GMAT 2016 Question Paper with Answer Key and Solutions PDF

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Updated on, Oct 1, 2025

byShivam Yadav

GMAT 2016 Question Paper with Answer Key and Solutions PDF is available for download. GMAT lasts for a total of 2 hours and 15 minutes, with an optional 10-minute break. Throughout the test, candidates will be required to answer 64 questions, distributed as follows:

  • Quantitative Reasoning: 21 questions, to be completed in 45 minutes.
  • Verbal Reasoning: 23 questions, to be completed in 45 minutes.
  • Data Insights: 20 questions, to be completed in 45 minutes.

GMAT 2016 Question Paper with Solutions PDF

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GMAT 2016 Question Paper


Question 1:

Greg sells gaskets. On three sales, Greg has received commissions of
(385,
)70, and
(190, and he has one additional sale pending. If Greg is to receive an average (arithmetic mean) commission of exactly
)220 on the four sales, then the fourth commission must be:

  • (A)
    (135
  • (B)
    )155
  • (C)
    (220
  • (D)
    )235
  • (E)
    (645

Question 2:

In an effort to plan out expenses, the Roberts family is representing its annual budget as a circle graph. Each sector of the graph is proportional to the amount of the budget it represents. If "clothes and shoes" takes up 54\degree of the chart, how much of the Roberts's
(20,000 annual budget is dedicated to clothes and shoes?

  • (A)
    )1,500
  • (B)
    (3,000
  • (C)
    )4,500
  • (D)
    (5,000
  • (E)
    )5,400
Correct Answer: (D)
(5,000
View Solution




Step 1: Proportion of the chart for clothes and shoes.

Since 54\degree of the circle represents clothes and shoes, the proportion is: \[ \frac{54}{360} = \frac{x}{20000} \]
where \( x \) is the amount spent on clothes and shoes.

Step 2: Solve for \( x \).
\[ x = \frac{54}{360} \times 20000 = 0.15 \times 20000 = 5000 \]


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{5000} \] Quick Tip: To calculate a budget based on a pie chart, use the ratio of the angle of the sector to the total angle of the circle (360\degree).


Question 3:

What is the value of \( 3x^2 - 1.8x + 0.3 \) for \( x = 0.6 \)?

  • (A) -0.3
  • (B) 0
  • (C) 0.3
  • (D) 1.08
  • (E) 2.46

Question 4:

Over a three-week period, the price of an ounce of gold increased by 25% in the first week, decreased by 20% in the following week, and increased by 5% in the third week. If the price of gold was \( G \) dollars per ounce at the beginning of the three weeks, what was the price, in terms of \( G \), at the end of the three weeks?

  • (A) 0.95G
  • (B) G
  • (C) 1.05G
  • (D) 1.1G
  • (E) 1.15G
Correct Answer: (E) 1.15G
View Solution




Step 1: Calculate the price after the first week.

The price increased by 25%, so the price after the first week is: \[ G \times 1.25 \]

Step 2: Calculate the price after the second week.

The price decreased by 20%, so the price after the second week is: \[ G \times 1.25 \times 0.80 = G \times 1.00 \]

Step 3: Calculate the price after the third week.

The price increased by 5%, so the final price is: \[ G \times 1.00 \times 1.05 = G \times 1.05 \]


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{1.05G} \] Quick Tip: To calculate successive percentage changes, multiply the price by the corresponding factors for each period.


Question 5:

If a cube has a total surface area of 96, what is its volume?

  • (A) 16
  • (B) 36
  • (C) 64
  • (D) 96

Question 6:

The table below shows the enrollment in various classes at a certain college.


Class



Although no student is enrolled in all three classes, 15 are enrolled in both Biology and Physics, 10 are enrolled in both Biology and Calculus, and 12 are enrolled in both Physics and Calculus. How many students are in all three classes?

  • (A) 51
  • (B) 88
  • (C) 90
  • (D) 125
  • (E) 162
Correct Answer: (A) 51
View Solution




Step 1: Use the principle of inclusion and exclusion.

Let \( x \) represent the number of students enrolled in all three classes. According to the principle of inclusion and exclusion: \[ Total students in at least one class = (Biology) + (Physics) + (Calculus) - (Biology and Physics) - (Biology and Calculus) - (Physics and Calculus) + (All three classes) \]
Substitute the values: \[ 50 + 35 + 40 - 15 - 10 - 12 + x = 50 \]

Step 2: Simplify and solve for \( x \).
\[ 125 - 37 + x = 50 \] \[ 88 + x = 50 \] \[ x = 50 - 88 = 51 \]


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{51} \] Quick Tip: Use the inclusion-exclusion principle to find the number of students in multiple sets (classes).


Question 7:

In a nationwide poll, P people were asked 2 questions. If \(\frac{2}{3}\) answered "yes" to question 1, and of those \(\frac{1}{5}\) also answered "yes" to question 2, which of the following represents the number of people polled who did not answer "yes" to both questions?

  • (A) \(\frac{2}{15} P\)
  • (B) \(\frac{3}{5} P\)
  • (C) \(\frac{3}{4} P\)
  • (D) \(\frac{5}{6} P\)
  • (E) \(\frac{13}{15} P\)

Question 8:

A certain salad dressing made only of oil and vinegar is premixed and sold in the grocery store. What is the ratio of oil to vinegar in the mix?



(1)An 18.6-ounce bottle of the salad dressing contains 12.4 ounces of vinegar.

(2)In a 32-ounce bottle of the salad dressing, there is half as much oil as there is vinegar.

  • (A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.
  • (B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient.
  • (C) BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
  • (D) EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
  • (E) Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

Question 9:

At a certain pancake festival with 600 attendees in which every attendee ate at least 1 pancake, how many people had only 1 pancake?


(1) At the festival there were 1,200 pancakes served, and no person had more than 3 pancakes.

(2) Seventy-two percent of the attendees at the festival had 2 or more pancakes.

  • (A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.
  • (B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient.
  • (C) BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
  • (D) EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
  • (E) Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

Question 10:

A rectangle is equal in area to a square with sides of length 12. Is the diagonal of the rectangle greater in length than 20?


(1) The rectangle has a length of 16.

(2) The rectangle has a width of 9.

  • (A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.
  • (B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient.
  • (C) BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
  • (D) EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
  • (E) Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

Question 11:

A type of candy comes in two flavors, sweet and sour, and in two colors, yellow and green. The color and flavor of the individual pieces of candy are not related. If in a certain box of this candy, \(\frac{1}{4}\) of the yellow pieces and \(\frac{5}{7}\) of the green pieces are sour, what is the ratio of the number of yellow pieces to the number of green pieces in the box?



(1)In the box, the number of sweet yellow pieces is equal to the number of sour green pieces.

(2)In the box, the number of green pieces is two less than the number of yellow pieces.

  • (A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.
  • (B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient.
  • (C) BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
  • (D) EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
  • (E) Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

Question 12:

In isosceles triangle ABC, what is the value of \(\angle LC\)?


(1) The measure of \(\angle LB\) is 47\degree

(2) The measure of \(\angle LA\) is 96\degree

  • (A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.
  • (B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient.
  • (C) BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
  • (D) EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
  • (E) Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

Question 13:

In the rectangular quadrant system shown above, which quadrant, if any, contains no point \( (x, y) \) that satisfies the equation \( 3x + 5y = -2 \)?

  • (A) none
  • (B) I
  • (C) II
  • (D) III
  • (E) IV
Correct Answer: (A) none
View Solution




Step 1: Write the equation of the line.

The given equation is \( 3x + 5y = -2 \). To find the intercepts:

- For \( x \)-intercept: Set \( y = 0 \), then \( 3x = -2 \Rightarrow x = -\frac{2}{3} \).

- For \( y \)-intercept: Set \( x = 0 \), then \( 5y = -2 \Rightarrow y = -\frac{2}{5} \).


Step 2: Plot the points.

The intercepts are \( (-\frac{2}{3}, 0) \) and \( (0, -\frac{2}{5}) \). These points lie in the negative half of both axes.


Step 3: Analyze the quadrants.

The line passes through Quadrants II and III, and no quadrant is void of points satisfying the equation. Thus, the correct answer is (A) none.
Quick Tip: To determine if an equation satisfies a quadrant, plot the intercepts and analyze which quadrants are intersected by the line.


Question 14:

If a copier makes 3 copies every 4 seconds, then continues at this rate, how many minutes will it take to make 9,000 copies?

  • (A) 60
  • (B) 100
  • (C) 120
  • (D) 200
  • (E) 3,000

Question 15:

To be considered grade AA, an egg must weigh between 75 and 90 grams, including the shell. Shells of grade AA eggs weigh between 3 and 5 grams. What is the smallest possible mass, in grams, of a 12-egg omelet, assuming that only grade AA eggs are used, the shells are all discarded, and no mass is lost in the cooking process?

  • (A) 800
  • (B) 840
  • (C) 864
  • (D) 900
  • (E) 1,080

Question 16:

Evaluate \( (0.2)^{\frac{1}{3}} \) to \( (0.2)^{\frac{5}{3}} \).

  • (A) 0.0008
  • (B) 0.001
  • (C) 0.008
  • (D) 0.04
  • (E) 0.08

Question 17:

What is the ratio of \( \left( \frac{1}{3} \right)^2 \) to \( \left( \frac{1}{3} \right)^4 \)?

  • (A) 9
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 1
  • (D) 1:3
  • (E) 1:27

Question 18:

A group of 7 fishermen chartered a boat for a day to fish for flounder. The boat costs \( x \) dollars per day to rent. If the group can find 3 more fishermen on the docks who are willing to come aboard and share the rental costs, how much less will the rental cost be per person in terms of \( x \)?

  • (A) \( \frac{x}{70} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{x}{35} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{3x}{70} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{3x}{10} \)
  • (E) \( \frac{3x}{7} \)

Question 19:

The size of a flat-screen television is given as the length of the screen's diagonal. How many square inches greater is the screen of a square 34-inch flat-screen television than a square 27-inch flat-screen television?

  • (A) 106.75
  • (B) 213.5
  • (C) 427
  • (D) 729
  • (E) 1,156
  • (A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.
  • (B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient.
  • (C) BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
  • (D) EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
Correct Answer: (B) 213.5
View Solution




Step 1: Calculate the area of the 34-inch television.

The area of a square is given by \( A = side^2 \). The diagonal of a square relates to its side by the Pythagorean theorem: \[ diagonal = side \times \sqrt{2}. \]
For the 34-inch diagonal, the side length is: \[ side = \frac{34}{\sqrt{2}} \approx 24.04 \, inches. \]
Thus, the area of the 34-inch square television is: \[ A_{34} = 24.04^2 \approx 578.92 \, square inches. \]

Step 2: Calculate the area of the 27-inch television.

For the 27-inch diagonal, the side length is: \[ side = \frac{27}{\sqrt{2}} \approx 19.09 \, inches. \]
Thus, the area of the 27-inch square television is: \[ A_{27} = 19.09^2 \approx 364.42 \, square inches. \]

Step 3: Calculate the difference in areas.

The difference in area between the 34-inch and 27-inch televisions is: \[ Difference = 578.92 - 364.42 = 213.5 \, square inches. \]

Step 4: Conclusion.

Thus, the difference in the areas of the two televisions is 213.5 square inches. The correct answer is (B) 213.5.
Quick Tip: For square screens, the area is related to the diagonal by \( side = \frac{diagonal}{\sqrt{2}} \), and area is the side squared.


Question 20:

What is the value of \( n \)?

  • (1) \( n^4 = 256 \)
  • (2) \( n^2 > n^4 \)

Question 21:

An employee at a company was given the task of making a large number of copies. He spent the first 45 minutes making copies at a constant rate on copier A, but copier A broke down before the task was completed. He then spent the next 30 minutes finishing the task on copier B, which also produced copies at a constant rate. How many total minutes would the task have taken had copier A not broken down?

  • (1) Copier A produced twice as many copies in its first 5 minutes of operation as copier B produced in its first 15 minutes.
  • (2) Copier B produces 10 copies per minute.
Correct Answer: (C) BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
View Solution




Step 1: Analyze statement (1).

Statement (1) tells us that copier A produced twice as many copies in its first 5 minutes as copier B produced in its first 15 minutes. While this gives a relation between the rates of the copiers, it does not give enough information to determine the total time it would take for the task if copier A had not broken down. Hence, statement (1) alone is insufficient.


Step 2: Analyze statement (2).

Statement (2) tells us that copier B produces 10 copies per minute. While this gives us the rate of copier B, we do not know how many copies were made by copier A, so statement (2) alone is insufficient.


Step 3: Combine both statements.

Together, we now know the rates of both copiers. From statement (1), we know copier A is twice as fast as copier B in the first 5 minutes, and from statement (2), we know copier B’s rate. Combining these facts allows us to calculate how long it would have taken copier A to complete the task alone.


Conclusion:

Thus, both statements together provide enough information to determine the total time, so the correct answer is (C).
Quick Tip: When working with data sufficiency problems, sometimes combining two statements gives you the necessary information that neither statement provides on its own.


Question 22:

If \( ab \neq 0 \), is \( c \) an integer?

  • (1) \( c = 5a - 2b \)
  • (2) \( a = 2b \)

Question 23:

\( x = 0.57y \). If \( y \) denotes the thousandth digit in the decimal representation of \( x \), what digit is \( y \)?

  • (1) If \( x \) were rounded to the nearest tenth, the result would be 0.6.
  • (2) If \( x \) were rounded to the nearest hundredth, the result would be 0.58.

Question 24:

Is integer \( y > 0 \)?

  • (1) \( -(2 + y) > 0 \)
  • (2) \( (2 + y)^2 > 0 \)

Question 25:

If 4 and 11 are the lengths of two sides of a triangular region, which of the following can be the length of the third side?


I. 5

II. 13

III. 15

Correct Answer: (C) I and II only
View Solution




Step 1: Apply the triangle inequality theorem.

The triangle inequality theorem states that the sum of the lengths of any two sides of a triangle must be greater than the length of the third side. For sides \( a \), \( b \), and \( c \), the following inequalities must hold: \[ a + b > c, \quad a + c > b, \quad b + c > a. \]
In our case, the known sides are 4 and 11. Let the third side be \( x \). The inequalities are: \[ 4 + 11 > x \quad or \quad x < 15, \] \[ 4 + x > 11 \quad or \quad x > 7, \] \[ 11 + x > 4 \quad which is always true since \( x > 0 \). \]
Thus, the third side \( x \) must satisfy: \[ 7 < x < 15. \]

Step 2: Analyze the options.

- (I) \( x = 5 \): This does not satisfy \( x > 7 \), so 5 cannot be the third side.

- (II) \( x = 13 \): This satisfies \( 7 < x < 15 \), so 13 can be the third side.

- (III) \( x = 15 \): This does not satisfy \( x < 15 \), so 15 cannot be the third side.

Conclusion:

Thus, the possible third sides are 13, so the correct answer is (C) I and II only.
Quick Tip: The triangle inequality theorem is key when determining possible lengths of a triangle's sides.


Question 26:

A certain truck uses 18 gallons of diesel fuel in traveling 270 miles. In order for the truck to travel the same distance using 10 gallons of diesel fuel, by how many miles per gallon must the truck’s fuel mileage be increased?

  • (A) 8
  • (B) 9
  • (C) 12
  • (D) 15
  • (E) 27
Correct Answer: (C) 12
View Solution




Step 1: Calculate the current fuel efficiency.

The truck currently uses 18 gallons of diesel to travel 270 miles. The current fuel efficiency is: \[ Current fuel efficiency = \frac{270}{18} = 15 \, miles per gallon. \]

Step 2: Calculate the desired fuel efficiency.

The truck needs to travel 270 miles using only 10 gallons of diesel. The required fuel efficiency is: \[ Required fuel efficiency = \frac{270}{10} = 27 \, miles per gallon. \]

Step 3: Find the increase in fuel efficiency.

The truck’s fuel efficiency must increase from 15 miles per gallon to 27 miles per gallon. The increase in fuel efficiency is: \[ 27 - 15 = 12 \, miles per gallon. \]

Conclusion:

Thus, the truck’s fuel mileage must be increased by 12 miles per gallon. The correct answer is (C) 12.
Quick Tip: To find the required increase in fuel efficiency, calculate the current and required efficiencies, then subtract the current efficiency from the required efficiency.


Question 27:

The figure above represents a window, with the shaded regions representing openings for glass and the pale regions representing the wood panels between and around the glass. If the window is 4.5 feet high by 2.5 feet wide, and if each of the wooden panels is exactly 4 inches thick, what is the total surface area, in square inches, of glass in the window?

  • (A) 189
  • (B) 378
  • (C) 448
  • (D) 756
  • (E) 1,620

Question 28:

If \( 3(x^2 + x) - 7 = x^2 + 2(4 + x^2) \), then \( x = ? \)

  • (A) 5
  • (B) 6
  • (C) 9
  • (D) 15
  • (E) 25

Question 29:

Suzie's Discount Footwear sells all pairs of shoes for one price and all pairs of boots for another price. On Monday the store sold 22 pairs of shoes and 16 pairs of boots for \(650. On Tuesday the store sold 8 pairs of shoes and 32 pairs of boots for \)760. How much more do pairs of boots cost than pairs of shoes at Suzie's Discount Footwear?

  • (A) \(2.50
  • (B) \)5.00
  • (C) \(5.50
  • (D) \)7.50
  • (E) \(15.00

Question 30:

For any 3 given numbers, which of the following is always equivalent to adding the 3 numbers together and then dividing the sum by 3?

  • (A) I only
  • (B) II only
  • (C) I and II only
  • (D) II and III only
  • (E) None of the above

Question 31:

A hat company ships its hats, individually wrapped, in 8-inch by 10-inch by 12-inch boxes. Each hat is valued at
(7.50. If the company's latest order required a truck with at least 288,000 cubic inches of storage space in which to ship the hats in their boxes, what was the minimum value of the order?

  • (A)
    )960
  • (B)
    (1,350
  • (C)
    )1,450
  • (D)
    (2,250
  • (E)
    )2,500

Question 32:

Chauncy, an English bulldog, received 1,618 votes in the Mr. Bulldog USA competition, giving him approximately 20 percent of the vote. Approximately what percent of the remaining votes would he have needed to receive in order to win 30 percent of the total votes?

  • (A) 10%
  • (B) 12.5%
  • (C) 15%
  • (D) 17.5%
  • (E) 20%
  • (A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.
  • (B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient.
  • (C) BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
  • (D) EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.

Question 33:

If 8 skiers raced down a course multiple times in one day, and each skier used a different pair of skis on each run, what is the total number of different skis used by the 8 skiers during the day?

  • (1) No skier shared any skis with any other skier.
  • (2) Each skier made exactly 12 runs during the day.

Question 34:

The symbol \( \oplus \) represents one of the following operations: addition, subtraction, multiplication, or division. What is the value of \( 7 \oplus 4 \) if \( 7 \oplus 4 \) is the same as \( 7 \oplus 3 \)?

  • (1) \( 4 \oplus 7 < 1 \)
  • (2) \( 4 \oplus 3 > 1 \)

Question 35:

Salespeople at a certain car dealership are paid a \(250 commission on every car they sell up to their monthly quota, and \)500 for every car they sell over the quota. What is the monthly sales quota at this dealership?

  • (1) One salesperson exceeded the quota by 8 cars and received a total monthly commission of \(7,500.
  • (2) One salesperson achieved only half of the quota; he received a commission of \)1,750 and a warning that he will be fired unless he meets the next month's quota.
Correct Answer: (C) BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
View Solution




Step 1: Analyze statement (1).

Let \( q \) represent the monthly quota. From statement (1), we know that one salesperson exceeded the quota by 8 cars, and their total commission was \(7,500. The commission breakdown is: \[ Commission for quota = 250q, \quad Commission for exceeding quota = 500 \times 8 = 4,000. \] Thus, the total commission is: \[ 250q + 4,000 = 7,500 \quad \Rightarrow \quad 250q = 7,500 - 4,000 = 3,500 \quad \Rightarrow \quad q = \frac{3,500}{250} = 14. \] So the monthly quota is 14 cars. Therefore, statement (1) alone is sufficient to determine the quota. \textbf{Step 2: Analyze statement (2).}
Let \( q \) represent the monthly quota. From statement (2), we know that the salesperson achieved half the quota and received \)1,750 in commission. The commission for half the quota is: \[ Commission for quota = 250 \times \frac{q}{2} = 125q. \]
Since the total commission is \(1,750, we have: \[ 125q = 1,750 \quad \Rightarrow \quad q = \frac{1,750}{125} = 14. \]
Thus, the monthly quota is 14 cars. Statement (2) alone is also sufficient to determine the quota.

Conclusion:

Both statements together provide sufficient information to determine the quota, and either statement alone is sufficient. Therefore, the correct answer is (C).
Quick Tip: When solving commission problems, break down the total commission into two parts: one for the quota and one for exceeding the quota.


Question 36:

If \( a - b = 1 \), is \( \frac{a - b}{b + a} < 1 \)?

  • (1) \( b > a^2 \)
  • (2) \( a - b > 1 \)

Question 37:

The hold of a fishing boat contains only cod, haddock, and halibut. If a fish is selected at random from the hold, what is the probability that it will be a halibut or a haddock?

  • (1) There are twice as many halibut as cod in the hold, and twice as many haddock as halibut.
  • (2) Cod account for 1/7 of the fish by number in the hold.

Question 38:

Studies have shown that companies that present seminars on workplace safety to their employees actually have higher rates of workplace accidents than do companies that do not present such seminars to their employees. Despite this finding, it is still in the best interests of companies and their employees for companies to present these seminars.

Which of the following, if true, provides the strongest support for the argument that the companies should continue to present these seminars?

  • (A) Companies that present workplace safety seminars to their employees are likely to be in manufacturing industries or segments of the service sector that present more opportunities for workplace accidents than the average company.
  • (B) A fast-food chain determined that the rate of workplace accidents remained the same at its franchises after all employees had viewed a 30-minute workplace safety video.
  • (C) Workers are ultimately responsible for their own safety, and no amount of workplace education can alter their behavior.
  • (D) A business research institute determined that workplace accidents reduce the productivity of manufacturing businesses by as much as 8 percent per year.
  • (E) Many companies mistakenly believe that presenting workplace safety seminars to their employees relieves the company of legal liability in the event that employees are injured on the job.

Question 39:

For hundreds of years, pearl divers have gathered pearls directly from mollusks on the sea floor. This is an extremely risky profession, exposing the divers to risks of drowning, air embolism, and shark attacks. Still, as long as society demands authentic cultured pearls, these brave divers must continue to risk their lives.

Which of the following statements, if true, most seriously weakens the conclusion above?

  • (A) Shark attacks on pearl divers have decreased steadily over the last three decades because of declining shark populations.
  • (B) Cultured pearls are generally considered more beautiful than those made by artificial means.
  • (C) Robotic pearl harvesters can gather pearls faster and at less cost than human divers, although they may disturb aquatic communities.
  • (D) Part of the value of cultured pearls derives from the exotic way in which they are obtained.
  • (E) With the proper equipment and training, a diver employing scuba gear can harvest three times as many pearls per hour as can a free air diver.

Question 40:

An electronics company’s two divisions showed consistent performance over the last two years. In each year, the audiovisual department accounted for roughly 30 percent of the company’s sales and 70 percent of the company’s profits over the period, while the home appliance division accounted for the balance.

Which of the following statements regarding the last two years can be inferred from the statement above?

  • (A) The audiovisual market is growing faster than is the home appliance division.
  • (B) The home appliance division has realized lower profits per dollar of sales than has the audiovisual division.
  • (C) Total dollar sales for each division has remained roughly constant for the last five years.
  • (D) The company has devoted more money to research and development efforts in the audiovisual division than in the home appliance division.
  • (E) To maximize profitability, the company should focus its resources on the home appliance division.

Question 41:

Gastric bypass surgery has been shown to be effective at helping extremely obese people lose weight. Some patients have lost as much as 300 pounds after undergoing the surgery, thereby substantially prolonging their lives. Despite the success of the treatment, most doctors have not embraced the surgery as a weight loss option.

Which of the following statements, if true, best accounts for the lukewarm reaction of the medical community to gastric bypass surgery?

  • (A) Gastric bypass surgery carries a high risk of serious complications, including death.
  • (B) Obesity is one of the leading contributors to heart disease and hypertension, two leading causes of death.
  • (C) Obesity rates among the American population have been increasing consistently for the last three decades.
  • (D) Many patients report that losing weight through diets is ineffective, since they usually gain the weight back within six months.
  • (E) Most health insurance plans will cover the cost of gastric bypass surgery for morbidly obese patients at high risk of heart disease.

Question 42:

This passage is primarily interested in which of the following?

  • (A) Investigating the factors that brought about the Marvel revolution and the Silver Age of comic books
  • (B) Reviewing the factors that brought about the end of the Golden Age of comic books
  • (C) Comparing and contrasting two eras in the history of comic books
  • (D) Condemning the horror comic book for its corrupting influence on the nation's youth
  • (E) Evaluating the historical legacy of William Gaines’s EC Comics

Question 43:

According to the passage, which of the following was true of the creators of superhero comic books in the postwar years?

  • (A) They sought to head off the censorship of the Comics Code Authority by voluntarily prohibiting stories dealing with sexuality, drugs, or criminal behavior.
  • (B) They introduced characters such as Superman and The Spirit.
  • (C) They unintentionally laid the groundwork for the transition from the Golden Age of comic books to the Silver Age.
  • (D) They focused increasingly on flashy artwork and less on well-developed stories.
  • (E) They responded to the competitive pressure from horror comic books by increasing the amount of violence in their stories.

Question 44:

According to the passage, what can we infer to be the central message of Fredric Wertham’s The Seduction of the Innocent?

  • (A) Adults reading violent comic books were as likely to be corrupted by them as young people were.
  • (B) The horror comic books of the late 1940s were inferior to the superhero comic books that gained popularity during World War II.
  • (C) Comic books were leading the nation’s youth into crime, violence, and drug abuse.
  • (D) Creating a regulatory board to censor the comic book industry would drive the worst offenders out of the business.
  • (E) Comic books would never be able to convey stories of any serious literary merit.

Question 45:

According to the final paragraph of the passage, what may we infer about the comic book companies of the Silver Age?

  • (A) They were able to create popular comic books despite the regulations of the Comics Code Authority.
  • (B) They achieved commercial success because of the popularity of characters such as Spider-Man, the Hulk, and the Fantastic Four.
  • (C) They repeated the same mistakes as the comic book companies of the Golden Age.
  • (D) They failed to succeed because of the numbing effect of the Comics Code Authority regulations.
  • (E) Marvel Comics was the only major comic book company to survive from the Golden Age into the Silver Age.

Question 46:

In what light does the passage depict the efforts by Fredric Wertham to bring about regulation of the comic book industry?

  • (A) As a fanatical crusade brought about by Wertham’s inner demons
  • (B) As a witch-hunt roughly analogous to the concurrent anti-Communist hearings by the House Committee on Un-American Activities
  • (C) As a reasonable response to an industry that had gone too far
  • (D) As an angry response to a trend in the subject matter of the comic book industry
  • (E) As an inappropriate response to a phenomenon that was not actually hurting anyone

Question 47:

According to the passage, which of the following statements can be made about the content of \textit{Weird Fantasy and \textit{The Crypt of Terror?

  • (A) Their adult-oriented content was not suitable for young readers.
  • (B) Their grim and gritty content was a market response to the demands of soldiers home from World War II.
  • (C) They frequently depicted violence and criminal behavior, but shied away from sexuality or drug abuse.
  • (D) Their sales surpassed those of previous best-selling titles such as Superman or Batman.
  • (E) The publication of Weird Fantasy #1 coincided with the end of the Golden Age of comic books.

Question 48:

The way in which the mighty blue whale and the other baleen whales—the finback, gray, humpback, and right whales—eats was discovered by careful observation by biologists.

  • (A) eats was discovered by
  • (B) eat was discovered through
  • (C) eats were discovered by means of
  • (D) eat was discovered resulting from
Correct Answer: (B) eat was discovered through
View Solution




Step 1: Analyze the subject and verb agreement.

The subject "the mighty blue whale and the other baleen whales" is plural, so the verb must agree with this subject. Hence, "eats" is incorrect, and "eat" should be used.


Step 2: Review the options.

- (A) "eats was discovered by" is incorrect because "eats" does not match the plural subject.

- (B) "eat was discovered through" is correct because "eat" agrees with the plural subject, and "through" properly indicates the method.

- (C) "eats were discovered by means of" is incorrect because "eats" is singular, and "were" doesn't agree with it.

- (D) "eat was discovered resulting from" is grammatically awkward and unclear.


Conclusion:

The best option is (B) because it correctly matches the plural subject and provides a clear and grammatically correct sentence.
Quick Tip: When checking subject-verb agreement, ensure that plural subjects have plural verbs. Avoid unnecessary or awkward wording.


Question 49:

The eighteenth-century author Jonathan Swift once suggested in a satiric essay Irish farmers could eat their children to address the twin problems of overpopulation and lack of food.

  • (A) Irish farmers could eat their children to address the twin problems of overpopulation and lack of food.
  • (B) that the twin problems of overpopulation and lacking food could be addressed by the eating of children by Irish farmers
  • (C) of the twin problems of Irish farmers, overpopulation and a lack of food, could be addressed by the eating of their children
  • (D) that Irish farmers, facing overpopulation and lacking food, could address the twin problems through eating their children

Question 50:

The stock market collapse of 1929 had far-reaching consequences for the national economy, causing a nationwide collapse in home values, putting millions out of work, and by erasing the investment savings of one-fifth of the population.

  • (A) and by erasing
  • (B) and erasing
  • (C) and having erased
  • (D) and erased
  • (E) by erasing
Correct Answer: (B) and erasing
View Solution




Step 1: Understand the sentence structure.

The phrase “and erasing” correctly links the actions of the stock market collapse. The sentence lists actions using parallel structure.


Step 2: Review the options.

- (A) "and by erasing" introduces an unnecessary "by," which disrupts the parallelism.

- (B) "and erasing" maintains the parallel structure of the sentence, making it the correct choice.

- (C) "and having erased" introduces an awkward verb tense that doesn’t match the other actions.

- (D) "and erased" lacks the continuity and parallel structure of the actions.

- (E) "by erasing" introduces a misplaced preposition that doesn’t fit the sentence structure.


Conclusion:

The correct answer is (B) because it maintains parallel structure and clarity in the sentence.
Quick Tip: When listing actions, ensure that each part of the list follows the same grammatical structure for clarity and readability.


Question 51:

No less remarkable than the invention of nuclear power has been the way the technology has prompted governments to reevaluate the nature of international relations.

  • (A) No less remarkable than the invention of nuclear power
  • (B) What was as remarkable as the invention of nuclear power
  • (C) Inventing nuclear power has been none the less remarkable than
  • (D) The invention of nuclear power has been no less remarkable as
  • (E) The thing that was as remarkable as inventing nuclear power
Correct Answer: (A) No less remarkable than the invention of nuclear power
View Solution




Step 1: Understand the sentence construction.

The sentence is making a comparison, and the phrase “No less remarkable than the invention of nuclear power” is the most appropriate way to express this comparison.


Step 2: Review the options.

- (A) This is the most grammatically correct and effective choice, as it compares the invention of nuclear power to the subsequent effect on international relations.

- (B) "What was as remarkable" changes the meaning of the sentence and introduces unnecessary ambiguity.

- (C) "Inventing nuclear power has been none the less remarkable than" introduces unnecessary complexity and breaks the flow of the sentence.

- (D) "The invention of nuclear power has been no less remarkable as" does not correctly match the comparison structure.

- (E) "The thing that was as remarkable as inventing nuclear power" is awkward and incorrect in this context.


Conclusion:

Option (A) is the best because it maintains a clear and grammatically correct comparison.
Quick Tip: When making comparisons, ensure that the structure remains parallel and straightforward for clarity.


Question 52:

Unlike the recognition of ethical lapses in others, many people are disinclined to perceive the same flaws in themselves.

  • (A) Unlike the recognition of ethical lapses in others
  • (B) Unlike the recognition of ethical flaws in themselves, many people are willing to perceive the same flaws in others.
  • (C) Many people, willing to recognize ethical lapses in others, are disinclined to perceive the same flaws in themselves.
  • (D) Many people are disinclined to perceive the same flaws in themselves, but are willing to perceive ethical lapses in others.
  • (E) Although willing to recognize ethical lapses in others, many people in themselves are disinclined to perceive the same flaws.
Correct Answer: (D) Many people are disinclined to perceive the same flaws in themselves, but are willing to perceive ethical lapses in others.
View Solution




Step 1: Analyze the sentence structure.

The sentence compares the willingness to recognize flaws in others versus oneself. The correct answer must maintain clarity and proper balance in the sentence.


Step 2: Review the options.

- (A) This option is incomplete and does not fully express the comparison between others and oneself.

- (B) This option changes the meaning of the sentence by implying willingness to recognize flaws in others, which deviates from the original intent.

- (C) This option is grammatically awkward and unclear.

- (D) This option correctly balances the comparison and maintains clarity between the two contrasting ideas.

- (E) This option is overly complex and not clear enough.


Conclusion:

Option (D) is the best because it clearly and correctly expresses the contrast in perceptions of flaws in others and oneself.
Quick Tip: For comparisons, maintain clarity and balance between the two ideas being compared to avoid confusion.


Question 53:

The Elk City garbage dumps are so full that Elk City has been forced to pay a large sum to Caribou City to accept much of Elk City’s garbage. The Elk City mayor has proposed paying for this garbage relocation by imposing a tax on manufacturing businesses in Elk City. MegaCorp, the largest manufacturing business in the area, protests that this tax is unfair because businesses should not have to pay for a garbage problem that has been created by homeowners.

Which of the following, if true, most weakens MegaCorp’s argument?

  • (A) MegaCorp already pays more than \(10,000 per year in taxes and fees to Elk City.
  • (B) MegaCorp employs more than 60 percent of the employed residents of Elk City.
  • (C) A recycling program would address the garbage problem more effectively by reducing the overall quantity of waste.
  • (D) MegaCorp’s manufacturing processes produce more than 90 percent of the total waste that goes into Elk City’s garbage dumps.
  • (E) Caribou City is happy to receive the extra garbage because the fees it collects from Elk City have helped to address a shortfall in education funding.

Question 54:

There are Congressmen who say that the development of a space-based missile defense system will provide economic benefits only to military contractors. This claim is not true. A space-based missile defense system, even if it has no current applications for civilian businesses, will still benefit civilian businesses because those businesses will be able to find profitable uses for the government-developed technology in the future.

Which of the following, if true, provides the most support for the argument that a space-based missile defense system could provide future economic benefits for civilian businesses?

  • (A) Several new materials developed for the Apollo space program were later adapted to provide basic components of the modern computer and electronics industries.
  • (B) The missile defense system in question will not require the development of any new technologies.
  • (C) Space-based missile defense programs may be the only way to defend civilian populations against preemptive nuclear attacks.
  • (D) Space-based missile defense programs, although more expensive than traditional land-based systems, are theoretically more effective than traditional land-based systems.
  • (E) The scientists employed on the project could make extraordinary advances in the capabilities of intercontinental ballistic missiles used by the army.

Question 55:

The commissioner of a professional sports league dictated that teams could not put players on the field who had a greater than 20 percent chance of suffering a career-ending spinal injury during competition. The commissioner justified this decision as a way to protect players from injury while protecting the league from lawsuits.

Which of the following, if true, would most undermine the effectiveness of the commissioner’s new policy?

  • (A) Spinal injuries can result in paralysis, loss of fine motor skills, and even death.
  • (B) The previous year, more than seven players in the league suffered career-ending spinal injuries.
  • (C) The players’ union agrees that the risk of injury is an inevitable part of playing the game at a professional level.
  • (D) There is no scientifically valid method for determining the likelihood of any player suffering a career-ending spinal injury at any given time.
  • (E) Players barred from playing because of this new regulation will be entitled to compensation for lost wages at a level determined by the commissioner’s office.

Question 56:

There are few things worse for a new parent than listening to a baby scream in hunger while a bottle of formula slowly warms up in a bowl of hot water. So why not just pop the bottle in the microwave and zap it in 20 seconds? Because microwaves heat fluids unevenly, and a hot pocket in the formula could seriously injure the baby.

Which of the following is presupposed in the argument against heating formula in the microwave?

  • (A) Babies generally refuse to eat formula that has been heated in a microwave.
  • (B) Microwave radiation might break down some of the proteins in formula that are vital to a baby’s health.
  • (C) Different microwaves use different amounts of power, and consequently some models could heat a bottle to scalding temperature faster than others.
  • (D) Parents cannot be expected to consistently even out the temperature of a microwaved bottle by shaking it vigorously before giving it to the baby.
  • (E) Once formula has been heated, any leftover formula should be discarded, because otherwise the formula could spoil between feedings and make the baby sick.

Question 57:

Charlie’s Chainsaw Company has reason to believe that one of its models of saw is defective. A recall of all of the saws would cost more than \(5 million, and would probably result in a loss in market share over the next quarter because of bad publicity. Still, a recall is the right economic decision.

Which of the following, if true, most supports the conclusion above?

  • (A) Defective chainsaws can seriously injure or even kill the people who use them.
  • (B) Charlie’s chief rival has recalled two of its products within the past year.
  • (C) Product recalls often result in a perception by customers that a given product is permanently defective, even after the defect has been remedied.
  • (D) The stocks of publicly traded companies that announce product recalls often drop upon the announcement, but they generally return to the pre-announcement level within 12 months.
  • (E) The stocks of publicly traded companies that announce product recalls generally outperform the stock market over the next five years.

Question 58:

A dog enthusiast took home two puppies from the dog shelter. He fed one of the puppies super-premium canned dog food, while he fed the other a generic brand from the grocery store. The dog fed on the generic brand gained weight twice as fast as the dog fed the super-premium brand. Because of the difference in these results, the dog enthusiast concluded that the generic brand actually provided nutrition superior to that of the super-premium brand.

Each of the following, if true, would weaken the evidence for the dog enthusiast’s conclusion except for which of the following?

  • (A) A dog will sometimes gain more weight when eating inferior-quality food because he must eat more of it to obtain the nutrients he needs.
  • (B) The dogs were of mixed breeds and appeared to be descended from dogs of different sizes.
  • (C) Both dogs ate all of the food given to them at each serving.
  • (D) The dog enthusiast did not give the two dogs equal amounts of their respective foods.
  • (E) A dog will gain more weight when eating inferior-quality food because inferior food is less nutritious.

Question 59:

A council of ecologists in Hawaii \underline{have concluded that much of the currently uncontrolled invasive species on the island chain were arriving in the holds of cargo ships.

  • (A) have concluded
  • (B) has concluded
  • (C) have concluded
  • (D) concluded
  • (E) has concluded
Correct Answer: (B) has concluded
View Solution




Step 1: Subject-verb agreement.

The subject "a council" is singular, so the correct verb form should be "has" instead of "have."


Step 2: Review the options.

- (A) Incorrect; the subject "council" is singular and should match with the verb "has."

- (B) Correct; "has concluded" agrees with the singular subject "council."

- (C) Identical to (A) and also incorrect.

- (D) "Concluded" is the correct verb tense, but the subject-verb agreement is wrong.

- (E) Identical to (B) but incorrect in structure.


Conclusion:

The correct answer is (B), as it ensures subject-verb agreement.
Quick Tip: Ensure that the subject and verb agree in number. If the subject is singular, use the singular verb form.


Question 60:

Some people say that the answer to crime is to build more prisons, but more sensitive observers argue that instead we should address the sources of crime through reduced poverty, a cut off supply of illicit drugs, and by focusing on keeping kids in school.

  • (A) through reduced poverty, a cut off supply of illicit drugs, and by focusing on keeping kids in school
  • (B) by the reduction of poverty, cutting off the supply of illicit drugs, and to focus on keeping kids in school
  • (C) by reducing poverty, cutting off the supply of illicit drugs, and focusing on keeping kids in school
  • (D) by means of reducing poverty, cutting off the supply of illicit drugs, and through focusing on keeping kids in school
  • (E) to reduce poverty, cut off the supply of illicit drugs, and to focus on keeping kids in school
Correct Answer: (C) by reducing poverty, cutting off the supply of illicit drugs, and focusing on keeping kids in school
View Solution




Step 1: Parallel structure.

The three items in the list must follow the same grammatical structure. "Reducing," "cutting off," and "focusing" all use the gerund form to maintain consistency.


Step 2: Review the options.

- (A) "Cut off" should be "cutting off" to maintain parallelism.

- (B) "to focus on" is incorrect because it disrupts the parallel structure.

- (C) Correct structure; all items in the list use the gerund form.

- (D) "By means of" and "through focusing" disrupt the parallelism.

- (E) "To reduce" and "to focus" do not match the parallel structure.


Conclusion:

The correct answer is (C), which maintains the parallel structure needed for clarity.
Quick Tip: When listing multiple items, ensure they all share the same grammatical structure for clarity and consistency.


Question 61:

As automobiles replaced horses as the primary means of transportation, it was widely anticipated that the time spent in transit by the average traveler would decrease.

  • (A) As automobiles replaced horses as the primary means of transportation,
  • (B) As automobiles replaced horses as the primary means of transportation, there was wide anticipation that
  • (C) With horses being replaced by automobiles as the primary means of transportation, there was wide anticipation that
  • (D) As the primary means of transportation replaced horses with automobiles, many anticipated that
  • (E) Automobiles replacing horses as the primary means of transportation produced anticipation widely that
Correct Answer: (B) As automobiles replaced horses as the primary means of transportation, there was wide anticipation that
View Solution




Step 1: Sentence clarity.

The sentence should be clear and maintain proper word order. "There was wide anticipation that" is grammatically correct and clear.


Step 2: Review the options.

- (A) This option is grammatically awkward and does not express the idea clearly.

- (B) This is the clearest and most grammatically correct option, with proper structure.

- (C) "With horses being replaced by automobiles" creates unnecessary complexity.

- (D) The word order is awkward, and it changes the meaning slightly.

- (E) "Produced anticipation widely that" is awkward and not commonly used.


Conclusion:

The best option is (B), as it provides the clearest and most grammatically correct sentence structure.
Quick Tip: Ensure sentence clarity by maintaining proper word order and avoiding unnecessary complexity.


Question 62:

Intrigued by the new rules that favored quickness over strength, the decision of the coach was to give more playing time to the team’s smaller athletes.

  • (A) the decision of the coach was to give more playing time to the team’s smaller athletes
  • (B) the coach decided to give the team’s smaller athletes
  • (C) it was decided by the coach to give the team’s smaller athletes more playing time
  • (D) the team’s smaller athletes were given more playing time by the coach
  • (E) more playing time was given to the team’s smaller athletes by the coach
Correct Answer: (B) the coach decided to give the team’s smaller athletes
View Solution




Step 1: Clarity and conciseness.

The sentence should be as clear and concise as possible. "The coach decided to give" is the most direct and effective expression.


Step 2: Review the options.

- (A) This phrase is grammatically correct but awkward in its phrasing.

- (B) Correct; it is clear and concise.

- (C) "It was decided by the coach" introduces unnecessary passive voice.

- (D) This is grammatically correct but less direct.

- (E) This introduces unnecessary passive voice and makes the sentence longer.


Conclusion:

Option (B) is the best choice for its clarity and directness.
Quick Tip: In writing, prefer active voice for clarity and conciseness.


Question 63:

At ground level, nitrous oxides are bad enough, but when up high, atmospherically they bond with free ions to create dangerous smog particles.

  • (A) but when up high, atmospherically they
  • (B) however, it is in the upper atmosphere
  • (C) but in the upper atmosphere, they
  • (D) they however, but once in the upper atmosphere it is known to
  • (E) as in the upper atmosphere they
Correct Answer: (C) but in the upper atmosphere, they
View Solution




Step 1: Understand sentence flow.

The sentence needs to clearly describe the transition from ground level to the upper atmosphere without creating confusion. Option (C) is the best choice.


Step 2: Review the options.

- (A) "But when up high, atmospherically they" is awkward and not clear.

- (B) "However, it is in the upper atmosphere" introduces unnecessary complexity.

- (C) "But in the upper atmosphere, they" is the clearest and most grammatically correct choice.

- (D) The phrasing is awkward and introduces unnecessary complexity.

- (E) This option is grammatically incorrect and unclear.


Conclusion:

Option (C) is the best because it maintains clarity and proper sentence structure.
Quick Tip: Ensure smooth transitions between clauses by maintaining clarity and avoiding unnecessary words.


Question 64:

Paleontologists hypothesize that modern birds evolved from the family of dinosaurs that included \textit{Tyrannosaurus rex. This hypothesis would be strongly supported if evidence that dinosaurs from this family had a body covering resembling feathers could be found, but so far no such evidence has been found.

Which of the following, if true, would most help the paleontologists explain why no evidence of feathered dinosaurs has yet been found?

  • (A) Fossilized dinosaurs have shown many birdlike characteristics, such as bone structure and winglike arms.
  • (B) If birds are in fact the descendants of dinosaurs, then it can be argued that the dinosaurs never really died out.
  • (C) Flying dinosaurs such as the Pteranodon, which is not thought to have been related to modern birds, do not appear to have had feathers.
  • (D) Soft tissues such as skin and feathers do not fossilize like bones, and therefore are far less likely to have left permanent evidence in the fossil record.
  • (E) The thousands of dinosaur fossils excavated by paleontologists represent only a tiny fraction of the billions of dinosaurs that once lived.

Question 65:

Bob and Linda are tired of the freezing cold days in Glenmont, so they are considering retiring to either Sunny Glen or Buena Vista. Bob points out that Sunny Glen has an average annual temperature 8 degrees Fahrenheit higher than Buena Vista. Linda insists, however, that Buena Vista would be the better choice.

Which of the following, if true, best accounts for Linda’s preference for Buena Vista?

  • (A) Different people experience cold in different ways, so what seems cold to Linda may seem pleasantly cool to Bob.
  • (B) Sunny Glen has a somewhat higher risk of hurricanes than does Glenmont.
  • (C) Buena Vista has a range of cultural offerings, including an opera, a ballet, and three jazz clubs.
  • (D) Buena Vista has more scenic views and better weather than does Sunny Glen.
  • (E) Sunny Glen is warmer than Buena Vista in the summer, but it also has more freezing cold days in the winter.

Question 66:

Although many people would not believe it, the mosquito is actually the most dangerous animal in Africa. While the bite of the black mamba is invariably lethal when untreated, this dreaded snake kills only a few dozen people per year. Hippopotami, with their immense strength and foul dispositions, kill hundreds of people per year in rivers and lakes, but the mosquito is still more dangerous. Mosquitoes bite hundreds of millions of people in Africa every year, and they infect over a million each year with malaria, a disease that is often fatal.

Which of the following questions would be most useful in evaluating the claim made above regarding the mosquito?

  • (A) Could a person survive an attack by a black mamba if that person received prompt medical attention?
  • (B) What criteria are used to determine which animal is the “most dangerous” animal?
  • (C) Could the incidence of mosquito bites be decreased through the judicious use of pesticides and insect repellent?
  • (D) Does malaria kill more people per year in Africa than tuberculosis?
  • (E) How does the percentage of people who survive hippopotamus attacks in Africa each year compare with the percentage of people who survive mosquito bites?

Question 67:

What appears to be the primary purpose of this passage?

  • (A) To educate readers about the health threats involved in the use of performance-enhancing drugs
  • (B) To analyze the ways in which professional athletes have eluded attempts to screen for performance-enhancing drugs
  • (C) To discuss the reasons why performance-enhancing drugs are a dangerous and persistent problem for society
  • (D) To complain about the inadequate efforts by government and professional sports organizations to eliminate the problem of performance-enhancing drugs
  • (E) To argue that athletes, both professional and amateur, should not use performance-enhancing drugs on the grounds that they are both dangerous and unfair

Question 68:

According to the passage, all of the following are known potential consequences of steroid use except for which of the following?

  • (A) Damage to reproductive organs
  • (B) Decreased blood pressure
  • (C) Increases in the user’s strength and speed
  • (D) Kidney tumors
  • (E) Increased risk of depression

Question 69:

The author’s attitude toward the problem of steroid abuse is best described as which of the following?

  • (A) Cautious but optimistic
  • (B) Judgmental but supportive
  • (C) Ambivalent but resigned
  • (D) Curious but subjective
  • (E) Concerned but pessimistic

Question 70:

Which of the following can be inferred about a long-distance race in which both athletes who use performance-enhancing drugs and those who do not use these drugs compete?

  • (A) The athletes using the drugs will be caught by the proper authorities and ejected from the race.
  • (B) The athletes using the drugs will have a better chance of winning the race.
  • (C) The athletes using the drugs will use steroid precursors that produce effects similar to those of androgenic drugs but are not technically steroids.
  • (D) The athletes using the drugs are more likely to be professionals in their sport than the athletes who do not use such drugs.
  • (E) The athletes using the drugs will be more likely to use any means possible to win the race, including intentional sabotage of other racers' equipment.

Question 71:

The relationship of an athlete who does not use performance-enhancing drugs to an athlete who does use such drugs is most similar to which of the following?

  • (A) The relationship of a farmer selling milk from cows that have been given bovine growth hormone, a legal drug that promotes greater than normal milk production, to a farmer selling milk from cows that have not been given bovine growth hormone.
  • (B) The relationship of a chess player to a competitor who uses psychological tricks in order to gain an advantage.
  • (C) The relationship of a boxer in the lightweight class to a boxer in the heavyweight class.
  • (D) The relationship of a person taking a standardized test according to the rules to a person taking the same test while using an illegal hidden calculator.
  • (E) The relationship of a person entering a pig in an agricultural contest to a person entering a guinea pig in the same contest.

Question 72:

According to the passage, which of the following can be inferred about the “designer” steroid THG?

  • (A) It can increase masculine traits in users without setting off standard doping tests.
  • (B) It does not cause the health problems associated with traditional anabolic steroids.
  • (C) Even if professional sports organizations could detect THG, they would take no action against those who use it.
  • (D) It is a chemical permutation of progesterone, a hormone that has powerful effects on the human body.
  • (E) Because it is a “designer” steroid, it is more expensive than generic steroids.

Question 73:

Which of the following best expresses the role of the third paragraph in the overall structure of the passage?

  • (A) It redirects the theme of the passage from presenting a problem to explaining the reasons for the problem’s severity.
  • (B) It introduces a new concept that defines the rest of the passage.
  • (C) It provides an answer to a question posed in the first two paragraphs.
  • (D) It refutes the central hypothesis of the second paragraph and poses a question that is answered in the following paragraphs.
  • (E) It narrows the focus of the passage from the general themes of the first two paragraphs to the more specific themes of the last two paragraphs.

Question 74:

His opponent having sprained his wrist, Andrew could have won by exploiting this weakness, but he chose not to do it.

  • (A) His opponent having sprained his wrist, Andrew could have won by exploiting this weakness, but he chose not to do it.
  • (B) His opponent having sprained his wrist, Andrew could have won by exploiting this weakness after his opponent sprained his wrist, but he chose not to do so.
  • (C) Choosing not to do so, Andrew could have won after his opponent sprained his wrist by exploiting this weakness.
  • (D) After his opponent sprained his wrist, Andrew could have won by exploiting this weakness, but he chose not to do it.
  • (E) After his opponent sprained his wrist, Andrew could have won, but chose not to do it, won by exploiting this weakness.
Correct Answer: (D) After his opponent sprained his wrist, Andrew could have won by exploiting this weakness, but he chose not to do it.
View Solution




Step 1: Sentence clarity and grammar.

The sentence needs to flow clearly while maintaining proper grammatical structure. Option (D) provides a clear, correctly punctuated version of the sentence.


Step 2: Review the options.

- (A) The phrasing is correct but awkward, and the participle construction "His opponent having sprained his wrist" feels too formal.

- (B) This option repeats the same information unnecessarily, making it redundant.

- (C) This option places the actions in a confusing order, which disrupts the clarity of the sentence.

- (D) This option is the clearest, with proper sequence and punctuation. It maintains readability and structure.

- (E) This option is too wordy and awkward, introducing unnecessary complexity.


Conclusion:

Option (D) is the best answer because it is clear, concise, and grammatically correct.
Quick Tip: In sentences with multiple actions, make sure the sequence of events is clear and maintain grammatical structure to avoid confusion.


Question 75:

Since the average test score of students enrolled in charter schools were rising 7.5 percent in the spring, many educators concluded that the system was working.

  • (A) Since the average test score of students enrolled in charter schools were rising 7.5 percent in the spring, many educators concluded that the system was working.
  • (B) Since the average test score of students enrolled in charter schools were rising 7.5 percent in the spring, many educators concluded that the system had worked.
  • (C) Since the average test score of students enrolled in charter schools rose 7.5 percent in the spring, many educators concluded that the system was working.
  • (D) As the average test score of students enrolled in charter schools rose 7.5 percent in the spring, many educators concluded that the system was working.
  • (E) As the average test score of students enrolled in charter schools rose 7.5 percent in the spring, many educators concluded that the system had worked.
Correct Answer: (C) Since the average test score of students enrolled in charter schools rose 7.5 percent in the spring, many educators concluded that the system was working.
View Solution




Step 1: Subject-verb agreement and past tense consistency.

The verb "rose" correctly agrees with the singular subject "average test score." "Was working" also maintains consistent past tense.


Step 2: Review the options.

- (A) The verb "were rising" is incorrect because the subject is singular and requires "was rising" instead.

- (B) The verb "were rising" is incorrect, and "had worked" is not appropriate in this context.

- (C) Correct; the verb "rose" agrees with the singular subject and maintains consistent past tense.

- (D) "As" is unnecessary here and introduces a subtle change in meaning.

- (E) "Had worked" is incorrect, as the sentence is referring to an ongoing process.


Conclusion:

Option (C) is the best answer because it maintains proper subject-verb agreement and tense consistency.
Quick Tip: Pay attention to subject-verb agreement and use the correct tense to maintain consistency in the sentence.


Question 76:

The police chief argued that first-time offenders who have no high school diploma but who have families with a record of crime will probably have the law again.

  • (A) who have no high school diploma but who have families with a record of crime will probably have the law again
  • (B) who have no high school diploma but who have families with a criminal record will probably offend again
  • (C) who have no high school diploma but whose families have criminal records will probably offend again
  • (D) who have no high school diploma and whose families have a criminal record will probably offend again
  • (E) who have no high school diploma and whose families have criminal records will probably have the law again
Correct Answer: (C) who have no high school diploma but whose families have criminal records will probably offend again
View Solution




Step 1: Clarity and sentence structure.

Option (C) uses proper parallel structure and is grammatically correct. "Whose" is the correct possessive form here.


Step 2: Review the options.

- (A) "Have the law again" is awkward and incorrect in this context.

- (B) "Criminal record" should be "criminal records" for consistency, and "offend again" is better than "have the law again."

- (C) This is the best option, as it is clear and grammatically correct.

- (D) "And" is unnecessary in this sentence, as "but" is already used.

- (E) "Have the law again" is unclear and awkward.


Conclusion:

Option (C) is the best because it is grammatically correct and clear.
Quick Tip: Ensure clarity and correct parallel structure when expressing ideas with multiple subjects and actions in the sentence.


Question 77:

Like the power-generating apparatus of a conventional car, that of a hybrid car depends on a combustible fuel to generate power.

  • (A) that of a hybrid car depends on
  • (B) hybrid cars depend on
  • (C) hybrid cars’ power-generating apparatus are dependent on
  • (D) that of a hybrid car’s is dependent on
  • (E) that of hybrid cars depend on
Correct Answer: (A) that of a hybrid car depends on
View Solution




Step 1: Review sentence structure.

The sentence needs to be clear and maintain proper subject-verb agreement. Option (A) is the most concise and grammatically correct.


Step 2: Review the options.

- (A) Correct; maintains proper agreement and clarity.

- (B) Incorrect; "hybrid cars depend on" does not make sense in this context, as the sentence should compare the apparatuses.

- (C) The possessive construction "hybrid cars’" is unnecessary here and makes the sentence awkward.

- (D) "Hybrid car’s" introduces unnecessary possessiveness.

- (E) "That of hybrid cars depend" is incorrect in terms of subject-verb agreement.


Conclusion:

Option (A) is correct because it keeps the sentence grammatically sound and clear.
Quick Tip: Ensure proper subject-verb agreement and clarity when comparing two things in a sentence.


Question 78:

Since red flags are likely to be raised at the IRS by the reporting of gambling income, business owners who declare their income as business revenue is less likely to receive an audit.

  • (A) Since red flags are likely to be raised at the IRS by the reporting of gambling income, business owners who declare their income as business revenue is less likely to receive an audit.
  • (B) Because the reporting of gambling income is likely to raise red flags at the IRS, business owners who declare their income as business revenue can reduce their chances of receiving an audit by declaring that income as business revenue.
  • (C) Business owners can reduce their chances of receiving an audit by declaring the income as business revenue.
  • (D) Their chances of receiving an audit are reduced by business owners who report that income as business revenue, because the reporting of gambling income is likely to raise red flags at the IRS.
  • (E) The reporting of that income as business revenue can reduce the chances of business owners receiving an audit, because of the red flags not having been raised at the IRS by the reporting of gambling income.
Correct Answer: (B) Because the reporting of gambling income is likely to raise red flags at the IRS, business owners who declare their income as business revenue can reduce their chances of receiving an audit by declaring that income as business revenue.
View Solution




Step 1: Focus on clarity and meaning.

The sentence describes how reporting gambling income as business revenue can affect the likelihood of an audit by the IRS. Option (B) is the most detailed and precise, clarifying both the process and the result.


Step 2: Review the options.

- (A) This option contains a subject-verb agreement error. The phrase “business owners... is less likely” should be “are less likely” to agree with the plural subject "business owners."

- (B) This option provides the clearest, most complete explanation of the relationship between reporting gambling income and the audit process, with proper clarity and structure.

- (C) This option oversimplifies the relationship, leaving out the connection to red flags raised by the IRS and the role of reporting gambling income.

- (D) This option is grammatically awkward and unnecessarily convoluted.

- (E) This option is unclear, especially with the phrase “because of the red flags not having been raised.” The structure is awkward and does not express the idea as clearly as option (B).


Conclusion:

Option (B) is the best answer because it clearly and logically explains the relationship between declaring gambling income as business revenue and reducing the likelihood of an audit.
Quick Tip: Focus on the clarity and logical flow of the sentence, and ensure subject-verb agreement and proper grammatical structure.

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