KCET 2023 Biology Question Paper (Available): Download Set B4 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

Question 1:

The Lac-Operon model was elucidated by

• (A) Jacob and Crick
• (B) Watson and Crick
• (C) Francois Jacob and Jaques Monad
• (D) Hershey and Chase

Which of these is NOT an example for Adaptive radiation?

• (A) Long-necked Giraffe
• (B) Darwin’s finches
• (C) Australian marsupials
• (D) Placental mammals

In a population of 800 rabbits showing Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of recessive individuals was 0.16. What is the frequency of heterozygous individuals?

• (A) 0.36
• (B) 0.4
• (C) 0.48
• (D) 0.84

In male heterogametic type of sex determination

• (A) Males do not produce gametes.
• (B) Male parent produces similar gametes.
• (C) Female parent produces similar gametes.
• (D) Male parent produces dissimilar gametes.

In one of the hybridisation experiments, a homozygous dominant parent and a homozygous recessive parent are crossed for a trait. (Plant shows Mendelian inheritance pattern)

• (A) Dominant parent trait appears in \( F_2 \) generation and recessive parent trait appears only in \( F_1 \) generation.
• (B) Dominant parent trait appears in \( F_1 \) generation and recessive parent trait appears in \( F_2 \) generation.
• (C) Dominant parent trait appears in both \( F_1 \) \& \( F_2 \) generations, recessive parent trait appears in only \( F_2 \) generation.
• (D) Dominant parent trait appears in \( F_1 \) generation and recessive parent trait appears in \( F_1 \) and \( F_2 \) generations.

Histone proteins are positively charged because they are rich in basic amino acid residues

• (A) Arginine and Proline
• (B) Arginine and Alanine
• (C) Arginine and Lysine
• (D) Arginine and Phenylalanine

Eukaryotic genes are monocistronic but they are split genes because

• (A) Introns are interrupted with Mutons.
• (B) they contain Exons only.
• (C) they contain Introns only.
• (D) Exons are interrupted by Introns.

Identify from the following a pair of better yielding semi dwarf varieties of rice developed in India.

• (A) Kalyan Sona and Sonalika
• (B) Jaya and Ratna
• (C) Sonalika and Ratna
• (D) Jaya and Kalyan Sona

In MoET technique, fertilized eggs are transferred into surrogate mother in which of the following stage?

• (A) 16–32 celled stage
• (B) 2–4 celled stage
• (C) 8–16 celled stage
• (D) 8–32 celled stage

Roquefort cheese is ripened by

• (A) Yeast
• (B) Bacterium
• (C) Fungi
• (D) Virus

Four students were assigned a science project to find out the pollution levels of lakes in their surroundings. After analysing the quality of water samples, the BOD values were found as follows:

Which among the following water samples is highly polluted?

• (A) 0.16 mg/L
• (B) 0.6 mg/L
• (C) 0.06 mg/L
• (D) 6 mg/L

The toxic substance ‘haemozoin’ responsible for high fever and chill, is released in which of the following diseases?

• (A) Typhoid
• (B) Dengue
• (C) Pneumonia
• (D) Malaria

Identify the symptoms of pneumonia.

• (A) High fever, weakness, stomach pain, loss of appetite
• (B) Difficulty in breathing, fever, chills, cough, headache
• (C) Nasal congestion and discharge, cough, sore throat, headache
• (D) Constipation, Abdominal pain, cramps, blood clots

The variety of Okra, Pusa Sawani, is resistant to which of the following insect pests?

• (A) Cereal leaf beetle
• (B) Aphids
• (C) Jassids
• (D) Shoot \& Fruit borer

With respect to Inbreeding, which among the following is not true?

• (A) It helps to evolve a pure line in an animal.
• (B) Inbreeding decreases homozygosity.
• (C) It helps in accumulation of superior genes.
• (D) It helps in elimination of less desirable genes.

Generally, bears avoid winter by undergoing

• (A) Migration
• (B) Diapause
• (C) Hibernation
• (D) Aestivation

Match Column-I with Column-II. Select the option with correct combination.

• (A) 1-p, 2-s, 3-r, 4-q
• (B) 1-q, 2-r, 3-p, 4-s
• (C) 1-p, 2-r, 3-s, 4-q
• (D) 1-q, 2-r, 3-s, 4-p

PCR is used for

• (A) DNA amplification
• (B) DNA isolation
• (C) DNA ligation
• (D) DNA digestion

Which of these is NOT a method to make host cells ‘competent’ to take up DNA?

• (A) Use of disarmed pathogen vectors
• (B) Micro-injection
• (C) Elution
• (D) Biolistics

Select the correct statement from the following:

• (A) DNA from one organism will not band to DNA from other organism.
• (B) Genetic engineering works only on animals and not yet successfully used on plants.
• (C) There are no risk factors associated with r-DNA technology.
• (D) The first step in PCR is heating which is used to separate both the strands of gene of interest.

Choose the incorrect statement with reference to Kangaroo rat.

• (A) eliminates dilute urine.
• (B) found in North American desert.
• (C) meets its water requirements through internal fat oxidation.
• (D) uses minimal water to remove excretory products.

During transcription the DNA strand with 3' → 5' polarity of the structural gene always acts as a template because

• (A) Nucleotides of DNA strand with 5' → 3' are transferred to mRNA.
• (B) Enzyme DNA dependent RNA polymerase always catalyse the polymerisation in 5' → 3' direction.
• (C) Enzyme DNA dependent RNA polymerase always catalyse the polymerisation in 3' → 5' direction.
• (D) Enzyme DNA dependent RNA polymerase always catalyse polymerisation in both the directions.

According to David Tilman’s long term ecosystem experiments, the total biomass in plots with more species shows,

• (A) No variation from year-to-year.
• (B) Less variation from year-to-year.
• (C) High variation from year-to-year.
• (D) Average variation from year-to-year.

The toxic heavy metals from various industries which cause water pollution, normally have a density

• (A) more than 12.5 g/cm\textsuperscript{3}
• (B) more than 5 g/cm\textsuperscript{3}
• (C) more than 15 g/cm\textsuperscript{3}
• (D) more than 7.5 g/cm\textsuperscript{3}

Identify the correct option showing the relative contribution of different greenhouse gases to the total global warming.

• (A) CFC–14%, CO\textsubscript{2}–60%, Methane–6%, N\textsubscript{2}O–20%
• (B) CFC–14%, CO\textsubscript{2}–60%, Methane–20%, N\textsubscript{2}O–6%
• (C) CFC–20%, CO\textsubscript{2}–60%, Methane–14%, N\textsubscript{2}O–6%
• (D) CFC–6%, CO\textsubscript{2}–60%, Methane–20%, N\textsubscript{2}O–14%

A flower has 10 stamens each having bilobed dithecous anther. If each microsporangium has 5 pollen mother cells, how many pollen grains would be produced by the flower?

• (A) 1600
• (B) 200
• (C) 400
• (D) 800

From the following tools / techniques of genetic engineering, identify those which are required for cloning a bacterial gene in animal cells and choose the correct option:


I. Endonuclease
II. Ligase
III. A. tumefaciens
IV. Microinjection
V. Gene gun
VI. Lysozyme
VII. Cellulase
VIII. Electrophoresis

• (A) II, III, IV, VI, VII, VIII
• (B) II, III, V, VII, VIII
• (C) I, II, IV, VI, VIII
• (D) I, III, IV, V, VII

Identify the incorrect statement regarding the flow of energy between various components of the food chain.

• (A) Each trophic level loses some energy as heat to the environment.
• (B) The amount of energy available at each trophic level is 10% of the previous trophic level.
• (C) Energy flow is unidirectional.
• (D) Green plants capture about 10% of the solar energy that falls on leaves.

Find out the correct match.

• (A) Dysentery – Protozoa – Liver
• (B) Ringworm – Fungus – Skin
• (C) Typhoid – Bacteria – Lungs
• (D) Filariasis – Common round worm – Small intestine

Match the following columns and choose the correct option:

• (A) r p q s
• (B) q r s p
• (C) r s p q
• (D) s p q r

When the vascular cambium is present between the xylem and phloem, then the vascular bundle is called,

• (A) Closed
• (B) Exarch
• (C) Open
• (D) Endarch

The function of Typhlosole in earthworm is

• (A) Increasing the effective area of absorption in the intestine
• (B) Grinding of soil particles
• (C) Grinding of decaying leaves
• (D) Transportation

Select the correctly matched pair of organisms with their order.

• (A) Mangifera, indica : Primata
• (B) Triticum, aestivum : Sapindales
• (C) Musa, domestica : Diptera
• (D) Homo, sapiens : Poales

Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct option from the following:

• (A) q s p r
• (B) s r q p
• (C) r p s q
• (D) q p s r

Flame cells present in the members of platyhelminthes are specialized to perform,

• (A) Respiration and Osmoregulation
• (B) Osmoregulation and Circulation
• (C) Osmoregulation and Excretion
• (D) Respiration and Excretion

Identify the floral formula of plant belonging to potato family.

• (A) \( \oplus, K(5), C_5, A_{9}+1, G_1 \)
• (B) \( \oplus, K(5), C_5, A_5, G_2 \)
• (C) \( \oplus, K_{10}, C_{10}, A_{10}, G_2 \)
• (D) \( \oplus, P_{3+3}, A_{3+3}, G_3 \)

Toxicity of which micronutrient induces deficiency of iron, magnesium, and calcium?

• (A) Boron
• (B) Zinc
• (C) Molybdenum
• (D) Manganese

Considering the stroke volume of an adult healthy human being is 70 mL, identify the cardiac output in one hour from the following:

• (A) 50.40 Lit/hour
• (B) 504.0 Lit/hour
• (C) 30.24 Lit/hour
• (D) 302.4 Lit/hour

Function of contractile vacuole in Amoeba is

• (A) Digestion and excretion
• (B) Excretion and osmoregulation
• (C) Digestion and respiration
• (D) Osmoregulation and movements

Match List-I and List-II with respect to proteins and their functions and select the correct option.

• (A) 1-s, 2-p, 3-r, 4-p
• (B) 1-q, 2-r, 3-p, 4-s
• (C) 1-s, 2-q, 3-r, 4-p
• (D) 1-s, 2-r, 3-q, 4-p

The complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is called,

• (A) Univalent
• (B) Pentavalent
• (C) Triad
• (D) Bivalent

Match column-I with column-II. Select the option with correct combination.

• (A) 1-q, 2-s, 3-p, 4-r
• (B) 1-q, 2-s, 3-r, 4-p
• (C) 1-q, 2-r, 3-p, 4-s
• (D) 1-q, 2-p, 3-s, 4-r

In Bryophyllum, the adventitious buds arise from

• (A) Leaf base
• (B) Leaf axil
• (C) Notches in the leaf margin
• (D) Shoot apex

Primary endosperm nucleus is formed by fusion of

• (A) Two polar nuclei and two male gametes
• (B) Two polar nuclei and one male gamete
• (C) Ovum and male gamete
• (D) One polar nucleus and male gamete

Identify the option showing the correct labeling for p, q, r, and s with reference to the conducting system of the human heart.

• (A) p- Interventricular septum, q-AVN, r- Bundle of His, s-SAN
• (B) p-SAN, q-AVN, r-Bundle of His, s-Interventricular septum
• (C) p-AVN, q-SAN, r-Interventricular septum, s-Bundle of His
• (D) p-Bundle of His, q-SAN, r-Interventricular septum, s-AVN

Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF) acts as a

• (A) Hypertension inducer
• (B) Check on Renin-Angiotensin mechanism
• (C) Promoter on Renin-Angiotensin mechanism
• (D) Vasoconstrictor

The vibrations from the ear drum are transmitted through ear ossicles to

• (A) Auditory nerves
• (B) Cochlea
• (C) Oval window
• (D) Tectorial membrane

Bamboo species flowers

• (A) Twice in 50-100 years
• (B) Every year
• (C) Once in 12 years
• (D) Once in lifetime

With reference to human sperm, match the List-I with List-II.

• (A) 1-r, 2-q, 3-s, 4-p
• (B) 1-s, 2-p, 3-q, 4-r
• (C) 1-s, 2-r, 3-p, 4-q
• (D) 1-q, 2-s, 3-r, 4-p

Which pair of the following cells in the embryo sac are destined to change their ploidy after fertilization?

• (A) Egg cell and central cell
• (B) Antipodals and synergids
• (C) Synergids and egg cell
• (D) Central cell and antipodals

In the female reproductive system, a tiny finger-like structure which lies at the upper junction of the two labia minora above the urethral opening is called

• (A) Vagina
• (B) Hymen
• (C) Mons pubis
• (D) Clitoris

Consider the following statements with reference to the female reproductive system:

Statement 1: The presence or absence of the hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity or sexual experience.

Statement 2: The sex of the foetus is determined by the father and not by the mother.

Choose the correct option from the following:

• (A) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are wrong.
• (B) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is wrong.
• (C) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct.
• (D) Statement 1 is wrong and Statement 2 is correct.

The male sex accessory ducts include,

• (A) Rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas deferens
• (B) Rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and seminal vesicle
• (C) Rete testis, urethra, epididymis and vas deferens
• (D) Rete testis, vasa efferentia, seminal vesicle and vas deferens

Which of the following statements is correct?

• (A) Female carrier for haemophilia may transmit the disease to sons.
• (B) Thalassemia is a qualitative problem.
• (C) Change in whole set of chromosomes is called aneuploidy.
• (D) Sickle cell anaemia is a quantitative problem.

'Gene-mapping' technology was developed by

• (A) Mendel
• (B) Tschermak
• (C) Correns
• (D) Sturtevant

Find the correct statement.

(1) Generally, a gene regulates a trait, but sometimes one gene has an effect on multiple traits.

(2) The trait AB-blood group of man is regulated by one dominant allele and another recessive allele. Hence it is co-dominant.

• (A) Both Statements are wrong.
• (B) Statement (1) is correct.
• (C) Statement (2) is correct.
• (D) Both Statements (1) and (2) are correct.

From the following table, select the option that correctly characterizes various phases of the menstrual cycle:

• (A) Regeneration of endometrium, High level of progesterone, Developing corpus luteum
• (B) Matured follicle, Regression of corpus luteum, Ovulation
• (C) Menses, Developing corpus luteum, Follicle maturation
• (D) Menses, L.H. Surge, Regeneration of endometrium

Which of the following is abbreviated as ZIFT?

• (A) Zygote Inter Fallopian Tube
• (B) Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer
• (C) Zygote Inter Fallopian Transfer
• (D) Zygote Intra Fallopian Tube

An example for hormone releasing IUD is

• (A) Implant
• (B) LNG-20
• (C) Multiload 375
• (D) Lippes loop

MTPs are considered relatively safe during

• (A) First trimester
• (B) Second trimester
• (C) 24 weeks of pregnancy
• (D) 180 days of pregnancy