Petrova
  • (4) Patty Schnyder
Correct Answer:
 (1) Dinara Safina
View Solution

Question 73:

If, in the first round, all even numbered matches (and none of the odd numbered ones) result in upsets, and there are no upsets in the second round, then who could be the lowest seeded player facing Maria Sharapova in semi-finals?

  • (1) Anastasia Myskina
  • (2) Flavia Pennetta
  • (3) Nadia Petrova
  • (4) Svetlana Kuznetsova
Correct Answer:
(2) Flavia Pennetta
View Solution

Question 74:

If the top eight seeds make it to the quarterfinals, then who, amongst the players listed below, would definitely not play against Maria Sharapova in the final, in case Sharapova reaches the final?

  • (1) Amelie Mauresmo
  • (2) Elena Dementieva
  • (3) Kim Clijsters
  • (4) Lindsay Davenport
Correct Answer:
 (4) Lindsay Davenport
View Solution

Question 75:

What is the minimum average return Venkat would have earned during the year?

  • (1) 30%
  • (2) \(31\frac{1}{4}%\)
  • (3) \(32\frac{1}{2}%\)
  • (4) Cannot be determined
Correct Answer:
 (2) \(31\frac{1}{4}%\)
View Solution

Question 76:

If Venkat earned a 35% return on average during the year, then which of these statements would necessarily be true?

I. Company A belonged either to Auto or to Steel Industry.

II. Company B did not announce extraordinarily good results.

III. Company A announced extraordinarily good results.

IV. Company D did not announce extraordinarily good results.

  • (1) I and II only
  • (2) I and III only
  • (3) III and IV only
  • (4) II and IV only
Correct Answer:
 (2) I and III only
View Solution

Question 77:

If Venkat earned a 38.75% return on average during the year, then which of these statements(s) would necessarily be true?

I. Company C belonged either to Auto or to Steel Industry.

II. Company D belonged either to Auto or to Steel Industry.

III. Company A announced extraordinarily good results.

IV. Company B did not announce extraordinarily good results.

  • (1) I and II only
  • (2) II and III only
  • (3) I and IV only
  • (4) II and IV only
    (1) I and II only

Correct Answer:
(1) I and II only


View Solution  


Question 78:

If Company C belonged to the Cement or the IT industry and did announce extraordinarily good results, then which of these statement(s) would necessarily be true?

I. Venkat earned not more than 36.25% return on average.

II. Venkat earned not less than 33.75% return on average.

III. If Venkat earned 33.75% return on average, Company A announced extraordinarily good results.

IV. If Venkat earned 33.75% return on average, Company B belonged either to Auto or to Steel Industry.

  • (1) I and I only
  • (2) II and IV only
  • (3) I and III only
  • (4) III and IV only
Correct Answer:
(2) II and IV only
View Solution

Question 79:

What percentage of members from among those who voted for New York in round 1, voted for Beijing in round 2?

  • (1) 33.33
  • (2) 50
  • (3) 66.67
  • (4) 75
Correct Answer:
(3) 66.67
View Solution

Question 80:

What is the number of votes cast for Paris in round 1?

  • (1) 16
  • (2) 18
  • (3) 22
  • (4) 24
Correct Answer:
(2) 18
View Solution

Question 81:

What percentage of members from among those who voted for Beijing in round 2 and were eligible to vote in round 3, voted for London?

  • (1) 33.33
  • (2) 38.10
  • (3) 50
  • (4) 66.67
Correct Answer:
(2) 38.10
View Solution

Question 82:

Which of the following statements must be true?

I. IOC member from New York must have voted for Paris in round 2.

II. IOC member from Beijing must have voted for London in round 3.

  • (1) I only
  • (2) II only
  • (3) Both I and II
  • (4) Neither I nor II
Correct Answer:
(1) I only
View Solution

Question 83:

What can be said regarding the following two statements?

Statement 1: Profitable Ltd. has the lowest share in MP market.

Statement 2: Honest Ltd.’s total revenue is more than Profitable Ltd.

  • (1) If Statement 1 is true then Statement 2 is necessarily true.
  • (2) If Statement 1 is true then Statement 2 is necessarily false.
  • (3) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true.
  • (4) Neither Statement 1 nor Statement 2 is true.
     
Correct Answer:
(1) If Statement 1 is true then Statement 2 is necessarily true.
View Solution

Question 84:

What can be said regarding the following two statements?

Statement 1: Aggressive Ltd.’s lowest revenues are from MP.

Statement 2: Honest Ltd.’s lowest revenues are from Bihar.

  • (1) If Statement 2 is true then Statement 1 is necessarily false.
  • (2) If Statement 1 is true then Statement 2 is necessarily true.
  • (3) If Statement 1 is true then Statement 2 is necessarily false.
  • (4) None of the above.
Correct Answer:
(4) None of the above.
View Solution

Question 85:

What can be said regarding the following two statements?

Statement 1: Honest Ltd. has the highest share in the UP market.

Statement 2: Aggressive Ltd. has the highest share in the Bihar market.

  • (1) Both statements could be true.
  • (2) At least one of the statements must be true.
  • (3) At most one of the statements is true.
  • (4) None of the above.
Correct Answer:
(1) Both statements could be true.
View Solution

Question 86:

If Profitable Ltd.’s lowest revenue is from UP, then which of the following is true?

  • (1) Truthful Ltd.’s lowest revenues are from MP.
  • (2) Truthful Ltd.’s lowest revenues are from Bihar.
  • (3) Truthful Ltd.’s lowest revenues are from UP.
  • (4) No definite conclusion is possible.
Correct Answer:
(4) No definite conclusion is possible.
View Solution

Question 87:

Based on the information given above, the minimum number of volunteers involved in both FR and TR projects, but not in the ER project is

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 5
Correct Answer:

(2) 3
View Solution


Question 88:

Which of the following additional information would enable to find the exact number of volunteers involved in various projects?

  • (1) Twenty volunteers are involved in FR.
  • (2) Four volunteers are involved in all the three projects.
  • (3) Twenty one volunteers are involved in exactly one project.
  • (4) No need for any additional information.
     
Correct Answer:
 (3) Twenty one volunteers are involved in exactly one project.
View Solution

Question 89:

After some time, the volunteers who were involved in all the three projects were asked to withdraw from one project. As a result, one of the volunteers opted out of the TR project, and one opted out of the ER project, while the remaining ones involved in all the three projects opted out of the FR project. Which of the following statements, then, necessarily follows?

  • (1) The lowest number of volunteers is now in TR project.
  • (2) More volunteers are now in FR project as compared to ER project.
  • (3) More volunteers are now in TR project as compared to ER project.
  • (4) None of the above.
Correct Answer:

(3) More volunteers are now in TR project as compared to ER project.
View Solution


Question 90:

After the withdrawal of volunteers, some new volunteers joined the NGO. Each one of them was allotted only one project in such a way that, the number of volunteers working in one project alone for each of the three projects became identical. At that point, it was also found that the number of volunteers involved in FR and ER projects was the same as the number of volunteers involved in TR and ER projects. Which of the projects now has the highest number of volunteers?

  • (1) ER
  • (2) FR
  • (3) TR
  • (4) Cannot be determined
Correct Answer:
(2) FR
View Solution


Also Check:

CAT 2005 Paper Analysis

Please go through the below-mentioned points in order to get a detailed analysis of CAT 2005 question paper.

  • The QA section interestingly carried 6-7 easy level questions carrying 1 mark and 5-6 easy questions carrying 2 marks.
  • As per the score vs percentile analysis, a score of 24-25 in the QA section was required to get around 98 percentile.
  • The VARC section was a little complex as compared to last year. A score of 26+ was required to attain a minimum 90 percentile.
  • All the questions in the DILR section carrying 1 mark each were complex and time-consuming.
Sections Topics Total Marks No. Of Questions Suggested Time Good Attempts
1-A QA 10 10 10 5+
1-B QA 40 20 30 14+
1-A VARC 10 10 10 8+
1-B VARC 40 20 30 26+
1-A DILR 10 10 12 6+
1-B DILR 40 20 28 12+
Total 150 90 120 71+

CAT Question Papers of Other Years

Other MBA Exam Question Papers

CAT Questions

  • 1.
    Renu would take 15 days working 4 hours per day to complete a certain task whereas Seema would take 8 days working 5 hours per day to complete the same task. They decide to work together to complete this task. Seema agrees to work for double the number of hours per day as Renu, while Renu agrees to work for double the number of days as Seema. If Renu works 2 hours per day, then the number of days Seema will work, is


      • 2.
        If \(3^a = 4, 4^b = 5, 5^c = 6, 6^d = 7, 7^e = 8 \) and  \(8^f = 9\),  then the value of the product \(abcdef\)  is


          • 3.
            A regular octagon ABCDEFGH has sides of length 6 cm each. Then the area, in sq. cm, of the square ACEG is

              • \({36(1 + \sqrt{2})}\)
              • \({72(2 + \sqrt{2})}\)
              • \({72(1 + \sqrt{2})}\)
              • \({36(2 + \sqrt{2})}\)

            • 4.
              Gopi marks a price on a product in order to make 20% profit. Ravi gets 10% discount on this marked price, and thus saves Rs 15. Then, the profit, in rupees, made by Gopi by selling the product to Ravi, is

                • 20
                • 25
                • 15
                • 10

              • 5.
                The surface area of a closed rectangular box, which is inscribed in a sphere, is 846 sq cm, and the sum of the lengths of all its edges is 144 cm. The volume, in cubic cm, of the sphere is ?

                  • \(1125\pi\sqrt{2}\)
                  • \(750\pi\)
                  • \(750\pi\sqrt{2}\)
                  • \(1125\pi\)

                • 6.
                  If x and y satisfy the equations |x| + x + y = 15 and x + |y| − y = 20, then (xy) equals

                    • 5
                    • 10
                    • 20
                    • 15

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