The SNAP 2008 question paper is now available with detailed solutions for free download. SNAP 2008 was conducted by Symbiosis International (Deemed University), Pune on Sunday, December 21, 2008, for admission to its MBA and PGDM programmes, and the paper carried 135 objective questions across four sections in a 120-minute, paper-based test.

SNAP 2008 Question Paper with Solutions Download PDF Check Solutions

SNAP 2008 Combined paper Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

Match the following idiomatic references to parts of the human anatomy.

ItemBody Part
1palm
2foot
3eye
4stomach

ItemMeaning
5could not tolerate the insult
6to look at with envy and desire
7to put the blame on someone else
8forced to pay the bill

  • (A) 1-8, 2-6, 3-5, 4-7
  • (B) 1-5, 2-7, 3-6, 4-8
  • (C) 1-7, 2-8, 3-6, 4-5
  • (D) 1-6, 2-8, 3-5, 4-7

Question 2:

Find the maximum number of times any one of the given words fits the sets of sentences.

Words: RAISE, ARISE, AROSE, RISE

i) Opportunities will ______, and you must grab them.
ii) A hot wind ______ from the desert.
iii) I ______ at dawn on most days.
iv) A mood of optimism ______ among the people.

  • (A) in all four sentences
  • (B) in 3 sentences
  • (C) in 2 sentences
  • (D) in 1 sentence

Question 3:

Which two sentences in the following convey the same idea? Choose from the combinations listed below.

1) He is in a fool's paradise.
2) He can't see the wood for the trees.
3) He can't distinguish between reality and fancy.
4) He is unable to separate unimportant details from the really important ones.

  • (A) 2, 3
  • (B) 2, 4
  • (C) 1, 4
  • (D) 1, 3

Question 4:

Find the correct match of grammatical function with usage for the word THEN.

ItemFunction
1Noun
2Adjective
3Adverb
4Conjunction

ItemUsage
5He was the then King of Nepal.
6I have not heard about him since then.
7He is not feeling well, then how can he possibly go for the picnic.
8He was not a graduate then.

  • (A) 1-8, 2-5, 3-7, 4-7
  • (B) 1-6, 2-5, 3-8, 4-7
  • (C) 1-7, 2-5, 3-6, 4-8
  • (D) 1-8, 2-7, 3-6, 4-5

Question 5:

We can never make our beliefs regarding the world certain. Even scientific theory of a most rigorous and well-confirmed nature is likely to change over a decade or even tomorrow. If we refuse to even try to understand, then it is like resigning from the human race. Undoubtedly life of an unexamined kind is worth living in other respects, as it is no mean thing to be a vegetable or an animal. It is also true that a man wishes to see this speculation domain beyond his next dinner.

From the above passage it is clear that the author believes that

  • (A) men would do well not to speculate
  • (B) progress in the scientific field is impossible
  • (C) one should live life with the dictum 'what will be will be'
  • (D) men are different from animals as far as their reasoning abilities are concerned

Question 6:

By 'Sanctimonious greens' the writer refers to

  • (A) Aristocratic environmentalists
  • (B) The rich
  • (C) Environmentalists with a 'holier than thou' attitude
  • (D) Those who decry deforestation

Question 7:

The elite are

  • (A) Jealous of Nano owners
  • (B) Afraid of traffic jams and depletion of fossil fuel
  • (C) Afraid of reaching their destinations late
  • (D) Full of disdain that the poor can afford cars

Question 8:

The paradox of the situation is that

  • (A) Bigger cars mean more fuel, more space and more pollution
  • (B) Though India has fewer cars the Nano will bring more pollution
  • (C) London and New York have more cars and less pollution
  • (D) Though India is smaller than the US its cars cause more pollution

Question 9:

In saying 23 square metres of parking space costs 40 lakhs, the writer is _____

  • (A) Caustic
  • (B) Exaggerating
  • (C) Sarcastic
  • (D) Ironical

Question 10:

The writer blames India for

  • (A) Subsidizing kerosene whereby greenhouse emissions are indirectly subsidized
  • (B) Subsidizing diesel
  • (C) For increasing the cost of parking by the hour
  • (D) For not making it mandatory for car owners to own parking space

Question 11:

The most suitable title for this passage is

  • (A) Polluting Politics
  • (B) No No Nano
  • (C) Submerge Subsidies
  • (D) More Cars, Less Pollution

Question 12:

The plural of Virus is

  • (A) Viruses
  • (B) Virae
  • (C) Virii
  • (D) Virus

Question 13:

If the following segments of a sentence are to be rearranged in logical order as A, B, C, D where would '3' be placed?
1) to see that students do not altogether forget to write especially during exam time
2) the education groups are now asking for hand writing classes
3) thanks to mobile testing and computer literacy
4) writing in long hand is becoming a vanishing art

  • (A) A
  • (B) B
  • (C) C
  • (D) D

Question 14:

If leaf is to leaves and knife is to knives, then belief is to _______

  • (A) beliefs
  • (B) believes
  • (C) belief
  • (D) believing

Question 15:

Choose the sentence where the underlined word "pedestrian" is used correctly.

  • (A) This latest novel is a pedestrian story about spies.
  • (B) The exam paper is not pedestrian but difficult.
  • (C) This is the pedestrian highway.
  • (D) Every week we are forced to listen to a pedestrian lecture.

Question 16:

When the fire alarm rang, _______ left the building immediately.

  • (A) all
  • (B) everyone
  • (C) all the people
  • (D) every person

Question 17:

In the following sentence choose the erroneous segment/s:
He is one of those people (A) / who thinks (B) / he owns the world (C)

  • (A) Error in segment A
  • (B) Error in segment B
  • (C) Error in segment A & C
  • (D) Error in segment B & C

Question 18:

Choose the correct meaning for the word: cynic

  • (A) the person who is selfish
  • (B) the person who is concerned about others
  • (C) the person who isn't misanthropic
  • (D) the person who believes that people always act from selfish motives

Question 19:

Choose the word with the correct spelling.

  • (A) catagories
  • (B) diarrhoea
  • (C) omission
  • (D) inaugurate

Question 20:

Pick out the right sentences.
1) I will go with you.
2) There was nobody I could go with.
3) I have a glass with painting on it.
4) The curtains do not match with the furniture.

  • (A) 1 & 2
  • (B) 2 & 3
  • (C) 1 & 4
  • (D) All

Question 21:

About the following pair of phrases, choose the correct option.
i. A two days' visit
ii. A two day's visit

  • (A) The first phrase is erroneous
  • (B) The second phrase is erroneous
  • (C) Both phrases are erroneous
  • (D) Both phrases are correct

Question 22:

Read the following passage and answer the question given below.

...Association. There was the thought that business forecasting might well be on its way from an art to a science, and some speakers talked about new-fangled computers and high-faulting mathematical systems in terms of excitement and endearment, which we, at least in our younger years when these things mattered, would have associated more readily with the description of a fair maiden.

But others pointed to a deplorable record of highly esteemed forecasts and forecasters with a batting average below that of the Mets and the President-elect of the Association cautioned that 'high-powered statistical methods are usually in order where the facts are crude and inadequate, statisticians assume.'

We left his birthday party somewhere between hope and despair and with the conviction, not really newly acquired, that proper statistical methods applied to ascertainable facts have their merits in economic forecasting as long as neither forecaster nor public is deluded into mistaking the delineation of probabilities and trends for a prediction of certainties of mathematical exactitude.

According to the passage, taxation in Roman times was based on

  • (A) mobility
  • (B) wealth
  • (C) population
  • (D) census takers

Question 23:

Read the same passage as previous question.

The author refers to the Mets primarily in order to

  • (A) show that sports do not depend on statistics
  • (B) contrast verifiable and unverifiable methods of record keeping
  • (C) indicate the changes in attitudes from Roman days to the present
  • (D) illustrate the failure of statistical predictions

Question 24:

Read the same passage as previous questions.

The author's tone can best be described as

  • (A) jocular
  • (B) scornful
  • (C) pessimistic
  • (D) humanistic

Question 25:

Disinterested is closest in meaning to

  • (A) bored
  • (B) unbiased
  • (C) not interested
  • (D) indifferent

Question 26:

Choose the option which is nearly opposite in meaning to BERATE

  • (A) grant
  • (B) praise
  • (C) refer
  • (D) purchase

Question 27:

Arrange the following in the right order to make a complete sentence:
i. with interconnected vibrating balls and springs
ii. in a naive sense, a field in physics may be envisioned as if space were filled
iii. as the displacement of a ball from its rest position
iv. and the strength of the field can be visualized

  • (A) ii, i, iv, iii
  • (B) i, ii, iii, iv
  • (C) iv, iii, ii, i
  • (D) iii, iv, i, ii

Question 28:

Select the odd man out from the given alternatives.

Find the odd one out

  • (A) latent
  • (B) natural
  • (C) inborn
  • (D) inherent

Question 29:

In the following sentence, part of the sentence is left blank. Beneath the sentence, different ways of completing the sentence are given. Choose the best alternative among them.

He told the teacher that ___________.

  • (A) he was liked by the whole class
  • (B) you are liked by the whole class
  • (C) he is liked by the whole class
  • (D) you were liked by the whole class

Question 30:

Match the several meanings of the word COMPLEX with their appropriate usages.

MeaningUsage
1) complicated5)A new sports complex is coming up for the Common Wealth Games.
2) abnormal state of mind6)Culture is a complex whole of many things.
3) group of structures7)She has a complex about being overweight.
4) mixture8)His motives in carrying out the crime were complex.

  • (A) 1-6, 2-8, 3-7, 4-5
  • (B) 1-8, 2-7, 3-5, 4-6
  • (C) 1-5, 2-7, 3-6, 4-8
  • (D) 1-8, 2-5, 3-6, 4-7

Question 31:

Which does not make a sensible word/phrase when added to the word:
Honey

  • (A) pot
  • (B) suckle
  • (C) Comb
  • (D) taste

Question 32:

Answer the question based on the passage given below.

In September of 1929, traders experienced a lack of confidence in the stock market's ability to continue its phenomenal rise. Prices fell. For many inexperienced investors, the drop produced a panic. They had all their money tied up in the market, and they were pressed to sell before the prices fell even lower. Sell orders were coming in so fast that the ticker tape at the New York Stock Exchange could not accommodate all the transactions.

To try to reestablish confidence in the market, a powerful group of New York bankers agreed to pool their funds and purchase stock above current market values. Although the buy orders were minimal, they were counting on their reputations to restore confidence on the part of the smaller investors, thereby affecting the number of sell orders. On Thursday, October 24, Richard Whitney, the Vice President of the New York Stock Exchange and a broker for the J.P. Morgan Company, made the effort on their behalf. Initially it appeared to have been successful, then, on the following Tuesday, the crash began again and accelerated. By 1932, stocks were worth only twenty percent of their value at the 1929 high. The results of the crash had extended into every aspect of the economy, causing a long and painful depression, referred to in American history as the Great Depression.

The New York bankers counted on -

  • (A) Current market values
  • (B) The number of sell orders
  • (C) Confidence
  • (D) Their reputation

Question 33:

Answer the question based on the same 1929 stock market passage as previous question.

The cause of downfall of share market was-

  • (A) Inexperienced investors
  • (B) Phenomenal decrease
  • (C) Lack of confidence in stock market's ability
  • (D) Panic amongst investors

Question 34:

Answer the question based on the same 1929 stock market passage.

Choose the word in the passage that is an antonym of 'minimal'

  • (A) Negligible
  • (B) Minimum
  • (C) Maximal
  • (D) Significant

Question 35:

Identify the correct sentence.

  • (A) The office is opposite to the bank.
  • (B) The office is opposite the bank.
  • (C) The office is opposite from the bank.
  • (D) The office is opposite of the bank.

Question 36:

A band passes around all the wheels so that they can all be turned by the driving wheel. When the driving wheel turns in the direction shown, which way will the wheel B turn?

  • (A) Clockwise
  • (B) Cannot move
  • (C) Anti-clockwise
  • (D) Either way

Question 37:

In a certain language, (A) 'Sun shines brightly' is written as 'ba lo sul'; (B) ' Houses are brightly lit' is written as 'kado udo ari ba'; and (C) 'Light comes from sun' as 'dapi kup lo nro'. What words will be written for 'sun' and 'brightly'?

  • (A) lo, ba
  • (B) ba, lo
  • (C) sul, lo
  • (D) ba, sul

Question 38:

Given are the following three equations:


How many circles are equivalent to a square, as per the ratios in the three given equations?

  • (A) 5 circles
  • (B) 6 circles
  • (C) 4 circles
  • (D) 2 circles

Question 39:

Each child in a family has at least 4 brothers and 3 sisters. What is the smallest number of children the family might have?

  • (A) 7
  • (B) 8
  • (C) 9
  • (D) 10

Question 40:

In the following question two statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assume the two statements are true even if they are at variance with commonly known facts. Then pick the correct answer from the choices given below.

Statements: Some doctors are fools. Joshi is a doctor.
Conclusions: I. Joshi is a fool.
II. Some fools are doctors.

  • (A) Only conclusion I follows
  • (B) Only conclusion II follows
  • (C) Both conclusions I & II follow
  • (D) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

Question 41:

Debu walks towards the east then towards North and turning 45 degrees right walks for a while and lastly turns towards left. In which direction is he walking now?

  • (A) North
  • (B) East
  • (C) South-East
  • (D) North-West

Question 42:

Answer the following questions based on the information given below.

I. There is a rectangular wooden block of length 4 cm, height 3 cm and breadth 3 cm.
II. The two opposite surfaces of 4 cm x 3 cm are painted yellow on the outside.
III. The other two opposite surfaces of 4 cm x 3 cm are painted red on the outside.
IV. The remaining two surfaces of 3 cm x 3 cm are painted green on the outside.
V. Now, the block is cut in such a way that cubes of 1 cm x 1 cm x 1 cm are created.

How many cubes will have only one colour?

  • (A) 10
  • (B) 12
  • (C) 14
  • (D) 18

Question 43:

Same wooden block as previous question (4x3x3 cm, painted yellow/red/green, cut into 1cm cubes).

How many cubes will have no colour?

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 8

Question 44:

Same wooden block as previous questions (4x3x3 cm, painted yellow/red/green, cut into 1cm cubes).

How many cubes will have any two colours?

  • (A) 34
  • (B) 24
  • (C) 16
  • (D) 12

Question 45:

Read the following about the grid given below and answer.

The cells in this grid contain the digits 1 to 9 in random order.
Column A contains no odd digits.
Cell C3 minus Cell C2 equals 4.
The sum of three digits in Row 1 is 17.
Number 7 is in Column B; its left hand neighbour is not 4.
The digits of Column C add up to 14.
2 is not in the same horizontal row as 8; and 9 is not immediately below 3.

ABC
1
2
3

Which cell holds the number 9?

  • (A) B1
  • (B) B3
  • (C) C2
  • (D) C1

Question 46:

Replace the question mark with the right option.
4, 32, 288, ?, 31680

  • (A) 25600
  • (B) 2880
  • (C) 7420
  • (D) 10000

Question 47:

In the Sunday bazzar, Jamuna sells her lemons at Rs. 0.50 for two. Her neighbour Seema has a little smaller lemons; she sells hers at Rs. 0.50 for three. After a while, when both ladies have the same number of lemons left, Seema is called away. She asks her neighbour to take care of her goods. To make things simple, Jamuna puts all lemons in one big pile, and starts selling five lemons per one rupee. When Seema returns, at the end of the day, all lemons have been sold. But when they start dividing the money, there appears to be a shortage of Rs. 3.50. Supposing they divide the money equally, how much does Jamuna lose with this deal?

  • (A) Rs. 10.50
  • (B) Rs. 11.50
  • (C) Rs. 42.00
  • (D) Rs. 52.50

Question 48:

There are two cups, one containing orange juice and one containing an equal amount of lemonade. One teaspoon of the orange juice is taken and mixed with the lemonade. Then a teaspoon of this mixture is mixed back into the orange juice. Is there more lemonade in the orange juice or more orange juice in the lemonade?

  • (A) More orange juice in the lemonade
  • (B) More lemonade in the orange juice
  • (C) Equal amount of each juice between the two cups
  • (D) None of the above

Question 49:

Consider the statement and decide which of the assumptions are implicit.

Statement: "In the present period of economic hardships, education and small family norm may lead the nation to progress and prosperity."

Assumptions:
A. Education and small family norms are directly related to the nation's progress.
B. Big families find it difficult to bear the cost of education.

  • (A) Only A is implicit.
  • (B) Only B is implicit.
  • (C) Both A and B are implicit.
  • (D) Neither A nor B is implicit.

Question 50:

Fill in the blanks to find two words that are synonyms.

  • (A) KS, ST
  • (B) MS, NT
  • (C) ST, DN
  • (D) MS, DN

Question 51:

Beautiful beaches attract people, no doubt about that. Just look at the city's most beautiful beaches, which are amongst the most overcrowded places in the state.

Which of the following exhibits a pattern of reasoning similar to the one exhibited in the argument above?

  • (A) Moose and bear usually appear at the same drinking hole at the same time of the day. Therefore, moose and bear must be feeling thirsty at about the same time.
  • (B) Children who are scolded severely tend to misbehave more often than other children. Hence if a child is not scolded severely, that child is less likely to misbehave.
  • (C) During warm weather my dog suffers more fleas than during cool weather. Therefore, fleas must thrive in a warm environment.
  • (D) Tally accounting software helps increase the work efficiency of its users. As a result, these users have more time for other activities.

Question 52:

Abdul, Mala and Chetan went bird watching. Each of them saw one bird that none of the others did. Each pair saw one bird that the third did not. And one bird was seen by all three. Of the birds Abdul saw, two were yellow. Of the birds Mala saw, three were yellow. Of the birds Chetan saw, four were yellow. How many yellow birds were seen in all? How many non-yellow birds were seen in all?

  • (A) 7 yellow birds and 3 non yellow birds
  • (B) 5 yellow birds and 2 non yellow birds
  • (C) 4 yellow birds and 2 non yellow birds
  • (D) 3 yellow birds and 2 non yellow birds

Question 53:

In each of the following two sets I & II, find the word or pair of words different from the other three words or pair of words:

Set I: J. Lake, K. Brook, L. Stream, M. River
Set II: J. Weighty-Heavy, K. Broad-Wide, L. Big-Large, M. Tiny-Small

  • (A) I-J, II-J
  • (B) I-K, II-M
  • (C) I-K, II-J
  • (D) I-J, II-K

Question 54:

A, B, C and D are standing on the four corners of a square field as shown in the figure. From the positions shown in the figure, A walks to North position and B walks to the East position while C decides to walk two sides in anticlockwise direction. B walks to North and then changes his mind to take the previous position. Identify the choice with correct positions.

  • (A) A & B occupy the same position.
  • (B) C & D occupy the same position.
  • (C) D & B are in their original positions.
  • (D) B & C are diagonally opposite positions.

Question 55:

A gambler bet on a horse race, but the bookie wouldn't tell him the results of the race. The bookie gave clues as to how the five horses finished, which may have included some ties, and wouldn't pay the gambler off unless the gambler could determine how the five horses finished based on the following clues:

1. Penn Fe finished before Night Marvel and after Wish Bones.
2. If Hallelujah is not tied with Sundae, then Wish Bones is tied with Penn Fe.
3. Penn Fe finished as many places after Sundae as Sundae finished after Wish Bones if and only if Wish Bones finished before Night Marvel.

The gambler thought for a moment, then answered correctly. How did the five horses finish the race?

  • (A) Sundae came in first. Wish Bones and Hallelujah tied for second place. Penn Fe came in fourth. Night Marvel came in fifth.
  • (B) Wish Bones came in first. Sundae and Penn Fe tied for second place. Hallelujah came in fourth. Night Marvel came in fifth.
  • (C) Wish Bones came in first. Sundae and Hallelujah tied for second place. Penn Fe came in fourth. Night Marvel came in fifth.
  • (D) Penn Fe came in first. Night Marvel and Hallelujah tied for second place. Wish Bones came in fourth. Sundae came in fifth.

Question 56:

In a school drill, a number of children are asked to stand in a circle. They are evenly spaced and the 6th child is diametrically opposite the 16th child. How many children are made to stand in the circle?

  • (A) 16
  • (B) 20
  • (C) 22
  • (D) None of the above

Question 57:

In this question insert the missing number at the sign of interrogation.

8495
5734
3458
394460?

  • (A) 62
  • (B) 72
  • (C) 60
  • (D) 70

Question 58:

Steel cylinders are made so that each one has a large and small hole through the middle. In the drawing six cylinders have been stacked on top of each other. To stop the cylinders from rolling on the smooth floor they are wedged by heavy blocks at each side of the bottom row. If the heavy blocks are removed, what would be the position of the cylinder when they stopped rolling?

Four possible resting positions are marked below the stack: A and B lie off to one side, C lies at the centre directly beneath the original stack, and D lies off to the other side.

A     B     C     D

  • (A) A
  • (B) B
  • (C) C
  • (D) D

Question 59:

Answer the following questions based on the information given below.

i. There is a group of 5 persons A, B, C, D and E.
ii. In the group there is one badminton player, one chess player and one tennis player.
iii. A and D are unmarried ladies and they do not play any games.
iv. No lady is a chess player or a badminton player.
v. There is a married couple in the group of which E is the husband.
vi. B is the brother of C and is neither a chess player nor a tennis player.

Which of the groups has only ladies?

  • (A) ABC
  • (B) BCD
  • (C) CDE
  • (D) None of the above

Question 60:

Same puzzle as previous question (A,B,C,D,E; badminton/chess/tennis players; A,D unmarried ladies who play no games; no lady plays chess/badminton; E is husband; B is brother of C, neither chess nor tennis player).

Who is the tennis player?

  • (A) B
  • (B) C
  • (C) D
  • (D) E

Question 61:

There are five persons A, B, C, D and E. One of them is a badminton player, one is a chess player and one is a tennis player. A and D are unmarried ladies who do not take part in any game. None of the ladies play chess or badminton. There is one married couple in the group, in which E is the husband. B is the brother of C and is neither a chess player nor a tennis player.

Who is the wife of E?

  • (A) A
  • (B) B
  • (C) D
  • (D) None of the above

Question 62:

Consider the following statements and answer the question.

M, N, O and P are all different individuals.
M is the daughter of N.
N is the son of O.
O is the father of P.

Which among the following statements is contradictory to the above premises?

  • (A) P is the father of M.
  • (B) O has three children.
  • (C) M has one brother.
  • (D) M is the granddaughter of O.

Question 63:

The drawing shows a cross section where the land meets the sea. The section covered is 5 kilometers. On a hot day, in which direction, indicated by the four arrows, is the wind most likely to blow?

  • (A) A
  • (B) B
  • (C) C
  • (D) D

Question 64:

In the diagram below, the circle stands for 'educated', square stands for 'hard working', triangle for 'urban people' and rectangle for 'honest'. The different regions of the diagram are numbered from 1 to 12. Study the diagram carefully and answer the question.



Uneducated urban hard-working and honest people are indicated by:

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 11
  • (C) 9
  • (D) 4

Question 65:

In the diagram below, the circle stands for 'educated', square stands for 'hard working', triangle for 'urban people' and rectangle for 'honest'. The different regions of the diagram are numbered from 1 to 12. Study the diagram carefully and answer the question.



Non-urban educated people who are neither hard-working nor honest are indicated by:

  • (A) 5
  • (B) 7
  • (C) 10
  • (D) 11

Question 66:

A. M. Turing award is considered as the Nobel Prize in the field of computers, given annually by Association for Computing Machinery co-sponsored by Intel and Google. Who was A. M. Turing in whose memory the award was instituted?

  • (A) First Chairman of Intel.
  • (B) A British Mathematician.
  • (C) The legendary Dean of Stanford who revolutionized the computer education in the US.
  • (D) An US cognitive scientist in the field of artificial Intelligence (AI) and co-founder of Massachusetts Institute of Technology's AI laboratory.

Question 67:

Find the most accurate description of 'Bt Cotton'.

  • (A) A variety of cotton that grows fast.
  • (B) A genetically modified crop of cotton whose DNA has been altered by introducing an extra gene.
  • (C) A variety of cotton that is immune to diseases.
  • (D) A genetically modified crop of cotton whose DNA has been designed in the lab.

Question 68:

Las Vegas, US-based tour operator AMX Company has filed a trademark patent for which of the following Tagline?

  • (A) "Gods Own Country"
  • (B) "Heaven on Earth"
  • (C) "Discover Incredible India"
  • (D) "Come Alive with India"

Question 69:

Which out of the following holds the highest number of shares of ICICI Bank?

  • (A) Banks Financial Institutes and Insurance
  • (B) FIIs
  • (C) General public
  • (D) Private Corporate Bodies

Question 70:

Indian Standard time is based on the longitude of 82.5 degrees passing through which of the following places?

  • (A) Mirzapur, U.P.
  • (B) Jabalpur, M.P.
  • (C) Nagpur, Maharashtra
  • (D) Jaipur, Rajasthan

Question 71:

The Black Box of an aircraft is an important part as all the conversations and data are recorded therein. Although it is named black box, but its color is not black. What is the color of the black box in a commercial airplane?

  • (A) Brown
  • (B) Yellow
  • (C) Red
  • (D) Orange

Question 72:

Find the person who plays the odd sport out of the following.

  • (A) Navaratilova
  • (B) Michael Phelps
  • (C) David Beckham
  • (D) Prakash Padukone

Question 73:

Sariska and Ranthambore are the reserves for which of the following animals?

  • (A) Lion
  • (B) Deer
  • (C) Tiger
  • (D) Bear

Question 74:

March, 2008 witnessed a turning point in the history of which of the following Himalayan Kingdoms when democracy was ushered in replacing monarchy?

  • (A) Bhutan
  • (B) Nepal
  • (C) Sikkim
  • (D) None of these

Question 75:

Neil Armstrong brought back a rock from the moon. On earth

  • (A) The mass of the rock will change
  • (B) The weight of the rock will change
  • (C) Mass and weight will change
  • (D) None of the above

Question 76:

Milk, Cheese and Eggs are the source of

  • (A) Vitamin C & A
  • (B) Vitamin A & D
  • (C) Vitamin C & D
  • (D) Vitamin B & C

Question 77:

In August 2008, India's longest runway for the passenger aircraft was commissioned in:

  • (A) Mumbai
  • (B) New Delhi
  • (C) Hyderabad
  • (D) Bangalore

Question 78:

The first ever public hearing in India, almost like a referendum, on the fate of SEZ was held during the month of September 2008 in / at ___

  • (A) Verna IT/ ITeS SEZ in Goa
  • (B) Haryana for Reliance Haryana SEZ
  • (C) Pen, Maharashtra
  • (D) POSCO India, Steel SEZ Phase II, Orissa

Question 79:

Al Ahram is

  • (A) A University in Damascus
  • (B) A Newspaper in Cairo
  • (C) A Mosque in Riyadh
  • (D) A Small mountain range in Jordan

Question 80:

India's largest and first multi-national pharmaceutical giant Ranbaxy is being bought over by ____.

  • (A) Matrix Pharma.
  • (B) GVK Bio-sciences.
  • (C) Merck.
  • (D) None of these.

Question 81:

Find the odd product out of the following:

  • (A) Pamper.
  • (B) Dove.
  • (C) Tide.
  • (D) Pantene.

Question 82:

In the internet sphere, 'Opera' is the name of a:

  • (A) Web conference site.
  • (B) Web advertising firm.
  • (C) Software for webinars.
  • (D) Web browser.

Question 83:

Which of the following pair is not correct?

  • (A) Shahid Parvez: Sitar.
  • (B) Rashid Khan: Vocal Music.
  • (C) Ayaan Ali Khan: Sarod.
  • (D) Romu Muzumdar: Guitar.

Question 84:

At what frequency SENSEX calculation is carried out?

  • (A) Every half an hour.
  • (B) Every hour.
  • (C) Real time.
  • (D) 6 times a day.

Question 85:

The second largest manufacturer of CD's, DVD's and other optical media in the world is:

  • (A) Sony.
  • (B) Intel.
  • (C) Philips.
  • (D) Moser Baer.

Question 86:

Which of the following is a legal right and not a fundamental right?

  • (A) Right to Liberty of thought and expression.
  • (B) Right against exploitation.
  • (C) Right to property.
  • (D) Right to practice religion.

Question 87:

The term Net Shot is associated with

  • (A) Badminton
  • (B) Tennis
  • (C) Table Tennis
  • (D) Volley Ball

Question 88:

What is Dry Ice?

  • (A) Solidified Carbon Dioxide
  • (B) Transparent plastic decoy which looks like ice
  • (C) Sulfur dioxide at -57 degree Celsius
  • (D) Chemically treated ice to make it dry

Question 89:

The rail-based mass rapid transit system in Mumbai has been awarded to a consortium of companies led by:

  • (A) Reliance Infrastructure
  • (B) Reliance Industries
  • (C) GMR Infrastructure
  • (D) Lanco Infrastructure

Question 90:

If bilirubin is high in a human body, which organ is most affected?

  • (A) Pancreas
  • (B) Liver
  • (C) Kidney
  • (D) Large Intestine

Question 91:

Who of the following is one of the most celebrated Photo Journalists in India?

  • (A) Gautam Rajadhyaksha
  • (B) Raghu Rai
  • (C) Anjii Reddy
  • (D) Sudhir Das

Question 92:

Inflation implies

  • (A) Rise in budget deficit
  • (B) Rise in general price index
  • (C) Rise in price of consumer goods
  • (D) Rise in money supply

Question 93:

The India-US Nuclear Deal is called 123 Agreement. What does 123 denote?

  • (A) The deal governed by the clause number 123 of International Atomic Energy Agency, in the context of peaceful use of atomic energy.
  • (B) This number denotes a cluster of clauses of Hyde Act of US Government
  • (C) This is the simple number related to chain reaction for creation of atomic energy.
  • (D) Section 123 of the US Atomic Energy Act.

Question 94:

In the United States of America, the President is elected

  • (A) By the electorate
  • (B) By the electoral college
  • (C) By the two national political parties
  • (D) By the U.S. congress

Question 95:

The term "Uruguay Round" is associated with an important world organization. Which one?

  • (A) UNDP
  • (B) GATT
  • (C) WTO
  • (D) World Bank

Question 96:

Siebel is a software firm that is now taken over by:

  • (A) IBM
  • (B) Accenture
  • (C) Gartner
  • (D) Oracle

Question 97:

First Indian motion picture insured by a General Insurance company is

  • (A) Hum Apke Hain Kaun
  • (B) Taal
  • (C) Dil Se
  • (D) Ashoka

Question 98:

India's first coalition government in New Delhi was formed under the leadership of:

  • (A) V. P. Singh
  • (B) P. V. Narasimha Rao
  • (C) Morarji Desai
  • (D) Atal Behari Vajpayee

Question 99:

WiMax stands for:

  • (A) Wireless internet for microwave access
  • (B) Wireless inter-operability for microwave access
  • (C) Worldwide internet for microwave access
  • (D) Worldwide inter-operability for microwave access

Question 100:

El Nino is

  • (A) A Sea storm
  • (B) A warm ocean current
  • (C) A tropical disturbance
  • (D) Another name of typhoon

Question 101:

A factory is to commission two production lines. Production line 1 is to use existing technology. Production line 2 is to use the latest innovation in technology and, while promising to achieve considerable advances in productivity, it will take longer to start and is likely to experience teething problems. The graph indicates the production record of each line, in units of production (in 000s), over 9 months.

Production line 1 climbs at a fairly steady pace across the months (its path runs up through the region near points E and F). Production line 2 starts later at point A, rises to point B, then stays flat from point B to point C for a stretch of months, before climbing again through point D and point E to join production line 1 near point F.

Refer to the graph to answer the following:
A. Can the duration of reported breakdown be established?
B. Can the loss of production be quantified?

  • (A) Both questions A and B can be answered
  • (B) Only A question can be answered
  • (C) Only B question can be answered
  • (D) Neither question can be answered

Question 102:

From a book, a number of consecutive pages are missing. The sum of the page numbers of these pages is 9808. Which pages are missing?

  • (A) The page 9808 is missing.
  • (B) The pages 291 up to 322 are missing.
  • (C) The pages 291 up to and including 322 are missing
  • (D) Either a or c

Question 103:

In the following series find the one number that is wrong:
2, 3, 13, 37, 86, 167, 288

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 13
  • (C) 37
  • (D) 86

Question 104:

Two sea trawlers left a sea port simultaneously in two mutually perpendicular directions. Half an hour later, the shortest distance between them was 17 km and another 15 minutes later, one sea trawler was 10.5 km farther from the original than the other. Find the speed of each sea trawler.

  • (A) 16 km/hr, 30 km/hr
  • (B) 18 km/hr, 24 km/hr
  • (C) 20 km/hr, 22 km/hr
  • (D) 18 km/hr, 36 km/hr

Question 105:

The image below indicates the number of residents at 5 hotels on 1 Feb and 1 July 1998. Which hotel had the greatest increase in the total number of adult residents on 1 July 1998 compared with 1 Feb of that year?

1-Jul-98

HotelFemale AdultsMale AdultsFemale Children
V417316
W18377
X479212
Y375919
Z8111226

1-Feb-98
HotelFemale AdultsMale AdultsFemale ChildrenMale Children
V3264811
W112832
X4784147
Y224256
Z631041823

  • (A) V
  • (B) W
  • (C) Y
  • (D) Z

Question 106:

This question consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II. Decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

What is the 57th number in a series of numbers?
I. Each number in the series is three more than the preceding number.
II. The tenth number in the series is 29.

  • (A) The data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while the data in Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
  • (B) The data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
  • (C) If the data either in Statement I or Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
  • (D) If the data in both Statements I and II together is necessary to answer the question.

Question 107:

The cost of levelling and turfing a square field at Rs. 160 per hectare is Rs. 2624.40. The cost of surrounding it with a railing costing 25 paise per metre is:

  • (A) Rs. 350
  • (B) Rs. 375
  • (C) Rs. 400
  • (D) Rs. 405

Question 108:

When the Sun ray's inclination increases from 30 degrees to 60 degrees, the length of the shadow of a tower decreases by 60 m. Find the height of the tower.

  • (A) 50.9 m
  • (B) 51.96 m
  • (C) 48.8 m
  • (D) None of these

Question 109:

A survey of movie goers from five cities A, B, C, D and E is summarized below. The first column gives the percentage of viewers in each city who watch less than one movie a week. The second column gives the total number of viewers who watch one or more movies per week.

CityColumn I: % watching <1 movie/wkColumn II: total viewers watching >=1 movie/wk
A602400
B203000
C852400
D552700
E758000
How many viewers in the city C watch less than one movie a week?

  • (A) 2040
  • (B) 13600
  • (C) 16000
  • (D) 3600

Question 110:

A survey of movie goers from five cities A, B, C, D and E (same table as previous question). Which city has the highest number of viewers who watch less than one movie a week?

  • (A) City E
  • (B) City D
  • (C) City B
  • (D) City C

Question 111:

A survey of movie goers from five cities A, B, C, D and E (same table as previous questions). A city with the second lowest number of movie watchers (viewers who watch less than one movie a week) is:

  • (A) City E
  • (B) City D
  • (C) City B
  • (D) City C

Question 112:

A survey of movie goers from five cities A, B, C, D and E (same table as previous questions). The total number of all movie goers in the five cities who watch less than one movie per week is:

  • (A) 50000
  • (B) 36000
  • (C) 18500
  • (D) 45250

Question 113:

The 288th term of the sequence a, b, b, c, c, c, d, d, d, d, ... is:

  • (A) u
  • (B) v
  • (C) w
  • (D) x

Question 114:

The inequality p^2+5 < 5p+14 can be satisfied if:

  • (A) p &le; 6, p > -1
  • (B) p=6, p=-2
  • (C) p &le; 6, p &le; 1
  • (D) p &ge; 6, p=1

Question 115:

Answer the question based on the following table, which shows the relative sweetness of different sugars (sucrose is taken as 1.00).

Relative Sweetness of Different Sugars
Lactose0.16Maltose0.32
Glucose0.74Sucrose1.00
Saccharin675.00
What is the ratio of glucose to lactose in a mixture as sweet as maltose?

  • (A) 8 : 21
  • (B) 1 : 3
  • (C) 3 : 2
  • (D) 16 : 9

Question 116:

A colourless cube is painted blue on all its faces and then cut parallel to a pair of its sides to form two rectangular solids of equal volume. What percentage of the surface area of each of the new solids is not painted blue?

  • (A) 25
  • (B) 16
  • (C) 20
  • (D) 18

Question 117:

There are 10 stations on a railway line. The number of different journey tickets that are required by the authorities is

  • (A) 10!
  • (B) 90
  • (C) 81
  • (D) 10

Question 118:

A and B throw one dice for a stake of Rs.11, which is to be won by the player who first throws a six. The game ends when the stake is won by A or B. If A has the first throw, what are their respective expectations?

  • (A) 5 and 6
  • (B) 6 and 5
  • (C) 11 and 0
  • (D) 10 and 1

Question 119:

Which investment gives a better return, assuming the face value of shares to be Rs. 10?
A. 5% stock at 75, subject to 30% income tax
B. 4% stock at 90, tax free

  • (A) B
  • (B) A
  • (C) Both A and B
  • (D) None of these

Question 120:

Four stacks containing equal number of chips are to be made from 11 orange, 9 white, 13 black and 7 yellow chips. If all of these chips are used and each stack contains at least one chip of each colour, what is the maximum number of white chips in any one stack?

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 5
  • (D) 6

Question 121:

A 14.4 kg gas cylinder runs for 104 hours when the smaller burner on the gas stove is fully opened while it runs for 80 hours when the larger burner on the gas stove is fully opened. Which of these values are closest to the percentage difference in the usage of gas per hour, of the smaller burner over the larger burner?

  • (A) 26.23%
  • (B) 30%
  • (C) 32.23%
  • (D) 23.07%

Question 122:

Study the question and the statements given below. Decide whether any information provided in the statement(s) is redundant and/or can be dispensed with, to answer it.
If 7 is added to numerator and denominator each of fraction a/b, will the new fraction be less than the original one?
Statement I: a = 73, b = 103
Statement II: The average of a and b is less than b
Statement III: a - 5 is greater than b - 5

  • (A) II and either I or III
  • (B) Only II or III
  • (C) Any two of them
  • (D) Any one of them

Question 123:

Coefficient of variation is useful to study

  • (A) Risk
  • (B) Disparity
  • (C) Consistency
  • (D) All of the above

Question 124:

A cyclist drove one kilometer, with the wind in his back, in three minutes, and drove the same way back, against the wind, in four minutes. If we assume that the cyclist always puts constant force on the pedals, how much time would it take him to drive one kilometer without wind?

  • (A) 3 3/7 minutes
  • (B) The data given is not sufficient to find the answer
  • (C) 3.5 minutes
  • (D) None of these

Question 125:

A, B and C started a business by investing 1/2, 1/3rd and 1/6th of the capital respectively. After 1/3rd of the total time, A withdrew his capital completely and after 1/4th of the total time B withdrew his capital. C kept his capital for the full period. The ratio in which total profit is to be divided amongst the partners is

  • (A) 1 : 2 : 1
  • (B) 4 : 1 : 4
  • (C) 2 : 1 : 2
  • (D) 1 : 2 : 2

Question 126:

A number lock consists of 3 rings each marked with 10 different numbers. In how many cases the lock cannot be opened?

  • (A) 3^10
  • (B) 10^3
  • (C) 30
  • (D) 999

Question 127:

A person buys 18 local tickets for Rs. 110. Each first class ticket costs Rs. 10 and each second class ticket costs Rs. 3. What will another lot of 18 tickets, in which the number of first class and second class tickets are interchanged, cost?

  • (A) Rs. 112
  • (B) Rs. 118
  • (C) Rs. 121
  • (D) Rs. 124

Question 128:

A clock loses 12 minutes every 24 hours. It is set right at 7:25 p.m. on Monday. What will be the time when the clock shows 1:45 p.m. the following day?

  • (A) 1:20:35 p.m.
  • (B) 1:35:50 p.m.
  • (C) 1:25:35 p.m.
  • (D) None of these

Question 129:

In a row at a bus stop, A is 7th from the left and B is 9th from the right. They both interchange their positions. A becomes 11th from the left. How many people are there in the row?

  • (A) 18
  • (B) 19
  • (C) 20
  • (D) 21

Question 130:

A merchant wants to make profit by selling food grains. Which of the following will maximize his profit?
I. Sell product at 30% profit
II. Increase the price by 15% over the cost price and reduce weight by 15%
III. Use 700 gm of weight instead of 1 kg
IV. Mix 30% impurities in grains and sell it at cost price

  • (A) III
  • (B) II and I
  • (C) II
  • (D) All give the same profit

Question 131:

The bar graph below shows the failure rates, number of failures per thousand units, of different electronic components.

ComponentFailure Rate
Picture Tubes15
Signal Devices16
Capacitors20
Integrated Circuits30
Printed Circuit Boards33
Hybrid Micro Circuits40
From the failure data of electronic components presented here, which statement is true?

  • (A) Integrated circuits and Printed circuit boards are more reliable.
  • (B) Capacitors are more reliable than picture tubes.
  • (C) Higher number of component failures is likely to be due to picture tubes.
  • (D) The least reliable component is Hybrid Micro circuits.

Question 132:

The bar graph below shows the failure rates, number of failures per thousand units, of different electronic components.

ComponentFailure Rate
Picture Tubes15
Signal Devices16
Capacitors20
Integrated Circuits30
Printed Circuit Boards33
Hybrid Micro Circuits40
Which of the following components has a failure rate 25% more than that of signal devices?

  • (A) Pictures tubes
  • (B) Capacitors
  • (C) Integrated circuits
  • (D) Printed Circuits boards

Question 133:

The bar graph below shows the failure rates, number of failures per thousand units, of different electronic components.

ComponentFailure Rate
Picture Tubes15
Signal Devices16
Capacitors20
Integrated Circuits30
Printed Circuit Boards33
Hybrid Micro Circuits40
Lowest priority for investing in any changes or additions to the component manufacturing units, in the company's investment plans, may be given to the following:

  • (A) Printed circuits boards and hybrid micro circuits
  • (B) Capacitors and integrated circuits
  • (C) Pictures tubes and signal devices
  • (D) Signal devices and capacitors

Question 134:

The bar graph below shows the failure rates, number of failures per thousand units, of different electronic components.

ComponentFailure Rate
Picture Tubes15
Signal Devices16
Capacitors20
Integrated Circuits30
Printed Circuit Boards33
Hybrid Micro Circuits40
For the equipments using Integrated Circuit Board: 400, Capacitors: 240 and Printed Circuits boards: 120 to run with minimum downtime, how many spares should be kept in the store respectively?

  • (A) 12, 4, 3
  • (B) 12, 5, 4
  • (C) 5, 12, 4
  • (D) 12, 4, 4

Question 135:

The water from a roof, 9 sq. metres in area, flows down to a cylindrical container of 900 cm² base. To what height will the water rise in cylinder if there is a rainfall of 0.1 mm?

  • (A) 0.1 cm
  • (B) 0.1 metre
  • (C) 0.11 cm
  • (D) 1 cm

SNAP 2008 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme Explained

SNAP 2008 was a pen-and-paper test with four sections in a single 120-minute sitting, held on Sunday, December 21, 2008, and every wrong answer cost you a quarter mark.

  • Total questions: 135 objective questions across four sections
  • General English: 35 questions, 40 marks (30 questions worth 1 mark each, 5 questions worth 2 marks each)
  • Quantitative Ability, Data Interpretation & Data Sufficiency: 35 questions, 40 marks (30 questions worth 1 mark each, 5 questions worth 2 marks each)
  • General Awareness: 35 questions, 40 marks (30 questions worth 1 mark each, 5 questions worth 2 marks each)
  • Analytical & Logical Reasoning: 30 questions, 60 marks (2 marks each)
  • Duration: 120 minutes for the full paper
  • Marking scheme: each question had four choices, and a wrong answer lost 25% of that question's maximum marks

High-Weightage Sections in SNAP 2008 to Focus On First

Analytical & Logical Reasoning carried the most marks despite having the fewest questions, since each of its 30 questions was worth 2 marks instead of 1.

  • Analytical & Logical Reasoning (30 questions, 60 marks): the highest-scoring section per question, covering puzzles, coding-decoding, syllogisms and diagram-based reasoning sets
  • General English (35 questions, 40 marks): reading comprehension, verbal ability, grammar, idioms and vocabulary questions
  • General Awareness (35 questions, 40 marks): static GK, current affairs and business awareness current as of late 2008
  • Quantitative Ability, DI & DS (35 questions, 40 marks): arithmetic, algebra, mensuration, data interpretation and data sufficiency questions

SNAP 2008 Question Paper Analysis Video

Source: Mathological

How to Use the SNAP 2008 Question Paper for Practice

Solve the full paper as one timed 120-minute sitting first, then go through the solutions section by section.

  • Attempt all 135 questions across General English, Analytical & Logical Reasoning, General Awareness and Quantitative Ability in one sitting before checking any answer
  • Review every question against the solutions PDF and note down where you went wrong
  • Practice the Analytical & Logical Reasoning section on its own first, since it carries the highest per-question weight
  • Treat the General Awareness questions as a snapshot of late-2008 current affairs rather than a source of exam-day facts, since GK content dates quickly
  • Time yourself section-wise to build the speed needed for a 120-minute, 135-question paper

SNAP 2008 Question Paper with Solutions FAQs

Ques. How many questions were there in SNAP 2008?

Ans. SNAP 2008 had 135 objective questions across four sections - 35 in General English, 30 in Analytical & Logical Reasoning, 35 in General Awareness, and 35 in Quantitative Ability, DI & DS.

Ques. Which section had the highest marks in SNAP 2008?

Ans. Analytical & Logical Reasoning carried the most marks at 60, even though it had only 30 questions, since each question in that section was worth 2 marks instead of 1.

Ques. Was there negative marking in SNAP 2008?

Ans. Yes. Every wrong answer in SNAP 2008 cost 25% of that question's maximum marks, so guessing without eliminating options was risky.

Ques. What was the duration of the SNAP 2008 exam?

Ans. SNAP 2008 was a 120-minute, pen-and-paper test held on Sunday, December 21, 2008, covering all 135 questions in one sitting.

Ques. Who conducts the SNAP exam?

Ans. SNAP is conducted by Symbiosis International (Deemed University), Pune, for admission to its affiliated MBA and PGDM institutes.

Ques. Where can I download the SNAP 2008 question paper with solutions PDF for free?

Ans. Use the download table above on Collegedunia to get the SNAP 2008 question paper and its full solutions PDF. More details on the exam are available on the official site (snaptest.org).