This is the AIIMS PG entrance examination from 2002, popularly archived today as NEET PG 2002, conducted by the All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), New Delhi for admission to its own MD, MS and MDS seats. This compiled paper carries 200 questions from the original test booklet, each with a step-by-step solution.

NEET PG 2002 Question Paper with Solutions Download PDF Check Solutions

NEET PG 2002 Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

Which activity will be difficult to perform for a patient with an anterior cruciate deficient joint?

  • (A) Walk downhill
  • (B) Walk uphill
  • (C) Sit cross leg
  • (D) Getting up from sitting

Question 2:

The treatment of choice for atticoantral variety of CSOM is

  • (A) Mastoidectomy
  • (B) Medical management
  • (C) Underlay myringoplasty
  • (D) Insertion of ventilation tube

Question 3:

The most appropriate management of antrochoanal polyp in children is

  • (A) Caldwell Luc operation
  • (B) Intranasal polypectomy
  • (C) Corticosteroids
  • (D) Wait and watch

Question 4:

The cough response caused while cleaning the ear canal is mediated by stimulation of

  • (A) The V cranial nerve
  • (B) Innervation of external ear canal by C1, C2
  • (C) The X cranial nerve
  • (D) Branches of VII cranial nerve

Question 5:

A 38 year old gentleman reports of decreased hearing in the right ear for the past 2 years. On testing with a 512 Hz tuning fork, the Rinne's test (without masking) is negative on the right ear and positive on the left ear, with Weber's test perceived as louder in the left ear. The patient most likely has

  • (A) Right conductive hearing loss
  • (B) Right sensorineural hearing loss
  • (C) Left sensorineural hearing loss
  • (D) Left conductive hearing loss

Question 6:

Which of the following is not correct for ethmoidal polyp?

  • (A) Allergy is an etiological factor
  • (B) Occur in first decade of life
  • (C) Are bilateral
  • (D) Are often associated with bronchial asthma

Question 7:

Foetal hydronephrosis is diagnosed in the mother at 34 weeks of gestation. The amniotic fluid is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

  • (A) Fetal intervention to decompress hydronephrotic kidney
  • (B) Premature termination of pregnancy followed by pyeloplasty
  • (C) Delivery at term followed by radiological examination
  • (D) Delivery at term followed by pyeloplasty

Question 8:

A 2 year old boy has Vitamin D refractory Rickets. Investigations show serum calcium 9 mg/dl, phosphate 2.4 mg/dl, alkaline phosphatase 1040 IU. Parathyroid hormone level and bicarbonate levels are normal. The most probable diagnosis is

  • (A) Distal Renal Tubular Acidosis
  • (B) Hypophosphatemic Rickets
  • (C) Vitamin D Dependent Rickets
  • (D) Proximal Renal Tubular Acidosis

Question 9:

Neurological complications of meningitis include all of the following except

  • (A) Seizures
  • (B) Increased Intracranial Pressure
  • (C) Cerebral Hematoma
  • (D) Subdural Effusions

Question 10:

The gold standard for definitive diagnosis of extrahepatic biliary atresia is

  • (A) Per-operative Cholangiography
  • (B) Hepatobiliary Scintigraphy
  • (C) Alkaline Phosphatase Level
  • (D) Liver Biopsy

Question 11:

The length of feeding tube to be inserted for transpyloric feeding is measured from the tip of the

  • (A) Nose to Umbilicus
  • (B) Ear Lobe to Umbilicus
  • (C) Nose to Knee Joint
  • (D) Ear Lobe to Knee Joint

Question 12:

Which layer of the epidermis is underdeveloped in Very Low Birth Weight (VLBW) infants in the initial 7 days?

  • (A) Stratum Germinativum
  • (B) Stratum Granulosum
  • (C) Stratum Lucidum
  • (D) Stratum Corneum

Question 13:

In pediatric advanced life support, intraosseous access for drug and fluid administration is recommended for a pediatric age of

  • (A) Less than 1 year
  • (B) Less than 5 years
  • (C) Less than 6 years
  • (D) Any age

Question 14:

A 3 year old boy is brought to the casualty by his mother with progressive shortness of breath for 1 day. The child has a history of bronchial asthma. On examination, the child is gasping and unresponsive. What will you do first?

  • (A) Intubate
  • (B) Administer 100% Oxygen by Mask
  • (C) Ventilate with Bag and Mask
  • (D) Administer Nebulized Salbutamol

Question 15:

A 5 year old child presents with confusion, increased salivation, lacrimation, fasciculations, miosis, tachycardia and hypertension. Which one of the following poisons can cause these manifestations?

  • (A) Opium
  • (B) Organophosphate insecticide
  • (C) Dhatura
  • (D) Organochlorine pesticide

Question 16:

The drug of choice for thoracic actinomycosis is

  • (A) Amphotericin B
  • (B) Penicillin
  • (C) Co trimoxazole
  • (D) Itraconazole

Question 17:

All of the following statements regarding malignant potential of colorectal polyps are true EXCEPT

  • (A) Polyps of familial polyposis coli could undergo malignant change
  • (B) Pseudopolyps of ulcerative colitis have a high risk of malignancy
  • (C) Villous adenoma is associated with high risk of malignancy
  • (D) Juvenile polyps have little or no risk

Question 18:

A patient presents with respiratory symptoms, that is, cough, hemoptysis, and glomerulonephritis. His c-ANCA levels in serum are found to be raised. The most likely diagnosis is

  • (A) Goodpasture's Syndrome
  • (B) Classic Polyarteritis Nodosa
  • (C) Wegener's Granulomatosis
  • (D) Kawasaki syndrome

Question 19:

The gene that regulates normal morphogenesis during development is

  • (A) FMR-1 gene
  • (B) Homeobox gene
  • (C) P-16
  • (D) PTEN

Question 20:

All of the following familial syndromes are associated with the development of pheochromocytomas EXCEPT

  • (A) Sturge Weber Syndrome
  • (B) Von Recklinghausen Disease
  • (C) MEN Type II b
  • (D) Prader Willi Syndrome

Question 21:

The pathogenesis of hypochromic anemia in lead poisoning is due to

  • (A) Inhibition of enzymes involved in heme biosynthesis
  • (B) Binding of lead to transferrin, inhibiting transport of iron
  • (C) Binding of lead to cell membrane of erythroid precursors
  • (D) Binding of lead to ferritin inhibiting their breakdown into hemosiderin

Question 22:

Which finding on electron microscopy indicates irreversible cell injury?

  • (A) Dilatation of endoplasmic reticulum
  • (B) Dissociation of ribosomes from rough endoplasmic reticulum
  • (C) Flocculent densities in mitochondria
  • (D) Myelin figures

Question 23:

The Fenton reaction leads to free radical generation when

  • (A) Radiant energy is absorbed by water
  • (B) Hydrogen peroxide is formed by myeloperoxidase
  • (C) Ferrous ions are converted into ferric ions
  • (D) Nitric oxide is converted into peroxynitrite anion

Question 24:

Familial amyloidotic polyneuropathy is due to amyloidosis of nerves caused by deposition of

  • (A) Amyloid associated protein
  • (B) Mutant calcitonin
  • (C) Mutant transthyretin
  • (D) Normal transthyretin

Question 25:

Lardaceous spleen is seen due to deposition of amyloid in

  • (A) Sinusoids of red pulp
  • (B) White pulp
  • (C) Penicillary artery
  • (D) Splenic trabeculae

Question 26:

A 42 year old man was referred with a 2 week history of fever, weakness, and bleeding gums. Peripheral smear showed pancytopenia. The bone marrow examination revealed 26% blasts, frequently exhibiting Auer rods, and mature myeloid cells. An occasional neutrophil with the Pelger-Huet anomaly was also noted. Which of the following cytochemical stains is most likely to be positive?

  • (A) Acid phosphatase
  • (B) Nonspecific esterase
  • (C) Myeloperoxidase
  • (D) Toluidine Blue

Question 27:

Dystrophic calcification is seen in:

  • (A) Rickets
  • (B) Hyperparathyroidism
  • (C) Atheromatous plaque
  • (D) Vitamin A intoxication

Question 28:

Accumulation of sphingomyelin in phagocytic cells is a feature of

  • (A) Gaucher's Disease
  • (B) Niemann-Pick Disease
  • (C) Tay-Sachs Disease
  • (D) Down's syndrome

Question 29:

Aschoff bodies in rheumatic heart disease show all of the following features EXCEPT:

  • (A) Anitschkow cells
  • (B) Epithelioid cells
  • (C) Giant cells
  • (D) Fibrinoid necrosis

Question 30:

All of the following features are seen in asbestosis EXCEPT:

  • (A) Diffuse pulmonary interstitial fibrosis
  • (B) Fibrous pleural thickening
  • (C) Emphysema
  • (D) Calcific pleural plaques

Question 31:

Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding drugs used in parkinsonism?

  • (A) Amantadine causes ankle oedema
  • (B) Levodopa is particularly effective in reducing tremor
  • (C) Amantadine is more effective than levodopa
  • (D) Antimuscarinics are effective in drug-induced parkinsonism

Question 32:

Prostaglandins (PGs) have effects on a variety of tissues. Different prostaglandins may have different effects. Which one of the following is NOT a correct statement?

  • (A) The human arteriolar smooth muscle is relaxed by PGE2 and PGI2, whereas TXA2 and PGF2alpha cause vasoconstriction.
  • (B) PGE1 and PGI2 inhibit platelet aggregation, whereas TXA2 facilitates aggregation.
  • (C) PGE2 has marked oxytocic action while PGF2alpha has tocolytic action.
  • (D) PGE2 is a bronchodilator whereas PGF2alpha is a bronchoconstrictor.

Question 33:

Which of the following diuretics decreases the renal clearance of lithium?

  • (A) Acetazolamide
  • (B) Hydrochlorothiazide
  • (C) Furosemide
  • (D) Spironolactone

Question 34:

The following is TRUE for Mycoplasma EXCEPT:

  • (A) Multiply by binary fission
  • (B) Are sensitive to the beta-lactam group of antibiotics
  • (C) Can grow in cell-free culture media
  • (D) Require sterols for growth

Question 35:

Inhibition of 5-lipoxygenase is useful in:

  • (A) Cardiac failure
  • (B) Bronchial asthma
  • (C) Hepatic failure
  • (D) Arthritis

Question 36:

Rapid induction of anaesthesia occurs with which of the following inhalational anaesthetics?

  • (A) Isoflurane
  • (B) Halothane
  • (C) Desflurane
  • (D) Sevoflurane

Question 37:

Which muscle relaxant increases intracranial pressure?

  • (A) Mivacurium
  • (B) Atracurium
  • (C) Suxamethonium
  • (D) Vecuronium

Question 38:

The \(\mu\) (Mu) opioid receptor is responsible for the following effects except

  • (A) Miosis
  • (B) Bradycardia
  • (C) Hypothermia
  • (D) Bronchodilation

Question 39:

Pulmonary fibrosis is a common complication with

  • (A) 6 mercaptopurine
  • (B) Vincristine
  • (C) Bleomycin
  • (D) Adriamycin

Question 40:

Which of the following gas is used to decrease pulmonary artery pressure in adults?

  • (A) Nitrous Oxide
  • (B) Nitrogen Dioxide
  • (C) Nitric Oxide
  • (D) Nitrogen

Question 41:

The topical use of which of the following local anaesthetics is not recommended?

  • (A) Lignocaine
  • (B) Bupivacaine
  • (C) Cocaine
  • (D) Dibucaine

Question 42:

The use of succinylcholine is NOT contraindicated in

  • (A) Tetanus
  • (B) Closed head injury
  • (C) Cerebral stroke
  • (D) Hepatic failure

Question 43:

Which of the following is the treatment of choice for cryptococcal meningitis?

  • (A) Fluconazole
  • (B) Itraconazole
  • (C) Flucytosine
  • (D) Amphotericin B

Question 44:

The lymphocytopenia seen a few hours after administration of a large dose of prednisolone to a patient with lymphocytic leukemia is due to

  • (A) Massive lymphocyte apoptosis
  • (B) Bone marrow depression
  • (C) Activation of cytotoxic cells
  • (D) Stimulation of Natural killer cell activity

Question 45:

Prolactin secretion will be inhibited by

  • (A) Haloperidol
  • (B) GABA
  • (C) Neurophysin
  • (D) Dopamine

Question 46:

The production of cervical mucus is stimulated by

  • (A) Progesterone
  • (B) Estradiol
  • (C) Estriol
  • (D) Pregnenolone

Question 47:

A travelling nerve impulse does not depolarize the area behind it, because

  • (A) It is hyperpolarized
  • (B) It is refractory
  • (C) It is not self propagating
  • (D) The condition is always orthodromic

Question 48:

A 10 Degree Centigrade decrease in temperature causes a decrease in cerebral metabolic rate by

  • (A) 10%
  • (B) 30%
  • (C) 50%
  • (D) 70%

Question 49:

The laboratory report shows values of gonadotropin and ovarian hormone levels of the blood sample taken on day 20 of the menstrual cycle of a young woman. Whether her cycle was ovulatory or not may be validly assessed by the reported serum levels of

  • (A) FSH
  • (B) LH
  • (C) Oestradiol
  • (D) Progesterone

Question 50:

Which of the following is NOT a usual feature of right middle cerebral artery territory infarct?

  • (A) Aphasia
  • (B) Hemiparesis
  • (C) Facial weakness
  • (D) Dysarthria

Question 51:

A 5 year old child is scheduled for strabismus (squint) correction. Induction of anesthesia is uneventful. After conjunctival incision, as the surgeon grasps the medial rectus, the anesthesiologist looks at the cardiac monitor. Why do you think he did that?

  • (A) He wanted to check the depth of anaesthesia.
  • (B) He wanted to be sure that the blood pressure did not fall.
  • (C) He wanted to see if there was an oculocardiac reflex.
  • (D) He wanted to make sure there were no ventricular dysrhythmias which normally accompany incision.

Question 52:

A 55 year old male accident victim in casualty urgently needs blood. The blood bank is unable to determine his ABO group, as his red cell group and plasma group do not match. Emergency transfusion of the patient should be with

  • (A) RBC corresponding to his red cell group and colloids/crystalloid.
  • (B) Whole blood corresponding to his plasma group.
  • (C) O positive RBC and colloids/crystalloid.
  • (D) AB negative whole blood.

Question 53:

Although more than 400 blood groups have been identified, the ABO group system remains the most important in clinical medicine because

  • (A) It was the first blood group system to be discovered.
  • (B) It has four different blood groups: A, B, AB, O(h).
  • (C) ABO(h) antigens are present in most body tissues and fluids.
  • (D) ABO(h) antibodies are invariably present in plasma when a person's RBCs lack the corresponding antigen.

Question 54:

The neurons may get irreversibly damaged if exposed to significant hypoxia for

  • (A) 8 minutes
  • (B) 2 minutes
  • (C) 30 seconds
  • (D) 15 seconds

Question 55:

A 41 year old woman presented with a history of aches and pains all over the body and cannot sleep because of the illness, and has lost her appetite as well. She has lack of interest in work and doesn't like to meet friends and relatives. She denies feelings of sadness. Her most likely diagnosis is

  • (A) Somatoform pain disorder.
  • (B) Major depression.
  • (C) Somatization disorder.
  • (D) Dissociative disorder.

Question 56:

Lack of insight is not a feature of

  • (A) Panic disorder.
  • (B) Schizophrenia.
  • (C) Mania.
  • (D) Reactive psychosis.

Question 57:

A 25 year old man with a psychotic illness was treated with haloperidol 30 mg/day. On the third day he developed pacing and an inability to sit still at one place. Which medication is likely to help?

  • (A) Phenytoin
  • (B) Propranolol
  • (C) Methylphenidate
  • (D) Trihexyphenidyl

Question 58:

A 65 year old male is brought to the outpatient clinic with a one year illness marked by forgetfulness, visual hallucinations, suspiciousness, personality decline, poor self care and progressive deterioration in his condition. His Mini Mental Status Examination (MMSE) score is 10. What is his most likely diagnosis?

  • (A) Dementia
  • (B) Schizophrenia
  • (C) Mania
  • (D) Depression

Question 59:

A 16 year old girl was brought to the psychiatric emergency after she slashed her wrists in a suicide attempt. On enquiry, her father revealed that she had made several such wrist-slashing attempts in the past, mostly in response to trivial fights at home. She also has marked mood fluctuations with a pervasive pattern of unstable interpersonal relationships. What is the most probable diagnosis?

  • (A) Borderline personality disorder
  • (B) Major depression
  • (C) Histrionic personality disorder
  • (D) Adjustment disorder

Question 60:

High resolution CT (HRCT) of the lung is a specialized CT technique for greater detail of the lung parenchyma. It utilizes:

  • (A) Special lung filters
  • (B) Thick collimation
  • (C) Bone algorithm for image reconstruction
  • (D) Large field of view

Question 61:

Which of the following is NOT in the differential diagnosis of an anterior mediastinal mass?

  • (A) Teratoma
  • (B) Neurogenic tumour
  • (C) Thymoma
  • (D) Lymphoma

Question 62:

A dense persistent nephrogram may be seen in all of the following except:

  • (A) Acute ureteral obstruction
  • (B) Systemic hypertension
  • (C) Severe hydronephrosis
  • (D) Dehydration

Question 63:

Which of the following imaging modalities is most sensitive to detect early renal tuberculosis?

  • (A) IV urography
  • (B) Ultrasound
  • (C) Computed tomography
  • (D) MRI

Question 64:

A young man with tuberculosis presents with massive recurrent hemoptysis. For angiographic treatment, which vascular structure should be evaluated first?

  • (A) Pulmonary artery
  • (B) Bronchial artery
  • (C) Pulmonary vein
  • (D) Superior vena cava

Question 65:

Which of the following imaging modalities is most sensitive for evaluation of extra-adrenal pheochromocytoma?

  • (A) USG
  • (B) CT
  • (C) MRI
  • (D) MIBG scan

Question 66:

A 15 year old boy has 10-12 partial complex seizures per day despite an adequate 4-drug antiepileptic regimen. He gives a history of repeated high grade fever in childhood. MRI done for the epilepsy protocol shows a normal brain scan. What should be the best non-invasive strategy to make a definite diagnosis, so that he can be prepared to undergo epilepsy surgery?

  • (A) Interictal scalp EEG
  • (B) Video EEG
  • (C) Interictal 18F-FDG PET
  • (D) Video EEG with ictal 99mTc-HMPAO brain SPECT

Question 67:

Which of the following is the most radiosensitive phase of the cell cycle?

  • (A) G1
  • (B) S
  • (C) G2
  • (D) M

Question 68:

X-rays are produced when

  • (A) Electron beam strikes the nucleus of the atom
  • (B) Electron beam strikes the anode
  • (C) Electron beam reacts with the electromagnetic field
  • (D) Electron beam strikes the cathode

Question 69:

An eight year old boy presents with swelling in the left eye of 3 months duration. Examination reveals proptosis of the left eye with preserved vision. The right eye is normal. CT scan reveals an intraorbital, extraconal mass lesion. Biopsy reveals embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma. Metastatic workup is normal. The standard line of treatment is

  • (A) Chemotherapy only
  • (B) Wide local excision
  • (C) Enucleation
  • (D) Chemotherapy and radiotherapy

Question 70:

Which morphological type of cataract is most visually handicapping?

  • (A) Cortical
  • (B) Nuclear
  • (C) Posterior subcapsular
  • (D) Zonular

Question 71:

The standard sutureless cataract surgery done with phacoemulsification and a foldable IOL has an incision of:

  • (A) 1 mm - 1.5 mm
  • (B) 2 mm - 2.5 mm
  • (C) 3 mm - 3.5 mm
  • (D) 3.5 mm - 4 mm

Question 72:

A one year old child having leucocoria was found to have a unilateral, large retinoblastoma filling half the globe. Current therapy would involve:

  • (A) Enucleation
  • (B) Chemotherapy followed by local therapy
  • (C) Direct laser ablation using photodynamic cryotherapy
  • (D) Scleral radiotherapy followed by chemotherapy

Question 73:

A 2 year old presented with leucocoria in the right eye since 2 months. On examination, a total retinal detachment was present in the same eye. Ultrasound B scan revealed a heterogenous subretinal mass with calcification, associated with a retinal detachment. The most likely clinical diagnosis is:

  • (A) Coats disease
  • (B) Retinoblastoma
  • (C) Toxocariasis
  • (D) Retinal tuberculoma

Question 74:

A 60 year old man presented with watering from his left eye since one year. Syringing revealed a patent drainage system. Rest of the ocular examination was normal. A provisional diagnosis of lacrimal pump failure was made. Confirmation of this diagnosis would be:

  • (A) Dacryoscintigraphy
  • (B) Dacryocystography
  • (C) Pressure syringing
  • (D) Canaliculus irrigation test

Question 75:

While working in the neonatal ICU, your team delivers a premature infant at 27 weeks of gestation, weighing 1500 grams. How soon will you request a fundus examination by an ophthalmologist?

  • (A) Immediately
  • (B) 3-4 weeks after delivery
  • (C) At 34 weeks gestational age
  • (D) At 40 weeks gestation period

Question 76:

A friend of yours has a spectacle correction of -6.0 D and -8.0 D. He telephones you one morning and tells you that he has started seeing some opacities floating in front of his eyes and that his vision has decreased slightly over the last few days. As an intern in the ophthalmology section, what would you do?

  • (A) Reassure
  • (B) Refraction and prescribe a new spectacle
  • (C) Direct ophthalmoscopy
  • (D) Indirect ophthalmoscopy

Question 77:

A 30 year old male presents with a history of injury to the eye with a leaf 5 days ago, and pain, photophobia, and redness of the eye for 2 days. What would be the most likely pathology?

  • (A) Anterior uveitis
  • (B) Conjunctivitis
  • (C) Fungal corneal ulcer
  • (D) Corneal laceration

Question 78:

The most likely diagnosis in a newborn with a radio-opaque shadow and an air-fluid level in the chest, along with a hemivertebra of the 6th thoracic vertebra on a plain x-ray, is:

  • (A) Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
  • (B) Esophageal duplication cyst
  • (C) Bronchogenic cyst
  • (D) Staphylococcal pneumonia

Question 79:

Failure to pass meconium within 48 hours of birth in a newborn with no obvious external abnormality should raise suspicion of:

  • (A) Anal atresia
  • (B) Congenital pouch colon
  • (C) Congenital aganglionosis
  • (D) Meconium ileus

Question 80:

The metabolic derangement in congenital pyloric stenosis is:

  • (A) Hypochloremic alkalosis
  • (B) Hyperchloremic alkalosis
  • (C) Hyperchloremic acidosis
  • (D) Hypochloremic acidosis

Question 81:

In neonatal cholestasis, if the serum gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) is more than 600 IU/L, the most likely diagnosis is:

  • (A) Neonatal hepatitis
  • (B) Choledochal cyst
  • (C) Hypothyroidism
  • (D) Biliary atresia

Question 82:

These ventral spinal rootlets are more prone to injury during decompressive operations because they are shorter and exit in a more horizontal direction:

  • (A) C5
  • (B) C6
  • (C) C7
  • (D) T1

Question 83:

The arachnoid villi responsible for CSF absorption protrude mainly into the:

  • (A) Superior sagittal sinus
  • (B) Inferior sagittal sinus
  • (C) Straight sinus
  • (D) Transverse sinus

Question 84:

The term post-traumatic epilepsy refers to seizures occurring:

  • (A) Within moments of head injury
  • (B) Within 7 days of head injury
  • (C) Several weeks to months after head injury
  • (D) Many years after head injury

Question 85:

Treatment of squamous cell carcinoma of the anal canal is:

  • (A) Cisplatin based chemotherapy followed by radical radiotherapy
  • (B) Abdominoperineal resection
  • (C) Radical radiotherapy
  • (D) Radical radiotherapy followed by mitomycin C based chemotherapy

Question 86:

All of the following are indications for surgery in gastric lymphomas, except:

  • (A) Bleeding
  • (B) Perforation
  • (C) Residual disease following chemotherapy
  • (D) Intractable pain

Question 87:

A 22 year old man presents with a solitary 2 cm space occupying lesion of mixed echogenicity in the right lobe of the liver on ultrasound. The rest of the liver is normal. Which of the following tests should be done?

  • (A) Ultrasound guided biopsy of the lesion
  • (B) Hepatic scintigraphy
  • (C) Hepatic angiography
  • (D) Contrast enhanced CT scan of the liver

Question 88:

Which one of the following preservatives is used while packing catgut cultures?

  • (A) Isopropyl alcohol
  • (B) Colloidal iodine
  • (C) Glutaraldehyde
  • (D) Hydrogen peroxide

Question 89:

Ramkumar, a 70 year old hypertensive male, was admitted to the intensive care unit with transmural anterolateral myocardial infarction. His condition was stable till the 5th day of admission, when he developed a pericardial friction rub and pleuritic chest pain which persisted despite narcotic and steroid therapy. On the 7th morning he suddenly developed marked hypotension. On examination, there was distension of jugular veins, accompanied by electromechanical dissociation. Most likely, the patient had developed:

  • (A) Severe acute mitral regurgitation
  • (B) Ventricular septal rupture
  • (C) Right ventricular rupture
  • (D) External (free wall) cardiac rupture

Question 90:

A young motorist suffered injuries in a major road traffic accident. He was diagnosed to have a fracture of the left humerus. He also had fractures of multiple ribs anteriorly on both sides. On examination, the blood pressure was 80/60 mm Hg, and the heart rate was 140/minute. The patient was agitated, restless, and tachypneic. Jugular veins were distended. Air entry was adequate in both lung fields. Heart sounds were barely audible. Femoral pulses were weakly palpable but no pulsation could be felt distally. On a priority basis, the immediate intervention would be:

  • (A) Rapid blood transfusion
  • (B) Urgent pericardial tap
  • (C) Intercostal drainage on both sides
  • (D) Fixation of left femur and repair of femoral artery

Question 91:

A 35 year old farmer consulted a local medical practitioner for recurrent attacks of chest pain. His elder brother had similar complaints and had died suddenly at the age of 40 years. The farmer was advised to take nitroglycerine sublingually at the time of pain. However, the patient finds that the intensity of pain is increased by nitroglycerine. Most probably he is suffering from:

  • (A) Subacute bacterial endocarditis involving the aortic valve
  • (B) Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
  • (C) Degenerative mitral regurgitation
  • (D) Chronic type A dissection of the aorta

Question 92:

A 30 year old man presents with pain in the right flank and hematuria. A CECT abdomen shows a large 8 x 8 cm solid mass in the right kidney and a 3 x 3 cm solid mass in the upper pole of the left kidney. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment for this patient?

  • (A) Bilateral radical nephrectomy
  • (B) Right radical nephrectomy and biopsy of the mass from the opposite kidney
  • (C) Right radical nephrectomy and left partial nephrectomy
  • (D) Right radical nephrectomy only

Question 93:

A 40 year old male patient is brought to the emergency room with a stab injury to the chest. On examination the patient is found to be hemodynamically stable. The neck veins are engorged and the heart sounds are muffled. All the following statements are true about this patient except:

  • (A) Cardiac tamponade is likely to be present
  • (B) Immediate emergency room thoracotomy should be done
  • (C) Echo should be done to confirm pericardial blood
  • (D) The entry wound should be sealed with an occlusive dressing

Question 94:

All the following statements are true about germ cell tumours of the testis except:

  • (A) They constitute 90 to 95 percent of all primary testicular tumours
  • (B) Seminoma is the most common tumour developing in patients with cryptorchid testes
  • (C) Alpha-fetoprotein is markedly raised in all germ cell tumours
  • (D) High inguinal orchidectomy is the initial surgical procedure

Question 95:

A 25 year old male presents to the emergency department following a road traffic accident. On examination there is a pelvic fracture and blood at the urethral meatus. All the following are true about this patient except:

  • (A) The anterior urethra is most likely the site of injury
  • (B) Retrograde urethrography should be done after the patient is stabilized
  • (C) A Foley catheter may be carefully passed if RGU is normal
  • (D) Rectal examination may reveal a large pelvic hematoma with the prostate displaced superiorly

Question 96:

All the following statements are true about Peyronie's disease except:

  • (A) Patients present with complaints of painful erection
  • (B) The condition affects adolescent males
  • (C) The condition is associated with Dupuytren's contracture of the tendons of the hand
  • (D) Spontaneous regression occurs in 50 percent of the cases

Question 97:

The active immunity offered by tetanus toxoid is effectively present in nearly:

  • (A) 25 percent of the patients
  • (B) 50 percent of the patients
  • (C) 75 percent of the patients
  • (D) 100 percent of the patients

Question 98:

The commonest organism causing cellulitis is:

  • (A) Streptococcus pyogenes
  • (B) Streptococcus faecalis
  • (C) Streptococcus viridans
  • (D) Microaerophilic streptococci

Question 99:

Which of the following is NOT a component of crush syndrome?

  • (A) Myoglobinuria
  • (B) Massive crushing of muscles
  • (C) Acute tubular necrosis
  • (D) Bleeding diathesis

Question 100:

A 25 year old young woman has recurrent episodes of headache and sweating. Her mother had renal calculi and died after having a neck mass. Physical examination reveals a thyroid nodule but no clinical sign of thyrotoxicosis. Before performing thyroid surgery, the surgeon should order:

  • (A) Measurement of thyroid hormones
  • (B) Serial determinations of serum calcium, phosphorus, protein and alkaline phosphatase
  • (C) 24 hour urine test for 5-hydroxy-indoleacetic acid excretion
  • (D) Serial 24 hour test for catecholamines, metanephrines and vanillylmandelic acid excretion

Question 101:

During surgery for aortic arch aneurysm under deep hypothermic circulatory arrest, which of the following anaesthetic agents, when administered prior to circulatory arrest, also provides cerebral protection?

  • (A) Etomidate
  • (B) Thiopental sodium
  • (C) Propofol
  • (D) Ketamine

Question 102:

A 6 year old boy is scheduled for examination of the eye under anaesthesia. The father informs that for the past 6 months the child has been developing progressive weakness of both legs. His elder sibling had died at age 14 years. Which drug would you definitely avoid during anaesthetic management?

  • (A) Succinylcholine
  • (B) Thiopentone
  • (C) Nitrous Oxide
  • (D) Vecuronium

Question 103:

In volume cycled respiration the inspiratory flow rate is set at:

  • (A) 140-160 L/min
  • (B) 110-130 L/min
  • (C) 60-100 L/min
  • (D) 30-50 L/min

Question 104:

Which of the following statements is NOT correct for vecuronium?

  • (A) It has a high incidence of cardiovascular side effects
  • (B) It has short duration of neuromuscular block
  • (C) In usual doses, dose adjustment is not required in kidney disease
  • (D) It has high lipophilic property

Question 105:

A 10 year old child presented with headache, vomiting, gait instability and diplopia. On examination he had papilloedema and gait ataxia. The most probable diagnosis is:

  • (A) Hydrocephalus
  • (B) Brain stem Tumour
  • (C) Suprasellar tumour
  • (D) Midline posterior fossa tumour

Question 106:

The most recent advance in non-invasive cardiac output monitoring is the use of:

  • (A) PA catheter
  • (B) Thermodilution technique
  • (C) Echocardiography
  • (D) Electrical impedance cardiograph technology

Question 107:

While carrying a heavy suitcase, the downward dislocation of the glenohumeral joint is resisted by all of the following muscles except:

  • (A) Deltoid
  • (B) Coracobrachialis
  • (C) Short head of biceps
  • (D) Latissimus dorsi

Question 108:

A 19 year old boy fell from a motorbike onto his shoulder. The doctor diagnosed him as a case of Erb's paralysis. All of the following signs and symptoms will be observed except:

  • (A) Loss of abduction at shoulder joint
  • (B) Loss of lateral rotation
  • (C) Loss of pronation at radioulnar joint
  • (D) Loss of flexion at elbow joint

Question 109:

A 4 and a half year old girl child always had to wear warm socks even in summer season. On physical examination, she was found to have high blood pressure and her femoral pulse was weak as compared to her radial and carotid pulse. A chest radiograph showed remarkable notching of the ribs along their lower borders. This was due to:

  • (A) Femoral artery thrombosis
  • (B) Coarctation of aorta
  • (C) Raynaud's disease
  • (D) Takayasu's arteritis

Question 110:

A 40 year old man was repairing his wooden shed on a Sunday afternoon. By afternoon, he felt that the hammer was getting heavier and heavier. He felt pain on the lateral side of the elbow and also found that squeezing water out of a sponge hurt his elbow. Which of the following muscles are most likely involved?

  • (A) Biceps brachii and supinator
  • (B) Flexor digitorum superficialis
  • (C) Extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis
  • (D) Triceps brachii and anconeus

Question 111:

A 16 year old girl failed her final examination. Disgusted with life, she cut across the front of her wrist at the flexor retinaculum. She was rushed to hospital, and the surgeon noticed that the cut was superficial. All of the following structures would have been damaged except:

  • (A) Ulnar nerve
  • (B) Median nerve
  • (C) Palmar cutaneous branch of median nerve
  • (D) Superficial branch of radial artery

Question 112:

In dislocation of the jaw, displacement of the articular disc beyond the temporomandibular (TM) joint results from spasm or excessive contraction of which of the following muscles?

  • (A) Buccinator
  • (B) Lateral pterygoid
  • (C) Masseter
  • (D) Temporalis

Question 113:

Following surgical removal of a firm nodular cancer swelling in the right breast and exploration of the right axilla, on examination the patient was found to have a winged scapula. This occurred due to injury to the

  • (A) Subscapular muscle
  • (B) Coracoid process of scapula
  • (C) Long thoracic nerve
  • (D) Circumflex scapular artery

Question 114:

A 49-year-old man suffering from carcinoma of prostate was X-rayed. He showed areas of sclerosis and collapse of T10 and T11 vertebra in X-ray. The spread of this cancer to the above vertebrae was through

  • (A) Sacral canal
  • (B) Lymphatic vessels
  • (C) Internal vertebral plexus of veins
  • (D) Superior rectal veins

Question 115:

The approximate number of genes contained in the human genome is

  • (A) 40,000
  • (B) 30,000
  • (C) 80,000
  • (D) 1,00,000

Question 116:

Which of the following would distinguish hydrocephalus due to aqueductal stenosis when compared to that due to Dandy-Walker phenomenon

  • (A) Third ventricle size
  • (B) Posterior fossa volume
  • (C) Lateral ventricular size
  • (D) Head circumference

Question 117:

In hemoglobin, the innate affinity of Heme for carbon monoxide is diminished by the presence of

  • (A) His F-8
  • (B) His E-7
  • (C) Gly B-6
  • (D) Thr C-4

Question 118:

The activity of an enzyme having Michaelis constant (Km) = x \(\mu\)M will be 80% of Vmax at a substrate concentration of

  • (A) 2 x \(\mu\)M
  • (B) 4 x \(\mu\)M
  • (C) 8 x \(\mu\)M
  • (D) 10 x \(\mu\)M

Question 119:

The antibiotic that inhibits protein synthesis by premature chain termination and which structurally resembles aminoacyl tRNA is

  • (A) Tetracycline
  • (B) Chloramphenicol
  • (C) Puromycin
  • (D) Erythromycin

Question 120:

In post-hepatic (obstructive) jaundice, the concentration of conjugated bilirubin in the blood is higher than that of unconjugated bilirubin because

  • (A) There is an increased rate of destruction of red blood cells.
  • (B) The unconjugated bilirubin is trapped by a bile stone produced in the bile duct.
  • (C) The conjugation process of bilirubin in the liver remains operative without any interference.
  • (D) The UDP-glucuronosyl-transferase activity is increased manifold in obstructive jaundice.

Question 121:

If a biochemical test gives the same reading for a sample on repeated testing, it is inferred that the measurement is:

  • (A) Precise.
  • (B) Accurate.
  • (C) Specific.
  • (D) Sensitive.

Question 122:

An alpha helix of a protein is most likely to be disrupted if a missense mutation introduces the following amino acid within the alpha helical structure:

  • (A) Alanine.
  • (B) Aspartic acid.
  • (C) Tyrosine.
  • (D) Glycine.

Question 123:

During gluconeogenesis, reducing equivalents from mitochondria to the cytosol are transported by:

  • (A) Malate.
  • (B) Aspartate.
  • (C) Glutamate.
  • (D) Oxaloacetate.

Question 124:

Separation of proteins on the basis of molecular size is achieved by:

  • (A) Chromatography on a carboxymethyl (CM) cellulose column.
  • (B) Iso-electric focusing.
  • (C) Gel filtration chromatography.
  • (D) Chromatography on a diethylaminoethyl (DEAE) cellulose column.

Question 125:

At physiological pH, DNA molecules are:

  • (A) Positively charged.
  • (B) Negatively charged.
  • (C) Neutral.
  • (D) Amphipathic.

Question 126:

One of the following enzymes is not a protein:

  • (A) DNAase.
  • (B) Abzyme.
  • (C) Eco RI.
  • (D) Ribozyme.

Question 127:

The following hormone does not have any intracellular receptor:

  • (A) Vitamin D3
  • (B) Cortisone
  • (C) Adrenaline
  • (D) Thyroxine

Question 128:

When a diagnostic test is used in "series" mode, then:

  • (A) Sensitivity increases but specificity decreases
  • (B) Specificity increases but sensitivity decreases
  • (C) Both sensitivity and specificity increase
  • (D) Both sensitivity and specificity decrease

Question 129:

The preferred public health approach to control non-communicable diseases is:

  • (A) Shift the population curve of risk factors by a population based approach
  • (B) Focus on high risk individuals for reduction of risk
  • (C) Early diagnosis and treatment of identified cases
  • (D) Individual disease based vertical programmes

Question 130:

All of the following statements about rheumatic fever/heart disease epidemiology in India are true except:

  • (A) Its prevalence varies between 2 to 11 per 1000 children aged 5-16 years
  • (B) Mitral regurgitation is the commonest cardiac lesion seen
  • (C) It occurs equally in females and males
  • (D) Rheumatic fever occurs in about 2% of streptococcal sore throats

Question 131:

All of the following statements are true about DPT vaccine except:

  • (A) It should be stored in deep freezer
  • (B) Exposure to direct sunlight when in use should be avoided
  • (C) Store stocks are needed for three months at PHC level
  • (D) Half used vials should not be put back into the cold chain after the session

Question 132:

In Community Needs Assessment approach as a part of the Reproductive & Child Health activities are set at the level of:

  • (A) Community
  • (B) Sub-centre
  • (C) Primary health centre
  • (D) District

Question 133:

A randomized trial comparing the efficacy of two drugs showed a difference between the two with a p value of <0.005. In reality, however the two drugs do not differ. This therefore is an example of:

  • (A) Type I error (alpha error)
  • (B) Type II error (beta error)
  • (C) 1 - \(\alpha\) (alpha)
  • (D) 1 - \(\beta\) (beta)

Question 134:

The National Population Policy 2000 aims to achieve net reproduction rate of 1 by the year:

  • (A) 2005
  • (B) 2010
  • (C) 2015
  • (D) 2050

Question 135:

As per the World Health Organisation guidelines, iodine deficiency disorders are considered a public health problem in a community if the prevalence of goiter in school age children is more than:

  • (A) 1%
  • (B) 5%
  • (C) 10%
  • (D) 15%

Question 136:

The commonest cause of maternal mortality in India is:

  • (A) Anemia
  • (B) Hemorrhage
  • (C) Abortion
  • (D) Sepsis

Question 137:

The drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis in contacts of a patient of pneumonic plague is:

  • (A) Penicillin
  • (B) Rifampicin
  • (C) Erythromycin
  • (D) Tetracycline

Question 138:

In the grading of Trachoma, Trachomatous Inflammation-Follicular (TF) is defined as the presence of:

  • (A) Five or more follicles in the lower tarsal conjunctiva
  • (B) Three or more follicles in the lower tarsal conjunctiva
  • (C) Five or more follicles in the upper tarsal conjunctiva
  • (D) Three or more follicles in the upper tarsal conjunctiva

Question 139:

Which is the commonest cause of ocular morbidity in the community?

  • (A) Cataract
  • (B) Refractive error
  • (C) Ocular injury
  • (D) Vitamin A deficiency

Question 140:

According to the National Programme for Control of Blindness (NPCB) survey (1986-89), the highest prevalence of blindness in India was found in:

  • (A) Jammu and Kashmir
  • (B) Orissa
  • (C) Bihar
  • (D) Uttar Pradesh

Question 141:

In a case-control study of a suspected association between breast cancer and the contraceptive pill, all of the following are true statements EXCEPT:

  • (A) The control should come from a population that has the same potential for breast cancer as the cases.
  • (B) The control should exclude women known to be taking the pill at the time of the survey.
  • (C) All the controls need to be healthy.
  • (D) The attributable risk of breast cancer resulting from the pill may be directly measured.

Question 142:

Prevalence of a disease:

  • (A) Is the best measure of disease frequency in etiological studies.
  • (B) Can only be determined by a cohort study.
  • (C) Is the number of new cases in a defined population.
  • (D) Describes the balance between incidence, mortality and recovery.

Question 143:

The number of patients required in a clinical trial to treat a specified disease increases as:

  • (A) the incidence of the disease decreases.
  • (B) the significance level increases.
  • (C) the size of the expected treatment effect increased.
  • (D) the drop-out rate increases.

Question 144:

In a controlled trial to compare two treatments, the main purpose of randomization is to ensure that:

  • (A) The two groups will be similar in prognostic factors.
  • (B) The clinician does not know which treatment the subjects will receive.
  • (C) The sample may be referred to a known population.
  • (D) The clinician can predict in advance which treatment the subjects will receive.

Question 145:

A 46-year-old female presented at the eye OPD in a hospital. Her vision in the right eye was 6/60 and in left eye 3/60. Under the National Programme for Control of Blindness, she will be classified as:

  • (A) Socially blind.
  • (B) Low vision.
  • (C) Economically blind.
  • (D) Normal vision.

Question 146:

The visual acuity used as cut off for differentiating "normal" from "abnormal" children in the School Vision Screening Programme in India is:

  • (A) 6/6.
  • (B) 6/9.
  • (C) 6/12.
  • (D) 6/60.

Question 147:

All of the following are true for occupational lead poisoning EXCEPT:

  • (A) Inhalation is the most common mode of absorption.
  • (B) Lead in blood and urine provide quantitative indicators of exposure.
  • (C) Average blood level is more important than the levels above threshold.
  • (D) Basophilic stippling is a sensitive parameter of hematological response.

Question 148:

Scabies, an infection of the skin caused by Sarcoptes scabiei, is an example of:

  • (A) Water borne disease
  • (B) Water washed disease
  • (C) Water based disease
  • (D) Water related disease

Question 149:

A child has multiple itchy papular lesions on the genitalia and fingers. Similar lesions are also seen in the younger brother. Which of the following is the most possible diagnosis?

  • (A) Papular urticaria
  • (B) Scabies
  • (C) Atopic dermatitis
  • (D) Allergic contact dermatitis

Question 150:

A 28 year old patient has multiple grouped papulovesicular lesions on both elbows, knees, buttocks and upper back associated with severe itching. The most likely diagnosis is:

  • (A) Pemphigus vulgaris
  • (B) Bullous pemphigoid
  • (C) Dermatitis Herpetiformis
  • (D) Herpes zoster

Question 151:

A 45 year old male has multiple grouped vesicular lesions present on the T10 segment dermatome associated with pain. The most likely diagnosis is:

  • (A) Herpes zoster
  • (B) Dermatitis herpetiformis
  • (C) Herpes simplex
  • (D) Scabies

Question 152:

A baby's blood group was determined as O, Rh negative. Select the blood group the baby's mother or father will not have:

  • (A) A, Rh Positive
  • (B) B, Rh Positive
  • (C) AB, Rh Negative
  • (D) O, Rh positive

Question 153:

Which of the following statements about Consent is "not true"?

  • (A) Consent can only be valid if it is given by a person who is sane and has attained maturity, i.e. 18 years of age
  • (B) For sterilization of a married person, consent of both spouses, i.e. husband and wife, is required
  • (C) For artificial insemination, consent of the patient alone is required
  • (D) In an emergency situation, if no near relative is available, doctors can perform a procedure/surgery necessary to save life even without consent, provided that the procedure is certified to be essential to save the patient's life, by two doctors

Question 154:

Certain obligations on the part of a doctor who undertakes a post mortem examination are the following, EXCEPT:

  • (A) The examination should be meticulous and complete
  • (B) Routinely record all positive findings and important negative ones
  • (C) He must keep the police informed about the findings
  • (D) He must preserve viscera and send for toxicology examination in case of poisoning

Question 155:

Thanatology is the science that deals with:

  • (A) Death in all its aspects.
  • (B) Solving paternity of a child.
  • (C) Identification of the living.
  • (D) Detection of lies.

Question 156:

A dead body with suspected poisoning is having hypostasis of red brown or deep blue colour. It is suggestive of poisoning due to:

  • (A) Nitrates.
  • (B) Carbon monoxide.
  • (C) Cyanides.
  • (D) Barbiturates.

Question 157:

Following cranial nerve is most commonly involved in patients with sarcoidosis:

  • (A) II Cranial nerve.
  • (B) III Cranial nerve.
  • (C) VII Cranial nerve.
  • (D) IX Cranial nerve.

Question 158:

In type II respiratory failure, there is:

  • (A) Low PO2 and low PCO2.
  • (B) Low PO2 and high PCO2.
  • (C) Normal PO2 and high PCO2.
  • (D) Low PO2 and normal PCO2.

Question 159:

The most common cause of acute cor pulmonale is:

  • (A) Pneumonia.
  • (B) Pulmonary thrombo-embolism.
  • (C) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
  • (D) Primary spontaneous pneumothorax.

Question 160:

All of the following murmurs may be heard in patients with aortic regurgitation except:

  • (A) High-pitched decrescendo diastolic murmur.
  • (B) Soft, low pitched mid-diastolic rumbling murmur.
  • (C) Mid-systolic ejection flow murmur.
  • (D) Pansystolic murmur.

Question 161:

Following is true regarding opening snap:

  • (A) It is a high-pitched diastolic sound.
  • (B) It is due to opening of stenosed aortic valve.
  • (C) It indicates pulmonary arterial hypertension.
  • (D) It precedes the aortic component of second heart sound.

Question 162:

All the following diseases are associated with peripheral blood eosinophilia except:

  • (A) Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA)
  • (B) Loeffler's syndrome
  • (C) Pulmonary eosinophilic granuloma
  • (D) Churg-Strauss syndrome

Question 163:

A thirty-year man presented with nausea, fever and jaundice of 5-days duration. The biochemical tests revealed a bilirubin of 6.7 mg/dl (conjugated 5.0 mg/dl) with SGOT/SGPT (AST/ALT) of 123/900 IU/ml. The serological tests showed presence of HBsAg, IgM anti-HBc and HBeAg. The most likely diagnosis is:

  • (A) Chronic hepatitis B infection with high infectivity
  • (B) Acute hepatitis B infection with high infectivity
  • (C) Chronic hepatitis B infection with low infectivity
  • (D) Acute hepatitis B infection with low infectivity

Question 164:

A 29-year-old woman was found to have a hemoglobin of 7.8 g/dl, with a reticulocyte count of 0.8%. The peripheral blood smear showed microcytic, hypochromic anemia. Hemoglobin A2 and hemoglobin F levels were 2.4% and 1.3% respectively. The serum iron was low and the total iron binding capacity (TIBC) was raised at 420 mcg/dL. The most likely cause of anemia is:

  • (A) Iron deficiency anemia
  • (B) Beta-thalassemia minor
  • (C) Sideroblastic anemia
  • (D) Anemia due to chronic infection

Question 165:

A 70-years-old man was administered penicillin intravenously. Within 5 minutes, he developed generalized urticaria, swelling of lips, hypotension and bronchospasm. The first choice of treatment is to administer:

  • (A) Chlorpheniramine injection
  • (B) Epinephrine injection
  • (C) High-dose hydrocortisone tablet
  • (D) Nebulized salbutamol

Question 166:

A patient ingested some unknown substance and presented with myoclonic jerks, seizures, tachycardia and hypotension. The ECG showed a heart rate of 120/minute with QRS interval of 0.16 seconds. The arterial blood gas revealed a pH of 7.25, PCO2 of 30 mmHg and HCO3 of 15 mmol/L. The most likely cause of poisoning is ingestion of:

  • (A) Amanita phalloides
  • (B) Ethylene glycol
  • (C) Imipramine
  • (D) Phencyclidine

Question 167:

Significant loss of vision in a patient with hypertension can occur due to all of the following except:

  • (A) Occipital infarct
  • (B) Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy
  • (C) Papilloedema
  • (D) Retinal hemorrhage

Question 168:

A 33 years old lady presents with polydipsia and polyuria. Her symptoms started soon after a road traffic accident 6 months ago. The blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg with no postural drop. The daily urinary output is 6-8 liters. Investigations showed Na 130 mEq/l, blood glucose 65 mg/dL, plasma osmolality 268 mosmol/l and urine osmolality 45 mosmol/l. The most likely diagnosis is:

  • (A) Central diabetes insipidus
  • (B) Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
  • (C) Resolving acute tubular necrosis
  • (D) Psychogenic polydipsia

Question 169:

A 41 year old patient presented with chronic diarrhea for 3 months. A d-xylose absorption test was ordered to look for:

  • (A) Carbohydrate malabsorption due to mucosal disease.
  • (B) Carbohydrate malabsorption due to chronic pancreatitis.
  • (C) Fat malabsorption due to mucosal disease.
  • (D) Fat malabsorption due to chronic pancreatitis.

Question 170:

Narcolepsy is characterized by all of the following except:

  • (A) Sleep paralysis.
  • (B) Cataplexy.
  • (C) Hallucination.
  • (D) Snoring.

Question 171:

A 25-year female presented with mild pallor and moderate hepatosplenomegaly. Her hemoglobin was 92 g/l and fetal hemoglobin level was 65%. She has not received any blood transfusion till date. She is most likely to be suffering from:

  • (A) Thalassemia major.
  • (B) Thalassemia intermedia.
  • (C) Hereditary persistent fetal hemoglobin, homozygous state.
  • (D) Hemoglobin D, homozygous state.

Question 172:

All of the following cause high anion gap metabolic acidosis except:

  • (A) Lactic acidosis.
  • (B) Salicylate poisoning.
  • (C) Ethylene glycol poisoning.
  • (D) Ureterosigmoidostomy.

Question 173:

Chylous ascites is caused by all of the following except:

  • (A) Colloid carcinoma of stomach.
  • (B) Tuberculosis.
  • (C) Trauma.
  • (D) Nephrotic syndrome.

Question 174:

Adverse effects of Phenytoin include the following except:

  • (A) Lymphadenopathy.
  • (B) Ataxia.
  • (C) Hypercalcemia.
  • (D) Hirsutism.

Question 175:

Drug induced myopathy can be caused by all of the following except:

  • (A) Atorvastatin.
  • (B) D-penicillamine.
  • (C) Ciprofloxacin.
  • (D) Chloroquine.

Question 176:

The commonest site for hypertensive intracerebral bleed is:

  • (A) Putamen
  • (B) Cerebellum
  • (C) Pons
  • (D) Midbrain

Question 177:

A 12 years old child presents with fever and cervical lymphadenopathy. Oral examination shows a gray membrane on the right tonsil extending to the anterior pillar. Which of the following medium will be ideal for the culture of the throat swab for a rapid identification of the pathogen?

  • (A) Nutrient agar
  • (B) Blood agar
  • (C) Loeffler's serum slope
  • (D) Lowenstein-Jensen medium

Question 178:

A 56 year old man has painful rashes over his right upper eyelid and forehead for the last 48 hours. He underwent chemotherapy for Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma one year ago. His temperature is 98 degree F, blood pressure 138/76 mm Hg, and pulse is 80/minute. Examination shows no other abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

  • (A) Impetigo
  • (B) Herpes zoster
  • (C) Pyoderma gangrenosum
  • (D) Erysipelas

Question 179:

A 24 years old cook in a hostel mess suffered from enteric fever 2 years back. The chronic carrier state in this patient can be diagnosed by:

  • (A) Vi agglutination test
  • (B) Blood culture in Brain Heart Infusion broth
  • (C) Widal test
  • (D) C-Reactive protein

Question 180:

Chlamydia trachomatis serovars D-K cause:

  • (A) Arteriosclerosis
  • (B) Trachoma
  • (C) Lymphogranuloma venereum
  • (D) Urethritis

Question 181:

Mixed lymphocyte culture is used to identify:

  • (A) MHC class I antigen
  • (B) MHC class II antigen
  • (C) B lymphocytes
  • (D) T helper cells

Question 182:

In a patient with AIDS, chorioretinitis is typically caused by:

  • (A) Cytomegalovirus
  • (B) Toxoplasma gondii
  • (C) Cryptococcus neoformans
  • (D) Histoplasma capsulatum

Question 183:

A 17 year old girl with keratitis and severe pain in the eye came to the hospital, and Acanthamoeba keratitis was suspected. The patient gave a history of the following four points. Which one of these is NOT a risk factor for Acanthamoeba keratitis?

  • (A) Extended wear contact lenses
  • (B) Exposure to dirty water
  • (C) Corneal trauma
  • (D) Squamous blepharitis

Question 184:

A 2 year old child is brought to the emergency department with a history of fever and vomiting. On examination he has neck rigidity. CSF examination shows polymorphs more than 2000/microL, protein 100 mg/dL, and glucose 10 mg/dL. Gram stain shows Gram negative coccobacilli. Culture shows growth of bacteria only on chocolate agar and not on blood agar. The causative agent is

  • (A) Neisseria meningitidis
  • (B) Haemophilus influenzae
  • (C) Branhamella catarrhalis
  • (D) Legionella pneumophila

Question 185:

A cook prepares sandwiches for 10 people going for a picnic. Eight out of them develop severe gastroenteritis within 4 to 6 hours of consuming the sandwiches. It is likely that on investigation the cook is found to be a carrier of

  • (A) Salmonella typhi
  • (B) Vibrio cholerae
  • (C) Entamoeba histolytica
  • (D) Staphylococcus aureus

Question 186:

A man presents to a STD clinic with urethritis and urethral discharge. Gram stain shows numerous pus cells but no microorganism. The culture is negative on routine laboratory media. The most likely agent is

  • (A) Chlamydia trachomatis
  • (B) Haemophilus ducreyi
  • (C) Treponema pallidum
  • (D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Question 187:

All of the following groups of newborns are at an increased risk of hypoglycemia EXCEPT

  • (A) Birth asphyxia
  • (B) Respiratory distress syndrome
  • (C) Maternal diabetes
  • (D) Post term infant

Question 188:

A twenty year old woman has been brought to casualty with blood pressure 70/40 mm Hg, pulse rate 120/minute, and a positive urine pregnancy test. She should be managed by

  • (A) Immediate laparotomy
  • (B) Laparoscopy
  • (C) Culdocentesis
  • (D) Resuscitation and medical management

Question 189:

In a case of recurrent spontaneous abortion, which of the following investigations is unwanted?

  • (A) Hysteroscopy
  • (B) Testing for antiphospholipid antibodies
  • (C) Testing for TORCH infections
  • (D) Thyroid function tests

Question 190:

In a case of vesicular mole, all of the following are high risk factors for the development of choriocarcinoma except:

  • (A) Serum HCG levels > 1,00,000 IU/ml
  • (B) Uterus size larger than 16 weeks
  • (C) Features of thyrotoxicosis
  • (D) Presence of bilateral theca lutein cysts of ovary

Question 191:

Use of oral contraceptive pills is known to protect against all of the following malignancies except:

  • (A) Ovarian carcinoma
  • (B) Endometrial carcinoma
  • (C) Uterine sarcoma
  • (D) Carcinoma cervix

Question 192:

Use of Levo-Norgestrel Releasing intrauterine contraceptive device is helpful in all of the following conditions except:

  • (A) Menorrhagia
  • (B) Dysmenorrhea
  • (C) Premenstrual symptoms
  • (D) Pelvic inflammatory disease

Question 193:

The most common cause of vesico-vaginal fistula in India is:

  • (A) Gynae surgery
  • (B) Irradiation
  • (C) Obstructed labour
  • (D) Trauma

Question 194:

Differential diagnosis of pre-menstrual tension includes all of the following except:

  • (A) Psychiatric depressive disorder
  • (B) Panic disorder
  • (C) General anxiety disorder
  • (D) Chronic fatigue syndrome

Question 195:

All of the following are risk factors for postoperative infection after hysterectomy except:

  • (A) Surgery for malignancy
  • (B) Age > 50 yrs
  • (C) Urinary catheterization > 7 days
  • (D) Use of blood transfusion

Question 196:

Best parameter for estimation of fetal age by ultrasound in the third trimester is:

  • (A) Femur length
  • (B) Biparietal diameter
  • (C) Abdominal circumference
  • (D) Inter-ocular distance

Question 197:

A 11-year-old boy presented with complaints of pain in the right arm near the shoulder. X-ray examination revealed an expansile lytic lesion in the upper third of the humerus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • (A) Giant cell tumor
  • (B) Unicameral bone cyst
  • (C) Osteochondroma
  • (D) Parosteal osteosarcoma

Question 198:

The classical flexion and rotation deformities at the hip and knee joints as a sequela of poliomyelitis are due to the contracture of:

  • (A) Tensor fasciae latae
  • (B) Gastrocnemius
  • (C) Tendo Achilles
  • (D) Hamstrings

Question 199:

What would be the most reliable test for an acutely injured knee of a 27-year-old athlete?

  • (A) Anterior drawer test
  • (B) Posterior drawer test
  • (C) Lachman test
  • (D) Steinmann test

Question 200:

The medial meniscus of the knee joint is injured more often than the lateral meniscus because the medial meniscus is relatively:

  • (A) More mobile
  • (B) Less mobile
  • (C) Thinner
  • (D) Attached loosely to the femur

NEET PG 2002 (AIIMS PG Entrance) Exam Pattern

The AIIMS PG entrance exam of 2002 was an objective-type pen-and-paper test, not the computer-based INI-CET format doctors sit today. Here is what defined its pattern.

  • Question format: single-best-response multiple-choice questions, one correct option per question.
  • Conducting body: the All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), New Delhi, conducted its own postgraduate entrance test independently of the CBSE-run AIPGMEE, which covered the separate 50% all-India-quota seats at other medical colleges.
  • Purpose: ranking candidates for MD, MS and MDS seats at AIIMS New Delhi and its associated centres, a small and highly competitive intake compared to the national AIPGMEE pool.
  • Format history: AIIMS ran this exam offline on OMR sheets through the 2000s, long before AIIMS PG (and later INI-CET) moved to a computer-based format.
  • This paper: compiles 200 questions from the original 2002 AIIMS PG test booklet, spread across 19 subjects from Anatomy to Social and Preventive Medicine.

NEET PG 2002 Question Paper Discussion Video

Source: Dr.Hemant sharma

Subject-Wise Question Distribution in This NEET PG 2002 Paper

Breaking down the 200 questions by subject shows where this paper leans hardest, useful for planning revision before you attempt it.

  • Medicine carries the largest share with 22 questions, followed by Social and Preventive Medicine with 18 and Ophthalmology with 16.
  • Pediatrics, Pathology and Surgery each contribute 14 questions, together with Medicine and SPM making up well over a third of the paper.
  • Biochemistry holds 11 questions, while Microbiology, Pharmacology, Anaesthesia and Radiology carry 10 each.
  • Gynaecology and Obstetrics adds 9 and Anatomy 8, with the rest spread across Orthopedics, Physiology, Forensic Medicine, ENT, Psychiatry and Dermatology.
  • By difficulty, 112 questions are rated medium, 53 hard and 35 easy, so working through the full set mirrors real exam-day pressure.

NEET PG 2002 Question Paper FAQs

Ques. What is the NEET PG 2002 question paper?

Ans. It is the AIIMS PG entrance examination held in 2002, an objective multiple-choice test conducted by AIIMS New Delhi to select candidates for its own MD, MS and MDS seats. This compiled version carries 200 questions from the original test booklet with worked solutions.

Ques. Who conducted the NEET PG 2002 (AIIMS PG) paper?

Ans. The All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), New Delhi conducted its own postgraduate entrance exam in 2002, separately from the CBSE-run AIPGMEE that covered India's all-India-quota MD, MS and PG Diploma seats at other colleges. AIIMS PG was later folded into the newer INI-CET exam.

Ques. How many questions are in this NEET PG 2002 paper?

Ans. This compiled paper has 200 questions from the original 2002 AIIMS PG entrance test booklet, covering subjects from Anatomy to Social and Preventive Medicine.

Ques. Which subject carries the most questions in NEET PG 2002?

Ans. Medicine has the largest share with 22 questions, followed by Social and Preventive Medicine with 18 and Ophthalmology with 16.

Ques. Is the NEET PG 2002 (AIIMS PG) paper still useful for NEET PG preparation?

Ans. Yes. Even though the exam format has since changed, solving the 2002 AIIMS PG paper gives subject-wise practice in high-yield clinical areas like Medicine, Ophthalmology and Pathology that still dominate the current NEET PG and INI-CET syllabus.

Ques. Where can I download the NEET PG 2002 question paper with solutions for free?

Ans. Both the question paper and the solved answer key are hosted as free PDFs in the download table and flipbook above, with a separate Check Solutions PDF giving a step-by-step explanation for every question.