The SNAP 2010 question paper is now available with detailed solutions for free download. SNAP 2010 was conducted by Symbiosis International (Deemed University), Pune on Sunday, December 19, 2010, for admission to its MBA and PGDM programmes, and the paper carried 150 objective questions across four sections in a 120-minute, paper-based test.

SNAP 2010 Question Paper with Solutions Download PDF Check Solutions

SNAP 2010 Combined Paper Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

In a Retail outlet the average revenue was Rs. 10,000 per day over a 30 day period. During this period the average daily revenue on weekends (total 8 days) was Rs. 20,000 per day. What was the average daily revenue on weekdays?

  • (A) 6364
  • (B) 5250
  • (C) 6570
  • (D) 8060

Question 2:

Two different prime numbers X and Y, both are greater than 2, then which of the following must be true?

  • (A) \(X - Y = 23\)
  • (B) \(X + Y \neq 87\)
  • (C) Both 1 and 2
  • (D) None of the above

Question 3:

It takes 6 hours for pump A, used alone, to fill a tank of water. Pump B used alone takes 8 hours to fill the same tank. A, B and another pump C all together fill the tank in 2 hours. How long would pump C take, used alone, to fill the tank?

  • (A) 4.8
  • (B) 6
  • (C) 5.6
  • (D) 3

Question 4:

A swimming pool can be filled by pipe A in 3 hours and by pipe B in 6 hours, each pump working on its own. At 9 am, pump A is started. At what time will the swimming pool be filled if pump B is started at 10 am?

  • (A) 11:20 a.m.
  • (B) 11:05 a.m.
  • (C) 11:10 a.m.
  • (D) 10:50 a.m.

Question 5:

The sum of prime numbers that are greater than 60, but less than 70 is:

  • (A) 128
  • (B) 191
  • (C) 197
  • (D) 260

Question 6:

Find out the appropriate next number in the series from the options below: 0, 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, ?

  • (A) 56
  • (B) 62
  • (C) 49
  • (D) 5

Question 7:

A bakery opened with its daily supply of 40 dozen rolls. Half of the rolls were sold by noon, and 60% of the remaining rolls were sold between noon and closing time. How many dozen rolls were left unsold?

  • (A) 6
  • (B) 8
  • (C) 10
  • (D) 12

Question 8:

Stuart, Jack and Leo are colleagues working in a plant. Stuart and Jack can do a work in 10 days, Jack and Leo can do the same work in 15 days while Stuart and Leo can do it in 12 days. All of them started the work together. After two days, Leo was shifted to some other work. How many days will Stuart and Jack take to finish the rest of the work?

  • (A) 9
  • (B) 12
  • (C) 8
  • (D) 7.5

Question 9:

The missing numbers in the following series would be:
1 : 1, 8 : 4, 9 : 27, 64 : 16, 25 : 125, ? : ?, 49 : 343

  • (A) 36 : 316
  • (B) 216 : 36
  • (C) 316 : 16
  • (D) 32 : 316

Question 10:

The difference between the value of a number increased by 25% and the value of the original number decreased by 30% is 22. What is the original number?

  • (A) 70
  • (B) 65
  • (C) 40
  • (D) 90

Question 11:

Running at the same constant rate, 6 identical machines can produce a total of 180 bottles per hour. How many bottles could 15 such machines produce in 30 minutes?

  • (A) 225
  • (B) 300
  • (C) 250
  • (D) 350

Question 12:

A number whose fifth part increased by 4 is equal to its fourth part diminished by 10, is:

  • (A) 240
  • (B) 260
  • (C) 270
  • (D) 280

Question 13:

Which one of the following numbers will completely divide \(4^{61} + 4^{62} + 4^{63} + 4^{64}\)?

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 10
  • (C) 11
  • (D) 13

Question 14:

Is 'b' positive?
(I) a + b is positive.
(II) a - b is positive.

  • (A) Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
  • (B) Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
  • (C) Both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
  • (D) Both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Question 15:

In a general body election, 3 candidates, p, q and r were contesting for a membership of the board. How many votes did each receive?
(I) p received 17 votes more than q and 103 votes more than r.
(II) Total votes cast were 1703.

  • (A) Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
  • (B) Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
  • (C) Both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
  • (D) Both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Question 16:

If \(C_1\) and \(C_2\) are the circumferences of the outer and inner circles respectively, what is \(C_1 : C_2\)?
(I) The two circles are concentric.
(II) The area of the ring is \(\frac{2}{3}\) the area of greater circle.

  • (A) Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
  • (B) Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
  • (C) Both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
  • (D) Both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Question 17:

What is the middle number of 7 consecutive whole numbers?
(I) Product of the numbers is 702800.
(II) Sum of the numbers is 105.

  • (A) Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
  • (B) Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
  • (C) Both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
  • (D) Both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Question 18:

Total marks obtained by P, Q, R and S in Mathematics is 360. How many marks did P secure in Mathematics?
(I) P secured one-third of the total marks of Q, R and S.
(II) Average marks obtained by Q and R are 20 more than that secured by S.

  • (A) Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
  • (B) Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
  • (C) Both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
  • (D) Both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Question 19:

How many ice cubes can be accommodated in a container?
(I) The length and breadth of the container are 20 cm and 15 cm respectively.
(II) The edge of the ice cube is 2 cm.

  • (A) Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
  • (B) Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
  • (C) Both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
  • (D) Both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Question 20:

Ram got Rs 1500 as dividend from a company. What is the rate of interest given by the company?
(I) The dividend paid last year was 10%.
(II) Ram has 350 shares of Rs 10 denomination.

  • (A) Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
  • (B) Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
  • (C) Both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
  • (D) Both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Question 21:

The bar chart below shows the sales (in Rs crores) of the top pain killer brands in India during 2005 and 2006.What is the difference between the sales of Voveran in 2006 and those of Calpol in 2005 (in Rs lacs)?

  • (A) 1000
  • (B) 50
  • (C) 100
  • (D) 500

Question 22:

The bar chart below shows the sales (in Rs crores) of the top pain killer brands in India during 2005 and 2006.Percentage of increase in sales from 2005 to 2006 is the highest for which brand of a pain killer?

  • (A) Voveran
  • (B) Volini
  • (C) Dolonex
  • (D) Sumo

Question 23:

The bar chart below shows the sales (in Rs crores) of the top pain killer brands in India during 2005 and 2006.Percentage increase in sales from 2005 to 2006 is the lowest for which brand of a pain killer?

  • (A) Voveran
  • (B) Volini
  • (C) Moov
  • (D) Nise

Question 24:

The bar chart below shows the sales (in Rs crores) of the top pain killer brands in India during 2005 and 2006.What is the approximate percentage of increase in the sales of Voveran from 2005 to 2006?

  • (A) 35%
  • (B) 40%
  • (C) 45%
  • (D) 50%

Question 25:

Which of the designs best completes the following sequence?

  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)

Question 26:

What is the number that is one half of one quarter of one tenth of 400?

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 5
  • (C) 8
  • (D) 10

Question 27:

Consider a square ABCD with midpoints E, F, G and H of sides AB, BC, CD and DA. Let L denote the line passing through F and H. Consider points P and Q on the line L inside the square such that the angles APD and BQC are both equal 120 degrees. What is the ratio of area ABCQPD (i.e. area of hexagon A-B-C-Q-P-D) to the remaining area of ABCD?

  • (A) \(4 + \dfrac{\sqrt{2}}{3}\)
  • (B) \(2\sqrt{3} - 1\)
  • (C) \(2 + \sqrt{3}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{10 - 3\sqrt{3}}{9}\)

Question 28:

The Price of Darjeeling Tea (in rupees per kilogram) is 100 + 0.1n, on the nth day of a non-leap year (n = 1, 2, 3, ... 100) and then remains constant. On the other hand the price of Ooty tea (in rupees per kilogram) is 85 + 0.15n, on the nth day (n = 1, 2, ..., 365). On which date of that year will the prices of these two varieties of the tea be equal?

  • (A) 27th October
  • (B) 16th June
  • (C) 15th June
  • (D) 28th October

Question 29:

Triangle ABC and Triangle PQR are congruent
(I) Area of Triangle ABC and Triangle PQR are same
(II) Triangle ABC and Triangle PQR are right angle Triangles

  • (A) Answer (1) if data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question but the data in Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
  • (B) Answer (2) if data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question but the data in Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
  • (C) Answer (3) if data in Statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
  • (D) Answer (4) if data in Statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Question 30:

Salary of A and B is in ratio 3:4 and expenditure is in ratio 4:5. What is the ratio of their saving?
(I) B's saving is 25% of his salary.
(II) B's salary is Rs 2500.

  • (A) Answer (1) if data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question but the data in Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
  • (B) Answer (2) if data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question but the data in Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
  • (C) Answer (3) if data in Statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
  • (D) Answer (4) if data in Statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Question 31:

What is the average height of the class?
(I) Average height of the class decreases by 1 cm if we exclude the tallest person of the class whose height is 56 cm.
(II) Average height of the class increases by 1 cm if we exclude the shortest person of the class whose height is 42 cm.

  • (A) Answer (1) if data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question but the data in Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
  • (B) Answer (2) if data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question but the data in Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
  • (C) Answer (3) if data in Statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
  • (D) Answer (4) if data in Statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Question 32:

Ram is taller than Shyam and Jay is shorter than Vikram. Who is the shortest among them?
(I) Ram is the tallest.
(II) Shyam is taller than Vikram.

  • (A) Answer (1) if data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question but the data in Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
  • (B) Answer (2) if data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question but the data in Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
  • (C) Answer (3) if data in Statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
  • (D) Answer (4) if data in Statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Question 33:

In September 2009, the sales of a product were \(\frac{2}{3}\)rd of that in July 2009. In November 2009, the sales of the product were higher by 5% as compared to September 2009. How much is the percentage of increase in sales in November 2009 with respect to the base figure in July 2009?

  • (A) +40%
  • (B) -20%
  • (C) -30%
  • (D) +25%

Question 34:

For what range of values of \(x\), will the inequality \(15x - \frac{2}{x} > 1\) hold?

  • (A) \(x > 0.4\)
  • (B) \(x < \frac{1}{3}\)
  • (C) \(-\frac{1}{3} < x < 0.4, \, x > \frac{15}{2}\)
  • (D) \(-\frac{1}{3} < x < 0, \, x > \frac{2}{5}\)

Question 35:

How many litres of a 30% alcohol solution should be added to 40 litres of a 60% alcohol solution to prepare a 50% solution?

  • (A) 30
  • (B) 20
  • (C) 24
  • (D) 32

Question 36:

66 cubic centimetres of silver is drawn into a wire of 1 mm diameter. The length of the wire in metres will be:

  • (A) 84
  • (B) 90
  • (C) 168
  • (D) 336

Question 37:

A train 108 m long moving at a speed of 50 km/hr crosses a train 112 m long coming from opposite direction in 6 seconds. The speed of the second train is,

  • (A) 48 km/hr
  • (B) 54 km/hr
  • (C) 66 km/hr
  • (D) 82 km/hr

Question 38:

R is a positive number. It is multiplied by 8 and then squared. The square is now divided by 4 and the square root is taken. The result of the square root is Q. What is the value of Q?

  • (A) 3R
  • (B) 4R
  • (C) 7R
  • (D) 9R

Question 39:

If the length, breadth and height of the room are in ratio 3:2:1. The breadth and height of the room are halved and length of the room is doubled. Then area of the four walls of the room will,

  • (A) decrease by 13.64%
  • (B) decrease by 15%
  • (C) decrease by 18.75%
  • (D) decrease by 30%

Question 40:

A survey was conducted of 100 people whether they have read recent issues of 'Golmal', a monthly magazine. Summarized information is presented below:
Only September: 18
September but not August: 23
September and July: 8
September: 28
July: 48
July and August: 10
None of the three months: 24
What is the number of surveyed people who have read exactly for two consecutive months?

  • (A) 7
  • (B) 9
  • (C) 12
  • (D) 14

Question 41:

Four children A, B, C & D are having some chocolates each.
A gives B as many as he already has, he gives C twice of what C already has and he gives D thrice of what D already has.
Now, D gives (1/8)th of his own chocolates to B.
Then A gives 10% chocolates he now owns to C and 20% to B.
Finally, all of them have 35 chocolates each.
What is the original number of chocolates each had in the beginning?

  • (A) A - 110, B - 10, C - 10, D - 10
  • (B) A - 90, B - 20, C - 20, D - 10
  • (C) A - 70, B - 25, C - 25, D - 20
  • (D) A - 125, B - 5, C - 5, D - 5

Question 42:

There are two similar figures below with some numbers. The left one is complete whereas one number is missing in the right one. Find a suitable number to fill in place of the question mark.

  • (A) 280
  • (B) 303
  • (C) 362
  • (D) 382

Question 43:

Complete the following series by replacing the ?: (TBLD, VEPI, XHTN, ?)

  • (A) ZJVP
  • (B) ZVJP
  • (C) ZKXS
  • (D) ZKXP

Question 44:

In a cricket team, three batsmen Ricky, Sachin and Brian are the top three run-scorers in any order. Each of them gives two replies to any question, one of which is true and the other is false, again, in any order. When asked about who the top scorer was, following were the replies they gave:
Sachin: I got the top score. Ricky was second.
Brian: I got the top score. Sachin was second.
Ricky: I got the top score. Sachin was third.
Which of the following is the correct order of batsmen who got the top score, second best and third best score respectively?

  • (A) Brian, Ricky, Sachin
  • (B) Brian, Sachin, Ricky
  • (C) Ricky, Sachin, Brian
  • (D) Sachin, Brian, Ricky

Question 45:

60 employees in an office were asked about their preference for tea and coffee. It was observed that for every 3 people who prefer tea, there are 2 who prefer coffee. For every 6 people who prefer tea, there are 2 who drink both of tea and coffee. The number of people who drink both is the same as those who drink neither. How many people drink both tea and coffee?

  • (A) 10
  • (B) 12
  • (C) 14
  • (D) 16

Question 46:

A clock strikes once at 1 o'clock, twice at 2 o'clock and so on. If it takes 6 seconds to strike at 3 o'clock, how much time will it take to strike at 9 o'clock?

  • (A) 24 seconds
  • (B) 18 seconds
  • (C) 20 seconds
  • (D) None of these

Question 47:

E-1, E-2 and E-3 are three engineering students writing their assignments at night. Each of them starts at a different time and completes at a different time. The digit in their name and the order of their starting and completing the assignment is certainly not the same. The last student to start is the first to complete the assignment.
Who is the first student to start writing the assignment?

  • (A) E-1
  • (B) E-2
  • (C) E-3
  • (D) Cannot be decided

Question 48:

E-1, E-2 and E-3 are three engineering students writing their assignments at night. Each of them starts at a different time and completes at a different time. The digit in their name and the order of their starting and completing the assignment is certainly not the same. The last student to start is the first to complete the assignment.
Who is the last student to complete the assignment?

  • (A) E-1
  • (B) E-2
  • (C) E-3
  • (D) Cannot be decided

Question 49:

A, B and C are three students from Don School and P, Q and R are three students from Elite School. Q is brighter than R but duller than the Don School student who is brighter than A. The same Don School student is duller than P but is brighter than C.
Who is brightest amongst all?

  • (A) B
  • (B) P
  • (C) R
  • (D) Cannot be decided

Question 50:

A, B and C are three students from Don School and P, Q and R are three students from Elite School. Q is brighter than R but duller than the Don School student who is brighter than A. The same Don School student is duller than P but is brighter than C.
Who is the dullest amongst the three students from Elite School?

  • (A) P
  • (B) Q
  • (C) R
  • (D) Cannot be decided

Question 51:

When Rafael entered the class, there were already 10 students in the class. 5 students entered the class between Roger and Rafael. Total 10 students entered after Roger. Exactly how many students are in the class finally?

  • (A) 15
  • (B) 25
  • (C) 27
  • (D) Cannot be decided

Question 52:

Arijit, Biplab, Chintan, Debashish, Elangovan, Frederick, Gautam and Himadri are sitting around a circular table. Some information about the order in which they are sitting is available as follows:
1. Debashish is sitting opposite to Himadri and to the immediate right of Gautam.
2. Elangovan is sitting to the immediate right of Biplab.
3. Arijit is sitting opposite Chintan who is not immediately next to Frederick on either side.
Who is sitting to the immediate right of Himadri?

  • (A) Arijit
  • (B) Debashish
  • (C) Elangovan
  • (D) Frederick

Question 53:

Arijit, Biplab, Chintan, Debashish, Elangovan, Frederick, Gautam and Himadri are sitting around a circular table. Some information about the order in which they are sitting is available as follows:
1. Debashish is sitting opposite to Himadri and to the immediate right of Gautam.
2. Elangovan is sitting to the immediate right of Biplab.
3. Arijit is sitting opposite Chintan who is not immediately next to Frederick on either side.
Who is sitting opposite Biplab?

  • (A) Arijit
  • (B) Debashish
  • (C) Frederick
  • (D) Himadri

Question 54:

Arijit, Biplab, Chintan, Debashish, Elangovan, Frederick, Gautam and Himadri are sitting around a circular table. Some information about the order in which they are sitting is available as follows:
1. Debashish is sitting opposite to Himadri and to the immediate right of Gautam.
2. Elangovan is sitting to the immediate right of Biplab.
3. Arijit is sitting opposite Chintan who is not immediately next to Frederick on either side.
Who is to the immediate right of Chintan?

  • (A) Arijit
  • (B) Biplab
  • (C) Elangovan
  • (D) Himadri

Question 55:

Select the alternative that logically follows the two given statements:
Some rocks are not tables.
Some rocks are balloons.

  • (A) Some tables are not balloons
  • (B) Some tables are balloons
  • (C) Some balloons are not tables
  • (D) None of the above

Question 56:

A, B, C, D and E sit on a long bench. C does not sit next to A or E. A and E have three persons sitting between them.
Who is sitting in the middle of the bench?

  • (A) B
  • (B) C
  • (C) D
  • (D) None of these

Question 57:

Directions: A, B, C, D and E sit on a long bench. C does not sit next to A or E. A and E have three persons sitting between them.
Who are sitting at the extreme ends of the bench?

  • (A) A & E
  • (B) B & D
  • (C) C & E
  • (D) None of these

Question 58:

Observe the following table showing the yearly commission earned (figures in Rupees) by five salesmen and answer the question below.

YearSalesman ASalesman BSalesman CSalesman DSalesman E
19902735026850262002785028640
19912850027900279003004029000
19922520027400282002980028750
19932980028000291003006030000
19942460028500294002980029750
19952700029000300003200029700

In the year 1994, the commission earned by salesman D was approximately what percent more of the commission earned by A?

  • (A) 18
  • (B) 82.5
  • (C) 21
  • (D) 17

Question 59:

Observe the following table showing the yearly commission earned (figures in Rupees) by five salesmen and answer the question below.

YearSalesman ASalesman BSalesman CSalesman DSalesman E
19902735026850262002785028640
19912850027900279003004029000
19922520027400282002980028750
19932980028000291003006030000
19942460028500294002980029750
19952700029000300003200029700

In the year 1993, the commission of B was approximately what per cent of the total commission earned by five salesmen that year?

  • (A) 30
  • (B) 20
  • (C) 40
  • (D) 80

Question 60:

Find the missing number in the following set of numbers.

Column IColumn II
22
414
634
8?
1098

  • (A) 30
  • (B) 62
  • (C) 42
  • (D) 78

Question 61:

There are 6 volumes of books on a rack kept in order (Vol. 1, Vol. 2 and so on). After some readers used them, their order got disturbed. The changes are as follows:
Vol. 5 was directly to the right of Vol. 2.
Vol. 4 has Vol. 6 to its left, and both Vol. 4 and Vol. 6 were not at Vol. 3's original place.
Vol. 1 has Vol. 3 on its right and Vol. 5 on its left.
An even numbered volume is at Vol. 5's original place.
Find the order in which the books are now kept, from the given alternatives.

  • (A) 6, 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
  • (B) 4, 6, 3, 5, 1, 2
  • (C) 3, 4, 1, 6, 5, 3
  • (D) 2, 5, 1, 3, 6, 4

Question 62:

All German philosophers, except for Marx, are idealists. From which of the following can the statement above be most properly inferred?

  • (A) Except for Marx, if someone is an idealist philosopher, then he or she is German.
  • (B) Marx is the only non-German philosopher who is an idealist.
  • (C) If a German is an idealist, then he or she is a philosopher, as long as he or she is not Marx.
  • (D) Marx is not an idealist German philosopher.

Question 63:

Ramaswami was studying for his examinations and the lights went off. It was around 1:00 a.m. He lighted two uniform candles of equal length but one thicker than the other. The thick candle is supposed to last six hours and the thin one two hours less. When he finally went to sleep, the thick candle was twice as long as the thin one. For how long did Ramaswami study in candle light?

  • (A) 2 hours
  • (B) 3 hours
  • (C) 2 hours 45 minutes
  • (D) 4 hours

Question 64:

The numerator and denominator of a fraction is in the ratio 2:3. If 6 are subtracted from the numerator the value of the fraction becomes 2/3 of the original fraction. The numerator of the original fraction is,

  • (A) 16
  • (B) 21
  • (C) 18
  • (D) 30

Question 65:

A person wanted to withdraw X rupees and Y paise from the bank. The cashier made a mistake and gave him Y rupees and X paise instead. Neither the person nor the cashier noticed the error. After spending 20 paise, the person counted the money and found he had exactly double the amount he originally wanted to withdraw. Find X and Y. (1 Rupee = 100 Paise)

  • (A) X = 3, Y = 6
  • (B) X = 26, Y = 53
  • (C) X = 15, Y = 30
  • (D) X = 9, Y = 36

Question 66:

A drawer contains 10 black and 10 brown socks, all mixed up. What is the fewest number of socks you must take out from the drawer without looking, to be sure of getting a pair of socks of the same color?

  • (A) 7 pairs
  • (B) 7 pieces only
  • (C) 10 pieces only
  • (D) 3 pieces only

Question 67:

A placement company has to assign 1000 software professionals skilled in Java and .Net to a prospective outsourcing company. It finds that 750 have .Net skills and 450 have Java skills, with some professionals skilled in both. Find the number of professionals who have skills in both Java and .Net.

  • (A) 250
  • (B) 200
  • (C) 350
  • (D) 100

Question 68:

All good athletes who want to win are disciplined and have a well balanced diet. Therefore, athletes who do not have a well balanced diet are bad athletes. Which of the statements below strongly supports the view expressed above?

  • (A) No bad athlete wants to win.
  • (B) No athlete who does not eat a well balanced diet is a good athlete.
  • (C) Every athlete who eats a well balanced diet is a good athlete.
  • (D) All athletes who want to win are good athletes.

Question 69:

The numbers below are arranged in a triangular pattern that follows a hidden rule. Find the missing numbers marked with (?).
2
2   2
2   4   2
2   8   ?   2
2   16   64   16   2
2   32   1024   ?   ?   2

  • (A) 16, 32, 64
  • (B) 8, 1024, 32
  • (C) 24, 1024, 64
  • (D) 16, 32, 128

Question 70:

If for a particular value of the variable \(x\), the following holds true: \(17 = \dfrac{17x}{1-x}\), then find the value of \(x^{2x}\).

  • (A) 17
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 1/2

Question 71:

Name the jailed Chinese pro-democracy activist who won this year's Nobel Peace Prize for his 'long and non-violent struggle for fundamental human rights in China.'

  • (A) Went Xiabo
  • (B) Wen Jiabao
  • (C) Liu Jiabao
  • (D) Liu Xiaobo

Question 72:

Which government is behind the 'The Nalanda Proposal' proposing Nalanda as an ideal site for establishing a 21st century learning institution.

  • (A) Singapore
  • (B) India
  • (C) U.K
  • (D) China

Question 73:

Jimmy Wales and Larry Sanger are known for founding

  • (A) Facebook
  • (B) Orkut
  • (C) Wikipedia
  • (D) Google

Question 74:

The year 2010 is represented in Roman Numerals as

  • (A) LLX
  • (B) MMX
  • (C) IIXX
  • (D) CCXX

Question 75:

In which country is the seat of the United Nations International Court of Justice?

  • (A) France
  • (B) Norway
  • (C) Britain
  • (D) Netherlands

Question 76:

In 1965 Gordon Moore, Co-founder of Intel, made a prediction about the future of computer processing. What does his prediction, known as Moore's Law say?

  • (A) As technology continues to advance, computer chips will become obsolete.
  • (B) Computer-processing power will double every 18 months to two years.
  • (C) There will eventually be no need for transistors in high-tech electronics.
  • (D) As the number of transistors increases, computer-processing power will be reduced by half in every two years.

Question 77:

'At 60 miles an hour the loudest noise in this new Rolls-Royce comes from the electric clock.' Who wrote this famous advertising headline?

  • (A) David Ogilvy
  • (B) Walter Thompson
  • (C) Leo Burnett
  • (D) Salman Rushdie

Question 78:

His life's motto was 'simple living and high thinking'. He was one of the greatest intellectuals and activists of the 19th century and one of the pillars of the Bengal Renaissance. He was a polymath, Sanskrit pundit, educator, social reformer, writer and philanthropist. Due to his relentless efforts, on 26th July 1856, widow re-marriage was legalized by the then Government of India. Who is this towering personality?

  • (A) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
  • (B) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
  • (C) Rabindranath Tagore
  • (D) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

Question 79:

Eustace Fernandes, who passed away in early 2010 was the much admired creator of

  • (A) Tom and Jerry
  • (B) Amul Girl
  • (C) Air India Maharaja
  • (D) Snow White

Question 80:

Find the mismatch among the following person and sport pairs.

  • (A) Somdev Devvarman - Badminton
  • (B) Gagan Narang - Shooting
  • (C) Arjun Atwal - Golf
  • (D) Anita Sood - Swimming

Question 81:

Who designed the new rupee symbol?

  • (A) Dilip Chhabria
  • (B) D. Udaya Kumar
  • (C) Tarun Tahiliani
  • (D) S. Arun Kumar

Question 82:

What exactly is cloud computing?

  • (A) A way to organize desktop computers.
  • (B) Lightweight software that takes up little space on a hard drive.
  • (C) Computing resources that can be accessed on demand, like electricity from a utility.
  • (D) The World Wide Web.

Question 83:

What is NDM-1?

  • (A) National Defence Missile 1, developed by Defence Research and Development Organization (DRDO) as a part of the comprehensive missile shield for India.
  • (B) A bacterial gene called New Delhi Metallo-beta-lactamase-1, dubbed the 'superbug' because of it being resistant to most antibiotics.
  • (C) New Directions in Management 1, the first among a series of international conferences on Management, to be inaugurated by Bill Gates in Mumbai in January 2012.
  • (D) A vision document on Disaster Management, released by Planning Commission.

Question 84:

'Niyamgiri Hills' was in the news because of

  • (A) Vedanta's failed mining proposal in the area inhabited by Dongria Kondh tribals.
  • (B) The helicopter crash and death of Y. S. Rajasekhara Reddy.
  • (C) Headquarters of the Naxalite Red corridor.
  • (D) Conde Nast Traveller magazine selected it as the best trekking holiday spot in the world.

Question 85:

Match the following husband and wife teams with the awards they have received for exemplary work.
Husband-Wife TeamAward
1. Bill and Melinda Gatesi. Right to Livelihood Award
2. Sankaralingam and Krishnammalii. UN Population Award
3. Prakash and Mandakini Amteiii. Kyoto Prize
4. Peter and Rosemary Grantiv. Magsaysay Award

  • (A) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv
  • (B) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii
  • (C) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i
  • (D) 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-iii, 4-i

Question 86:

What is Renminbi?

  • (A) It is the official currency of the People's Republic of China (PRC), whose principal unit is the Yuan.
  • (B) Low cost car being developed by Volkswagen in China, at prices lower than Nano.
  • (C) New aircraft company floated by Brazil to challenge Boeing and Airbus.
  • (D) New currency mooted for the entire ASEAN region like Euro for Europe.

Question 87:

Embraer is one of the world leaders in the manufacturing of corporate/business jets. Embraer belongs to which country?

  • (A) Germany
  • (B) Japan
  • (C) Brazil
  • (D) France

Question 88:

The Unique Identification (UID) Project, headed by Nandan Nilekani has been renamed as

  • (A) Aadhaar
  • (B) Sambhav
  • (C) Sambhandh
  • (D) Alekh

Question 89:

India's first Special Economic Zone dedicated to the Aerospace Industry has been launched at

  • (A) Hyderabad
  • (B) Hallargi
  • (C) Shimla
  • (D) Ahmedabad

Question 90:

The prime purpose of WTO is to promote:

  • (A) Financial Support
  • (B) Global Peace
  • (C) Unilateral Trade
  • (D) Multilateral Trade

Question 91:

On March 5, 2010, which of the following personalities from India is among 19 members chosen by UN chief Ban Ki-moon for a high-level advisory group on Climate Change Financing tasked with mobilizing funds pledged during the Copenhagen meet to tackle global warming?

  • (A) Shyam Saran
  • (B) Montek Singh Ahluwalia
  • (C) Chandrashekhar Dasgupta
  • (D) Pradipto Ghosh

Question 92:

Prime Minister Manmohan Singh has termed the 11th Five Year Plan as:

  • (A) India's health plan
  • (B) India's poverty eradication plan
  • (C) India's rural prosperity plan
  • (D) India's education plan

Question 93:

Which of the following milestones was achieved by New Zealand Cricket Team Captain Daniel Vettori recently?

  • (A) 2,000 runs and 200 wickets in Test Cricket
  • (B) 3,000 runs and 300 wickets in One-Day Internationals (ODIs)
  • (C) 3,000 runs and 300 wickets in Test Cricket
  • (D) 2,000 runs and 200 wickets in One-Day Internationals (ODIs)

Question 94:

What is the full form of the term 'NPA' as used in banking environment?

  • (A) Not Profitable Assets
  • (B) New Potential Accounts
  • (C) Non Performing Assets
  • (D) Net Performing Assets

Question 95:

Which of the following contributes to the highest share of revenue earned by the Government of India?

  • (A) Income Tax
  • (B) Excise Duty
  • (C) Value Added Tax
  • (D) Corporate Tax

Question 96:

Which country was world's largest exporter with merchandise exports worth $1.47 trillion in 2008, according to the World Trade Organization?

  • (A) USA
  • (B) China
  • (C) Germany
  • (D) Russia

Question 97:

Where in India, recently has the Clinton Foundation, founded by former US President Bill Clinton, firmed up its plans to set up world's largest solar park (3,000 to 5,000 MW capacity)?

  • (A) Bihar
  • (B) Orissa
  • (C) Gujarat
  • (D) Rajasthan

Question 98:

Which three public sector lenders have entered recently into a joint venture agreement for setting up a banking subsidiary, India BIA Bank (Malaysia) Bhd, in Malaysia?

  • (A) Bank of India, Indian Overseas Bank and Andhra Bank.
  • (B) Bank of Baroda, Indian Overseas Bank and Bank of India
  • (C) Bank of Baroda, Indian Overseas Bank and Andhra Bank.
  • (D) Bank of Baroda, Indian Bank, and Andhra Bank.

Question 99:

What is the campaign of Union and State Governments against the Naxalite movement called?

  • (A) Operation Red Alert
  • (B) Operation Green Hunt
  • (C) Operation Cobra Den
  • (D) Operation Clean Corridor

Question 100:

The instrument used to measure the speed of the wind is

  • (A) Altimeter
  • (B) Anemometer
  • (C) Chronometer
  • (D) Dosimeter

Question 101:

Which of the following countries is the first in the world to propose a carbon tax for its people to address global warming?

  • (A) Finland
  • (B) Japan
  • (C) Germany
  • (D) Australia

Question 102:

Amino acids are found in

  • (A) Carbohydrates
  • (B) Fats
  • (C) Proteins
  • (D) Vitamins

Question 103:

Which among the following is the world's largest milk producing country?

  • (A) India
  • (B) China
  • (C) The US
  • (D) Germany

Question 104:

A group of words that share the same spelling and the same pronunciation but have different meanings; e.g. left (opposite of right) and left (past tense of leave), is called:

  • (A) Synonyms
  • (B) Homonyms
  • (C) Heteronyms
  • (D) Acronyms

Question 105:

The National Flag of India was designed by:

  • (A) Mahatma Gandhi
  • (B) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (C) Rabindra Nath Tagore
  • (D) Pingali Venkayya

Question 106:

In 1679, Denis Papin, a French physicist, who assisted Robert Boyle, used the latter's scientific discoveries and invented what is today one of the most commonly found kitchen equipment. His invention earned him a membership of the Royal Society of England. What was the invention?

  • (A) Knife
  • (B) Fork
  • (C) Pressure Cooker
  • (D) Stove

Question 107:

Mr. Ratan Tata refused a job with one of the following companies to join Tata Steel in 1962. Which company was it?

  • (A) IBM
  • (B) HUL
  • (C) Siemens
  • (D) SKF International

Question 108:

Which of the following have owned Land Rover brand before Tata Motors?

  • (A) BMW
  • (B) British Leyland
  • (C) British Aerospace
  • (D) All of the above

Question 109:

Who is known as 'The Man Who Broke the Bank of England' after he made a reported $1 billion during the 1992 Black Wednesday UK currency crisis?

  • (A) George Soros
  • (B) George W Bush
  • (C) Paul Volcker
  • (D) Ben Bernanke

Question 110:

Who is the current dean of Harvard Business School (as of 2010)?

  • (A) Nitin Nohria
  • (B) Deepak Jain
  • (C) Kim Clark
  • (D) None of these

Question 111:

"The emancipation of women", James Joyce told one of his friends, "has caused the greatest revolution in our time."

Other modernists agree: Virginia Woolf, claiming that in about 1910 "human character changed" and illustrating the new balance between the sexes, urged, "Read the 'Agamemnon' and see whether your sympathies are not almost entirely with Clytemnestra". D.H. Lawrence wrote "perhaps the deepest fight for 200 years and more has been the fight for women's independence".

But if modernist writers considered women's revolt against men's domination as one of their "greatest" and "deepest" themes, only recently, perhaps in the past 15 years has literary criticism begun to catch up with it. Not that the images of sexual antagonism that abound in modern literature have gone unremarked - far from it. We are able to see in literary works the perspective we bring to them and now that women are enough to make a difference in reforming canons and interpreting literature, the landscapes of literary history and the features of individual books have begun to change.

According to the passage, modernists are changing literary criticism by:

  • (A) Noting instances of hostility between men and women
  • (B) Seeing literature from fresh points of view
  • (C) Studying the works of early twentieth-century writers
  • (D) Reviewing books written by feminists

Question 112:

"The emancipation of women", James Joyce told one of his friends, "has caused the greatest revolution in our time."

Other modernists agree: Virginia Woolf, claiming that in about 1910 "human character changed" and illustrating the new balance between the sexes, urged, "Read the 'Agamemnon' and see whether your sympathies are not almost entirely with Clytemnestra". D.H. Lawrence wrote "perhaps the deepest fight for 200 years and more has been the fight for women's independence".

But if modernist writers considered women's revolt against men's domination as one of their "greatest" and "deepest" themes, only recently, perhaps in the past 15 years has literary criticism begun to catch up with it. Not that the images of sexual antagonism that abound in modern literature have gone unremarked - far from it. We are able to see in literary works the perspective we bring to them and now that women are enough to make a difference in reforming canons and interpreting literature, the landscapes of literary history and the features of individual books have begun to change.

The author quotes James Joyce, Virginia Woolf and D.H. Lawrence primarily in order to show that:

  • (A) These were feminist writers
  • (B) Although well-meaning, they were ineffectual
  • (C) Before the twentieth century, there was little interest in women's literature
  • (D) None of the above

Question 113:

"The emancipation of women", James Joyce told one of his friends, "has caused the greatest revolution in our time."

Other modernists agree: Virginia Woolf, claiming that in about 1910 "human character changed" and illustrating the new balance between the sexes, urged, "Read the 'Agamemnon' and see whether your sympathies are not almost entirely with Clytemnestra". D.H. Lawrence wrote "perhaps the deepest fight for 200 years and more has been the fight for women's independence".

But if modernist writers considered women's revolt against men's domination as one of their "greatest" and "deepest" themes, only recently, perhaps in the past 15 years has literary criticism begun to catch up with it. Not that the images of sexual antagonism that abound in modern literature have gone unremarked - far from it. We are able to see in literary works the perspective we bring to them and now that women are enough to make a difference in reforming canons and interpreting literature, the landscapes of literary history and the features of individual books have begun to change.

The author's attitude towards women's reformation of literary canons can best be described as one of:

  • (A) Ambivalence
  • (B) Antagonism
  • (C) Indifference
  • (D) Endorsement

Question 114:

"The emancipation of women", James Joyce told one of his friends, "has caused the greatest revolution in our time."

Other modernists agree: Virginia Woolf, claiming that in about 1910 "human character changed" and illustrating the new balance between the sexes, urged, "Read the 'Agamemnon' and see whether your sympathies are not almost entirely with Clytemnestra". D.H. Lawrence wrote "perhaps the deepest fight for 200 years and more has been the fight for women's independence".

But if modernist writers considered women's revolt against men's domination as one of their "greatest" and "deepest" themes, only recently, perhaps in the past 15 years has literary criticism begun to catch up with it. Not that the images of sexual antagonism that abound in modern literature have gone unremarked - far from it. We are able to see in literary works the perspective we bring to them and now that women are enough to make a difference in reforming canons and interpreting literature, the landscapes of literary history and the features of individual books have begun to change.

Which of the following titles best describes the contents of the passage?

  • (A) Modernist Writers and the Search for Equality
  • (B) The meaning of Literature from 1910 onwards
  • (C) Transforming Literature
  • (D) None of the options

Question 115:

Choose the correct sentence.

  • (A) A anthropologist by profession, he is also a trained classical singer.
  • (B) The anthropologist by profession, he is also a trained classical singer.
  • (C) As anthropologist by profession, he is also a trained classical singer.
  • (D) An anthropologist by profession, he is also a trained classical singer.

Question 116:

_________ is used to indicate possession.

  • (A) Hyphen
  • (B) Apostrophe
  • (C) Semi Colon
  • (D) Period

Question 117:

_________ is used to mark the end of declarative and imperative sentences.

  • (A) Semicolon
  • (B) Comma
  • (C) Dash
  • (D) Period

Question 118:

When a subordinate clause is followed by the main clause, _________ is required.

  • (A) Dash
  • (B) Semi-colon
  • (C) Comma
  • (D) Colon

Question 119:

When no connecting word is used to connect two independent clauses, one should use _________.

  • (A) Comma
  • (B) Semi-colon
  • (C) Period
  • (D) Colon

Question 120:

Directions: Which is the correct proverb?

  • (A) Sleeping dogs tell lies.
  • (B) Dogs sleeping lie till late.
  • (C) Lie sleeping dogs till the dawn comes.
  • (D) Let the sleeping dogs lie.

Question 121:

Directions: Which is the correct proverb?

  • (A) A fool is always parted from his money.
  • (B) A fool and his money are parted easily.
  • (C) Money and the fool must part ways.
  • (D) You can always part a fool from his money.

Question 122:

Directions: Choose the correct meaning of the following idiom.

If someone said, "You are the bomb!" she or he probably would be telling you:

  • (A) You have a bad temper.
  • (B) You are a war weapon.
  • (C) You are exceptional and/or wonderful.
  • (D) You are dangerous.

Question 123:

Directions: Choose the correct meaning of the following idiom.

When someone is described as being "flighty", the person described is probably:

  • (A) Light.
  • (B) Indecisive and irresponsible.
  • (C) Someone who loves flying.
  • (D) Someone who flies kites.

Question 124:

Directions: Choose the correct meaning of the following idiom.

What does "to take down the enemy" mean?

  • (A) To take the enemy's pictures off the wall.
  • (B) To kill the enemy.
  • (C) To make friends with the enemy.
  • (D) To ignore the enemy.

Question 125:

Directions: Choose the correct meaning of the following idiom.

What does, "Dime a dozen" mean?

  • (A) For one dime you get a dozen.
  • (B) All dozens cost a dime.
  • (C) Anything that is common and easy to get.
  • (D) It is difficult to get people.

Question 126:

Directions: Choose the correct meaning of the following idiom.

"Throw the baby out with the bath water" means,

  • (A) Clean out everything
  • (B) Throw out the good things with the unwanted
  • (C) Being thorough
  • (D) Being thorough

Question 127:

"Bark up the wrong tree" means,

  • (A) Skin of another animal
  • (B) Behave like a dog
  • (C) Purposely make an error
  • (D) Make the wrong choice

Question 128:

I ________ my bike yesterday, so my legs are sore.

  • (A) road
  • (B) rode
  • (C) rhode
  • (D) ride

Question 129:

Insulation was fitted to ________ further heat loss from the building.

  • (A) guard
  • (B) protect
  • (C) save
  • (D) prevent

Question 130:

A ________ rate of inflation makes exports difficult.

  • (A) great
  • (B) high
  • (C) large
  • (D) tall

Question 131:

My boat has two ________.

  • (A) sales
  • (B) sails
  • (C) sailes
  • (D) sells

Question 132:

Can you give me ______ details, please?

  • (A) faster
  • (B) further
  • (C) farther
  • (D) furthur

Question 133:

A baby deer is called a ________.

  • (A) Foal
  • (B) Fawn
  • (C) Calf
  • (D) Joe

Question 134:

The greatest _________ of my generation is that a human being can alter his life by ________ his attitude.

  • (A) gift ... gifting
  • (B) discovery ... altering
  • (C) misgiving ... elevating
  • (D) thing ... flaunting

Question 135:

When it comes to staying ________, a mind-lift beats a _______ any day.

  • (A) young ... face-lift
  • (B) at home ... egg
  • (C) light ... elevator
  • (D) away ... sleep

Question 136:

None are so __________ as those who are full of themselves.

  • (A) empty
  • (B) important
  • (C) vital
  • (D) indispensable

Question 137:

Your most unhappy customers are your greatest source of ________________.

  • (A) earning
  • (B) irritation
  • (C) worry
  • (D) learning

Question 138:

Choose the correct antonym for the word below from the options provided.

'Eulogize'

  • (A) Extol
  • (B) Criticize
  • (C) Emulate
  • (D) Amulet

Question 139:

Correct synonym for Pedantic is,

  • (A) Referring to small children
  • (B) Teaching Methodology
  • (C) Finicky
  • (D) Angry

Question 140:

Pyrophobia means

  • (A) Fear of Pythons
  • (B) Fear of funeral pyres
  • (C) Fear of fever
  • (D) Fear of fire

Question 141:

Choose the "kangaroo word" that carries a smaller version of the word with a very similar meaning.

  • (A) Masculine
  • (B) Woman
  • (C) Man
  • (D) Child

Question 142:

Choose the "kangaroo word" that carries a smaller version of the word with a very similar meaning.

  • (A) Sleep
  • (B) Respite
  • (C) Walk
  • (D) Talk

Question 143:

Choose the word that completes the first word and begins the second word.

Paper __________ and __________ lifter

  • (A) cone
  • (B) weight
  • (C) light
  • (D) fly

Question 144:

Choose the word that CANNOT be coupled with the given word to form a new word.

Out

  • (A) Shine
  • (B) Number
  • (C) Bug
  • (D) Run

Question 145:

Choose the word that CANNOT be coupled with the given word to form a new word.

News

  • (A) Letter
  • (B) Week
  • (C) Stand
  • (D) Paper

Question 146:

I did not see you __________ the office party.

  • (A) in
  • (B) for
  • (C) at
  • (D) on

Question 147:

Fill in the blank with the correct simile.

As cool as

  • (A) a cucumber
  • (B) the winter night
  • (C) an ice cream
  • (D) a rock star

Question 148:

Fill in the blank with the correct simile.

As fresh as

  • (A) a daisy
  • (B) a rose
  • (C) milk
  • (D) dew

Question 149:

Choose the option that does not belong with the rest.

  • (A) Consort
  • (B) Spouse
  • (C) Partner
  • (D) Clear

Question 150:

Nerd means

  • (A) Genius
  • (B) Uninteresting person
  • (C) Worm
  • (D) Arthropod

SNAP 2010 Exam Pattern and Section-Wise Marks Explained

SNAP 2010 was a pen-and-paper test with four sections, each worth different marks per question, so the mark weightage did not match the question count section by section.

  • Total questions: 150 objective, single-correct MCQs
  • Duration: 120 minutes, paper-based (offline)
  • Total marks: 180
  • Marking scheme: 1 mark per correct answer, 25% negative marking for every wrong answer
  • Section 1, General English: 40 questions, 40 marks
  • Section 2, Quantitative & Data Interpretation & Data Sufficiency: 40 questions, 40 marks
  • Section 3, General Awareness (GK, Current Affairs & Business Scenario): 40 questions, 40 marks
  • Section 4, Analytical & Logical Reasoning: 30 questions, 60 marks

High-Weightage Sections in the SNAP 2010 Combined Paper to Focus On First

Reasoning carried more weight per question than any other section in this paper, which changes how you should split your solving time.

  • Analytical & Logical Reasoning gave 2 marks per question against 1 mark everywhere else, so its 30 questions were worth as much as the 40-question English or GK sections
  • Quantitative, Data Interpretation & Data Sufficiency mixed arithmetic word problems, data sufficiency statements, and one bar-chart-based DI set across its 40 questions
  • General Awareness leaned on 2010-specific current affairs, business and corporate news, and static GK, which is exactly why solving this paper works best as a reasoning and quant drill rather than a GK refresher
  • General English combined a reading comprehension passage, grammar and punctuation rules, idioms, vocabulary, and word-play questions like kangaroo words
  • Seating arrangement, syllogisms, and number-pattern puzzles made up a large share of the reasoning section, so start your practice there for the best marks-per-minute return

SNAP 2010 Question Paper Analysis Video

Source: Rohan's Academy

How to Use the SNAP 2010 Previous Year Paper for Practice

Solve this paper the way you would attempt the real SNAP, then use the solutions PDF to build an error log instead of just checking answers.

  • Attempt all 150 questions in a single 120-minute sitting first, exactly as it was conducted in 2010
  • Grade yourself with the 25% negative marking rule applied, not just a plain right-or-wrong count
  • Review every miss with the step-by-step solution PDF, and note whether the gap was a concept, a calculation slip, or a time crunch
  • Redo only the sections where you lost marks, then re-attempt those question sets cold a few days later

SNAP Good Attempts and Qualifying Score Benchmark

  • Most Symbiosis institutes set their SNAP cutoff in the 35-45 mark range out of the total score, so treat 40+ as your working target on any full-length attempt
  • SIBM Pune calls have gone to students in the 98-99 percentile band, SCMHRD Pune to the 96-97 band, and SIIB or SIBM Bengaluru to the 90-96 band in recent years
  • SNAP allows up to three attempts in an admission cycle, and only your highest score counts, so use an older paper like this one purely to build speed, not to judge your final readiness

SNAP 2010 Question Paper FAQs

Is it worth solving SNAP 2010 and other old papers even though the exam pattern has changed?

Ans. Yes for concept practice, but check the current pattern separately. SNAP has since moved to a 60-question, 60-minute, 3-section computer-based test, dropping the standalone GK section that SNAP 2010 had, so use a paper like this one for quant, DI, DS and reasoning drill rather than as a full mock of the current exam.

How many years of SNAP previous year papers should I solve before the exam?

Ans. Solving the last 5-7 years is generally recommended to track how the pattern and topic mix have shifted year to year. Older papers like SNAP 2010 still help for question-type familiarity, especially in quant and reasoning, even though the exact section structure has changed since then.

Does SNAP repeat questions or concepts from previous year papers like SNAP 2010?

Ans. Exact questions rarely repeat, but the underlying concepts, question formats and difficulty style do recur. A student who has solved older papers such as SNAP 2010 tends to recognise the pattern faster and answer similar-style questions with less hesitation.

What was the SNAP 2010 exam pattern and total marks?

Ans. SNAP 2010 had 150 questions across four sections (General English, Quantitative & DI & DS, General Awareness, and Analytical & Logical Reasoning) for a total of 180 marks in a 120-minute paper-based test, with 25% negative marking per wrong answer.

What score is needed to qualify for SIBM Pune or SCMHRD through SNAP?

Ans. Recent SNAP cycles have seen SIBM Pune calls going to students around the 98-99 percentile mark and SCMHRD Pune around 96-97 percentile, while most other Symbiosis institutes set their cutoff in the 35-45 raw score range. Exact cutoffs shift every year with the paper's difficulty and the number of seats.

Where can I download the SNAP 2010 question paper with solutions PDF for free?

Ans. The table above on this Collegedunia page has both the question paper and the full solutions PDF, free to download. SNAP is conducted by Symbiosis International (Deemed University), whose official admissions details are available at snaptest.org.