KCET 2025 April 16 Chemistry Question Paper (Available): Download Question Paper with Answers PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Educational Content Expert | Updated 3+ months ago

KCET 2025 was conducted for Chemistry on 16 April from 02:30 PM to 03:50 PM. KCET 2025 Chemistry Question paper with solutions pdf is available here for download. In KCET 2025, students are required to attempt 60 questions for 60 marks in 80 minutes. KCET has a marking scheme of +1 mark for correct answers and no negative marking for incorrect answers.

KCET 2025 Chemistry 16 April Question Paper PDF Download

KCET 2025 Chemistry Question Paper With Answer Key Download Check Solution
KCET 2025 Question Paper

KCET 2025 Chemistry Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

In the reaction between hydrogen sulphide and acidified permanganate solution,

  • (1) \( H_2S is oxidised to SO_2, MnO_4^- is reduced to MnO_2 \)
  • (2) \( H_2S is reduced to SO_2, MnO_4^- is oxidised to Mn^{2+} \)
  • (3) \( H_2S is oxidised to S, MnO_4^- is reduced to Mn^{2+} \)
  • (4) \( H_2S is reduced to S, MnO_4^- is oxidised to Mn^{2+} \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( \text{H}_2\text{S} \text{ is oxidised to } \text{S}, \text{ MnO}_4^- \text{ is reduced to } \text{Mn}^{2+} \) View Solution

Question 2:

A member of the Lanthanoid series which is well known to exhibit +4 oxidation state is

  • (1) Europium
  • (2) Erbium
  • (3) Cerium
  • (4) Samarium
Correct Answer: (3) Cerium
View Solution

Question 3:

In which of the following pairs, both the elements do not have (n-1)d^{10}ns^2 configuration?

  • (1) Zn, Cd
  • (2) Cd, Hg
  • (3) Ag, Cu
  • (4) Cu, Zn
Correct Answer: (3) Ag, Cu
View Solution

Question 4:

A ligand which has two different donor atoms and either of the two ligates with the central metal atom/ion in the complex is called

  • (1) Unidentate ligand
  • (2) Polydentate ligand
  • (3) Ambidentate ligand
  • (4) Chelate ligand
Correct Answer: (3) Ambidentate ligand
View Solution

Question 5:

Which of the following statements are true about \( [NiCl_4]^{2-} \)?

(a) The complex has tetrahedral geometry.

(b) Co-ordination number of Ni is 2 and oxidation state is +4.

(c) The complex is sp\(^3\) hybridised.

(d) It is a high spin complex.

(e) The complex is paramagnetic.

  • (1) a, b, d and e
  • (2) b, c, and d
  • (3) a, b, c and d
  • (4) a, c, d and e
Correct Answer: (4) a, c, d and e
View Solution

Question 6:

Which formula and its name combination is incorrect?

  • (1) \([CoCl_2(en)_2]Cl\), Dichloridobis (ethane-1, 2-diamine) cobalt(III) chloride
  • (2) \([Co(NH_3)_5(CO_3)]Cl\), Pentaamine carbonylcobalt (III) chloride
  • (3) \([Pt(NH_3)_2Cl(NO_2)]\), Diamine chloridonitrito-N-platinum(II)
  • (4) \( K_3[Cr(C_2O_4)_3] \), Potassium trioxalatochromate(III)
Correct Answer: (2) \([Co(NH_3)_5(CO_3)]Cl\), Pentaamine carbonylcobalt(III) chloride
View Solution

Question 7:

In the complex ion \( [Fe(C_2O_4)_3]^{3-} \), the co-ordination number of Fe is

  • (1) 5
  • (2) 6
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 4
Correct Answer: (2) 6
View Solution

Question 8:

Match List-I with List-II for the following reaction pattern: \[ Glucose \quad Reagent \quad \rightarrow \quad Product \quad \rightarrow \quad Structural prediction \]

Correct Answer: 1) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
View Solution

Question 9:

The correct sequence of \(\alpha\)-amino acid, hormone, vitamin, carbohydrates respectively is

  • (1) Glutamine, Insulin, Aspartic acid, Fructose
  • (2) Arginine, Testosterone, Glutamic acid, Maltose
  • (3) Aspartic acid, Insulin, Ascorbic acid, rhamnose
  • (4) Thiamine, Thyroxine, Vitamin A, Glucose
Correct Answer: (3) Aspartic acid, Insulin, Ascorbic acid, rhamnose
View Solution

Question 10:

Which examples of carbohydrates exhibit \(\alpha\)-link (\(\alpha\)-glycosidic link) in their structure?

  • (1) Amylose and Amylopectin
  • (2) Cellulose and Glycogen
  • (3) Glucose and Fructose
  • (4) Maltose and Lactose
Correct Answer: (1) Amylose and Amylopectin
View Solution

Question 11:

In the titration of potassium permanganate (KMnO\(_4\)) against Ferrous ammonium sulphate (FAS) solution, dilute sulphuric acid but not nitric acid is used to maintain acidic medium, because

  • (1) Nitric acid doesn’t act as an indicator
  • (2) Nitric acid itself is an oxidising agent
  • (3) Nitric acid is a weak acid than sulphuric acid
  • (4) It is difficult to identify the end point
Correct Answer: (2) Nitric acid itself is an oxidising agent
View Solution

Question 12:

The group reagent NH\(_4\)Cl (s) and aqueous NH\(_3\), will precipitate which of the following ion

  • (1) Al\(^{3+}\)
  • (2) Ba\(^{2+}\)
  • (3) Ca\(^{2+}\)
  • (4) NH\(_4^{+}\)
Correct Answer: (1) Al\(^{3+}\)
View Solution

Question 13:

In the preparation of sodium fusion extract, the purpose of fusing organic compound with a piece of sodium metal is to

  • (1) Convert the elements of the compound from covalent form to ionic form
  • (2) Convert the elements of the compound from ionic form to covalent form
  • (3) Decrease the melting point of the compound
  • (4) Convert the organic compound into vapour state
Correct Answer: (1) Convert the elements of the compound from covalent form to ionic form
View Solution

Question 14:

The sodium fusion extract is boiled with concentrated nitric acid while testing for halogens. By doing so, it

  • (1) increases the solubility of AgCl
  • (2) increases the concentration of NO\(_3^{-}\) ion
  • (3) decomposes Na\(_2\)S and NaCN, if formed
  • (4) helps in precipitation of AgCl
Correct Answer: (3) decomposes Na\(_2\)S and NaCN, if formed
View Solution

Question 15:

Which of the following is not an aromatic compound?



Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Question 16:

The IUPAC name of the given organic compound is HC \( \equiv \) C - CH = CH - CH\(_2\).

  • (1) Hexa - 5-yn-1,3-diene
  • (2) Hexa-1,3-dien-5-yne
  • (3) Hexa - 3,5-dien-1-yne
  • (4) Hexa-1-yn-3,5-diene
Correct Answer: (2) Hexa-1,3-dien-5-yne
View Solution

Question 17:

Among the following, identify the compound that is not an isomer of hexane:



Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Question 18:

The organic compound can be classified as

  • (1) Benzyl halide
  • (2) Aryl halide
  • (3) Alkyl halide
  • (4) Allylic halide
Correct Answer: (1) Benzyl halide
View Solution

Question 19:

Chlorobenzene reacts with bromine gas in the presence of Anhydrous AlBr_3 to yield p-Bromochlorobenzene. This reaction is classified as _____ .

  • (1) Nucleophilic substitution reaction
  • (2) Electrophilic substitution reaction
  • (3) Addition reaction
  • (4) Elimination reaction
Correct Answer: (2) Electrophilic substitution reaction
View Solution

Question 20:

The organometallic compound
(CH_3)_3CMgBr on reaction with D_2O produces

  • (1) (CD₃)₃CD
  • (2) (CD₃)₃COD
  • (3) (CH₃)₃CD
  • (4) (CH₃)₃COD
Correct Answer: (3) (CH₃)₃CD
View Solution

Question 21:

The major product formed when 1 - Bromo-3-Chlorocyclobutane reacts with metallic sodium in dry ether is



Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Question 22:

Ethyl alcohol is heated with concentrated sulphuric acid at 413 K (140°C). The major product formed is

  • (1) CH₃ - O - C₃H₇
  • (2) CH₂ = CH₂
  • (3) CH₃COOC₂H₅
  • (4) C₂H₅ - O - C₂H₅
Correct Answer: (4) C₂H₅ - O - C₂H₅
View Solution

Question 23:

Phenol can be distinguished from propanol by using the reagent

  • (1) Iron metal
  • (2) Iodine in alcohol
  • (3) Sodium metal
  • (4) Bromine water
Correct Answer: (4) Bromine water
View Solution

Question 24:

Match the following with their pKa values


Correct Answer: (4) I-c, II - d, III - a, IV - b
View Solution

Question 25:

Q25

Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution



This reaction is an example of a substitution reaction in which methoxy group (OCH₃) reacts with HI (hydroiodic acid). The bond between carbon and oxygen in the methoxy group breaks, leading to the formation of methanol (CH₃OH) and methyl iodide (CH₃ - I) as products. The correct reaction is: \[ CH₃ - C - OCH₃ + HI \to CH₃OH + CH₃ - I \]
Thus, A = CH₃OH and B = CH₃ - I. Quick Tip: This is an example of a substitution reaction where the methoxy group (OCH₃) is replaced by iodine (I) in the presence of HI.


Question 26:

Oxidation of Toluene with chromyl chloride followed by hydrolysis gives Benzaldehyde. This reaction is known as

  • (1) Kolbe reaction
  • (2) Stephen reaction
  • (3) Cannizzaro Reaction
  • (4) Etard Reaction
Correct Answer: (4) Etard Reaction
View Solution

Question 27:

Statement-I: Reduction of ester by DIBAL-H followed by hydrolysis gives aldehyde.

Statement-II: Oxidation of benzyl alcohol with aqueous KMnO₄ leads to the formation of benzaldehyde.

Among the above statements, identify the correct statement.

  • (1) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false
  • (2) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true
  • (3) Both statements-I and II are true
  • (4) Both statements-I and II are false
Correct Answer: (1) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false
View Solution

Question 28:

Arrange the following compounds in their decreasing order of reactivity towards nucleophilic addition reaction.

  • (1) CH₃COCH₃, CH₃CO₂CH₅, CH₃CHO
  • (2) CH₃CO₂CH₅ > CH₃COCH₃ > CH₃CHO
  • (3) CH₃CHO > CH₃CO₂CH₅ > CH₃COCH₃
  • (4) CH₃CHO > CH₃COCH₃ > CH₃CO₂CH₅
Correct Answer: (4) CH₃CHO > CH₃COCH₃ > CH₃CO₂CH₅
View Solution

Question 29:

Which of the following has the most acidic Hydrogen?

  • (1) Dichloroacetic acid
  • (2) Trichloroacetic acid
  • (3) Chloroacetic acid
  • (4) Propanoic acid
Correct Answer: (2) Trichloroacetic acid
View Solution

Question 30:

Which of the following reagents are suitable to differentiate Aniline and N-methylaniline chemically?

  • (1) Br₂ water
  • (2) Conc. Hydrochloric acid and anhydrous zinc chloride
  • (3) Chloroform and Alcoholic potassium hydroxide
  • (4) Acetic anhydride
Correct Answer: (3) Chloroform and Alcoholic potassium hydroxide
View Solution

Question 31:

Which of the following reaction/s does not yield an amine?

  • (I) R - X + NH₃ \(\xrightarrow{alc}\)
Correct Answer: (2) Only III
View Solution

Question 32:

Match the compounds given in List-I with the items given in List-II

Correct Answer: (3) 1-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d
View Solution

Question 33:

The number of orbitals associated with 'N' shell of an atom is

  • (1) 32
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 16
Correct Answer: (4) 16
View Solution

Question 34:

According to the Heisenberg's Uncertainty principle, the value of \(\Delta v \cdot \Delta x\) for an object whose mass is \(10^{-6}\) kg is

  • (1) \(4.0 \times 10^{-26} \, ms^{-1}\)
  • (2) \(3.5 \times 10^{-25} \, ms^{-1}\)
  • (3) \(5.2 \times 10^{-29} \, ms^{-1}\)
  • (4) \(3.0 \times 10^{-24} \, ms^{-1}\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(5.2 \times 10^{-29} \, \text{ms}^{-1}\)
View Solution

Question 35:

Given below are two statements.

  • (1) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false.
  • (2) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true.
  • (3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
  • (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
Correct Answer: (3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
View Solution

Question 36:

Which one of the following reactions has
\(\Delta H = \Delta U\)?

  • (1) \( C_6H_6 (l) + \frac{15}{2} O_2 (g) \to 6CO_2 (g) + 3H_2O (l) \)
  • (2) \( 2HI (g) \to H_2 (g) + I_2 (g) \)
  • (3) \( N_2 (g) + 3H_2 (g) \to 2NH_3 (g) \)
  • (4) \( CaCO_3 (s) \to CaO (s) + CO_2 (g) \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( 2HI (g) \to H_2 (g) + I_2 (g) \)
View Solution

Question 37:

Identify the incorrect statements among the following:

  • (a) All enthalpies of fusion are positive.
  • (b) The magnitude of enthalpy change does not depend on the strength of the intermolecular interactions in the substance undergoing phase transformations.
  • (c) When a chemical reaction is reversed, the value of \( \Delta H^\circ \) is reversed in sign.
  • (d) The change in enthalpy is dependent on the path between initial state (reactants) and final state (products).
Correct Answer: (d) The change in enthalpy is dependent on the path between initial state (reactants) and final state (products).
View Solution

Question 38:

Which of the following statements is/are true about equilibrium?

  • (a) Equilibrium is possible only in a closed system at a given temperature
  • (b) All the measurable properties of the system remain constant at equilibrium.
  • (c) Equilibrium constant for the reverse reaction is the inverse of the equilibrium constant for the reaction in the forward direction.
Correct Answer: (2) a, b and c
View Solution

Question 39:

According to Le Chatelier's principle, in the reaction CO(g) + 3H_2(g) \rightleftharpoons CH_4(g) + H_2O(g), the formation of methane is favoured by

  • (a) increasing the concentration of CO
  • (b) increasing the concentration of H_2O
  • (c) decreasing the concentration of CH_4
  • (d) decreasing the concentration of H_2
Correct Answer: (4) a and c
View Solution

Question 40:

The equilibrium constant at 298 K for the reaction \( A + B \rightleftharpoons C + D \) is 100. If the initial concentrations of all the four species were 1 M each, then equilibrium concentration of D (in mol/L) will be

  • (1) 1.818
  • (2) 1.182
  • (3) 0.818
  • (4) 0.182
Correct Answer: (1) 1.818
View Solution

Question 41:

Among the following 0.1 m aqueous solutions, which one will exhibit the lowest boiling point elevation, assuming complete ionization of the compounds in solution?

  • (1) Aluminium sulphate
  • (2) Potassium sulphate
  • (3) Sodium chloride
  • (4) Aluminium chloride
Correct Answer: (3) Sodium chloride
View Solution

Question 42:

Variation of solubility with temperature \(T\) for a gas in liquid is shown by the following graphs. The correct representation is


Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Question 43:

180 g of glucose, \(C_6H_{12}O_6\), is dissolved in 1 kg of water in a vessel. The temperature at which water boils at 1.013 bar is ______ (given, \(K_b\) for water is 0.52 K kg mol\(^{-1}\)). Boiling point for pure water is 373.15 K

  • (1) 373.15 K
  • (2) 373.0 K
  • (3) 373.202 K
  • (4) 373.67 K
Correct Answer: (4) 373.67 K
View Solution

Question 44:

If \(N_2\) gas is bubbled through water at 293 K, how many moles of \(N_2\) gas would dissolve in 1 litre of water? Assume that \(N_2\) exerts a partial pressure of 0.987 bar. [Given \(K_H\) for \(N_2\) at 293 K is 76.48 K bar]

  • (1) \(7.16 \times 10^{-5}\)
  • (2) \(7.16 \times 10^{-4}\)
  • (3) \(7.16 \times 10^{-3}\)
  • (4) \(0.716 \times 10^{-3}\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(7.16 \times 10^{-4}\)
View Solution

Question 45:

The correct statement/s about Galvanic cell is/are:

(a) Current flows from cathode to anode

(b) Anode is positive terminal

(c) If \(E_{cell} < 0\), then it is spontaneous reaction

(d) Cathode is positive terminal

  • (1) a, b, and c
  • (2) a, b, and c
  • (3) a, b, and c
  • (4) a and b only
Correct Answer: (2) a, b, and c
View Solution

Question 46:

The electronic conductance depends on:

  • (1) The number of valence electrons per atom
  • (2) Concentration of the electrolyte
  • (3) Size of the ions
  • (4) Nature of electrolyte added
Correct Answer: (1) The number of valence electrons per atom
View Solution

Question 47:

For a given half cell, \( Al^{3+} + 3e^- \rightarrow Al \) on increasing the concentration of aluminium ion, the electrode potential will

  • (1) No change
  • (2) First increase then decrease
  • (3) Increase
  • (4) Decrease
Correct Answer: (3) Increase
View Solution

Question 48:

Match the following and select the correct option for the quantity of electricity, in Cmol\(^{-1}\), required to deposit various metals at the cathode.

  • (1) a) \( Ag^+ \), ii) 386000 Cmol\(^{-1}\)
  • (2) b) \( Mg^{2+} \), iii) 289500 Cmol\(^{-1}\)
  • (3) c) \( Al^{3+} \), iv) 96500 Cmol\(^{-1}\)
  • (4) d) \( Ti^{4+} \), i) 193000 Cmol\(^{-1}\)
Correct Answer: (1) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
View Solution

Question 49:

Catalysts are used to increase the rate of a chemical reaction. Because it

  • (1) Decrease the activation energy of the reaction
  • (2) Brings about improper orientation of reactant molecules
  • (3) Increases the potential energy barrier
  • (4) Increases the activation energy of the reaction
Correct Answer: (1) Decrease the activation energy of the reaction
View Solution

Question 50:

Half-life of a first order reaction is 20 seconds and initial concentration of reactant is 0.2M. The concentration of reactant left after 80 seconds is

  • (1) 0.5 M
  • (2) 0.0125 M
  • (3) 0.2 M
  • (4) 0.1 M
Correct Answer: (2) 0.0125 M
View Solution

Question 51:

In the given graph, \( E_a \) for the reverse reaction will be
Q51

  • (1) 215 KJ
  • (2) 90 KJ
  • (3) 305 KJ
  • (4) 125 KJ
Correct Answer: (4) 125 KJ
View Solution

Question 52:

For the reaction \( 2N_2O_5 \rightarrow 4NO_2 (g) + O_2 (g) \), the initial concentration of \( N_2O_5 \) is 2.0 mol L\(^{-1}\), and after 300 minutes, it is reduced to 1.4 mol L\(^{-1}\). The rate of production of \( NO_2 \) (in mol L\(^{-1}\) min\(^{-1}\)) is

  • (1) \( 4 \times 10^{-4} \)
  • (2) \( 2.5 \times 10^{-3} \)
  • (3) \( 4 \times 10^{-3} \)
  • (4) \( 2.5 \times 10^{-4} \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( 4 \times 10^{-3} \)
View Solution

Question 53:

Which of the following methods of expressing concentration are unitless?

  • (1) Molality and Mole fraction
  • (2) Mass percent (W/W) and Molality
  • (3) Molality and Molality
  • (4) Mole fraction and Mass percent (W/W)
Correct Answer: (4) Mole fraction and Mass percent (W/W)
View Solution

Question 54:

Select the INCORRECT statement/s from the following:

  • (a) 22 books have infinite significant figures.
  • (b) In the answer of calculation \( 2.5 \times 1.25 \) has four significant figures.
  • (c) Zero's preceding to first non-zero digit are significant.
  • (d) In the answer of calculation \( 12.11 + 18.0 + 1.012 \) has three significant figures.
Correct Answer: (1) (b) and (c) only
View Solution

Question 55:

Given below are the atomic masses of the
elements:




Which of the following doesn't form triad?

Correct Answer: 2) Cl, K, Ca
View Solution

Question 56:

The change in hybridisation (if any) of the 'Al' atom in the following reaction is
Q56

Correct Answer: (1) 
View Solution

Question 57:

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct option:

Correct Answer: 4) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
View Solution

Question 58:

The electronic configuration of X and Y are given below:
Q58
Which of the following is the correct molecular formula and type of bond formed between X and Y?

Q58

Correct Answer:(2)
View Solution

Question 59:

Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the options given below.

Correct Answer: 2) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
View Solution

Question 60:

In the following pairs, the one in which both transition metal ions are colourless is

Q60

Correct Answer: 4) \( Sc^{3+}, Zn^{2+} \)
View Solution

Also Check: 

KCET 2025 Chemistry: Important Topics & weightage

The KCET 2025 Chemistry exam will be a balance of Physical, Organic, and Inorganic Chemistry, with more weightage given to NCERT-based concepts.

Topics from 2nd PUC (Class 12) generally have a slightly higher weightage than 1st PUC.

Topic Expected Weightage Remarks
Thermodynamics 8–10% Important for numericals and covers concepts like enthalpy, heat, work
Chemical Kinetics 6–8% Focuses on rate laws, order of reactions, and graphs
Equilibrium (Chemical + Ionic) 6–8% Important for Physical Chemistry; expect both conceptual and numerical questions
Electrochemistry 5–7% Nernst equation, cell EMF, conductance concepts
Hydrocarbons 6–7% Basics of alkanes, alkenes, alkynes; naming and reactions
Alcohols, Phenols, and Ethers 6–7% Mechanism and properties-based questions common
Aldehydes, Ketones, Carboxylic Acids 6–8% Focus on IUPAC naming, reactions, and conversions
Coordination Compounds 5–7% Questions mostly from NCERT – bonding, isomerism
p-Block Elements 6–7% More emphasis on group properties and trends
d- and f-Block Elements 4–6% Color, oxidation states, and applications in reactions
Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry 5–6% Reaction mechanisms, IUPAC naming, inductive effects
Environmental Chemistry 2–3% Usually 1–2 direct theory questions from NCERT lines
Chemistry in Everyday Life 2–3% Scoring, theory-based; expect easy direct questions

KCET 2025 Safe Score: Minimum Marks for Top Ranks


Also Check:

KCET Previous Year Question Papers

KCET Questions

  • 1.
    0.48 g of an organic compound on complete combustion produced 0.22 g of CO₂. The percentage of C in the given organic compound is:

      • 25
      • 50
      • 12.5
      • 87.5

    • 2.
      For which one of the following mixtures is composition uniform throughout?

        • Sand and water
        • Grains and pulses with stone
        • Mixture of oil and water
        • Dilute aqueous solution of sugar

      • 3.

        In the given graph, \( E_a \) for the reverse reaction will be 

          • 215 KJ
          • 90 KJ
          • 305 KJ
          • 125 KJ

        • 4.
          For the reaction \( \text{2N}_2\text{O}_5 \rightarrow 4\text{NO}_2 (g) + \text{O}_2 (g) \), the initial concentration of \( \text{N}_2\text{O}_5 \) is 2.0 mol L\(^{-1}\), and after 300 minutes, it is reduced to 1.4 mol L\(^{-1}\). The rate of production of \( \text{NO}_2 \) (in mol L\(^{-1}\) min\(^{-1}\)) is

            • \( 4 \times 10^{-4} \)
            • \( 2.5 \times 10^{-3} \)
            • \( 4 \times 10^{-3} \)
            • \( 2.5 \times 10^{-4} \)

          • 5.
            A mixture of phenol and aniline shows negative deviation from Raoult's law. This is due to the formation of:

              • Polar covalent bond
              • Non-polar covalent bond
              • Intermolecular Hydrogen bond
              • Intramolecular Hydrogen bond

            • 6.
              Which one of the following pairs will show positive deviation from Raoult's Law?

                • Water - HCl
                • Benzene - Methanol
                • Water - $HNO_3$
                • Acetone - Chloroform

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