BITSAT 2011 Question Paper PDF is available for download. BITSAT 2011 was conducted in online CBT mode by BITS Pilani. BITSAT 2011 Question Paper had 150 questions to be attempted in 3 hours.

BITSAT 2011 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

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Question 1:

A passenger in an open car travelling at \(30\ m/s\) throws a ball out over the bonnet. Relative to the car, the initial velocity of the ball is \(20\ m/s\) at \(60^\circ\) to the horizontal. The angle of projection of the ball with respect to the horizontal road will be:

  • (1) \( \tan^{-1}\!\left(\frac{2}{3}\right) \)
  • (2) \( \tan^{-1}\!\left(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{4}\right) \)
  • (3) \( \tan^{-1}\!\left(\frac{4}{\sqrt{3}}\right) \)
  • (4) \( \tan^{-1}\!\left(\frac{3}{4}\right) \)

Question 2:

A particle is moving in a straight line with initial velocity and uniform acceleration. If the sum of the distance travelled in \(t^{th}\) and \((t+1)^{th}\) seconds is \(100\ cm\), then its velocity after \(t\) seconds, in cm/s, is:

  • (1) \(80\)
  • (2) \(50\)
  • (3) \(20\)
  • (4) \(30\)

Question 3:

The two vectors \(\vec{A}\) and \(\vec{B}\) are drawn from a common point and \(\vec{C} = \vec{A} + \vec{B}\). The angle between \(\vec{A}\) and \(\vec{B}\) is:

  • (1) \(90^\circ\) if \(C^2 = A^2 + B^2\)
  • (2) greater than \(90^\circ\) if \(C^2 < A^2 + B^2\)
  • (3) greater than \(90^\circ\) if \(C^2 > A^2 + B^2\)
  • (4) less than \(90^\circ\) if \(C^2 > A^2 + B^2\)
Correct options are —
  • (a) 1, 2
  • (b) 1, 2, 3, 4
  • (c) 2, 3, 4
  • (d) 1, 2, 4

Question 4:

If \( T = 2\pi \sqrt{\dfrac{ML^3}{3Yq}} \), then find the dimensions of \(q\). Where \(T\) is the time period of a bar of mass \(M\), length \(L\), and Young’s modulus \(Y\).

  • (1) \([L]\)
  • (2) \([L^2]\)
  • (3) \([L^4]\)
  • (4) \([L^3]\)

Question 5:

An object experiences a net force and accelerates from rest to its final position in \(16\ s\). How long would the object take to reach the same final position from rest if the object’s mass was four times larger?

  • (1) \(64\ s\)
  • (2) \(32\ s\)
  • (3) \(16\ s\)
  • (4) \(8\ s\)

Question 6:

Three blocks of masses \(m_1, m_2,\) and \(m_3\) are connected by massless strings on a frictionless table and pulled by a force \(T_3 = 40\ N\). If \(m_1 = 10\ kg\), \(m_2 = 6\ kg\), and \(m_3 = 4\ kg\), the tension \(T_2\) will be:


  • (1) \(20\ N\)
  • (2) \(40\ N\)
  • (3) \(10\ N\)
  • (4) \(32\ N\)

Question 7:

A massless platform is kept on a light elastic spring. When a sand particle of mass \(0.1\ kg\) is dropped from a height of \(0.24\ m\), the spring compresses by \(0.01\ m\). From what height should the particle be dropped to cause a compression of \(0.04\ m\)?

  • (1) \(3.96\ m\)
  • (2) \(0.396\ m\)
  • (3) \(4\ m\)
  • (4) \(0.4\ m\)

Question 8:

A constant torque of 31.4 N-m is exerted on a pivoted wheel. If angular acceleration of wheel is \(4\ rad s^{-2}\), then the moment of inertia of the wheel is:

  • (1) 2.5 kg m\(^2\)
  • (2) 3.5 kg m\(^2\)
  • (3) 4.5 kg m\(^2\)
  • (4) 5.5 kg m\(^2\)

Question 9:

A man of mass \(m\) starts falling towards a planet of mass \(M\) and radius \(R\). Inside the planet, which consists of a spherical shell of mass \(2M/3\) and a point mass \(M/3\) at centre, the change in gravitational force experienced by the man is:

  • (1) \(\dfrac{2GMm}{3R^2}\)
  • (2) 0
  • (3) \(\dfrac{GMm}{3R^2}\)
  • (4) \(\dfrac{4GMm}{3R^2}\)

Question 10:

A geo-stationary satellite is one which:

  • (1) remains stationary at a fixed height from Earth’s surface
  • (2) revolves like other satellites but in opposite direction of Earth’s rotation
  • (3) revolves round Earth at a suitable height with same angular velocity and same direction as Earth
  • (4) None of these

Question 11:

Two wires of same material and same volume have cross-sectional areas \(A\) and \(2A\). If the first wire is elongated by \(\Delta x\) under force \(F\), the force required to stretch the second wire by the same amount is:

  • (1) \(4F\)
  • (2) \(6F\)
  • (3) \(9F\)
  • (4) \(F\)

Question 12:

An iron rod of length 2 m and cross-sectional area 50 mm\(^2\) is stretched by 0.5 mm by hanging a mass of 250 kg. The Young’s modulus of iron is:

  • (1) \(19.6\times10^{10}\) N/m\(^2\)
  • (2) \(19.6\times10^{18}\) N/m\(^2\)
  • (3) \(19.6\times10^{11}\) N/m\(^2\)
  • (4) \(19.6\times10^{15}\) N/m\(^2\)

Question 13:

Viscosity is the property of a liquid due to which it:

  • (1) occupies minimum surface area
  • (2) opposes relative motion between adjacent layers
  • (3) becomes spherical in shape
  • (4) tends to regain its deformed position

Question 14:

The radiation emitted by a perfectly black body is proportional to:

  • (1) temperature
  • (2) fourth root of temperature
  • (3) fourth power of temperature
  • (4) square of temperature

Question 15:

A copper sphere cools from 62°C to 50°C in 10 minutes and to 42°C in next 10 minutes. Calculate the temperature of surroundings.

  • (1) 18.01°C
  • (2) 26°C
  • (3) 10.6°C
  • (4) 20°C

Question 16:

An air bubble of volume \(v_0\) is released by a fish at depth \(h\) in a lake. The volume of bubble just before reaching the surface will be:

  • (1) \(v_0\)
  • (2) \(v_0\frac{\rho gh}{p}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{v_0}{1+\rho gh/p}\)
  • (4) \(v_0\left(1+\frac{\rho gh}{p}\right)\)

Question 17:

The molecules of a gas have rms velocity 200 m/s at 27°C. Find rms velocity at 127°C if pressure is constant.

  • (1) \(\frac{400}{\sqrt3}\)
  • (2) \(100\sqrt2\)
  • (3) \(\frac{100\sqrt2}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{100}{3}\)

Question 18:

Which of the following expressions corresponds to simple harmonic motion along a straight line, where \(x\) is displacement and \(a,b,c\) are positive constants?

  • (1) \(a+bx-cx^2\)
  • (2) \(bx^2\)
  • (3) \(a-bx+cx^2\)
  • (4) \(-bx\)

Question 19:

A mass \(m\) is suspended from a spring of force constant \(k\) and another identical spring is fixed to the floor as shown. The time period of small oscillations is:

  • (1) \(2\pi\sqrt{\frac{m}{k}}\)
  • (2) \(\pi\sqrt{\frac{m}{k}}+\pi\sqrt{\frac{m}{2k}}\)
  • (3) \(\pi\sqrt{\frac{m}{3k/2}}\)
  • (4) \(\pi\sqrt{\frac{m}{k}}+\pi\sqrt{\frac{m}{2k}}\)

Question 20:

The fundamental frequency of an open organ pipe is 300 Hz. The first overtone of this pipe has the same frequency as the first overtone of a closed organ pipe. If the speed of sound is 330 m/s, then the length of the closed organ pipe is:

  • (1) 41 cm
  • (2) 37 cm
  • (3) 31 cm
  • (4) 80 cm

Question 21:

In a uniformly charged sphere of total charge \(Q\) and radius \(R\), the electric field \(E\) is plotted as a function of distance \(r\) from the centre. Which graph correctly represents this variation?


Question 22:

A charge \(Q_1\) exerts some force on a second charge \(Q_2\). If a third charge \(Q_3\) is brought near, then the force exerted on \(Q_2\) will:

  • (1) increase
  • (2) decrease
  • (3) remain unchanged
  • (4) increase if \(Q_3\) has same sign as \(Q_1\)

Question 23:

A hollow metal sphere of radius 5 cm is charged such that the potential at its surface is 10 V. The potential at a distance of 2 cm from the centre of the sphere is:

  • (1) zero
  • (2) 10 V
  • (3) 4 V
  • (4) \( \frac{10}{3} \) V

Question 24:

If the potential of a capacitor of capacity 6 μF is increased from 10 V to 20 V, the increase in its energy will be:

  • (1) \(4 \times 10^{-4}\) J
  • (2) \(4 \times 10^{-6}\) J
  • (3) \(9 \times 10^{-4}\) J
  • (4) \(12 \times 10^{-6}\) J

Question 25:

Calculate the effective resistance between points A and B in the given electrical network.

  • (1) 5 \(\Omega\)
  • (2) 10 \(\Omega\)
  • (3) 20 \(\Omega\)
  • (4) 30 \(\Omega\)

Question 26:

A steady current is set up in a cubic network composed of wires of equal resistance and length as shown. What is the magnetic field at the centre \(P\) due to the cubic network?

  • (1) \( \dfrac{\mu_0 2I}{4\pi d} \)
  • (2) \( \dfrac{\mu_0 2I}{4\pi \sqrt{2}d} \)
  • (3) 0
  • (4) \( \dfrac{\mu_0 6\pi I}{4\pi d} \)

Question 27:

If \( \vec{M} \) is the magnetic moment and \( \vec{B} \) is the magnetic field, the torque acting on the magnetic dipole is given by:

  • (1) \( \vec{M} \cdot \vec{B} \)
  • (2) \( \dfrac{|\vec{M}|}{|\vec{B}|} \)
  • (3) \( \vec{M} \times \vec{B} \)
  • (4) \( |\vec{M}||\vec{B}| \)

Question 28:

A metal rod of length 1 m is rotated about one of its ends in a plane perpendicular to a magnetic field of induction \(2.5 \times 10^{-3}\,Wb/m^2\). If it makes 1800 revolutions per minute, calculate the emf induced between its ends.

  • (1) 2.471 V
  • (2) 3.171 V
  • (3) 0.471 V
  • (4) 1.771 V

Question 29:

Which one of the following curves represents the variation of impedance \(Z\) with frequency \(f\) in a series LCR circuit?


Question 30:

An electromagnetic wave passes through space and its equation is given by \(E = E_0 \sin(\omega t - kx)\). The energy density of the electromagnetic wave in space is:

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{2}\varepsilon_0 E_0^2 \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{4}\varepsilon_0 E_0^2 \)
  • (3) \( \varepsilon_0 E_0^2 \)
  • (4) \( 2\varepsilon_0 E_0^2 \)

Question 31:

A thin convergent glass lens (\(\mu_g = 1.5\)) has a power of +5.0 D. When this lens is immersed in a liquid of refractive index \(\mu\), it acts as a divergent lens of focal length 100 cm. The value of \(\mu\) must be:

  • (1) \( \frac{4}{3} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{5}{3} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{5}{4} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{6}{5} \)

Question 32:

A vessel of depth \(d\) is half-filled with a liquid of refractive index \(\mu_1\) and the upper half with a liquid of refractive index \(\mu_2\). The apparent depth of the vessel seen perpendicularly is:

  • (1) \( d\frac{\mu_1\mu_2}{\mu_1+\mu_2} \)
  • (2) \( d\left(\frac{1}{\mu_1}+\frac{1}{\mu_2}\right) \)
  • (3) \( 2d\left(\frac{1}{\mu_1}+\frac{1}{\mu_2}\right) \)
  • (4) \( 2d\left(\frac{1}{\mu_1\mu_2}\right) \)

Question 33:

If the distance between first maxima and fifth minima of a double slit pattern is 7 mm and the slits are separated by 0.15 mm with the screen 50 cm away, the wavelength of light used is:

  • (1) 200 nm
  • (2) 100 nm
  • (3) 800 nm
  • (4) 600 nm

Question 34:

If the energy of a photon is 10 eV, its momentum is:

  • (1) \(5.33 \times 10^{-23}\) kg m/s
  • (2) \(5.33 \times 10^{-25}\) kg m/s
  • (3) \(5.33 \times 10^{-29}\) kg m/s
  • (4) \(5.33 \times 10^{-27}\) kg m/s

Question 35:

The energies of energy levels A, B and C are \(E_A < E_B < E_C\). If the radiations of wavelengths \(\lambda_1, \lambda_2, \lambda_3\) are emitted due to transitions C to B, B to A and C to A respectively, then which relation is correct?

  • (1) \(\lambda_1 + \lambda_2 = \lambda_3\)
  • (2) \(\lambda_3 = \lambda_1 + \lambda_2\)
  • (3) \(\lambda_3 = \frac{\lambda_1\lambda_2}{\lambda_1+\lambda_2}\)
  • (4) \(\lambda_3^{-1} = \lambda_1^{-1} + \lambda_2^{-1}\)

Question 36:

Which one is correct about fission?

  • (1) Approximately 0.1% mass converts into energy
  • (2) Most energy of fission is in heat form
  • (3) 200 eV energy is released in U-235 fission
  • (4) One neutron is released per fission

Question 37:

The output of an OR gate is connected to both inputs of a NAND gate. The combination serves as:

  • (1) NOT gate
  • (2) NOR gate
  • (3) AND gate
  • (4) OR gate

Question 38:

In a semiconductor diode, the barrier potential offers opposition to:

  • (1) holes in P-region only
  • (2) free electrons in N-region only
  • (3) majority carriers in both regions
  • (4) minority carriers in both regions

Question 39:

An electron in a hydrogen-like atom is in an excited state. It has total energy of \(-3.4\) eV. The kinetic energy and de-Broglie wavelength respectively are:

  • (1) 3.4 eV, 0.66 nm
  • (2) -3.4 eV, 1.99 nm
  • (3) 2.8 eV, 2.38 nm
  • (4) 1.1 eV, 1.28 nm

Question 40:

Light of wavelength 180 nm ejects photoelectrons from a metal plate of work function 2 eV. If a magnetic field of \(5 \times 10^{-3}\) T is applied parallel to the plate, the radius of the path followed by electrons ejected normally with maximum energy is:

  • (1) 1.239 m
  • (2) 0.149 m
  • (3) 3.182 m
  • (4) 2.33 m

Question 41:

The product of atomic weight and specific heat of an element is a constant, approximately 6.4. This law is known as:

  • (1) Dalton’s law
  • (2) Newton’s law
  • (3) Dulong Petit law
  • (4) Avogadro’s law

Question 42:

1.520 g of hydroxide of a metal on ignition gave 0.995 g of oxide. The equivalent weight of the metal is:

  • (1) 1.52
  • (2) 0.995
  • (3) 190
  • (4) 9

Question 43:

The correct order of radii is:

  • (1) N < Be < B
  • (2) F < O2− < N3−
  • (3) Na < Li < K
  • (4) Fe3+ < Fe2+ < Fe4+

Question 44:

Beryllium and aluminium exhibit similar properties, but the two elements differ in:

  • (1) forming covalent halides
  • (2) forming polymeric hydrides
  • (3) exhibiting maximum covalency in compounds
  • (4) exhibiting amphoteric nature in their oxides

Question 45:

Among Al\(_2\)O\(_3\), SiO\(_2\), P\(_2\)O\(_3\) and SO\(_2\) the correct order of acidic strength is:

  • (1) Al\(_2\)O\(_3\) < SiO\(_2\) < SO\(_2\) < P\(_2\)O\(_3\)
  • (2) SiO\(_2\) < SO\(_2\) < Al\(_2\)O\(_3\) < P\(_2\)O\(_3\)
  • (3) SO\(_2\) < P\(_2\)O\(_3\) < SiO\(_2\) < Al\(_2\)O\(_3\)
  • (4) Al\(_2\)O\(_3\) < SiO\(_2\) < P\(_2\)O\(_3\) < SO\(_2\)

Question 46:

A bonded molecule MX\(_5\) is T-shaped. The number of non-bonded pair of electrons is:

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 1
  • (4) cannot be predicted

Question 47:

The correct bond order in the following species is:

  • (1) O\(_2^{2-}\) < O\(_2\) < O\(_2^+\)
  • (2) O\(_2^+\) < O\(_2\) < O\(_2^{2-}\)
  • (3) O\(_2^{2-}\) < O\(_2^+\) < O\(_2\)
  • (4) O\(_2^+\) < O\(_2^{2-}\) < O\(_2\)

Question 48:

What is the free energy change, \(\Delta G\), when 1.0 mole of water at 100\(^\circ\)C and 1 atm pressure is converted into steam at 100\(^\circ\)C and 1 atm pressure?

  • (1) 540 cal
  • (2) –9800 cal
  • (3) 9800 cal
  • (4) 0 cal

Question 49:

H\(_2\)S gas when passed through a solution containing HCl precipitates cations of second group of qualitative analysis but not those of fourth group. It is because:

  • (1) presence of HCl decreases sulphide ion concentration
  • (2) solubility product of group II sulphides is more than that of group IV
  • (3) presence of HCl increases sulphide ion concentration
  • (4) sulphides of group IV cations are unstable

Question 50:

The pH of a solution is increased from 3 to 6; its H\(^+\) ion concentration will be:

  • (1) reduced to half
  • (2) doubled
  • (3) reduced by 1000 times
  • (4) increased by 1000 times

Question 51:

A gas X at 1 atm is bubbled through a solution containing a mixture of 1 M Y\(^-\) and 1 M Z\(^+\) at 25\(^\circ\)C. If reduction potential is Z > Y > X, then:

  • (1) Y will oxidise X and not Z
  • (2) Y will oxidise Z and not X
  • (3) Y will oxidise both X and Z
  • (4) Y will reduce both X and Z

Question 52:

When a crystal of caustic soda is exposed to air, a liquid layer is deposited because:

  • (1) crystal loses water
  • (2) crystal absorbs moisture and CO\(_2\)
  • (3) crystal melts
  • (4) crystal sublimes

Question 53:

Which of the following compound is not chiral?

  • (1) CH\(_2\)CH\(_2\)CH\(_2\)Cl
  • (2) CH\(_3\)CHDCH\(_2\)Cl
  • (3) CH\(_3\)CHClCH\(_2\)D
  • (4) CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)CHDCl

Question 54:

C\(_6\)H\(_5\)C≡N and C\(_6\)H\(_5\)N≡C exhibit which type of isomerism?

  • (1) Position
  • (2) Functional
  • (3) Metamerism
  • (4) Position isomerism

Question 55:

The correct nucleophilicity order is:

  • (1) CH\(_3^-\) < NH\(_2^-\) < HO\(^-\) < F\(^-\)
  • (2) CH\(_3^-\) < NH\(_2^-\) > HO\(^-\) > F\(^-\)
  • (3) CH\(_3^-\) > NH\(_2^-\) > HO\(^-\) > F\(^-\)
  • (4) NH\(_2^-\) > F\(^-\) > HO\(^-\) > CH\(_3^-\)

Question 56:

In the anion HCOO\(^-\), the two carbon-oxygen bonds are found to be of equal length. What is the reason for it?

  • (1) C=O bond is weaker than C–O bond
  • (2) the anion has two resonating structures
  • (3) the anion is obtained by removal of proton
  • (4) carbon orbitals are hybridised

Question 57:

What will be the product in the following reaction?


Question 58:

The fraction of total volume occupied by the atoms present in a simple cube is:

  • (1) \( \dfrac{\pi}{3\sqrt{2}} \)
  • (2) \( \dfrac{\pi}{4\sqrt{2}} \)
  • (3) \( \dfrac{\pi}{4} \)
  • (4) \( \dfrac{\pi}{6} \)

Question 59:

1.00 g of a non-electrolyte solute (molar mass 250 g mol\(^{-1}\)) was dissolved in 51.2 g of benzene. If the freezing point depression constant \(K_f\) of benzene is 5.12 K kg mol\(^{-1}\), the freezing point of benzene will be lowered by:

  • (1) 0.3 K
  • (2) 0.5 K
  • (3) 0.4 K
  • (4) 0.2 K

Question 60:

The number of coulombs required for the deposition of 108 g of silver is:

  • (1) 96500
  • (2) 48250
  • (3) 193000
  • (4) 100000

Question 61:

During the kinetic study of the reaction \(2A + B \rightarrow C + D\), the following results were obtained. Based on the data, which rate law is correct?

  • (1) rate = \(k[A]^2[B]\)
  • (2) rate = \(k[A][B]^2\)
  • (3) rate = \(k[A]^2[B]^2\)
  • (4) rate = \(k[A][B]\)

Question 62:

Position of non-polar and polar part in micelle is:

  • (1) polar at outer surface and non-polar at inner surface
  • (2) polar at inner surface and non-polar at outer surface
  • (3) distributed all over the surface
  • (4) present on the surface only

Question 63:

For adsorption of a gas on a solid, the plot of \(\log x/m\) vs \(\log P\) is linear with slope equal to (n being whole number):

  • (1) \(k\)
  • (2) \(\log k\)
  • (3) \(n\)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{n} \)

Question 64:

Calcination is used in metallurgy for removal of:

  • (1) water and sulphide
  • (2) water and CO\(_2\)
  • (3) CO\(_2\) and H\(_2\)S
  • (4) H\(_2\)O and H\(_2\)S

Question 65:

Phosphine is not obtained by the reaction:

  • (1) White P is heated with NaOH
  • (2) Red P is heated with NaOH
  • (3) Ca\(_3\)P\(_2\) reacts with water
  • (4) Phosphorus trioxide is boiled with water

Question 66:

Which of the following halides is not oxidized by MnO\(_2\)?

  • (1) F\(^-\)
  • (2) Cl\(^-\)
  • (3) Br\(^-\)
  • (4) I\(^-\)

Question 67:

Which of the following exhibits only +3 oxidation state?

  • (1) U
  • (2) Th
  • (3) Ac
  • (4) Pa

Question 68:

Which of the following pairs has the same size?

  • (1) Fe\(^{2+}\), Ni\(^{2+}\)
  • (2) Zr\(^{4+}\), Ti\(^{4+}\)
  • (3) Zr\(^{4+}\), Hf\(^{4+}\)
  • (4) Zn\(^{2+}\), Hf\(^{4+}\)

Question 69:

Which of the following is not considered as an organometallic compound?

  • (1) cis-platin
  • (2) Ferrocene
  • (3) Zeise’s salt
  • (4) Grignard reagent

Question 70:

The most stable ion is:

  • (1) [Fe(OH)\(_3\)]
  • (2) [FeCl\(_6\)]\(^{3-}\)
  • (3) [Fe(CN)\(_6\)]\(^{3-}\)
  • (4) [Fe(H\(_2\)O)\(_6\)]\(^{3+}\)

Question 71:

A is an optically inactive alkyl chloride which on reaction with aqueous KOH gives B. On heating with Cu at 300\(^\circ\)C gives alkene C. What are A and C?

  • (1) CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)Cl, CH\(_2\)=CH\(_2\)
  • (2) Me\(_3\)CCl, MeCH=CHMe
  • (3) Me\(_3\)CCl, Me\(_2\)C=CH\(_2\)
  • (4) Me\(_2\)CHCH\(_2\)Cl, Me\(_2\)C=CH\(_2\)

Question 72:

The reaction shown is called:

  • (1) Williamson continuous etherification process
  • (2) Etard reaction
  • (3) Gattermann-Koch reaction
  • (4) Williamson synthesis

Question 73:

Which of the following esters cannot undergo Claisen self-condensation?

  • (1) CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)CH\(_2\)COOC\(_2\)H\(_5\)
  • (2) C\(_6\)H\(_5\)COOC\(_2\)H\(_5\)
  • (3) C\(_6\)H\(_{11}\)CH\(_2\)COOC\(_2\)H\(_5\)
  • (4) C\(_6\)H\(_5\)CH\(_2\)COOC\(_2\)H\(_5\)

Question 74:

Schotten–Baumann reaction is a reaction of phenols with:

  • (1) benzoyl chloride and sodium hydroxide
  • (2) acetyl chloride and sodium hydroxide
  • (3) salicylic acid and conc. H\(_2\)SO\(_4\)
  • (4) acetyl chloride and conc. H\(_2\)SO\(_4\)

Question 75:

Identify X in the following reaction:

  • (1) CH\(_3\)OH
  • (2) Ethyl alcohol
  • (3) Methyl cyanide
  • (4) tert-Butyl alcohol

Question 76:

The reagent(s) which can be used to distinguish acetophenone from benzophenone is (are):

  • (1) 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine
  • (2) aqueous sodium bisulphite
  • (3) Benedict reagent
  • (4) I\(_2\) and NaOH

Question 77:

Aniline reacts with nitrous acid to produce:

  • (1) phenol
  • (2) nitrobenzene
  • (3) chlorobenzene
  • (4) benzene diazonium chloride

Question 78:

The structural feature which distinguishes proline from natural \(\alpha\)-amino acids is:

  • (1) Proline is optically inactive
  • (2) Proline contains aromatic group
  • (3) Proline is a dicarboxylic acid
  • (4) Proline is a secondary amine

Question 79:

Which of the following cannot give iodometric titration?

  • (1) Fe\(^{3+}\)
  • (2) Cu\(^{2+}\)
  • (3) Pb\(^{2+}\)
  • (4) Ag\(^{2+}\)

Question 80:

Acetaldehyde and acetone can be distinguished by:

  • (1) Iodoform test
  • (2) Nitroprusside test
  • (3) Fehling's solution test
  • (4) C & P test

Question 81:

If \(f(x)\) is a function that is odd and even simultaneously, then \(f(3) - f(2)\) is equal to:

  • (1) 1
  • (2) −1
  • (3) 0
  • (4) None of these

Question 82:

If \(\tan A = \frac{1}{2}\) and \(\tan B = \frac{1}{3}\), then find the value of \(A + B\).

  • (1) \(\pi\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)
  • (4) \(-\frac{\pi}{4}\)

Question 83:

If \(\sin \theta = -\frac{1}{2}\) and \(\tan \theta = \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\), then \(\theta\) is equal to:

  • (1) \(2\pi + \frac{\pi}{6}\)
  • (2) \(2\pi + \frac{11\pi}{6}\)
  • (3) \(2\pi + \frac{7\pi}{6}\)
  • (4) \(2\pi + \frac{\pi}{4}\)

Question 84:

\(\dfrac{\cos\theta}{1-\tan\theta} + \dfrac{\sin\theta}{1-\cot\theta}\) is equal to:

  • (1) \(\sin\theta - \cos\theta\)
  • (2) \(\sin\theta + \cos\theta\)
  • (3) \(\tan\theta + \cot\theta\)
  • (4) \(\tan\theta - \cot\theta\)

Question 85:

For \(n \in \mathbb{N}\), \(x^{n+1} + (x+1)^{2n-1}\) is divisible by:

  • (1) \(x\)
  • (2) \(x+1\)
  • (3) \(x^2 + x + 1\)
  • (4) \(x^2 - x + 1\)

Question 86:

If \(\alpha, \beta\) are the roots of the equation \(ax^2 + bx + c = 0\), then the roots of the equation \(ax^2 + bx(x+1) + c(x+1)^2 = 0\) are:

  • (1) \(\alpha-1, \beta-1\)
  • (2) \(\alpha+1, \beta+1\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\alpha}{\alpha-1}, \frac{\beta}{\beta-1}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\alpha}{1-\alpha}, \frac{\beta}{1-\beta}\)

Question 87:

If \(a > 0\), \(a \in \mathbb{R}\), \(z = a + 2i\) and \(|z| = -az + 1\), then:

  • (1) \(z\) is always a positive real number
  • (2) \(z\) is always a negative real number
  • (3) \(z\) is purely imaginary number
  • (4) such a complex \(z\) does not exist

Question 88:

Which of the following is not a vertex of the positive region bounded by the inequalities \(2x + 3y \leq 6\), \(3x + 3y \leq 15\) and \(x, y \geq 0\)?

  • (1) (0,2)
  • (2) (3,0)
  • (3) (0,0)
  • (4) None of these

Question 89:

If \(^{20}C_r = ^{20}C_{r-10}\), then \(^{15}C_r\) is equal to:

  • (1) 4896
  • (2) 816
  • (3) 1632
  • (4) None of these

Question 90:

The term independent of \(x\) in the expansion of \(\left(9x - \frac{1}{\sqrt[3]{x}}\right)^{18}\), \(x>0\), is \(a\) times the corresponding binomial coefficient. Then \(a\) is:

  • (1) 3
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{3} \)
  • (3) −\(\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (4) None of these

Question 91:

In the binomial \((2^{1/3}+3^{-1/3})^n\), if the ratio of the seventh term from the beginning to the seventh term from the end is \(1/6\), then \(n\) is equal to:

  • (1) 6
  • (2) 9
  • (3) 12
  • (4) 15

Question 92:

If \(p,q,r\) are the \(n^{th}, q^{th}\) terms of H.P. and are \(u,v,w\) respectively, then the value of the expression \((q-r)v+(r-p)w+(p-q)u\) is:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 0
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 8

Question 93:

If the sum of the first 2n terms of 2, 5, 8, … is equal to the sum of the first n terms of 57, 59, 61, …, then n is equal to:

  • (1) 10
  • (2) 12
  • (3) 11
  • (4) 13

Question 94:

The distance of the point \((-1,1)\) from the line \(2(x+6)-5(y-2)=0\) is:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 5

Question 95:

The family of straight lines \((2a+3b)x+(a-b)y+2a-4b=0\) is concurrent at the point:

  • (1) \(\left(\frac{2}{5},-\frac{14}{5}\right)\)
  • (2) \(\left(-\frac{2}{5},-\frac{14}{5}\right)\)
  • (3) \(\left(-\frac{2}{5},\frac{14}{5}\right)\)
  • (4) \(\left(\frac{2}{5},\frac{14}{5}\right)\)

Question 96:

The length of the latus-rectum of the parabola whose focus is \(\left(\frac{u^2}{2g}\sin2\alpha,-\frac{u^2}{2g}\cos2\alpha\right)\) and directrix is \(y=\frac{u^2}{2g}\), is:

  • (1) \(\frac{u^2}{g}\cos^2\alpha\)
  • (2) \(\frac{u^2}{g}\cos2\alpha\)
  • (3) \(\frac{2u^2}{g}\cos^2 2\alpha\)
  • (4) \(\frac{2u^2}{g}\cos^2\alpha\)

Question 97:

The equation of the ellipse with focus at \((\pm5,0)\) and eccentricity \(=\frac{5}{6}\) is:

  • (1) \(\frac{x^2}{36}+\frac{y^2}{25}=1\)
  • (2) \(\frac{x^2}{36}+\frac{y^2}{11}=1\)
  • (3) \(\frac{x^2}{25}+\frac{y^2}{11}=1\)
  • (4) None of these

Question 98:

For what value of \(k\) do the circles \(x^2+y^2+5x+3y+7=0\) and \(x^2+y^2-8x+6y+k=0\) cut orthogonally?

  • (1) 16
  • (2) −18
  • (3) −13
  • (4) −10

Question 99:

If the lines \(3x-4y+4=0\) and \(6x-5y-7=0\) are tangents then the radius of the circle is:

  • (1) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{10}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{20}\)

Question 100:

Evaluate \(\displaystyle \lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{\sqrt{1+\sin3x}-1}{\ln(1+\tan2x)}\).

  • (1) 1/2
  • (2) 3/2
  • (3) 3/4
  • (4) 1/4

Question 101:

Negation of “Paris is in France and London is in England” is:

  • (1) Paris is in England and London is in France
  • (2) Paris is not in France or London is not in England
  • (3) Paris is in England or London is in France
  • (4) None of these

Question 102:

Find the A.M. of the first ten odd numbers.

  • (1) 10
  • (2) 20
  • (3) 15
  • (4) 25

Question 103:

If A and B are mutually exclusive events and if \(P(B)=\frac{1}{3}\), \(P(A\cup B)=\frac{13}{21}\), then \(P(A)\) is equal to:

  • (1) 17/21
  • (2) 4/7
  • (3) 2/7
  • (4) 5/7

Question 104:

A die is loaded such that the probability of throwing the number is proportional to its reciprocal. The probability that 3 appears in a single throw is:

  • (1) 3/22
  • (2) 3/11
  • (3) 9/22
  • (4) None of these

Question 105:

If \(f(x)=\begin{cases}x,& x rational
1-x,& x irrational\end{cases}\) then \(f(f(x))\) is equal to:

  • (1) 1
  • (2) x
  • (3) 1+x
  • (4) None of these

Question 106:

If \(f(x)=\frac{1-x}{1+x}\), the domain of \(f^{-1}(x)\) is:

  • (1) \(\mathbb{R}\)
  • (2) \(\mathbb{R}-\{-1\}\)
  • (3) \((-\infty,-1)\)
  • (4) \((-1,\infty)\)

Question 107:

The value of \(\sin\left(4\tan^{-1}\frac{1}{3}\right)-\cos\left(2\tan^{-1}\frac{1}{3}\right)\) is:

  • (1) 3/7
  • (2) 7/8
  • (3) 8/21
  • (4) None of these

Question 108:

The matrix \(A^2+4A-5I\), where \(I\) is identity matrix and \(A=\begin{bmatrix}1&2
4&-3\end{bmatrix}\), equals:

  • (1) \(4\begin{bmatrix}2&1
    2&0\end{bmatrix}\)
  • (2) \(4\begin{bmatrix}0&-1
    2&2\end{bmatrix}\)
  • (3) \(32\begin{bmatrix}2&1
    2&0\end{bmatrix}\)
  • (4) \(32\begin{bmatrix}1&1
    1&0\end{bmatrix}\)

Question 109:

If \(A=\begin{bmatrix}2&0&0
2&2&0
2&2&2\end{bmatrix}\), then \(\det(adj A)\) is equal to:

  • (1) \(8\begin{bmatrix}1&0&0
    1&1&0
    1&1&1\end{bmatrix}\)
  • (2) \(16\begin{bmatrix}1&0&0
    1&1&0
    1&1&1\end{bmatrix}\)
  • (3) \(64\begin{bmatrix}1&0&0
    1&1&0
    1&1&1\end{bmatrix}\)
  • (4) None of these

Question 110:

If \(y=x^{x^2}\), then \(\dfrac{dy}{dx}\) is equal to:

  • (1) \(2\ln x\)
  • (2) \(2\ln x+1\)
  • (3) \((\ln x+1)x^{x^2}\)
  • (4) None of these

Question 111:

The function \(f(x)=(x-1)\sqrt{|x|}\) is at \(x=1\):

  • (1) discontinuous
  • (2) continuous but not differentiable
  • (3) differentiable with \(f'(1)=0\)
  • (4) differentiable with \(f'(1)\neq0\)

Question 112:

The function \(f(x)=\sin x-kx-c\), where \(k\) and \(c\) are constants, decreases always when:

  • (1) \(k>1\)
  • (2) \(k\ge1\)
  • (3) \(k<1\)
  • (4) \(k\le1\)

Question 113:

The minimum value of \(f(x)=\sin^4x+\cos^4x\) in the interval \(\left(0,\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\) is:

  • (1) \(\frac12\)
  • (2) 2
  • (3) \(\sqrt2\)
  • (4) 1

Question 114:

The curve \(y-e^x+x=0\) has a vertical tangent at:

  • (1) (1,1)
  • (2) (1,0)
  • (3) (0,1)
  • (4) no point

Question 115:

The function \(f(x)=2x^3-3x^2-12x+4\) has:

  • (1) two points of local maxima
  • (2) two points of local minima
  • (3) one maxima and one minima
  • (4) no maxima or minima

Question 116:

Evaluate \(\displaystyle \int \frac{x^2}{x^2-1}dx\).

  • (1) \(x-\frac12\ln\left|\frac{x-1}{x+1}\right|+C\)
  • (2) \(x+\frac12\ln\left|\frac{x+1}{x-1}\right|+C\)
  • (3) \(x+\frac12\ln\left|\frac{x-1}{x+1}\right|+C\)
  • (4) None of these

Question 117:

Find the value of \(\displaystyle \int_0^{\frac{4\pi}{3}}|\sin x|\,dx\).

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 1

Question 118:

Let \(I_1=\int_0^2\frac{1}{\sqrt{1+x^2}}dx\) and \(I_2=\int_0^2\frac{1}{x}dx\), then:

  • (1) \(I_1>I_2\)
  • (2) \(I_2>I_1\)
  • (3) \(I_1=I_2\)
  • (4) None of these

Question 119:

What is the area bounded by \(y=\tan x\), \(y=0\) and \(x=\frac{\pi}{4}\)?

  • (1) \(\ln2\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\ln2}{2}\)
  • (3) \(2\ln2\)
  • (4) None of these

Question 120:

The degree of the differential equation \(\left(\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}\right)^3+4-3\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}+5\frac{dy}{dx}=0\) is:

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 3
  • (4) None of these

Question 121:

Two vectors \(\vec A\) and \(\vec B\) are such that \(|\vec A+\vec B|=|\vec A-\vec B|\). The angle between them is:

  • (1) \(60^\circ\)
  • (2) \(90^\circ\)
  • (3) \(180^\circ\)
  • (4) \(0^\circ\)

Question 122:

Given the line \(L:\frac{x-1}{3}=\frac{y+1}{2}=\frac{z-3}{-1}\) and the plane \(\pi:x-2y-z=0\). Of the following assertions, the only one that is always true is:

  • (1) L is perpendicular to \(\pi\)
  • (2) L lies in \(\pi\)
  • (3) L is not parallel to \(\pi\)
  • (4) None of these

Question 123:

A ladder rests against a wall so that its top touches the roof of the house. If the ladder makes an angle of \(60^\circ\) with the horizontal and height of the house is \(6\sqrt3\) meters, then the length of the ladder is:

  • (1) \(12\sqrt3\)
  • (2) 12
  • (3) \(12/\sqrt3\)
  • (4) None of these

Question 124:

In an equilateral triangle, the inradius, circumradius and one of the ex-radii are in the ratio:

  • (1) 2:3:5
  • (2) 1:2:3
  • (3) 3:7:9
  • (4) 3:7:9

Question 125:

The constraints of the L.P. problem given by \(x_1+2x_2\le2000\), \(x_1+x_2\le1500\) and \(x_2\le600\), \(x_1,x_2\ge0\), which of the following points does not lie in the positive bounded region?

  • (1) (1000,0)
  • (2) (0,500)
  • (3) (2,0)
  • (4) (2000,0)

Question 126:

I. Although he was innocent, baseless accusations were leveled at him.

II. Despite operated representations from the people, the authorities have failed to take any action.

  • (1) if there is an error only in the first sentence
  • (2) if there is an error only in the second sentence
  • (3) if there are errors in both sentences
  • (4) if there is no error in either of the sentences

Question 127:

I deem it as a privilege to address the gathering.

II. Perfection can be achieved with practice.

  • (1) if there is an error only in the first sentence
  • (2) if there is an error only in the second sentence
  • (3) if there are errors in both sentences
  • (4) if there is no error in either of the sentences

Question 128:

TURBULENCE

  • (1) Treachery
  • (2) Triumph
  • (3) Commotion
  • (4) Overflow

Question 129:

DEFER

  • (1) Discourage
  • (2) Minimize
  • (3) Postpone
  • (4) Estimate

Question 130:

ADAGE

  • (1) Proverb
  • (2) Youth
  • (3) Supplement
  • (4) Hardness

Question 131:

FRAGRANCE

  • (1) Aroma
  • (2) Perfume
  • (3) Smell
  • (4) Stink

Question 132:

PECULIAR

  • (1) Characteristic
  • (2) Special
  • (3) Specific
  • (4) Universal

Question 133:

ETERNAL

  • (1) Momentary
  • (2) Continual
  • (3) Everlasting
  • (4) Endless

Question 134:

_______ to popular belief that red meat makes humans aggressive, scientists have found that it actually has a calming effect.

  • (1) Sticking
  • (2) Similarly
  • (3) Opposite
  • (4) Contrary

Question 135:

From its ______ opening sequence, it is clear that we are in the grip of a delicious new voice, a voice of breathtaking _____.

  • (1) Imagination
  • (2) Evocative
  • (3) Mesmerizing
  • (4) Resonance

Question 136:

1. making ourselves

P. our language

Q. part of growing into

R. Masters of

6. full manhood or womanhood

  • (1) PSRQ
  • (2) SQPR
  • (3) RPSQ
  • (4) PRSQ

Question 137:

1. The very first battle they fought

P. and they had to fall back

Q. across the border

R. was lost

S. letting the enemy

6. enter the country

  • (1) RQSP
  • (2) RPSQ
  • (3) QRPS
  • (4) QPRS

Question 138:

1. A nation

P. the material assets it possesses

Q. is not made by

R. and collective determination

S. but by the will

6. of the people

  • (1) PQRS
  • (2) QPSR
  • (3) RSPQ
  • (4) SRPQ

Question 139:

1. When the Governor

P. the bell had rung

Q. justice should be immediately

R. he ordered that

S. found out why

6. done to the horse

  • (1) RSPQ
  • (2) PQSR
  • (3) SPRQ
  • (4) SQRP

Question 140:

1. When you ponder over

P. that the only hope

Q. you will realize

R. of world peace lies

S. the question deeply

6. in the United Nations

  • (1) QRSP
  • (2) SQPR
  • (3) SQPR
  • (4) RSPQ

Question 141:

One of the numbers does not fit into the series. Find the wrong number.

15, 20, 45, 145, 565, 2830

  • (1) 20
  • (2) 45
  • (3) 145
  • (4) 565

Question 142:

VWX, BCD, HIJ, ?

  • (1) NOQ
  • (2) NOP
  • (3) MNO
  • (4) OPQ

Question 143:

In a code language, if TARGET is coded as 201187520, then the word WILLUM will be coded as:

  • (1) 239121292113
  • (2) 239121292113
  • (3) 239121291213
  • (4) 239121292213

Question 144:

Sanjay is taller than Suresh but shorter than Rakesh. Rakesh is taller than Harish but shorter than Binit. Who among them is the tallest?

  • (1) Suresh
  • (2) Binit
  • (3) Sanjay
  • (4) Rakesh

Question 145:

In a row of 62 persons, Rahul is 36th from left side of the row and Nitesh is 29th from the right side of the row. Find out the number of persons sitting between them.

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 4

Question 146:

The missing number in the given figure is:

  • (1) 13
  • (2) 15
  • (3) 17
  • (4) 19

Question 147:

Select the combination of numbers so that the letters arranged will form a meaningful word.

H N R C A B

1 2 3 4 5 6

  • (1) 2,5,3,4,1,6
  • (2) 3,5,6,4,1,2
  • (3) 4,1,5,6,2,3
  • (4) 6,3,5,2,4,1

Question 148:

Which of the given Venn diagrams correctly represents the relationship among Rose, Flower, Lotus?


Question 149:

A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown. From the given responses indicate how it will appear when opened.


Question 150:

Which answer figure will complete the question figure?