This is the AIIMS PG entrance examination from 2001, popularly archived today as NEET PG 2001, conducted by the All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), New Delhi for admission to its own MD, MS and MDS seats. This compiled paper carries 200 questions from the original test booklet, each with a step-by-step solution.

NEET PG 2001 Question Paper with Solutions Download PDF Check Solutions

NEET PG 2001 Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

A young patient developed painless sudden loss of vision which spontaneously improved over a period of 3 months. What is the most probable diagnosis?

  • (A) Macular hole
  • (B) Central serous retinopathy
  • (C) Angle closure glaucoma
  • (D) Retinal detachment

Question 2:

Leucoria is seen in all of the following EXCEPT

  • (A) Retinoblastoma
  • (B) Congenital glaucoma
  • (C) Persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous
  • (D) Fungal endophthalmitis

Question 3:

A female patient complains of blurring of vision and was prescribed \(-0.5D\) spherical lenses. Retinoscopy done at \(1\ m\) with a plane mirror will cause the image to move in which manner?

  • (A) Image moves in the direction of the mirror
  • (B) Image moves in the opposite direction
  • (C) No movement of the image
  • (D) Scissors reflex is seen

Question 4:

What is the most common eye manifestation of allergy to tubercular bacilli?

  • (A) Koeppe's nodules
  • (B) Posterior scleritis
  • (C) Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
  • (D) Optic neuritis

Question 5:

What is the diagnosis for ropy discharge from the eyes, along with itching, which occurs every summer?

  • (A) Vernal catarrh
  • (B) Bacterial conjunctivitis
  • (C) Trachoma
  • (D) Phlyctenular conjunctivitis

Question 6:

Which wall is most often fractured in a blow out fracture of the orbit due to a fisticuff injury?

  • (A) Superior wall
  • (B) Inferior wall
  • (C) Medial wall
  • (D) Lateral wall

Question 7:

Which of these is NOT useful in arriving at a diagnosis of moderate papilledema in a patient of head injury?

  • (A) Impaired pupillary reflex
  • (B) Hyperemia
  • (C) Filling of the physiological cup
  • (D) Blurring of the margins

Question 8:

What is represented by ETDRS in a diabetic vision chart?

  • (A) Elective treatment for diabetic retinopathy scales
  • (B) Extended Rx for diabetes review study
  • (C) Early Treatment Diabetic Retinopathy Study
  • (D) Eye test drum review study

Question 9:

What drug can be used that will provide only mydriasis and no cycloplegia, for a fundus examination in a young adult patient?

  • (A) Atropine ointment
  • (B) Phenylephrine
  • (C) Homatropine
  • (D) Tropicamide

Question 10:

Which of these is NOT caused by amphotericin B?

  • (A) Azotemia
  • (B) Glomerulonephritis
  • (C) Hypokalemia
  • (D) Renal tubular acidosis

Question 11:

Ingestion of what product by the mother may cause the infant to have cleft palate, spina bifida and an (ASD doubtful)?

  • (A) Isotretinoin
  • (B) Valproate
  • (C) Phenytoin
  • (D) Carbamazepine

Question 12:

What is the most common cardiac defect caused due to lithium?

  • (A) Ebstein's anomaly
  • (B) HOCM
  • (C) Aortic aneurysm
  • (D) Eisenmenger syndrome

Question 13:

A man is arrested for possession of narcotics, the culprit is found to have black tongue. What is likely to have been the substance of abuse?

  • (A) Heroin
  • (B) Cocaine
  • (C) Cannabis
  • (D) Arsenic

Question 14:

A 25 yr old male experienced severe flushing, fall in blood pressure after intake of alcohol. The above described attack can be precipitated by the simultaneous intake of all the following drugs along with alcohol EXCEPT which?

  • (A) Cefamandole
  • (B) Metronidazole
  • (C) Dexamethasone
  • (D) Chlorpropamide

Question 15:

A patient with a history of asthma develops a respiratory tract infection. He is on theophylline. Which of the following antibiotics may precipitate theophylline toxicity?

  • (A) Erythromycin
  • (B) Sparfloxacin
  • (C) Ampicillin
  • (D) Cotrimoxazole

Question 16:

In which of the following conditions is granulomatous vasculitis NOT seen?

  • (A) Microscopic Polyangiitis
  • (B) Wegener's Granulomatosis
  • (C) Giant Cell Arteritis
  • (D) Churg-Strauss Syndrome

Question 17:

A 30 year old patient with nephrotic syndrome has been on steroids for 14 years. He has bilateral difficulty in abduction and internal rotation of the hip, and attempting to flex the hip results in abduction. What is the cause?

  • (A) Avascular Necrosis of Femur Head
  • (B) Septic Arthritis
  • (C) Renal Osteodystrophy
  • (D) Heterotopic Calcification

Question 18:

In which of the following conditions is an elevated HCG level NOT seen?

  • (A) Choriocarcinoma
  • (B) Polyembryoma
  • (C) Endodermal Sinus Tumor
  • (D) Embryonal Carcinoma

Question 19:

What could be the cause of tall QRS complexes with coarse facial features and hepatosplenomegaly?

  • (A) Glycogen Storage Disease Type II
  • (B) Marfan's Syndrome
  • (C) Romano-Ward Syndrome
  • (D) Pompe's Disease

Question 20:

What is the treatment for torsades de pointes in a patient who has had a prolonged QT interval since birth?

  • (A) Magnesium Sulphate
  • (B) Overdrive Pacing
  • (C) Isoproterenol
  • (D) Metoprolol

Question 21:

Which of the following is NOT a congenital myopathy?

  • (A) Central Core Disease
  • (B) Nemaline Myopathy
  • (C) Centronuclear Myopathy
  • (D) Z Band Myopathy

Question 22:

In which of these conditions may CPK be raised?

  • (A) Muscle disease
  • (B) Liver cirrhosis
  • (C) Biliary colic
  • (D) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

Question 23:

A patient with hypertension has a serum urea of 55 mg/dL and serum creatinine of 5.6 mg/dL, indicating renal failure. Which of the following anti-tubercular drugs does NOT require the dose to be reduced in this patient?

  • (A) INH
  • (B) Rifampin
  • (C) Pyrazinamide
  • (D) Ethambutol

Question 24:

What drug should be avoided in the case of an HIV patient who is receiving zalcitabine, indinavir and lamivudine?

  • (A) INH
  • (B) Rifampin
  • (C) PZA
  • (D) Ethambutol

Question 25:

What is NOT true about multiple myeloma?

  • (A) It is more common in those over 50 years of age
  • (B) It arises from clones of plasma cells
  • (C) Bence Jones proteins are abnormal whole immunoglobulins found in urine
  • (D) There is a predisposition to amyloidosis

Question 26:

What is the likely diagnosis in a patient who has low back ache, L3 tenderness, and the following data: total proteins 8.9 g/dL, albumin:globulin ratio 2.9/5.9 (reversed), serum creatinine 5.5 mg/dL, TLC 4500/mm3, DLC neutrophils 55%, lymphocytes 40%, eosinophils 2%; blood urea was 93 mg/dL and serum creatinine was 1.2 mg/dL; ESR was 90 mm in the first hour?

  • (A) Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia
  • (B) Multiple myeloma
  • (C) Amyloidosis
  • (D) Bone secondaries

Question 27:

A patient has target cells, nucleated RBCs, and microcytic hypochromic anemia on the peripheral smear, along with a positive family history. What is the investigation of choice?

  • (A) Coombs test
  • (B) Osmotic fragility
  • (C) Hb electrophoresis
  • (D) Sucrose lysis test

Question 28:

Which of these is NOT a clinical feature of hypercarbia?

  • (A) Miosis
  • (B) Cold clammy extremities
  • (C) Bradycardia
  • (D) Hypertension

Question 29:

A 25 year old male has a Mantoux test reading of 14 x 17 mm, along with weight loss, intermittent low grade fever, and hemoptysis for the past 4 months. Sputum smear is negative for acid fast bacilli (AFB) and the ESR is raised. What is the likely diagnosis?

  • (A) Pulmonary tuberculosis (PTB)
  • (B) Viral pneumonia
  • (C) Fungal pneumonia
  • (D) Bronchogenic carcinoma

Question 30:

Which of the following statements is NOT true about prion disease?

  • (A) About 10% of patients have myoclonus
  • (B) It is caused by an infectious protein
  • (C) Dementia is a universal feature
  • (D) Brain biopsy is diagnostic

Question 31:

What is the likely diagnosis in a 25 year old who develops hematuria 3 days after an upper respiratory tract infection (URI)?

  • (A) IgA nephropathy
  • (B) Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN)
  • (C) Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP)
  • (D) Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)

Question 32:

An individual who underwent renal transplantation one year ago is found positive for HBsAg and HCV. Treatment with which of the following will give this patient maximum benefit?

  • (A) Lamivudine and interferon (IFN)
  • (B) Lamivudine alone
  • (C) Ribavirin
  • (D) Interferon (IFN)

Question 33:

In which of the following conditions should propranolol NOT be used?

  • (A) Asthma
  • (B) Panic attack
  • (C) Premature ventricular contractions (PVCs)
  • (D) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

Question 34:

Which of the following is NOT a CNS anomaly seen in HIV infection?

  • (A) Perivascular infiltration
  • (B) Microglial nodules
  • (C) Vascular myelopathy of the posterior column
  • (D) Temporal lobe involvement

Question 35:

Which of the following is NOT true regarding toxoplasmosis?

  • (A) IgG antibody indicates congenital infection
  • (B) Most infections are anthroponotic
  • (C) Adult infections are mainly symptomatic
  • (D) Toxoplasma encephalitis occurs in immunocompetent persons

Question 36:

What is NOT true regarding an adult hemophiliac who visits a dentist?

  • (A) Cryoprecipitate may be needed
  • (B) The dose of lidocaine required is increased
  • (C) HIV screening is required
  • (D) Monitored GA care needs to be given

Question 37:

What is NOT true about fibrolamellar cancer of the liver?

  • (A) Not more common in males
  • (B) Better prognosis
  • (C) AFP is raised over 1000
  • (D) Seen in a younger age group

Question 38:

Adult polycystic kidney disease (PCKD) is associated with which of these?

  • (A) Fusiform abdominal aortic aneurysm
  • (B) Berry aneurysm
  • (C) Saccular aneurysm of ascending aorta
  • (D) Aneurysm of the arch of aorta

Question 39:

An 18-year-old boy presents with massive hematemesis, and the spleen is evidently enlarged up to the umbilicus. He is then found to have varices on esophagoscopy. What could be the diagnosis?

  • (A) Budd-Chiari syndrome
  • (B) Veno-occlusive disease
  • (C) Non-cirrhotic portal fibrosis
  • (D) Cirrhosis of the liver

Question 40:

What is NOT true with regard to the adult polycystic kidney?

  • (A) Hematuria
  • (B) Hypertension is rare
  • (C) Autosomal dominant transmission
  • (D) Cysts are seen in the liver, spleen and pancreas

Question 41:

An 18-year-old presents with massive hematemesis and a history of fever for the past 14 days that was treated with drugs. A moderately enlarged spleen is present. What is the diagnosis?

  • (A) NSAID-induced duodenal ulcer
  • (B) Drug-induced gastritis
  • (C) Esophageal varices
  • (D) Portal hypertension

Question 42:

A 25-year-old male with no previous cardiac complaints presents with arrhythmia. He gives a recent history of binge drinking. What is the pathology likely in this patient?

  • (A) Atrial fibrillation
  • (B) Supraventricular tachycardia
  • (C) Ventricular ectopics
  • (D) Atrial flutter

Question 43:

Which condition may cause hypothalamic hypogonadism?

  • (A) Frohlich syndrome
  • (B) Foster Kennedy syndrome
  • (C) Kallmann syndrome
  • (D) Fragile X syndrome

Question 44:

What is the next line of management for a 25 year old woman who develops acute pulmonary embolism?

  • (A) Thrombolysis
  • (B) LMW heparin
  • (C) Oral anticoagulants
  • (D) IVC filter

Question 45:

A 30 year old male patient presented with history of dizziness, vertigo, diplopia, dysphagia, weakness on the right side of the body, along with Horner's syndrome on the same side. Loss of pain and temperature sensations on the left side was noted. The patient also has loss of memory. Which artery is most likely involved in the condition described above?

  • (A) Anterior inferior cerebellar
  • (B) Posterior inferior cerebellar
  • (C) Middle cerebral
  • (D) Superior cerebellar

Question 46:

In which of the following conditions is plasmapheresis useful?

  • (A) Wegener's granulomatosis
  • (B) HSP (Henoch-Schonlein purpura)
  • (C) Goodpasture syndrome
  • (D) Guillain-Barre syndrome

Question 47:

Which of these does NOT feature eye manifestations in association with a seronegative arthropathy?

  • (A) Psoriasis
  • (B) Rheumatoid arthritis
  • (C) Reiter's syndrome
  • (D) Ankylosing spondylitis

Question 48:

Why is the sickle cell carrier state usually asymptomatic?

  • (A) The HbS carrier state has higher oxygen affinity
  • (B) Less than 50% saturation does not cause sickling
  • (C) There is allosteric binding of HbA to the HbS carrier state
  • (D) There is ample HbF to make up for the carrier state

Question 49:

An HIV patient is on treatment with didanosine, stavudine, and indinavir. He is diagnosed to have pulmonary tuberculosis. Which one of the following ATT drugs is to be avoided?

  • (A) INH
  • (B) Rifampin
  • (C) PZA
  • (D) Ethambutol

Question 50:

A lady with congenital heart disease underwent a dental extraction and developed endocarditis. Which is the organism most likely to have been involved in the pathogenesis?

  • (A) Staphylococcus aureus
  • (B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • (C) Streptococcus sanguis
  • (D) Staphylococcus epidermidis

Question 51:

In Rheumatic heart disease the vegetations are seen along the line of closure of the mitral valve. These vegetations are likely to get lodged in any of the following sites EXCEPT ?

  • (A) Brain
  • (B) Lung
  • (C) Spleen
  • (D) Kidney

Question 52:

Which of these is Hepatitis B infection most commonly associated with?

  • (A) PAN
  • (B) Cryoglobulinemia
  • (C) SLE
  • (D) Polymyositis

Question 53:

Which of these is NOT caused by enteroviruses?

  • (A) Herpangina
  • (B) Hemorrhagic fever
  • (C) Pleurodynia
  • (D) Aseptic meningitis

Question 54:

Which of these is a calicivirus?

  • (A) HAV
  • (B) HBV
  • (C) HCV
  • (D) HEV

Question 55:

From which area should a biopsy be taken in the case of a viral esophageal ulcer?

  • (A) Edges
  • (B) Surrounding mucosa
  • (C) Base
  • (D) Indurated area

Question 56:

What is the investigation for an 8 yr old boy with a lesion on the back, featuring peripheral scaling and central scarring?

  • (A) Tzanck test
  • (B) KOH mount
  • (C) Skin biopsy
  • (D) Patch test

Question 57:

What is the investigation of choice for invasive amebiasis?

  • (A) ELISA
  • (B) Biopsy
  • (C) IHA (Indirect Haemagglutination Assay)
  • (D) PCR

Question 58:

A 30 year old patient who had a laparotomy recently developed an intraperitoneal abscess (peritonitis). The causative organism is a Gram positive coccus that is resistant to vancomycin and to bacitracin, grows well in 6.5% NaCl broth, and shows a positive optochin reaction. Which organism is the likely cause?

  • (A) Enterococcus faecalis
  • (B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • (C) Staphylococcus aureus
  • (D) Peptostreptococcus

Question 59:

A patient has a brain abscess. The aspirated material is foul smelling and shows red fluorescence under ultraviolet light. Which organism could be implicated?

  • (A) Staphylococcus aureus
  • (B) Peptostreptococcus
  • (C) Bacteroides
  • (D) Acanthamoeba

Question 60:

Which of the following does NOT feature preformed toxins?

  • (A) Staphylococcus aureus
  • (B) ETEC (Enterotoxigenic E. coli)
  • (C) Bacillus cereus
  • (D) Clostridium botulinum

Question 61:

Which of the following is a marker for recent (acute) hepatitis B infection?

  • (A) IgM anti-HBs
  • (B) IgM anti-HBc
  • (C) HBeAg
  • (D) HBsAg

Question 62:

What may be seen in a case of acute hepatitis B infection?

  • (A) Dane particle
  • (B) HBsAg
  • (C) IgM anti-HBc
  • (D) Anti-HBe

Question 63:

If a PCR reaction is working at 100% efficiency, how many copies of the target are produced after 3 cycles, relative to the initial amount?

  • (A) Double the initial amount
  • (B) Thrice the initial amount
  • (C) Four times the initial amount
  • (D) Eight times the initial amount

Question 64:

For which of these is northern blotting with hybridization useful?

  • (A) Protein antigen
  • (B) RNA
  • (C) DNA
  • (D) Histone

Question 65:

Which of these may feature auto infection?

  • (A) Ancylostoma
  • (B) Enterobius
  • (C) Ascaris
  • (D) Paragonimus

Question 66:

What medium is used for culture in a suspected case of legionnaires disease?

  • (A) Thayer Martin
  • (B) Buffered charcoal with yeast extract
  • (C) Chocolate agar
  • (D) Bordet Gengou

Question 67:

Following a bee sting, the person develops periorbital edema, laryngospasm, breathing difficulty. These reactions are mediated through which of the following?

  • (A) Cytotoxic T cell
  • (B) IgE mediated
  • (C) IgA mediated
  • (D) Immune complex reactions

Question 68:

CLED is preferred to McConkeys medium because?

  • (A) It is a differential medium
  • (B) Prevents swarming of Proteus
  • (C) Supports the growth of Pseudomonas
  • (D) Supports growth of Candida and Staphylococcus

Question 69:

Two farmers were brought dead, autopsy done revealed viscera that had the smell of bitter almonds. The most likely poisoning is due to that by?

  • (A) Organophosphorus
  • (B) Hydrocyanic acid
  • (C) Morphine
  • (D) Atropine

Question 70:

A case of poisoning was brought to the casualty, a gastric lavage was done, and the lavage turned black when it was heated after being treated with silver nitrate. The poisoning is most likely to have been due to which of the following?

  • (A) Tik-20
  • (B) Celfos
  • (C) Malathion
  • (D) Parathion

Question 71:

Hemodialysis is mandatory in which poisoning?

  • (A) Copper sulphate poisoning
  • (B) Ethanol poisoning
  • (C) Amphetamine poisoning
  • (D) Organophosphorus poisoning

Question 72:

Fine leathery froth that emanates from the nostrils on chest compression is diagnostic of death due to?

  • (A) Drowning
  • (B) Hanging
  • (C) Morphine poisoning
  • (D) Strangulation

Question 73:

Which of these ectopic pregnancies is likely to progress for the maximum period?

  • (A) Isthmic
  • (B) Ampullary
  • (C) Interstitial
  • (D) Fimbrial

Question 74:

What is the most likely cause for a 26 year old pregnant woman from Bihar referred to a tertiary centre with hepatic encephalopathy?

  • (A) HAV
  • (B) HBV
  • (C) HCV
  • (D) HEV

Question 75:

At what time during gestation does phosphatidyl glycerol appear?

  • (A) 20 weeks
  • (B) 28 weeks
  • (C) 32 weeks
  • (D) 35 weeks

Question 76:

22 year old nullipara presents with 1 and half months amenorrhea, abdominal pain. USG reveals empty uterine cavity and free fluid in the pouch of Douglas. What is the likely diagnosis?

  • (A) Twisted ovarian cyst
  • (B) Threatened abortion
  • (C) Ectopic pregnancy
  • (D) Missed abortion

Question 77:

36 year old G3P3 patient had LCB 6 years ago, no medical evaluation since then. She now complains of excessive vaginal itching, skin pigmentation, lethargy, lack of axillary and body hair, cold intolerance, hoarseness of voice. On examination, her vagina is found to be atrophic. Which of these agents is NOT likely to improve her condition?

  • (A) Insulin
  • (B) Thyroid extract
  • (C) Prednisolone
  • (D) Estrogen

Question 78:

What is the stage of an ovarian cancer with bilateral involvement, capsular rupture, and positive ascitic fluid for malignant cells?

  • (A) I
  • (B) II
  • (C) III
  • (D) IV

Question 79:

Following a full term normal delivery (FTND), a woman develops postpartum hemorrhage after 2 days. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) is raised, factor VIII is 10% of the normal value, while prothrombin time (PT) and thrombin time (TT) are normal. What is the likely diagnosis?

  • (A) Acquired factor VIII deficiency
  • (B) Hereditary factor VIII deficiency
  • (C) DIC
  • (D) Antiphospholipid syndrome

Question 80:

Which of the following is NOT a clinical sign of scar rupture?

  • (A) Maternal bradycardia
  • (B) Fetal bradycardia
  • (C) Hematuria
  • (D) Bleeding per vaginum

Question 81:

What is true about a diabetic pregnancy?

  • (A) Cardiovascular anomalies are the most commonly seen congenital anomalies
  • (B) Dexamethasone is contraindicated since it causes hyperglycemia
  • (C) Screening for Down syndrome is not effective
  • (D) Beta agonists are contraindicated in preterm labor

Question 82:

What is the approximate pH of amniotic fluid?

  • (A) 6.7-6.9
  • (B) 6.9-7.0
  • (C) 7.1-7.2
  • (D) 7.4-7.5

Question 83:

Which of the following is a normal finding in the third trimester of pregnancy?

  • (A) Apex beat shifted to the 4th intercostal space
  • (B) Cardiomegaly
  • (C) Diaphragm is pushed up
  • (D) Short mid diastolic murmur

Question 84:

What could be the cause for difficulty in abduction and internal rotation in an 11 year old, 70 kg boy, having tenderness in Scarpa's triangle, painful hip movements, and a tendency of the limb to go into abduction upon flexion of the hip?

  • (A) Perthes disease
  • (B) Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
  • (C) Tuberculosis of hip
  • (D) Obturator hip

Question 85:

What is the likely cause of a circumscribed osteosclerotic lesion in the tibial diaphysis in a 10 year old?

  • (A) Osteoid osteoma
  • (B) Ewing's sarcoma
  • (C) Bone secondaries
  • (D) Tuberculosis

Question 86:

Which of the following features the best bone apposition?

  • (A) Chondroblastic activity in endochondrium
  • (B) Osteoblastic activity in membrane
  • (C) Periosteal changes
  • (D) Enchondral ossification

Question 87:

Which condition is NOT likely to feature the painful arc syndrome?

  • (A) Supraspinatus tendinitis
  • (B) Subacromial bursitis
  • (C) Complete supraspinatus tear
  • (D) Fracture of greater tuberosity humerus

Question 88:

What is used to correct ilio tibial tract contracture in a neonate?

  • (A) Charnley's Test
  • (B) Osbon's Test
  • (C) Ober's Test
  • (D) Jones Test

Question 89:

What is the most common type of malignant melanoma?

  • (A) Superficial spreading
  • (B) Acral lentiginous
  • (C) Nodular
  • (D) Lentigo maligna

Question 90:

What is the most common site for a lentiginous melanoma?

  • (A) Sole of foot
  • (B) Face
  • (C) Leg
  • (D) Trunk

Question 91:

A melanocytic nevus of which type is most likely to undergo malignant transformation?

  • (A) Blue nevus
  • (B) Junctional
  • (C) Epidermal
  • (D) Deep dermal

Question 92:

Which condition may feature fat-laden histiocytes in the gastric mucosa?

  • (A) Signet ring cell carcinoma
  • (B) Erosive gastritis
  • (C) Post-gastrectomy status
  • (D) Lymphoma

Question 93:

Where do Call-Exner bodies occur?

  • (A) Granulosa cell tumor
  • (B) Theca cell tumor
  • (C) Dysgerminoma
  • (D) Brenner tumor

Question 94:

Which condition does NOT feature granulomas?

  • (A) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
  • (B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • (C) Mycobacterium leprae
  • (D) Yersinia enterocolitica

Question 95:

What is NOT TRUE about apoptosis?

  • (A) Surrounding inflammation
  • (B) Macrophages take up dead tissue
  • (C) Activation of caspase occurs
  • (D) Endonucleases mediate chromatolysis

Question 96:

Which of the following is a feature of aging cells?

  • (A) Lipofuscin accumulation
  • (B) Increased oxidative phosphorylation
  • (C) Increased glycogen stores
  • (D) Increased nuclear material and mitochondria

Question 97:

From where do dividing cancer cells derive energy?

  • (A) Glycolysis
  • (B) Mitochondria
  • (C) Oxidative phosphorylation
  • (D) Anaerobic metabolism

Question 98:

Which of the following is clathrin involved in?

  • (A) Receptor mediated endocytosis
  • (B) Receptor independent endocytosis
  • (C) Receptor mediated exocytosis
  • (D) Receptor independent exocytosis

Question 99:

What parameter of the crescents is used to assess the severity in crescentic glomerulonephritis?

  • (A) Size
  • (B) Shape
  • (C) Number
  • (D) Pattern of distribution

Question 100:

What is NOT true with regard to FAP (familial adenomatous polyposis)?

  • (A) C-myc gene expression decreased
  • (B) Antibodies to normal mucin
  • (C) Due to defect in the FAP gene
  • (D) Proliferation of colonic epithelium

Question 101:

Which of the following is the true statement regarding minimal change disease?

  • (A) Loss of foot processes
  • (B) Antigen-antibody complexes
  • (C) Loss of foot processes along with loss of charge across the membrane, hence leading to proteinuria
  • (D) Destruction of the glomerulus, with minimal tissue only remaining intact

Question 102:

What is the enzyme by which cancer cells become immortalised?

  • (A) DNA polymerase
  • (B) mRNA polymerase
  • (C) Telomerase
  • (D) Topoisomerase

Question 103:

Which of these features a reversible change in cell polarity?

  • (A) Dysplasia
  • (B) Metaplasia
  • (C) Anaplasia
  • (D) Hyperplasia

Question 104:

What does diapedesis refer to?

  • (A) Attachment of neutrophils to blood vessel
  • (B) Escape of neutrophils from capillaries through the capillary endothelium
  • (C) Stimulation of cytokine secretion by inflammatory cells
  • (D) Response of mediator cells to cytokine secretion

Question 105:

What term is used to denote the replacement of alveolar epithelium by stratified squamous epithelium, seen on biopsy of a smoker's lung?

  • (A) Anaplasia
  • (B) Metaplasia
  • (C) Dysplasia
  • (D) Hyperplasia

Question 106:

A child younger than 6 years has nephrotic syndrome that responds well to steroids. A renal biopsy is done. What will be seen under the light microscope?

  • (A) Nothing
  • (B) Loss of foot processes
  • (C) Tubule atrophy
  • (D) Crescents

Question 107:

Which of these does not regress?

  • (A) Salmon patch
  • (B) Strawberry angioma
  • (C) Portwine stain
  • (D) Lymphangiomatosis circumscripta

Question 108:

What could be the cause of improvement in the condition of a child having a perimembranous VSD and heart failure?

  • (A) Reduction in size of the VSD
  • (B) Pulmonary vascular changes
  • (C) Infective endocarditis
  • (D) Aortic regurgitation

Question 109:

A neonate has cyanosis, pulmonary oligemia, and a normal cardiac shadow. What could be the diagnosis?

  • (A) Tetralogy of Fallot
  • (B) Pulmonary atresia
  • (C) Transposition of great vessels
  • (D) Ebstein's anomaly

Question 110:

A 5 year old child has anaemia with an increased reticulocyte count. The peripheral smear shows target cells and normoblasts. The patient's younger brother suffers from the same condition. What investigation should be performed?

  • (A) Hb electrophoresis
  • (B) Bone marrow biopsy
  • (C) Osmotic fragility test
  • (D) Chromosomal analysis

Question 111:

A 10 month old child presents with weakness, coarse facial features, and a normal ECG. What is the likely diagnosis?

  • (A) Hurler syndrome
  • (B) Hunter syndrome
  • (C) Glycogen storage disorder
  • (D) Phenylketonuria

Question 112:

A young boy has retarded physical and mental development. X-rays reveal fragmentation of the epiphyses and the presence of wormian bones. What is the diagnosis?

  • (A) Hypopituitarism
  • (B) Hypothyroidism
  • (C) Hypogonadism
  • (D) Scurvy

Question 113:

Injection of hypotonic saline into the carotid artery causes activation of the hypothalamus via which of the following?

  • (A) Medial nucleus of the hypothalamus
  • (B) Supraoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus
  • (C) Preoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus
  • (D) Paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus

Question 114:

Respiratory physiology of a newborn is different from that of an adult by all of the following EXCEPT

  • (A) Increased oxygen demand of the newborn
  • (B) Decreased FRC in the newborn
  • (C) Adult Hb has decreased affinity for oxygen
  • (D) Total lung volume is small/decreased in the newborn

Question 115:

What is the mechanism by which hyperventilation may cause muscle spasm?

  • (A) Decreased calcium
  • (B) Decreased carbon dioxide
  • (C) Decreased potassium
  • (D) Decreased sodium

Question 116:

Which combination of the following statements about presynaptic inhibition is TRUE?

  1. Axoaxonal synapse mediated
  2. Prolongs IPSP
  3. Prolonged by anaesthesia
  4. Not affected by pharmacological agents
  5. It affects motor endplate potential
  6. Decreased by strychnine
  7. Decreased by picrotoxin

  • (A) a, d, f
  • (B) b, e, f
  • (C) a, c, f
  • (D) a, c, g

Question 117:

What is NOT true with regard to semen analysis?

  • (A) Abstinence for 6 weeks provides the best sample
  • (B) Sperm motility is a good indicator of sperm quality
  • (C) Collection should be at the site of analysis
  • (D) Absence of fructose may indicate a blocked ejaculatory duct or lack of seminal vesicles

Question 118:

What is the median of this set of values: 2, 5, 7, 10, 10, 15, 20?

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 10
  • (C) 15
  • (D) 20

Question 119:

What can be true regarding the coefficient of correlation between infant mortality rate (IMR) and economic status?

  • (A) r = +1
  • (B) r = -1
  • (C) r = +0.22
  • (D) r = -0.8

Question 120:

Which is best in order to make a comparison between two populations?

  • (A) Standardised mortality rate
  • (B) Disease specific death rate
  • (C) Proportional mortality rate
  • (D) Age specific death rate

Question 121:

Which is the best index for burden of disease?

  • (A) Case fatality rate
  • (B) Disability adjusted life years
  • (C) Dependence rate
  • (D) Morbidity data

Question 122:

How much ethinyl estradiol does the new low dose oral contraceptive pill contain? (in micrograms)

  • (A) 20
  • (B) 25
  • (C) 30
  • (D) 35

Question 123:

Among 100 women with average Hb of 10 gm%, the standard deviation was 1. What is the standard error?

  • (A) 0.01
  • (B) 0.1
  • (C) 1
  • (D) 10

Question 124:

In a particular trial, the association of lung cancer with smoking is found to be 40% in one sample and 60% in another. What is the best test to compare the results?

  • (A) Chi square test
  • (B) Fischer test
  • (C) Paired t test
  • (D) ANOVA test

Question 125:

How much of the sample is included in 1.95 SD?

  • (A) 99%
  • (B) 95%
  • (C) 68%
  • (D) 65%

Question 126:

If the correlation of height with age is given by the equation \(y = a + bx\), what would be the nature of the graph?

  • (A) Straight line
  • (B) Parabola
  • (C) Hyperbola
  • (D) Sigmoid curve

Question 127:

What is NOT true about a case control study?

  • (A) It gives attributable risk
  • (B) It is less expensive
  • (C) It involves fewer subjects
  • (D) It provides quick results

Question 128:

In a town of 36,000 people, there are 1200 live births, and 60 infant deaths. What is the IMR?

  • (A) 50
  • (B) 25
  • (C) 10
  • (D) 5

Question 129:

At what point in time is the population assessed for calculation of the crude death rate?

  • (A) 1st January
  • (B) 1st May
  • (C) 1st July
  • (D) 31st December

Question 130:

Which of these is NOT useful in the prevention of KFD?

  • (A) Vaccination
  • (B) Deforestation
  • (C) Prevention of roaming cattle
  • (D) Personal protection

Question 131:

A study was undertaken to assess the effect of a drug in lowering serum cholesterol levels. 15 obese women and 10 non-obese women formed the 2 limbs of the study. Which test would be useful to correlate the results obtained?

  • (A) Unpaired t test
  • (B) Paired t test
  • (C) Chi square test
  • (D) Fischer test

Question 132:

The incidence of carcinoma cervix in women with multiple sexual partners is 5 times the incidence seen in those with a single partner. Based on this, what is the attributable risk?

  • (A) 20%
  • (B) 40%
  • (C) 50%
  • (D) 80%

Question 133:

What is the best determinant of the health status of a country?

  • (A) Couple protection rate
  • (B) IMR
  • (C) MMR
  • (D) Crude birth rate

Question 134:

Which of these is NOT a component of the Human Development Index (HDI)?

  • (A) Life expectancy at age one
  • (B) Educational level
  • (C) Per capita income
  • (D) Infant Mortality Rate (IMR)

Question 135:

Which of these is NOT a component of the Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI)?

  • (A) Infant Mortality Rate (IMR)
  • (B) Life expectancy at one year
  • (C) Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR)
  • (D) Literacy rate

Question 136:

A study of blood pressure (BP) is done on 100 healthy individuals aged 25-27 years. The result is a normal distribution with median BP of 120 mm Hg. What percentage of the subjects will have a BP reading higher than 120?

  • (A) 25
  • (B) 50
  • (C) 75
  • (D) 100

Question 137:

In which of these conditions is post-exposure prophylaxis NOT useful?

  • (A) Measles
  • (B) Rabies
  • (C) Pertussis
  • (D) Hepatitis B

Question 138:

Hb of less than what value is the cut-off used by WHO guidelines to label an infant under 6 months of age as being anemic?

  • (A) 100 g/L
  • (B) 105 g/L
  • (C) 110 g/L
  • (D) 115 g/L

Question 139:

What are the amounts of calories and protein received by a pregnant woman from the anganwadi worker?

  • (A) 300 calories, 15 gm protein
  • (B) 500 calories, 15 gm protein
  • (C) 300 calories, 25 gm protein
  • (D) 500 calories, 25 gm protein

Question 140:

The incidence of malaria in an area is 20, 20, 50, 56, 60, 5000, 678, 898, 345, 456. Which of these methods is the best to calculate the average incidence?

  • (A) Arithmetic mean
  • (B) Geometric mean
  • (C) Median
  • (D) Mode

Question 141:

A 6 year old child has a history of birth asphyxia. The child does not communicate well, shows slow mental and physical growth, does not mix with other people, has limited interests, and gets wildly agitated if disturbed. What is the diagnosis?

  • (A) Autistic disorder
  • (B) Histrionic personality
  • (C) ADHD (Attention Deficit Disorder)
  • (D) Schizophrenia

Question 142:

A man feels that his nose is too long, though his friends feel otherwise. He has consulted three plastic surgeons, but all of them have refused to treat him. What condition does he suffer from?

  • (A) Hypochondriasis
  • (B) Somatisation
  • (C) Munchausen syndrome
  • (D) Delusional disorder

Question 143:

In a patient with no significant previous history, no history of any drug intake, and a normal ECG, what is the likely cause of palpitations, sweating, and a feeling of impending doom, with each episode lasting about 10 minutes?

  • (A) Hysteria
  • (B) Panic attack
  • (C) Agoraphobia
  • (D) Generalised anxiety disorder

Question 144:

A person on treatment with lithium for a mood disorder presents with seizures, increased reflexes, and epileptic fits. The patient also has a history of severe gastroenteritis. On investigation, the serum lithium level was found to be 1.95 mEq/L. This patient is most likely suffering from

  • (A) Severe dehydration
  • (B) Lithium toxicity
  • (C) Epilepsy
  • (D) Manic episode

Question 145:

A 25 year old female was brought to the casualty after she allegedly attempted suicide, with her wrists slashed. She has a past history of difficulty in maintaining interpersonal relationships and also recurrent mood fluctuation episodes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • (A) Depression
  • (B) Borderline personality disorder
  • (C) Histrionic personality
  • (D) Schizophrenia

Question 146:

A 70 year old man presents with a history of prosopagnosia, loss of memory, and third person hallucinations since 1 month. On examination, deep tendon reflexes are increased, and the mini mental state examination score is 20/30. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • (A) Dissociated dementia
  • (B) Schizophrenia
  • (C) Multi infarct dementia
  • (D) Alzheimers disease

Question 147:

What is the investigation of choice for a parameningeal rhabdomyosarcoma?

  • (A) CECT
  • (B) CSF cytology
  • (C) MRI
  • (D) SPECT

Question 148:

What is the investigation of choice for neuroendocrine tumors?

  • (A) Endoscopic USG
  • (B) SPECT
  • (C) Radionuclide study
  • (D) MRI

Question 149:

What is the investigation of choice for screening renovascular hypertension with bilateral renal artery stenosis?

  • (A) Duplex Doppler study
  • (B) Captopril enhanced radionuclide scan
  • (C) USG
  • (D) MR angiography

Question 150:

What is the next investigation to be done in a case with recurrent hemoptysis, normal chest X-ray, and production of purulent sputum?

  • (A) Spiral CT
  • (B) HRCT
  • (C) MRI
  • (D) Bronchoscopy

Question 151:

What is the diagnosis in a woman who has scarring alopecia, thinning of nails, and hyperpigmented patches over the leg?

  • (A) Lichen planus
  • (B) Psoriasis
  • (C) Secondary syphilis
  • (D) Dermatophytosis

Question 152:

Acne vulgaris involves which one of the following?

  • (A) Pilosebaceous glands
  • (B) Eccrine glands
  • (C) Apocrine glands
  • (D) Sebaceous glands

Question 153:

A patient diagnosed with psoriasis was put on treatment with high dose dexamethasone for 2 weeks. The patient stopped treatment after which he develops high-grade fever and generalized pustular lesions all over his body. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • (A) Septicaemia
  • (B) Drug reaction
  • (C) Pustular psoriasis
  • (D) Secondary bacterial infection

Question 154:

What is the treatment of choice for hyperparathyroidism?

  • (A) Removal of the hyperplastic gland
  • (B) Removal of all 4 glands
  • (C) Radical parathyroidectomy
  • (D) 3 and 1/2 parathyroidectomy

Question 155:

Which gastric surgery results in the least degree of bilious vomiting, dumping, and diarrhea?

  • (A) Truncal vagotomy and pyloroplasty
  • (B) Truncal vagotomy and antrectomy
  • (C) Highly selective vagotomy (HSV)
  • (D) Gastrojejunostomy

Question 156:

A 20-year-old man presents with massive hematemesis. He gives a history of taking some drugs for fever over the past 2 weeks. What is the likely diagnosis?

  • (A) Acute peptic ulceration due to NSAIDs
  • (B) Erosive gastritis
  • (C) Esophageal erosion
  • (D) Esophageal varices

Question 157:

What is NOT true in a case of urethral injury?

  • (A) Rare in women
  • (B) Immediate catheterisation is indicated
  • (C) Posterior urethral injury occurs in fracture of the pelvis
  • (D) Blood at the urinary meatus is diagnostic

Question 158:

What is the likely source of hematuria that has been persisting for the past 3 days, with red cell casts evident on urinalysis?

  • (A) Bladder
  • (B) Urethra
  • (C) Kidney
  • (D) Ureter

Question 159:

What is the treatment of choice for pleomorphic adenoma?

  • (A) Superficial parotidectomy
  • (B) Enucleation
  • (C) Deep parotidectomy
  • (D) Radical parotidectomy

Question 160:

What is the most effective treatment for a Warthin's tumor?

  • (A) Superficial parotidectomy
  • (B) Deep parotidectomy
  • (C) Enucleation
  • (D) Radiotherapy

Question 161:

What is the treatment for a stage I testicular tumor?

  • (A) High orchidectomy
  • (B) High orchidectomy plus radiotherapy
  • (C) Scrotal orchidectomy
  • (D) Bilateral orchidectomy

Question 162:

Ameloblastoma of the mandible is most likely to involve which of the following locations?

  • (A) At symphysis menti
  • (B) Molar region of mandible
  • (C) In relation to upper 2nd molar
  • (D) In relation to incisors

Question 163:

What is the most common tumor involving the mandible?

  • (A) Osteosarcoma
  • (B) Ameloblastoma
  • (C) Lymphoma
  • (D) Squamous cell carcinoma

Question 164:

What is the treatment for a cancer of the lateral border of the tongue with lower neck lymph node secondaries?

  • (A) Radical neck dissection
  • (B) Supraomohyoid dissection
  • (C) Suprahyoid neck dissection
  • (D) Teletherapy

Question 165:

What is the treatment of choice for an old man who has reflux of foul smelling food?

  • (A) Cricopharyngeal myotomy
  • (B) Sac removal
  • (C) Laser evaporation
  • (D) Myotomy with sac excision

Question 166:

What is the treatment for a 4 x 6 mm dysgerminoma in a 12 year old girl?

  • (A) Right cystectomy
  • (B) Right oophorectomy
  • (C) TAH with BSO
  • (D) Bilateral oophorectomy

Question 167:

What is NOT true about a varicocele?

  • (A) More common on the right side
  • (B) Associated with infertility
  • (C) Left varicocele can be a late sign of a tumor in an elderly man
  • (D) 10% cases are bilateral

Question 168:

What is NOT true about torsion of the testes?

  • (A) Absence of flow on Doppler clinches diagnosis
  • (B) Presence of pyuria assists the diagnosis
  • (C) The opposite side testis should be fixed
  • (D) Raising the testis worsens the pain

Question 169:

What is NOT true about congenital PUJ (pelviureteric junction) obstruction?

  • (A) It is due to compression by an aberrant vessel rather than due to intrinsic causes
  • (B) Retrograde pyelography is useful to find the site of obstruction
  • (C) Whitaker's formula is useful for classification and treatment assessment
  • (D) Antenatal diagnosis is possible

Question 170:

What is best for the diagnosis of a firm, hard, mobile nodule in the right breast of a post menopausal woman?

  • (A) FNAC
  • (B) Excision biopsy
  • (C) Mammography
  • (D) Needle biopsy

Question 171:

Which should NOT be done in a testicular tumor?

  • (A) High inguinal orchidectomy
  • (B) High inguinal orchidectomy with chemotherapy
  • (C) High inguinal orchidectomy and RT
  • (D) Transcrotal biopsy for tissue diagnosis

Question 172:

What is NOT likely to be the cause of stridor occurring 2 hours after a thyroidectomy?

  • (A) Hypocalcemia
  • (B) Wound hematoma
  • (C) Tracheomalacia
  • (D) RLN injury bilaterally

Question 173:

What is the likely cause of central cyanosis and oligemic lung fields in a neonate with a normal sized heart?

  • (A) Pulmonary atresia
  • (B) TOF
  • (C) TGA
  • (D) VSD

Question 174:

A child has fever, jaundice, clay colored stools, and biopsy suggests giant cell hepatitis. What is the clinical diagnosis?

  • (A) Viral hepatitis
  • (B) Neonatal jaundice and EHBA
  • (C) Neonatal jaundice and IHBA
  • (D) Non cirrhotic portal fibrosis

Question 175:

What is the diagnosis in a case of a 30 year old male with jaundice, unconjugated bilirubinemia, increased urine urobilinogen, negative urine bilirubin, normal direct bilirubin, and normal alkaline phosphatase?

  • (A) Hemolytic jaundice
  • (B) Viral hepatitis
  • (C) Obstructive jaundice

Question 176:

What is the diagnosis in a 65 year old patient with fever, flank pain, and calculi with fat densities?

  • (A) Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis
  • (B) Renal abscess
  • (C) Chronic pyelonephritis
  • (D) Tuberculous kidney

Question 177:

What is the likely diagnosis in a case with renal calcification, irregular bladder wall outline, and hematuria?

  • (A) Tuberculosis
  • (B) Schistosomiasis
  • (C) Amyloidosis
  • (D) Hunner's cystitis

Question 178:

In India, sentinel surveillance is done for the following diseases/conditions, EXCEPT

  • (A) Hepatitis B
  • (B) Diarrhea
  • (C) Acute Flaccid Paralysis
  • (D) HIV

Question 179:

What is NOT true with regard to 'triple' stones?

  • (A) Struvite stones are composed of triple phosphate
  • (B) They are called staghorn calculi when they are formed in the renal pelvis
  • (C) Form in acidic urine
  • (D) Associated with UTI

Question 180:

A tumor/mass lesion of the kidney extends into the IVC, with Gerota's fascia intact. All the following are true, EXCEPT

  • (A) IVC invasion is a contraindication for surgery
  • (B) Chest X-ray to rule out pulmonary metastases
  • (C) Pre-op radiotherapy is not indicated
  • (D) Pre-op biopsy is not indicated

Question 181:

Which of these is a criterion for conservative treatment in a ureteric calculus?

  • (A) Infection and hydronephrosis present
  • (B) Size under 6 mm
  • (C) No movement for 2 weeks
  • (D) Highly symptomatic

Question 182:

What is NOT true about a urinary bladder calculus?

  • (A) Primary stones rare in Indian children
  • (B) Transurethral removal is possible
  • (C) Most are radio opaque
  • (D) KUB clinches the diagnosis

Question 183:

What investigation should be done for a prostatic nodule in a 60 year old man?

  • (A) Expressed prostatic secretion analysis
  • (B) CT scan pelvis
  • (C) Transrectal ultrasound (TRUS)
  • (D) MRI

Question 184:

What is NOT true about carcinoma penis?

  • (A) Circumcision any time before puberty is 100% protective
  • (B) Erythroplasia of Queyrat is premalignant
  • (C) Occurs in unhygienic conditions
  • (D) Presents with inguinal node enlargement in 50% of the cases

Question 185:

Which type of malignancy occurs in longstanding multinodular goitre?

  • (A) Papillary
  • (B) Follicular
  • (C) Anaplastic
  • (D) Medullary

Question 186:

Which condition may feature pulsatile varicose veins?

  • (A) Tricuspid regurgitation
  • (B) Deep vein thrombosis
  • (C) Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome
  • (D) Right ventricular failure

Question 187:

What may cause local gigantism with varicosities?

  • (A) Arteriovenous (AV) fistulae
  • (B) Deep vein thrombosis
  • (C) Acromegaly
  • (D) Osteosarcoma

Question 188:

All the following are used as sclerosing agents EXCEPT

  • (A) Alcohol
  • (B) Acetic acid
  • (C) Crysolate
  • (D) Polidocanol

Question 189:

Pelviureteric obstruction on the left side in a 33 year old male who presents with fever and infection. All the following are correct EXCEPT

  • (A) Dismembered pyeloplasty is the treatment of choice
  • (B) Endoscopic pyeloplasty is contraindicated
  • (C) Most common cause is an aberrant vessel
  • (D) Tuberculosis can be a cause

Question 190:

A 60 year old hypertensive patient comes with abdominal pain and fusiform dilatation of the abdominal aorta. What could be the most probable etiology?

  • (A) Marfan's syndrome
  • (B) Syphilis
  • (C) Atherosclerosis
  • (D) Cystic medial necrosis

Question 191:

Which of these is most often secreted by a pheochromocytoma?

  • (A) Epinephrine
  • (B) Norepinephrine
  • (C) Dopamine
  • (D) Serotonin

Question 192:

In a surgery ward, what is the best method of prevention of post op wound infection in patients, and hence preventing their spread to other patients?

  • (A) Hand washing prior to and in between patient examination and dressings
  • (B) Fumigation of the ward
  • (C) Cleaning of the floor with Ceramide
  • (D) Vancomycin prophylaxis

Question 193:

What is the preferred treatment for a solitary thyroid nodule?

  • (A) Hemithyroidectomy
  • (B) Total thyroidectomy
  • (C) Subtotal thyroidectomy
  • (D) Enucleation

Question 194:

All of the following pass behind the ischial spine EXCEPT?

  • (A) Obturator nerve
  • (B) Pudendal nerve
  • (C) Internal pudendal vessels
  • (D) Nerve to obturator internus

Question 195:

Injury to which nerve during a herniorrhaphy may cause paresthesia at the root of the scrotum and base of the penis?

  • (A) Ilioinguinal
  • (B) Pudendal
  • (C) Genitofemoral
  • (D) Iliohypogastric

Question 196:

Which of these statements regarding the kidney is NOT correct?

  • (A) Right kidney is preferred to the left for transplantation
  • (B) Right kidney is at a lower level than the left
  • (C) Right kidney is related to the duodenum in the anteromedial aspect
  • (D) Right renal vein is shorter than the left

Question 197:

All of the following enzyme deficiencies, except one, may cause lens opacities and mental retardation in a child. Which one is the exception?

  • (A) Galactokinase
  • (B) Galactose UDP 1 transferase
  • (C) Galactose 4 epimerase
  • (D) Lactase

Question 198:

Dietary fibers are degraded by colonic bacteria to form which of the following?

  • (A) Butyrates
  • (B) Glycerol
  • (C) Sucrose
  • (D) Free radicals

Question 199:

What is the possible cause for gout in a patient who has a glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency?

  • (A) Increased synthesis of pentoses
  • (B) Increased accumulation of sorbitol
  • (C) Increased synthesis of glycerol
  • (D) Decreased function of Krebs cycle

Question 200:

Consider a chain reaction with the sequence S1 to S2 to S3 to S4, where S4 is converted to P1 and P1 is converted to P2. The enzymes catalyzing the three reactions S1 to S2, S2 to S3, and S3 to S4 are EA, EB, and EC respectively. Enzyme EA is under positive feedback and enzyme EB is under negative feedback. If enzyme EC is absent, which of the following is true?

  • (A) S1 accumulates
  • (B) S2 accumulates
  • (C) P1 accumulates
  • (D) P2 accumulates

NEET PG 2001 (AIIMS PG Entrance) Exam Pattern

The AIIMS PG entrance exam of 2001 was an objective-type pen-and-paper test, not the computer-based INI-CET format doctors sit today. Here is what defined its pattern.

  • Question format: single-best-response multiple-choice questions, one correct option per question.
  • Conducting body: the All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), New Delhi, conducted its own postgraduate entrance test independently of the CBSE-run AIPGMEE, which covered the separate 50% all-India-quota seats at other medical colleges.
  • Purpose: ranking candidates for MD, MS and MDS seats at AIIMS New Delhi and its associated centres, a small and highly competitive intake compared to the national AIPGMEE pool.
  • Format history: AIIMS ran this exam offline on OMR sheets through the 2000s, long before AIIMS PG (and later INI-CET) moved to a computer-based format.
  • This paper: compiles 200 questions from the original 2001 AIIMS PG test booklet, spread across 18 subjects from Anatomy to Social and Preventive Medicine.

NEET PG 2001 Question Paper Discussion Video

Source: Dr Suvo

Subject-Wise Question Distribution in This NEET PG 2001 Paper

Breaking down the 200 questions by subject shows where this paper leans hardest, useful for planning revision before you attempt it.

  • Surgery carries the largest share with 31 questions, followed by Medicine with 28 and Social and Preventive Medicine with 25.
  • Pathology adds 19 questions and Microbiology another 14, together with Surgery, Medicine and SPM making up well over half the paper.
  • Gynaecology and Obstetrics holds 11 questions, while Ophthalmology, Pharmacology and Biochemistry carry 9 each.
  • Dermatology and Pediatrics contribute 8 and 7 questions respectively, with the rest spread across Physiology, Forensic Medicine, Orthopedics, Psychiatry, Anatomy, Radiology and ENT.
  • By difficulty, 112 questions are rated medium, 51 hard and 37 easy, so working through the full set mirrors real exam-day pressure.

NEET PG 2001 Question Paper FAQs

Ques. What is the NEET PG 2001 question paper?

Ans. It is the AIIMS PG entrance examination held in 2001, an objective multiple-choice test conducted by AIIMS New Delhi to select candidates for its own MD, MS and MDS seats. This compiled version carries 200 questions from the original test booklet with worked solutions.

Ques. Who conducted the NEET PG 2001 (AIIMS PG) paper?

Ans. The All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), New Delhi conducted its own postgraduate entrance exam in 2001, separately from the CBSE-run AIPGMEE that covered India's all-India-quota MD, MS and PG Diploma seats at other colleges. AIIMS PG was later folded into the newer INI-CET exam.

Ques. How many questions are in this NEET PG 2001 paper?

Ans. This compiled paper has 200 questions from the original 2001 AIIMS PG entrance test booklet, covering subjects from Anatomy to Social and Preventive Medicine.

Ques. Which subject carries the most questions in NEET PG 2001?

Ans. Surgery has the largest share with 31 questions, followed by Medicine with 28 and Social and Preventive Medicine with 25.

Ques. Is the NEET PG 2001 (AIIMS PG) paper still useful for NEET PG preparation?

Ans. Yes. Even though the exam format has since changed, solving the 2001 AIIMS PG paper gives subject-wise practice in high-yield clinical areas like Surgery, Medicine and Pathology that still dominate the current NEET PG and INI-CET syllabus.

Ques. Where can I download the NEET PG 2001 question paper with solutions for free?

Ans. Both the question paper and the solved answer key are hosted as free PDFs in the download table and flipbook above, with a separate Check Solutions PDF giving a step-by-step explanation for every question.