The SNAP 2009 question paper is now available with detailed solutions for free download. SNAP 2009 was conducted by Symbiosis International (Deemed University), Pune in December 2009 for admission to its MBA and PGDM programmes, and the paper carried 150 objective questions across four sections in a 150-minute, paper-based test.

SNAP 2009 Question Paper with Solutions Download PDF Check Solutions

SNAP 2009 Combined paper Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

A dice is rolled three times and the sum of the three numbers on the uppermost face is 15. What is the chance that the first roll was a four?

  • (A) \(\frac{2}{5}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{6}\)
  • (D) None of these

Question 2:

A boat covers a distance of 30 km downstream in 2 hours, while it takes 6 hours to cover the same distance upstream. What is the speed of the boat in km per hour?

  • (A) 5
  • (B) 7.5
  • (C) 13
  • (D) 10

Question 3:

A five-digit number is formed using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 without repetition. What is the probability that the number is divisible by 4?

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{5}{6}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{4}{5}\)
  • (D) None of these

Question 4:

If the algebraic sum of deviations of 20 observations measured from 23 is 70, what is the mean of these observations?

  • (A) 24
  • (B) 25
  • (C) 26
  • (D) None of these

Question 5:

An alloy of gold and silver weighs 50 gms and contains 80% gold. How much gold should be added to the alloy so that the percentage of gold increases to 90%?

  • (A) 50 gms
  • (B) 60 gms
  • (C) 30 gms
  • (D) 40 gms

Question 6:

Weekly incomes of two persons are in the ratio 7 : 3 and their weekly expenses are in the ratio 5 : 2. If each of them saves Rs. 300 per week, what is the weekly income of the first person?

  • (A) Rs. 7500
  • (B) Rs. 4500
  • (C) Rs. 6300
  • (D) Rs. 5400

Question 7:

Wheat is now being sold at Rs. 27 per kg. During last month, its cost was Rs. 24 per kg. Find by how much per cent a family should reduce its consumption so as to keep the expenditure fixed.

  • (A) 10.2%
  • (B) 12.1%
  • (C) 12.3%
  • (D) 11.1%

Question 8:

There are 10 stations on a railway line. The number of different journey tickets that are required by the authorities is:

  • (A) 92
  • (B) 90
  • (C) 91
  • (D) None of these

Question 9:

The radius of a circle is so increased that its circumference increases by 5%. The area of the circle then increases by:

  • (A) 12.5%
  • (B) 10.25%
  • (C) 10.5%
  • (D) 11.25%

Question 10:

In how many ways can the letters of the word ABACUS be rearranged such that the vowels always appear together?

  • (A) \( \dfrac{6!}{2!} \)
  • (B) \( 3! \times 3! \)
  • (C) \( \dfrac{3! \times 3!}{2!} \)
  • (D) \( \dfrac{4! \times 3!}{2!} \)

Question 11:

In 4 years, Rs. 6000 amounts to Rs. 8000. In what time at the same rate will Rs. 525 amount to Rs. 700?

  • (A) 2 years
  • (B) 3 years
  • (C) 4 years
  • (D) 5 years

Question 12:

At the start of a game of cards, J and B together had four times as much money as T, while T and B together had three times as much as J. At the end of the evening, J and B together had three times as much money as T, while T and B together had twice as much as J. B lost Rs. 200.

What fraction of the total money did T have at the beginning of the game?

  • (A) \( \dfrac{1}{3} \)
  • (B) \( \dfrac{1}{8} \)
  • (C) \( \dfrac{2}{9} \)
  • (D) \( \dfrac{1}{5} \)

Question 13:

At the start of a game of cards, J and B together had four times as much money as T, while T and B together had three times as much as J. At the end of the evening, J and B together had three times as much money as T, while T and B together had twice as much as J. B lost Rs. 200.

What fraction of the total money did J win/lose?

  • (A) Won \( \dfrac{1}{12} \)
  • (B) Lost \( \dfrac{1}{6} \)
  • (C) Lost \( \dfrac{1}{3} \)
  • (D) Won \( \dfrac{1}{5} \)

Question 14:

At the start of a game of cards, J and B together had four times as much money as T, while T and B together had three times as much as J. At the end of the evening, J and B together had three times as much money as T, while T and B together had twice as much as J. B lost Rs. 200.

What amount did B start with?

  • (A) Rs. 575
  • (B) Rs. 375
  • (C) Rs. 825
  • (D) Rs. 275

Question 15:

If \(a\) and \(b\) are negative, and \(c\) is positive, which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
I) \(a - b < a - c\)
II) if \(a < b\), then \(\dfrac{a}{c} < \dfrac{b}{c}\)
III) \(\dfrac{a}{b} > \dfrac{a}{c}\)

  • (A) I only
  • (B) II only
  • (C) III only
  • (D) II and III only

Question 16:

The diagonal of a square is \(4\sqrt{2}\) cm. The diagonal of another square whose area is double that of the first square is

  • (A) 8 cm
  • (B) \(8\sqrt{2}\) cm
  • (C) \(4\sqrt{2}\) cm
  • (D) 16 cm

Question 17:

The maximum length of a pencil that can be kept in a rectangular box of dimensions 8 cm x 6 cm x 2 cm, is

  • (A) \(2\sqrt{13}\) cm
  • (B) \(2\sqrt{14}\) cm
  • (C) \(2\sqrt{26}\) cm
  • (D) \(10\sqrt{2}\) cm

Question 18:

Instructions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.
The Venn diagram given below shows the estimated readership of 3 daily newspapers (X, Y & Z) in a city. The total readership and advertising cost for each of these papers is as below.


The total population of the city is estimated to be 14 million. The common readership (in lakhs) is indicated in the given Venn diagram.

The number of people (in lakhs) who read at least one newspaper is

  • (A) 4.7
  • (B) 11.9
  • (C) 17.4
  • (D) 23.4

Question 19:

Instructions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.
The Venn diagram given below shows the estimated readership of 3 daily newspapers (X, Y & Z) in a city. The total readership and advertising cost for each of these papers is as below.


The total population of the city is estimated to be 14 million. The common readership (in lakhs) is indicated in the given Venn diagram.

The number of people (in lakhs) who read only one newspaper is

  • (A) 4.7
  • (B) 11.9
  • (C) 17.4
  • (D) 23.4

Question 20:

Sonali invests 15% of her monthly salary in insurance policies. She spends 55% of her monthly salary in shopping and on household expenses. She saves the remaining amount of Rs. 12,750. What is Sonali's monthly income?

  • (A) Rs. 42,500
  • (B) Rs. 38,800
  • (C) Rs. 40,000
  • (D) Rs. 35,500

Question 21:

How many kgs of tea worth Rs. 25 per kg must be blended with 30 kgs of tea worth Rs. 30 per kg so that by selling the blended variety at Rs. 30 per kg there should be a gain of 10%?

  • (A) 36 kgs
  • (B) 40 kgs
  • (C) 32 kgs
  • (D) 42 kgs

Question 22:

In an examination, out of 480 students, 85% of the girls and 70% of the boys passed. How many boys appeared in the examination if the total pass percentage was 75%?

  • (A) 370
  • (B) 340
  • (C) 320
  • (D) 360

Question 23:

300 gms of salt solution has 40% salt in it. How much salt should be added to make it 50% in the solution?

  • (A) 40 gms
  • (B) 60 gms
  • (C) 70 gms
  • (D) 80 gms

Question 24:

What number should replace the question mark in the image below?

  • (A) 18
  • (B) 20
  • (C) 22
  • (D) 24

Question 25:

What image from the bottom row should replace the question mark?

  • (A) 4
  • (B) 6
  • (C) 1
  • (D) None of these

Question 26:

A five-digit number divisible by 3 is to be formed using the numerals 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 without repetition. The total number of ways this can be done is:

  • (A) 122
  • (B) 210
  • (C) 216
  • (D) 217

Question 27:

A contract is to be completed in 50 days and 105 men were set to work, each working 8 hours a day. After 25 days, \( \frac{2}{5} \) of the work is finished. How many additional men should be employed so that the work may be completed on time, with each man now working 9 hours a day?

  • (A) 34
  • (B) 36
  • (C) 35
  • (D) 37

Question 28:

A can build up a structure in 8 days and B can break it down in 3 days. A worked alone for 4 days, then B joined to work with A for another 2 days only. In how many days will A alone build up the remaining part of the structure?

  • (A) 10 days
  • (B) 9 days
  • (C) 12 days
  • (D) None of these

Question 29:

The first two terms of a geometric progression add up to \(12\). The sum of the third and fourth terms is \(48\). If the terms of the progression are alternately positive and negative, the first term is

  • (A) \(-2\)
  • (B) \(-4\)
  • (C) \(-12\)
  • (D) \(8\)

Question 30:

The mean of the numbers \(a\), \(b\), \(8\), \(5\), \(10\) is \(6\) and the variance is \(6.80\). Which one of the following gives possible values of \(a\) and \(b\)?

  • (A) \(a = 0, b = 7\)
  • (B) \(a = 5, b = 2\)
  • (C) \(a = 3, b = 4\)
  • (D) \(a = 2, b = 4\)

Question 31:

An agent sells goods worth Rs. \(15{,}000\). The commission he receives at the rate of \(12\frac{1}{2}\%\) is

  • (A) Rs. \(1875\)
  • (B) Rs. \(2125\)
  • (C) Rs. \(2000\)
  • (D) Rs. \(2700\)

Question 32:

\(\sqrt{110.25} \times \sqrt{0.01} \div \sqrt{0.0025} - \sqrt{420.25}\) is equal to

  • (A) \(0.75\)
  • (B) \(0.50\)
  • (C) \(0.64\)
  • (D) \(0.73\)

Question 33:

The table below shows the number of people who responded to a survey about their favourite style of music. Use this information to answer to the nearest whole percentage.


What percentage of respondents under \(31\) indicated that Blues is their favourite style of music?

  • (A) \(7.1\)
  • (B) \(7.6\)
  • (C) \(8.3\)
  • (D) \(14.1\)

Question 34:

The table below shows the number of people who responded to a survey about their favourite style of music. Use this information to answer to the nearest whole percentage.


What percentage of respondents aged \(21\)-\(30\) indicated a favourite style other than Rock music?

  • (A) \(64\%\)
  • (B) \(60\%\)
  • (C) \(75\%\)
  • (D) \(36\%\)

Question 35:

The table below shows the number of people who responded to a survey about their favourite style of music. Use this information to answer to the nearest whole percentage.


What percentage of the total sample indicated that Jazz is their favourite style of music?

  • (A) \(6\%\)
  • (B) \(8\%\)
  • (C) \(22\%\)
  • (D) \(12\%\)

Question 36:

Instructions (36-40): The pie charts below show the percentage of students in each faculty at North West University and the number of non-US students in the Arts faculty. These percentages are rounded to the nearest whole number. There are 1049 students in the Arts faculty. Use this data to answer the question below.

36. What percentage of students in the Arts faculty are non-US students?

  • (A) 14%
  • (B) 9%
  • (C) 30%
  • (D) 11%

Question 37:

Instructions (36-40): The pie charts below show the percentage of students in each faculty at North West University and the number of non-US students in the Arts faculty. These percentages are rounded to the nearest whole number. There are 1049 students in the Arts faculty. Use this data to answer the question below.

37. How many students are there in the Engineering faculty?

  • (A) 420
  • (B) 410
  • (C) 390
  • (D) 440

Question 38:

Instructions (36-40): The pie charts below show the percentage of students in each faculty at North West University and the number of non-US students in the Arts faculty. These percentages are rounded to the nearest whole number. There are 1049 students in the Arts faculty. Use this data to answer the question below.

38. How many students are there at the University?

  • (A) 4650
  • (B) 4560
  • (C) 4640
  • (D) 4450

Question 39:

Instructions (36-40): The pie charts below show the percentage of students in each faculty at North West University and the number of non-US students in the Arts faculty. These percentages are rounded to the nearest whole number. There are 1049 students in the Arts faculty. Use this data to answer the question below.

39. If six percent of Science students are Asian, how many Asian students are studying Science?

  • (A) 48
  • (B) 66
  • (C) 120
  • (D) 57

Question 40:

Instructions (36-40): The pie charts below show the percentage of students in each faculty at North West University and the number of non-US students in the Arts faculty. These percentages are rounded to the nearest whole number. There are 1049 students in the Arts faculty. Use this data to answer the question below.

40. There are 34 European medical students. What percentage of the faculty does this represent?

  • (A) 14%
  • (B) 18%
  • (C) 16%
  • (D) 15%

Question 41:

41. There are three societies A, B and C, each having some tractors. A gives B and C as many tractors as they already have. After some days, B gives A and C as many tractors as they then have. After some more days, C gives A and B as many tractors as they then have. Finally, each society has 24 tractors. What was the original number of tractors each had at the start?

  • (A) A-29, B-21, C-12
  • (B) A-39, B-21, C-12
  • (C) A-21, B-12, C-29
  • (D) A-21, B-12, C-39

Question 42:

Although most of the fastest growing jobs in today's economy require a college degree, many of the new jobs being created, from home health aide to desktop publisher, need knowledge other than that gained from earning a degree. For workers in those jobs, good basic skills in reading, communication, and mathematics play an important role in getting a job and developing a career.

42. From the information given above, it can be validly concluded that, in today's economy:

  • (A) Skills in reading, communication and mathematics play an important role in developing a career as a desktop publisher.
  • (B) The majority of the new jobs being created require knowledge other than that gained from earning a college degree.
  • (C) A job as a home health aide will rely more on communication skills than on basic skills in reading and mathematics.
  • (D) If a job is one of the fastest growing jobs, it will require a college degree.

Question 43:

According to the National Agricultural Aviation Society (NAAS), without the use of crop protection products to control insects, weeds, and diseases, crop yields per acre will drop by more than 50 percent. The first aerial application of insecticide occurred in 1921, and it was a huge success. By contrast, in today's economy all aircraft that are classified as aerial applicators do more than just apply insecticide; today, they also spread seeds and apply fertilizer.

From the information given above, it CANNOT be validly concluded that:

  • (A) According to the NAAS, if crop yields per acre never drop by more than 50 percent, then crop protection products have been used to control insects, weeds, and diseases.
  • (B) In today's economy, any aircraft that cannot be used to apply fertilizer cannot be classified as an aerial applicator.
  • (C) In today's economy, if an aerial applicator is used, then it will be able to spread seed and apply fertilizer.
  • (D) According to the NAAS, if crop yields per acre drop by more than 50 percent, then crop protection products have not been used to control insects, weeds, and diseases.

Question 44:

Lou observes that if flight 409 is cancelled, then the manager could not possibly arrive in time for the meeting. But the flight was not cancelled. Therefore, Lou concludes, the manager will certainly be on time. Evelyn replies that even if Lou's premises are true, his argument is fallacious. And therefore, she adds, the manager will not arrive on time after all.

Which of the following is the strongest thing that we can properly say about this discussion?

  • (A) Evelyn is mistaken in thinking Lou's argument to be fallacious, and so her own conclusion is unwarranted.
  • (B) Evelyn is right about Lou's argument, but nevertheless her own conclusion is unwarranted.
  • (C) Since Evelyn is right about Lou's argument, her own conclusion is well supported.
  • (D) Since Evelyn is mistaken about Lou's argument, her own conclusion must be false.

Question 45:

Cars are safer than planes. Fifty percent of plane accidents result in death, while only one percent of car accidents result in death. Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the argument above?

  • (A) Planes are inspected more often than cars.
  • (B) The number of car accidents is several hundred thousand times higher than the number of plane accidents.
  • (C) Pilots never fly under the influence of alcohol, while car drivers often do.
  • (D) Plane accidents are usually the fault of air traffic controllers, not pilots.

Question 46:

Instructions (Q. 46 to 48): The chart below shows six elements, numbered 1 to 6, along with their percentage share of total annual production. Each element is processed by one or more of three industries, A, B, and C, which in turn supply primary users P through W, each shown with its percentage share of total usage. The total production equals 100 percent, which equals 1,00,000 tons. Study the chart and answer the questions that follow.

Which industry or industries contribute to company S?

  • (A) Industry A and B only
  • (B) B and C only
  • (C) A and C only
  • (D) B only

Question 47:

Instructions (Q. 46 to 48): The chart below shows six elements, numbered 1 to 6, along with their percentage share of total annual production. Each element is processed by one or more of three industries, A, B, and C, which in turn supply primary users P through W, each shown with its percentage share of total usage. The total production equals 100 percent, which equals 1,00,000 tons. Study the chart and answer the questions that follow.

Industry B processes what percentage of the total production of the listed elements?

  • (A) 25%
  • (B) 65%
  • (C) 40%
  • (D) Cannot be determined

Question 48:

Instructions (Q. 46 to 48): The chart below shows six elements, numbered 1 to 6, along with their percentage share of total annual production. Each element is processed by one or more of three industries, A, B, and C, which in turn supply primary users P through W, each shown with its percentage share of total usage. The total production equals 100 percent, which equals 1,00,000 tons. Study the chart and answer the questions that follow.

Of the listed elements processed by industry A, how many tons are produced annually?

  • (A) 30,000
  • (B) 50,000
  • (C) 1,00,000
  • (D) 55,000

Question 49:

In the question below, there are two blanks marked I and II. The words to fill blank I are given as (A, B, C, D) and the words to fill blank II are given as (P, Q, R, S). The words on either side of the sign (::) share a similar relationship. Pick the alternative that fits this relationship.

I : Increase :: Descend : II

I. (A) Grow (B) Ascend (C) Rise (D) Price

II. (P) Reduce (Q) Down (R) Decrease (S) Mountain

  • (A) AR
  • (B) RB
  • (C) CP
  • (D) DQ

Question 50:

Modern : I :: II : Old

I. (A) Ancient (B) Death (C) Famous (D) Civilization

II. (P) Industrialisation (Q) Young (R) Fashion (S) Western

  • (A) AQ
  • (B) AS
  • (C) BP
  • (D) CR

Question 51:

Part : I :: Class : II

I. (A) Section (B) Whole (C) School (D) Students

II. (P) Student (Q) School (R) Teachers (S) Room

  • (A) AR
  • (B) BQ
  • (C) CP
  • (D) DS

Question 52:

Summit : Apex :: I : II

I. (A) beautiful (B) Picture (C) Attractive (D) Enhancing

II. (P) Comfortable (Q) Pretty (R) Healthy (S) Brave

  • (A) AQ
  • (B) BP
  • (C) DS
  • (D) CR

Question 53:

If in a certain code BEAUTIFUL is coded as 573041208 and BUTTER is coded as 504479, how is FUTURE coded in that code?

  • (A) 201497
  • (B) 204097
  • (C) 704092
  • (D) 204079

Question 54:

If a particular month of a particular year ends on a Wednesday, how many Mondays does that month have?

  • (A) 4
  • (B) 5
  • (C) 3
  • (D) Cannot be specified

Question 55:

There are two rows of numbers in the grid below. The upper row is complete, and in the lower row one number is missing. Find the number that keeps the same pattern as the upper row.

  • (A) 211
  • (B) 75
  • (C) 125
  • (D) 117

Question 56:

There are two rows of numbers in the grid below. The upper row is complete, and in the lower row one number is missing. Find the number that keeps the same pattern as the upper row.

  • (A) 220
  • (B) 480
  • (C) 125
  • (D) 450

Question 57:

Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, want to go boating. Only two boats are available, and their seating must follow these rules:
(I) A will go in the same boat as E.
(II) F cannot go in the same boat as C, unless D also joins them.
(III) Neither B nor C can be placed in the same boat as G.
(IV) A single boat can carry a maximum of four people.

If F and B are seated in one boat, which of the following statements is true?

  • (A) G is in the other boat
  • (B) D is in the other boat
  • (C) C is in the other boat
  • (D) E is with F and B in one boat

Question 58:

Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, want to go boating. Only two boats are available, and their seating must follow these rules:
(I) A will go in the same boat as E.
(II) F cannot go in the same boat as C, unless D also joins them.
(III) Neither B nor C can be placed in the same boat as G.
(IV) A single boat can carry a maximum of four people.

If E is in the same boat as F, which of the following is the complete and accurate list of people in the other boat?

  • (A) F and E
  • (B) G and A
  • (C) D and A
  • (D) C, D and B

Question 59:

A series of figures is shown below. Study how the pattern changes from one figure to the next, then pick the figure that should replace the question mark.

  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)

Question 60:

The figures on the left form a related pair, and so do the two figures that follow. Study how figure 2 relates to figure 1, then apply the same relationship to figure 3 and pick the matching figure 4 from the options.

  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)

Question 61:

Complete the following series.
(GMSY, IOUA, KQWC, ?)

  • (A) MSYE
  • (B) NSYE
  • (C) MYTE
  • (D) MSYF

Question 62:

Airtel, a GSM service provider, offers a post-paid plan called Airtel One for its customers, with the tariff details shown below.


Mohan made an STD call, within 100 km, for 30 minutes and spent 100 minutes on local calls, split 30% on landline, 40% on GSM and 30% on Airtel. Rohan made an STD call, within 150 km, for 18 minutes and spent 120 minutes on local calls, split 30% on GSM, 40% on landline and 30% on Airtel. Who spent more on calls that month?

  • (A) Mohan
  • (B) Rohan
  • (C) Both spent the same amount
  • (D) Cannot be determined

Question 63:

A new SMS scheme is introduced at 60 paise per local SMS, along with an additional fixed monthly charge of Rs. 35 (the earlier rate was Rs. 1.50 per local SMS with no fixed charge). A person sending which of the following will NOT benefit from switching to the new scheme?

  • (A) 38 local SMS a month
  • (B) 40 local SMS a month
  • (C) 60 local SMS a month
  • (D) 59 local SMS a month

Question 64:

Under the 'Airtel One' postpaid plan, the monthly rental is Rs. 99, and call charges are billed on top of this rent based on the distance slab and the network used. A bill of Rs. 199 in a month is definitely not possible when you make only:

  • (A) 30 calls to Airtel on STD (500+ km) and 55 local calls in a month
  • (B) 16 calls to Airtel on STD (15 km) and 76 local calls in a month
  • (C) 10 STD calls (250 km) each to Airtel, GSM and landline respectively, and 30 local calls in a month
  • (D) 8, 4 and 7 calls to Airtel, GSM and landline respectively on STD (500+ km), and 55 local calls in a month

Question 65:

Under the same 'Airtel One' plan, ISD calls to different groups of countries are billed at different per minute rates. A person makes a total of 12 minutes of ISD calls in a month. If 80% of his ISD bill amount came from calls made to the 'Rest of the World' group, then the ISD calls of the minimum duration were made to which of the following groups of countries?

  • (A) USA, Canada, Europe (Fixed Line)
  • (B) Gulf, Europe (Mobile), SAARC
  • (C) Rest of the world
  • (D) Cannot be determined

Question 66:

The bar graph below shows the monthly demand and production figures (in units) of five T.V. companies, A, B, C, D and E. Study it and answer the question that follows.


What is the difference between the average demand and the average production of the five companies taken together?

  • (A) 1400
  • (B) 400
  • (C) 280
  • (D) 138

Question 67:

The bar graph below shows the monthly demand and production figures (in units) of five T.V. companies, A, B, C, D and E.


The production of company D is how many times the production of company A?

  • (A) 1.8
  • (B) 1.5
  • (C) 2.5
  • (D) 1.11

Question 68:

The pie chart below shows the percentage break-up of the costs incurred in printing a magazine.


What is the angle of the sector representing the paper cost?

  • (A) 10 degrees
  • (B) 36 degrees
  • (C) 23.5 degrees
  • (D) 45 degrees

Question 69:

The pie chart below shows the percentage break-up of the costs incurred in printing a magazine.


For a given issue of the magazine, 2% of the total cost equals Rs. 2,000, and the print run is 12,500 copies. What should the sale price of each copy be if the publisher wants a profit of 5%?

  • (A) Rs. 5
  • (B) Rs. 7.5
  • (C) Rs. 8
  • (D) Rs. 8.40

Question 70:

If 'water' is called 'food', 'food' is called 'tree', 'tree' is called 'sky', and 'sky' is called 'wall', then on which of the following does a 'fruit' grow?

  • (A) Water
  • (B) Food
  • (C) Tree
  • (D) Sky

Question 71:

Choose the correct option to fill in the blank so that the sentence uses correct grammar.
She is a close friend of .

  • (A) my
  • (B) I
  • (C) me
  • (D) mine

Question 72:

Choose the correct option to fill in the blank so that the sentence uses correct grammar.
He took care of her she was restored to health.

  • (A) when
  • (B) before
  • (C) after
  • (D) till

Question 73:

Choose the correct option to complete the sentence with correct grammar.
The man his appearance completely since then.

  • (A) is changing
  • (B) changed
  • (C) has changed
  • (D) is changed

Question 74:

From the options below, choose the word with the incorrect spelling.

  • (A) Diarrhea
  • (B) Diaper
  • (C) Dichotomy
  • (D) Dias

Question 75:

Choose the word spelt correctly.

  • (A) superintendant
  • (B) sleve
  • (C) alloted
  • (D) dissipate

Question 76:

Fill in the blanks with the correct pair of words.
He lives Bangaluru 115, Richmond Road.

  • (A) at - in
  • (B) in - at
  • (C) at - on
  • (D) in - on

Question 77:

Fill in the blanks with the correct pair of words.
'Aurally challenged' is a for the .

  • (A) metaphor - blind
  • (B) euphemism - deaf
  • (C) simile - disabled
  • (D) synonym - dumb

Question 78:

If error is a , fault is .

  • (A) defect - a mistake
  • (B) mistake - a defect
  • (C) slip - an inaccuracy
  • (D) blunder - to blame

Question 79:

The man has the rules of ethical conduct; he is a beast.

  • (A) flaunted - literally
  • (B) ignored - basically
  • (C) broken - as
  • (D) flouted - virtually

Question 80:

Which punctuation mark is missing in the following sentence? Part of Australia is known to the natives as The Outback.

  • (A) inverted commas
  • (B) semicolon
  • (C) comma
  • (D) hyphen

Question 81:

Which punctuation mark is missing in the following sentence? I know that you want to learn to drive Rima but you are too young.

  • (A) inverted commas
  • (B) semicolon
  • (C) comma
  • (D) hyphen

Question 82:

Select the option that is closest in meaning to the given word: Veracious

  • (A) False
  • (B) Varied
  • (C) Image
  • (D) Truthful

Question 83:

Select the option that is closest in meaning to the given word: Perturb

  • (A) Stipulate
  • (B) Turn around
  • (C) Disturb greatly
  • (D) Compatible

Question 84:

Choose the option closest in meaning to the phrase in bold: He was a king who ruled his subjects with a high hand.

  • (A) sympathetically
  • (B) oppressively
  • (C) democratically
  • (D) generously

Question 85:

I racked my brains to solve this difficult problem.

  • (A) I read a large number of books.
  • (B) I consulted several people.
  • (C) I used my commonsense.
  • (D) I subjected my mind to hard thinking.

Question 86:

I was supposed to give a speech to my English class, but I got cold feet and I didn't go.

  • (A) My English class-room makes my feet feel too cold.
  • (B) My feet got cold so I didn't go.
  • (C) I got too nervous and I didn't go.
  • (D) It was winter time and I had no socks for my feet.

Question 87:

Take care of what you say! You will have to eat your words!

  • (A) You have no food to eat.
  • (B) You will have to take back what you have said.
  • (C) You are not good with your language.
  • (D) None of the above.

Question 88:

Which two sentences convey the same idea?
1) Shouldn't they have checked your tickets?
2) I wonder if they should have checked your tickets.
3) I want to know if they checked your tickets.
4) They should have checked your tickets.

  • (A) 2, 3
  • (B) 1, 2
  • (C) 1, 4
  • (D) 2, 4

Question 89:

He was magnanimous and his benevolence made him give to charity. Choose the word opposed to the meaning contained in the sentence.

  • (A) mean
  • (B) cruel
  • (C) snobbish
  • (D) tyrannical

Question 90:

Biannual is

  • (A) once in two years
  • (B) every year
  • (C) twice a year
  • (D) after every two years

Question 91:

Choose the odd one out:

  • (A) temporal
  • (B) ephemeral
  • (C) transient
  • (D) eternal

Question 92:

Choose the correct option.

If 'inter' means between as in interstate, 'intra' as in intravenous means _________.

  • (A) into
  • (B) onto
  • (C) within
  • (D) without

Question 93:

Match the part of speech (in bold) to their usage (down).

  • (A) 1-8, 2-5, 3-6, 4-7
  • (B) 1-6, 2-5, 3-8, 4-7
  • (C) 1-5, 2-6, 3-7, 4-8
  • (D) 1-5, 2-7, 3-6, 4-8

Question 94:

Instructions for question. Match the items in column I with those in column II. Choose the correct answer combination given below.

  • (A) 1-7, 2-6, 3-8, 4-5
  • (B) 1-7, 2-5, 3-8, 4-6
  • (C) 1-8, 2-6, 3-5, 4-7
  • (D) 1-5, 2-7, 3-6, 4-8

Question 95:

Match the part of speech (in bold) to their usage. ABOVE

  • (A) 1-8, 2-7, 3-5, 4-6
  • (B) 1-7, 2-6, 3-5, 4-8
  • (C) 1-8, 2-5, 3-6, 4-7
  • (D) 1-6, 2-8, 3-5, 4-7

Question 96:

Choose the segment with the error. If there is no error, choose option 4.

Idli and Sambar/1 make the breakfast/2 in the South./3

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4

Question 97:

Choose the segment with the error. If there is no error, choose option 4.

Your account should/1 have been credited/2 with three months' interest./3

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4

Question 98:

Choose the sentence where the underlined word is used appropriately.

  • (A) Who's car are you planning to borrow?
  • (B) Whose planning to have a birthday party?
  • (C) He is the person who you met at the junction.
  • (D) Does he know whom to call about the hotel reservations?

Question 99:

Read the two sentences and choose the correct option:
1. Can you imagine his forgetting his own birthday?
2. Can you imagine him forgetting his own birthday?

  • (A) The first sentence is correct
  • (B) The second sentence is correct
  • (C) Both sentences are correct
  • (D) Both sentences are wrong

Question 100:

Read the two sentences and choose the correct option:
1. Recently I read about a unique wedding that took place in the newspaper.
2. Recently I read in the newspaper about a unique wedding that took place.

  • (A) The first sentence is correct
  • (B) The second sentence is correct
  • (C) Both sentences are correct
  • (D) Both sentences are wrong

Question 101:

Complete the sentence with the correct phrase:
You cannot succeed unless

  • (A) you do not work hard
  • (B) you shall not work hard
  • (C) you will work hard
  • (D) you work hard

Question 102:

Re-arrange the scrambled segments in logical order to make a complete sentence:
1. to place where more opportunities are available
2. and so there is a great demand for English
3. for professional and economic growth
4. because it takes one outside one's own community
5. English is language of opportunities

  • (A) 1, 2, 5, 3, 4
  • (B) 5, 4, 1, 3, 2
  • (C) 3, 1, 4, 2, 5
  • (D) 2, 1, 3, 5, 4

Question 103:

Choose the best construction:

  • (A) If you would have taken care you wouldn't have got typhoid.
  • (B) If you took care you wouldn't have got typhoid.
  • (C) If you take care you wouldn't have got typhoid.
  • (D) If you had taken care you wouldn't have got typhoid.

Question 104:

Choose the correct option to complete the sentence:
At times, we are all to be mistaken.

  • (A) apt
  • (B) likely
  • (C) considered
  • (D) able

Question 105:

Choose the correct question tag to complete the sentence:
He hardly cares, ?

  • (A) does he
  • (B) doesn't he
  • (C) will he
  • (D) won't he

Question 106:

Identify the figure of speech used in the sentence: "As proud as a peacock."

  • (A) Metaphor
  • (B) Simile
  • (C) Apostrophe
  • (D) Epigram

Question 107:

Identify the figure of speech used in the sentence: "Death lays his icy hand on kings."

  • (A) Personification
  • (B) Exclamation
  • (C) Simile
  • (D) Anticlimax

Question 108:

Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

"A way to deal with frozen feelings"

Every child experiences all that happens around him with total awareness. In the first seven years the child's brain is like a sponge, taking in all sensory inputs and building his idea of his surroundings. As long as the environment is safe, the child learns with incredible speed. However, when the environment is scary or stressful, the child unlearns past learning just as rapidly.

In the early years of every child's life, whenever there is shock, violence, fear or pain, these intense emotions are imprinted deeply into memory. Whenever the same activity or situation is repeated, the nervous system and body subconsciously re-experience the memory of that trauma.

Any emotional situation that takes us out of the present and into the past means that whenever the same kind of emotion crops up later in our life we return to the past for our reference point. If that point was at age three, we find ourselves behaving like a three-year-old. We feel childish and we behave childishly. Our feelings are the cause of this 'glitch' in our learning process. We know we should be able to make a positive change, but that doesn't change anything.

The process of change need not be traumatic. We couldn't have done any better because we didn't know how to. But we should realise that was then and this is now! We can choose to choose again. It's up to us. It's our movie!

The "Frozen Feelings" being talked about are about:

  • (A) Negative childhood experiences
  • (B) Childhood learning patterns
  • (C) Inability to learn as an adult
  • (D) None of the above

Question 109:

Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

"A way to deal with frozen feelings"

Every child experiences all that happens around him with total awareness. In the first seven years the child's brain is like a sponge, taking in all sensory inputs and building his idea of his surroundings. As long as the environment is safe, the child learns with incredible speed. However, when the environment is scary or stressful, the child unlearns past learning just as rapidly.

In the early years of every child's life, whenever there is shock, violence, fear or pain, these intense emotions are imprinted deeply into memory. Whenever the same activity or situation is repeated, the nervous system and body subconsciously re-experience the memory of that trauma.

Any emotional situation that takes us out of the present and into the past means that whenever the same kind of emotion crops up later in our life we return to the past for our reference point. If that point was at age three, we find ourselves behaving like a three-year-old. We feel childish and we behave childishly. Our feelings are the cause of this 'glitch' in our learning process. We know we should be able to make a positive change, but that doesn't change anything.

The process of change need not be traumatic. We couldn't have done any better because we didn't know how to. But we should realise that was then and this is now! We can choose to choose again. It's up to us. It's our movie!

A 'glitch' is:

  • (A) A ditch
  • (B) Uneasy emotions
  • (C) Sudden malfunction or breakdown
  • (D) Learning patterns

Question 110:

Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

"A way to deal with frozen feelings"

Every child experiences all that happens around him with total awareness. In the first seven years the child's brain is like a sponge, taking in all sensory inputs and building his idea of his surroundings. As long as the environment is safe, the child learns with incredible speed. However, when the environment is scary or stressful, the child unlearns past learning just as rapidly.

In the early years of every child's life, whenever there is shock, violence, fear or pain, these intense emotions are imprinted deeply into memory. Whenever the same activity or situation is repeated, the nervous system and body subconsciously re-experience the memory of that trauma.

Any emotional situation that takes us out of the present and into the past means that whenever the same kind of emotion crops up later in our life we return to the past for our reference point. If that point was at age three, we find ourselves behaving like a three-year-old. We feel childish and we behave childishly. Our feelings are the cause of this 'glitch' in our learning process. We know we should be able to make a positive change, but that doesn't change anything.

The process of change need not be traumatic. We couldn't have done any better because we didn't know how to. But we should realise that was then and this is now! We can choose to choose again. It's up to us. It's our movie!

Identify the correct sentence, based on the paragraph.

Sentence 1: The process of change needs to be traumatic.
Sentence 2: We feel childish and we behave childishly.

  • (A) The process of change needs to be traumatic.
  • (B) We feel childish and we behave childishly.
  • (C) Both sentences are incorrect.
  • (D) Both the sentences are correct.

Question 111:

Dendrochronology is:

  • (A) The method of scientific dating based on the analysis of tree-ring growth patterns.
  • (B) A core sample from the accumulation of snow and ice over many years that have re-crystallized and have trapped air bubbles from previous time periods.
  • (C) The study of glaciers or more generally ice and natural phenomena that involve ice.
  • (D) The scientific study of landforms and the processes that shape them.

Question 112:

Which company launched the first mobile phone operation in India?

  • (A) Bharti Airtel
  • (B) Essar
  • (C) Max Touch
  • (D) Modi Telstra

Question 113:

Which is the longest running English language TV cartoon in history, first launched by Warner Brothers in 1969 exclusively for television, and is now popular fare on the Cartoon Network?

  • (A) Scooby Doo
  • (B) Tom and Jerry
  • (C) Popeye
  • (D) Johnny Bravo

Question 114:

The expansion for BIFR, in the context of the Indian Industry is:

  • (A) Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction
  • (B) Bureau for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction
  • (C) Board for Investment and Financial Reconstruction
  • (D) Bureau for Investment and Financial Reconstruction

Question 115:

What is Ekistics?

  • (A) The water sports related study
  • (B) The science of Body Mass
  • (C) The art of card tricks
  • (D) The science of human settlements

Question 116:

What is Red Herring in an IPO?

  • (A) Prospectus
  • (B) Submission of Form
  • (C) Funds Generated during IPO
  • (D) Minimum Offer per Share

Question 117:

Eight O'clock Coffee, a US based coffee marketer, is a group company of

  • (A) Tata
  • (B) ITC
  • (C) Britannia
  • (D) Unilever

Question 118:

Bio-diesel is extracted from the following plant:

  • (A) Hibiscus
  • (B) Aloe Vera
  • (C) Jatropha
  • (D) Chamomile

Question 119:

Which woman tennis player won the maximum number of Grand Slam singles titles in the history of tennis?

  • (A) Steffi Graf
  • (B) Martina Navratilova
  • (C) Billi Jean King
  • (D) Margaret Court

Question 120:

What is the nickname of New York city?

  • (A) Big Sweet Lime
  • (B) Big Apple
  • (C) Big Grape
  • (D) None of the above

Question 121:

Which was the first Indian company to be listed in NASDAQ?

  • (A) TCS
  • (B) Wipro
  • (C) Infosys
  • (D) Cognizant

Question 122:

"TAREGNA" - a village in Bihar was in the news because of

  • (A) Rahul Gandhi's election campaign
  • (B) Viewing of the solar eclipse
  • (C) A visit by Hillary Clinton
  • (D) The Naxal massacre of tribals

Question 123:

The driver for Formula One's Force India Team is

  • (A) Mark Webber
  • (B) Adrian Sutil
  • (C) Felipe Massa
  • (D) Jenson Button

Question 124:

(MDRT) - Million Dollar Round Table consists of

  • (A) World's richest industrialists
  • (B) World's most powerful golfers
  • (C) Global Association of Life Insurance professionals
  • (D) World's richest sports persons

Question 125:

Who declares the "Credit Policy" of India?

  • (A) The Finance Ministry
  • (B) Reserve Bank of India
  • (C) The Commerce Ministry
  • (D) The Indian Bank's Association

Question 126:

Name of the body which regulates the stock Exchanges in India is

  • (A) CBI
  • (B) CID
  • (C) SHCIL
  • (D) SEBI

Question 127:

Rafflesia arnoldii is its botanical name and it holds a world record in the plant world. What is the record?

  • (A) Tallest cacti
  • (B) Largest bloom
  • (C) Longest surviving tree
  • (D) Smallest plant

Question 128:

Temujin was a famous historical character of the world, but we know him by a different name. Which one?

  • (A) Babur
  • (B) Genghis Khan
  • (C) Kublai Khan
  • (D) Emperor Nero

Question 129:

What is Short Selling in stock market lingo?

  • (A) Selling the shares which you do not own.
  • (B) Selling a share after owning it for a short period of time.
  • (C) Selling all the shares in your booty which are not productive.
  • (D) Selling of shares which are quoted for a short period of time.

Question 130:

Mahatma Gandhi was nominated for the Nobel Peace prize for the first time in the year 1937 and last time in the year 1948. How many times in between these two years was he nominated?

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 0

Question 131:

Which organization instituted the Nobel Prize in Economics?

  • (A) Svenska Handelsbanken
  • (B) International Monetary Fund
  • (C) Economics Department of Oxford University
  • (D) Sveriges Riksbank

Question 132:

Film stars have been endorsing Lux beauty soap since ages. Who was the first actress of Bollywood to do so?

  • (A) Madhubala
  • (B) Leela Naidu
  • (C) Suraiya
  • (D) Leela Chitnis

Question 133:

India's interstate cricket tournament is named after Kumar Shri Ranjitsinghji Vibhaji Jadeja or in short Ranji, the great cricket legend. He played his cricket in England and also played for the English national team. Which county did he used to play for in the league cricket of England?

  • (A) Sussex
  • (B) Essex
  • (C) Somerset
  • (D) Surrey

Question 134:

As a rule, all major state capitals in India have offices of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), with only one exception. Which city has an RBI office despite not being a state capital?

  • (A) Pune
  • (B) Allahabad
  • (C) Baroda
  • (D) Nagpur

Question 135:

This well-known Indian business leader was born on 28 December 1937 in Surat. He completed the Advanced Management Program at Harvard Business School in the USA. He turned down a job offer from IBM to join his family business, and today he is one of the top business leaders in India. Name this business tycoon.

  • (A) Ratan Tata
  • (B) Anil Ambani
  • (C) Azim Premji
  • (D) Anand Mahindra

Question 136:

It was known and used in Egypt around 3000 BC, but its name actually comes from an old French expression. It is made by fermenting ethanol, a process that produces its key ingredient, ethanoic acid. What is this substance?

  • (A) Tabasco Sauce
  • (B) Phenol
  • (C) Vinegar
  • (D) Soya Sauce

Question 137:

The name of this Japanese company literally means three diamonds. Which company is it?

  • (A) Sanyo
  • (B) Mutsuhito
  • (C) Mitsubishi
  • (D) Suzuki

Question 138:

Who were the first twins to play Test cricket?

  • (A) Merv and Kim Hughes
  • (B) Ian and Greg Chappell
  • (C) Surinder and Mohinder Amarnath
  • (D) Steve and Mark Waugh

Question 139:

Which country has the largest rail network in the world?

  • (A) India
  • (B) China
  • (C) U.S.A
  • (D) U.K.

Question 140:

Who won the women's singles title at the 2009 French Open tennis tournament?

  • (A) Svetlana Kuznetsova
  • (B) Kristina Mladenovic
  • (C) Maria Sharapova
  • (D) Venus Williams

Question 141:

Who invented the microchip?

  • (A) Robert Noyce and Jack Kilby
  • (B) Larry Page and Sergey Brin
  • (C) Sabeer Bhatia
  • (D) Gordon Moore & Robert Noyce

Question 142:

Which is the largest landlocked country in the world?

  • (A) Switzerland
  • (B) China
  • (C) Kazakhstan
  • (D) Mongolia

Question 143:

Which country makes Panama hats?

  • (A) Ecuador
  • (B) Panama
  • (C) Cuba
  • (D) Bolivia

Question 144:

Who was the Prime Minister of India when the 42nd Amendment Bill bringing in the changes in the Constitution was passed?

  • (A) Rajiv Gandhi
  • (B) V.P. Singh
  • (C) Indira Gandhi
  • (D) Morarji Desai

Question 145:

Which one of the following planets lost its planet status recently?

  • (A) Moon
  • (B) Neptune
  • (C) Pluto
  • (D) Saturn

Question 146:

One barrel of oil is approximately equivalent to how many litres?

  • (A) 200
  • (B) 150
  • (C) 120
  • (D) 160

Question 147:

Five year plans in India are finally approved by the :

  • (A) Union Cabinet
  • (B) President on the advice of prime minister
  • (C) National Development Council
  • (D) Planning commission

Question 148:

Many a time we read in the newspapers about the Southern Cone of South America, which includes Argentina, Chile, Paraguay, Uruguay and Peru. Which is the most spoken language of this geographical area?

  • (A) Portuguese
  • (B) Spanish
  • (C) French
  • (D) English

Question 149:

Which one of the following is not a member of the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)?

  • (A) Algeria
  • (B) Brazil
  • (C) Ecuador
  • (D) Nigeria

Question 150:

Who invented the 'computer laptop'?

  • (A) Arthur Wynne - USA
  • (B) Q. Daimler - Germany
  • (C) Sinclair - Britain
  • (D) None of the above

SNAP 2009 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme Explained

SNAP 2009 was a pen-and-paper test with four sections in a single 150-minute sitting, held in December 2009, and each section carried its own marking rules.

  • Total questions: 150 objective questions across four sections
  • Quantitative Aptitude: 39 questions, +1 mark for a correct answer, -0.25 for a wrong one
  • Analytical & Logical Reasoning: 31 questions, +2 marks for a correct answer, -0.5 for a wrong one
  • General English: 40 questions, +1 mark for a correct answer, -0.25 for a wrong one
  • General Awareness: 40 questions, +1 mark for a correct answer, -0.25 for a wrong one
  • Duration: 150 minutes (2 hours 30 minutes) for the full paper
  • Marking scheme: every question had four choices, with Reasoning carrying double the marks (and double the penalty) of the other three sections

High-Weightage Sections in SNAP 2009 to Focus On First

Analytical & Logical Reasoning carried the most marks per question in SNAP 2009, worth 2 marks against 1 mark in every other section, even though it had the fewest questions.

  • Analytical & Logical Reasoning (31 questions): the highest-scoring section per question, covering puzzles, coding-decoding, number and figure series, and analogy sets
  • General English (40 questions): reading comprehension, verbal ability, grammar, idioms and vocabulary questions
  • General Awareness (40 questions): static GK, business awareness and current affairs current as of late 2009
  • Quantitative Aptitude (39 questions): arithmetic, algebra, mensuration, probability, data interpretation and Venn diagram based questions

SNAP 2009 Question Paper Analysis Video

Source: Patrick100

How to Use the SNAP 2009 Question Paper for Practice

Solve the full paper as one timed 150-minute sitting first, then go through the solutions section by section.

  • Attempt all 150 questions across Quantitative Aptitude, Analytical & Logical Reasoning, General English and General Awareness in one sitting before checking any answer
  • Review every question against the solutions PDF and note down where you went wrong
  • Practice the Analytical & Logical Reasoning section on its own first, since it carries double the marks of the other three sections
  • Treat the General Awareness questions as a snapshot of late-2009 current affairs rather than a source of exam-day facts, since GK content dates quickly
  • Time yourself section-wise to build the speed needed for a 150-minute, 150-question paper

SNAP 2009 Question Paper with Solutions FAQs

Ques. How many questions were there in SNAP 2009?

Ans. SNAP 2009 had 150 objective questions across four sections - 39 in Quantitative Aptitude, 31 in Analytical & Logical Reasoning, 40 in General English, and 40 in General Awareness.

Ques. Which section had the highest marks per question in SNAP 2009?

Ans. Analytical & Logical Reasoning carried the highest marks per question at +2 for a correct answer, twice the +1 mark given in the other three sections.

Ques. Was there negative marking in SNAP 2009?

Ans. Yes. A wrong answer cost 0.25 marks in Quantitative Aptitude, General English and General Awareness, and 0.5 marks in Analytical & Logical Reasoning, so guessing without eliminating options was risky.

Ques. What was the duration of the SNAP 2009 exam?

Ans. SNAP 2009 was a 150-minute, pen-and-paper test held in December 2009, covering all 150 questions in one sitting.

Ques. Who conducts the SNAP exam?

Ans. SNAP is conducted by Symbiosis International (Deemed University), Pune, for admission to its affiliated MBA and PGDM institutes.

Ques. Where can I download the SNAP 2009 question paper with solutions PDF for free?

Ans. Use the download table above on Collegedunia to get the SNAP 2009 question paper and its full solutions PDF. More details on the exam are available on the official site (snaptest.org).