KCET 2025 April 17 Biology Question Paper (Available): Download Question Paper with Answers PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Educational Content Expert | Updated 3+ months ago

The KCET 2025 Question paper for April 17 (Biology) is available here with solutons PDF. KCET 2025 Biology is scheduled for 1 hour and 20 minutes (02:30 PM to 03:50 PM)

The KCET 2025 Biology exam will have 60 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) answered in 80 minutes, as per the KCET Exam pattern, each correct question will be rewarded 1 mark, and there is no negative marking for each wrong answer.

KCET 2025 Biology 17 April Question Paper PDF Download

KCET 2025 Biology Question Paper With Answer Key Download Check Solution
KCET 2025 Question Paper
 

KCET 2025 Biology Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

Which of the following are the techniques for detection of cancer of internal organs?
a) Radiography, MRI
b) MRI, computed tomography
c) Widal test, radiography
d) MRI, widal test

  • (1) b and c
  • (2) b and d
  • (3) a and b
  • (4) a and c
Correct Answer: (3) a and b
View Solution

Question 2:

Malignant malaria is caused by

  • (1) Plasmodium falciparum
  • (2) Plasmodium rubrum
  • (3) Plasmodium malariae
  • (4) Plasmodium vivax
Correct Answer: (1) Plasmodium falciparum
View Solution

Question 3:

The drug prescribed to the patients who have undergone organ transplant is __ and is produced by __.

  • (1) Cyclosporin-A, Trichoderma polysporum
  • (2) Stain, Trichoderma polysporum
  • (3) Cyclosporin-A, Monascus purpureus
  • (4) Stain, Monascus purpureus
Correct Answer: (1) Cyclosporin-A, Trichoderma polysporum
View Solution

Question 4:

Read the following statements and select the correct option. Statement-I: Biocontrol refers to the use of biological methods for controlling plant diseases and pests. Statement-II: Trichoderma species are effective biocontrol agents for several plant pathogens.

  • (1) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
  • (2) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
  • (3) Statement-I and statement-II is incorrect
  • (4) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
Correct Answer: (2) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
View Solution

Question 5:

Match the column-I with column-II. Choose the correct option given below.

  • (1) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
  • (2) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
  • (3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
  • (4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
Correct Answer: (3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
View Solution

Question 6:

Match the contents of List-I with List-II

  • (1) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
  • (2) a-i, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
  • (3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
  • (4) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
Correct Answer: (3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
View Solution

Question 7:

The part of plasmid that codes for proteins involved in the replication of the pBR322 plasmid is

  • (1) "rop"
  • (2) cloning site
  • (3) Ori site
  • (4) Selectable marker
Correct Answer: (1) "rop"
View Solution

Question 8:

To isolate DNA from fungal cells, bacterial cells and plant cells, the enzymes required are respectively

  • (1) Chitinase, Lysozyme and Cellulase
  • (2) Cellulase, Protease and Lysozyme
  • (3) Lysozyme, Cellulase and Chitinase
  • (4) Lysozyme, Proteases and Ribonuclease
Correct Answer: (1) Chitinase, Lysozyme and Cellulase
View Solution

Question 9:

In mature insulin, which of the peptide is not present?

  • (1) C-peptide
  • (2) A and B peptides
  • (3) A-peptide
  • (4) B-peptide
Correct Answer: (1) C-peptide
View Solution

Question 10:

A scientist wants to produce virus-free plant in tissue culture. Which part of the plant will he use as an explant? a) mature stem b) axillary meristem c) apical meristem d) mesophyll cell Choose the correct option from the following.

  • (1) b only
  • (2) c and d
  • (3) a only
  • (4) b and c
Correct Answer: (4) b and c
View Solution

Question 11:

Some strains of Bacillus thuringiensis produce proteins that kill insects. Which one of the following is not killed by proteins of Bacillus thuringiensis?

  • (1) Cotton bollworm
  • (2) Tapeworm
  • (3) Tobacco budworm
  • (4) Armyworm
Correct Answer: (2) Tapeworm
View Solution

Question 12:

Which one of the following population attributes, contributes to increase in population density?

  • (1) Natality and Emmigration
  • (2) Mortality and Immigration
  • (3) Natality and Immigration
  • (4) Mortality and Emmigration
Correct Answer: (3) Natality and Immigration
View Solution

Question 13:

If 8 individuals in a laboratory population of 80 fruit flies died during a specified time interval, the death rate in the population during that period is

  • (1) 0.1 individual/time interval
  • (2) 1 individual/time interval
  • (3) 0.01 individual/time interval
  • (4) 0.001 individual/time interval
Correct Answer: (1) 0.1 individual/time interval
View Solution

Question 14:

Choose the correct sequence of steps involved in decomposition

  • (1) Fragmentation \(\rightarrow\) Mineralisation \(\rightarrow\) Humification \(\rightarrow\) Leaching \(\rightarrow\) Catabolism
  • (2) Fragmentation \(\rightarrow\) Leaching \(\rightarrow\) Catabolism \(\rightarrow\) Humification \(\rightarrow\) Mineralisation
  • (3) Fragmentation \(\rightarrow\) Catabolism \(\rightarrow\) Leaching \(\rightarrow\) Humification \(\rightarrow\) Mineralisation
  • (4) Fragmentation \(\rightarrow\) Leaching \(\rightarrow\) Catabolism \(\rightarrow\) Mineralisation \(\rightarrow\) Humification
Correct Answer: (2) Fragmentation \(\rightarrow\) Leaching \(\rightarrow\) Catabolism \(\rightarrow\) Humification \(\rightarrow\) Mineralisation
View Solution

Question 15:

With respect to limitation of Ecological pyramids, which of the following statements are correct? a) It does not take into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels. b) It assumes a simple food chain, something that almost never existed in nature. c) It accommodates saprophytes. d) It does not accommodate a food web. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • (1) c and d
  • (2) a, b and d
  • (3) a and b
  • (4) b and c
Correct Answer: (2) a, b and d
View Solution

Question 16:

The 'Sixth Extinction' of species, presently in progress, is __ times faster than the previous five episodes of mass extinctions.

  • (1) 1000 to 10000
  • (2) 1 to 10
  • (3) 10 to 100
  • (4) 100 to 1000
Correct Answer: (4) 100 to 1000
View Solution

Question 17:

Species diversity __ as we move away from the __ towards __.

  • (1) Decreases, Poles, Equator
  • (2) Stable, Equator, Poles
  • (3) Increases, Equator, Poles
  • (4) Decreases, Equator, Poles
Correct Answer: (4) Decreases, Equator, Poles
View Solution

Question 18:

In a practical examination, the following pedigree chart was given as a spotter for identification. The students identify the given pedigree chart as

  • (1) Sex-linked dominant
  • (2) Sex-linked recessive
  • (3) Autosomal dominant
  • (4) Autosomal recessive
Correct Answer: (4) Autosomal recessive
View Solution

Question 19:

A student observed the T.S. of a plant organ slide under microscope. He observed the vascular bundles in the stelar region as conjoint collateral and open. Based on these features of vascular bundle, identify the correct option from below.

  • (1) Monocot Root
  • (2) Monocot Stem
  • (3) Dicot Root
  • (4) Dicot Stem
Correct Answer: (4) Dicot Stem
View Solution

Question 20:

A student observed the slide of mitosis under the microscope and observed that the chromosomes were placed at the opposite poles. Which stage was the student observing?

  • (1) Metaphase
  • (2) Telophase
  • (3) Prophase
  • (4) Anaphase
Correct Answer: (4) Anaphase
View Solution

Question 21:

Identify the incorrect statement with respect to the rules of Binomial Nomenclature.

  • (1) Biological names are underlined separately when handwritten
  • (2) Biological names are printed in Italics to indicate their non-Latin origin.
  • (3) The first word represents the genus while second component denotes the specific epithet
  • (4) Biological names are generally in Latin or Latinised irrespective of their origin
Correct Answer: (2) Biological names are printed in Italics to indicate their non-Latin origin.
View Solution

Question 22:

Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option given below:

  • (1) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
  • (2) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
  • (3) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
  • (4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
Correct Answer: (4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
View Solution

Question 23:

Read the given statements and choose the correct option:
Statement I: Gemmae are green unicellular sexual buds which develop in receptacles called gemma cups.
Statement II: Protonema develops directly from a spore

  • (1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Correct Answer: (1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
View Solution

Question 24:

During a field trip a student observed a marine organism with worm-like body. The cylindrical body was divisible into proboscis, collar and a long trunk. The organism may be __ .

  • (1) Pterophyllum
  • (2) Trygon
  • (3) Balanoglossus
  • (4) Ophiura
Correct Answer: (3) Balanoglossus
View Solution

Question 25:

Identify the types of aestivation in corolla labelled as 'a', 'b', 'c' and 'd'

  • (1) a-Vexillary, b-Imbricate, c-Twisted, d-Valvate
  • (2) a-Vexillary, b-Imbricate, c-Valvate, d-Twisted
  • (3) a-Vexillary, b-Twisted, c-Imbricate, d-Valvate
  • (4) a-Imbricate, b-Valvate, c-Vexillary, d-Twisted
Correct Answer: (1) a-Vexillary, b-Imbricate, c-Twisted, d-Valvate
View Solution

Question 26:

Match the Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option:

  • (1) a - ii, b - iv, c - iii, d - i
  • (2) a - iii, b - iv, c - i, d - ii
  • (3) a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv
  • (4) a - ii, b - iii, c - iv, d - i
Correct Answer: (1) a - ii, b - iv, c - iii, d - i
View Solution

Question 27:

Which of the following statements are correct with respect to Frogs?

  • (1) Bidder's canals are present in male Frogs
  • (2) Copulatory pads are present in female Frogs
  • (3) Sound producing vocal sacs are present in male Frogs
  • (4) Cloaca is present in male Frog only
Correct Answer: (1) a and c
View Solution

Question 28:

The reserve material in prokaryotic cells are stored in the cytoplasm in the form of

  • (1) Exclusion and inclusion bodies
  • (2) Fat bodies
  • (3) Exclusion bodies
  • (4) Inclusion bodies
Correct Answer: (4) Inclusion bodies
View Solution

Question 29:

The cell wall less prokaryote among the following is

  • (1) Cyanobacteria
  • (2) Mycoplasma
  • (3) Bacteria
  • (4) Blue-Green Algae
Correct Answer: (2) Mycoplasma
View Solution

Question 30:

The graph showing the concept of activation energy of enzyme is given below. Observe the graph and choose the correct option for M and N.


  • (1) M-High temperature, High activation energy, N-Low temperature, Low activation energy
  • (2) M-High substrate, High activation energy, N-Low substrate, Low activation energy
  • (3) M-Activation energy without enzyme, N-Activation energy with enzyme
  • (4) M-Activation energy with enzyme, N-Activation energy without enzyme
Correct Answer: (3) M-Activation energy without enzyme, N-Activation energy with enzyme
View Solution

Question 31:

Match the stages of prophase I given in Column-I with their features in Column-II and choose the correct options from the choices given below:

  • (1) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii, e-v
  • (2) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii, e-v
  • (3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv, e-v
  • (4) a-v, b-iv, c-i, d-iii, e-ii
Correct Answer: (2) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii, e-v
View Solution

Question 32:

Read the given statements and choose the correct option:
Statement-I: In Calvin cycle, Carboxylation is catalysed by PEP Carboxylase
Statement-II: In Hatch-Slack pathway, Carboxylation is catalysed by RuBP Carboxylase.

  • (1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Correct Answer: (1) or (2)
View Solution

Question 33:

The TCA cycle starts with the condensation of acetyl group with

  • (1) \(\alpha\)-Ketoglutaric acid
  • (2) Succinic acid
  • (3) Oxaloacetic acid
  • (4) Citric acid
Correct Answer: (3) Oxaloacetic acid
View Solution

Question 34:

Match the plant growth hormones of Column-I with suitable chemical derivatives present Column-II and choose the correct option given below:

  • (1) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
  • (2) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
  • (3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
  • (4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
Correct Answer: (1) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
View Solution

Question 35:

The respiratory mechanism controlled by medulla oblongata can be altered by

  • (1) Both Pneumotaxic and Chemoreceptive areas of pons and medulla oblongata
  • (2) Corpus callosum of brain
  • (3) Pneumotaxic center in the pons
  • (4) Chemoreceptive area in the medulla
Correct Answer: (1) Both Pneumotaxic and Chemoreceptive areas of pons and medulla oblongata
View Solution

Question 36:

Which among the three layers of blood vessel wall-Tunica intima, Tunica media and Tunica Externa is comparatively thin in the veins?

  • (1) Tunica externa
  • (2) Both tunica media and tunica externa
  • (3) Tunica media
  • (4) Tunica intima
Correct Answer: (3) Tunica media
View Solution

Question 37:

In nephron, transport of substances like sodium chloride and urea is facilitated by the special arrangement called counter current mechanism that comprises of

  • (1) Vasa Recta and collecting duct
  • (2) Ascending limb and collecting duct
  • (3) Henle's loop and Vasa Recta
  • (4) Henle's loop and glomerulus
Correct Answer: (3) Henle's loop and Vasa Recta
View Solution

Question 38:

In the mechanism of muscle contraction or shortening of muscle, the __ get reduced whereas the __ retain the length.

  • (1) Z line, I bands
  • (2) A bands, Z line
  • (3) A bands, I bands
  • (4) I bands, A bands
Correct Answer: (4) I bands, A bands
View Solution

Question 39:

Identify the correct sequence of action potential as it arrives at the axon terminal from the choices given below:

  • (1) Axon terminal \(\rightarrow\) Post-synaptic membrane \(\rightarrow\) Synaptic cleft \(\rightarrow\) Synaptic vesicles Post-synaptic neuron
  • (2) Axon terminal \(\rightarrow\) Synaptic vesicles \(\rightarrow\) Post-synaptic membrane \(\rightarrow\) Synaptic cleft \(\rightarrow\) Post-synaptic neuron
  • (3) Axon terminal \(\rightarrow\) Synaptic vesicles \(\rightarrow\) Synaptic cleft \(\rightarrow\) Post-synaptic membrane \(\rightarrow\) Post-synaptic neuron
  • (4) Axon terminal \(\rightarrow\) Synaptic cleft \(\rightarrow\) Synaptic vesicles \(\rightarrow\) Post-synaptic neuron \(\rightarrow\) Post-synaptic membrane
Correct Answer: (3) Axon terminal \(\rightarrow\) Synaptic vesicles \(\rightarrow\) Synaptic cleft \(\rightarrow\) Post-synaptic membrane \(\rightarrow\) Post-synaptic neuron
View Solution

Question 40:

Identify the statement/s given below that does not correspond to the functions of cortisol

i) Maintains cardiovascular system and kidney functions
ii) Produces anti-inflammatory reactions
iii) Maintains electrolyte balance, osmosis and blood pressure
iv) Suppresses immune response
v) Stimulates RBC production

  • (1) iii only
  • (2) iv only
  • (3) i and ii only
  • (4) iii and iv only
Correct Answer: (1) iii only
View Solution

Question 41:

When pollen grains of a flower of plant pollinate the stigma flower of another plant, it is called

  • (1) Dichogamy
  • (2) Geitonogamy
  • (3) Xenogamy
  • (4) Autogamy
Correct Answer: (3) Xenogamy
View Solution

Question 42:

Fusion of a male gamete with the central cell in the embryo sac of an angiosperm is called

  • (1) Syngamy
  • (2) Apomixis
  • (3) Double fertilization
  • (4) Triple fusion
Correct Answer: (4) Triple fusion
View Solution

Question 43:

Which of these options is true in the context of the below diagram of pollen grain?

  • (1) 'A' is a generative cell which gives rise to pollen tube and 'B' is a vegetative cell which forms male gametes
  • (2) 'A' is a vegetative cell with abundant food reserve and 'B' is a generative cell which forms male gametes
  • (3) 'A' is a generative cell which forms male gametes and 'B' is a vegetative cell which produces pollen tube
  • (4) 'A' is a vegetative cell which gives rise to male gametes and 'B' is a generative cell which produces pollen tube
Correct Answer: (2) A' is a vegetative cell with abundant food reserve and 'B' is a generative cell which forms male gametes
View Solution

Question 44:

Match the hormone with its site of production:

  • (1) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
  • (2) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
  • (3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
  • (4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Question 45:

Choose the correct sequence of sperm transport during ejaculation

  • (1) Seminiferous tubules \(\rightarrow\) vasa efferentia \(\rightarrow\) rete testis \(\rightarrow\) epididymis \(\rightarrow\) vas deferens \(\rightarrow\) ejaculatory duct
  • (2) Seminiferous tubules \(\rightarrow\) rete testis \(\rightarrow\) epididymis \(\rightarrow\) vas deferens \(\rightarrow\) vasa efferentia \(\rightarrow\) ejaculatory duct
  • (3) Seminiferous tubules \(\rightarrow\) rete testis \(\rightarrow\) vasa efferentia \(\rightarrow\) epididymis \(\rightarrow\) vas deferens \(\rightarrow\) ejaculatory duct
  • (4) Seminiferous tubules \(\rightarrow\) rete testis \(\rightarrow\) epididymis \(\rightarrow\) vasa efferentia \(\rightarrow\) vas deferens \(\rightarrow\) ejaculatory duct
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Question 46:

Select the mismatched pair:
a) First month of pregnancy-Formation of heart
b) Second month of pregnancy-Movement of foetus
c) Third month of pregnancy-Formation of most of the major organ systems
d) Sixth month of pregnancy-Eye lids separate and eye lashes are formed

  • (1) c
  • (2) d
  • (3) a
  • (4) b
Correct Answer: (4) b
View Solution

Question 47:

Out of the following options, identify which one is NOT a natural method of contraception?

  • (1) Lactational amenorrhea
  • (2) Periodic abstinence
  • (3) Coitus interruptus
  • (4) Implants
Correct Answer: (4) Implants
View Solution

Question 48:

In zygote intrafallopian tube transfer, the embryo upto __ stage is transferred into the fallopian tube

  • (1) 8 blastomeres
  • (2) 32 blastomeres
  • (3) 2 blastomeres
  • (4) 16 blastomeres
Correct Answer: (1) 8 blastomeres
View Solution

Question 49:

Read the following statements:
Statements - I : MTP is to get rid off wanted pregnancies due to causal unprotected intercourse or failure of contraceptives used during coitus or rapes
Statements - II: MTPs are performed legally by qualified doctors by giving proper medical justification

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Statements - I is correct but Statements - II is incorrect
  • (2) Statements - I is incorrect but Statements - II is correct
  • (3) Statements - I and II are correct
  • (4) Statements - I and II are incorrect
Correct Answer: (2) Statements - I is incorrect but Statements - II is correct
View Solution

Question 50:

How may types of gametes will be formed by a parent with genotype ‘AaBbCc’?

  • (1) 8
  • (2) 12
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 4
Correct Answer: (1) 8
View Solution

Question 51:

When single gene exhibits multiple phenotypic expression, the phenomenon is called __

  • (1) Pleiotropy
  • (2) Co-dominance
  • (3) Polygenic inheritance
  • (4) Incomplete dominance
Correct Answer: (1) Pleiotropy
View Solution

Question 52:

A colourblind man marries a carrier woman. The percentage of their colourblind progeny in the next generation will be __

  • (1) 75%
  • (2) 100%
  • (3) 25%
  • (4) 50%
Correct Answer: (4) 50%
View Solution

Question 53:

Identify which one of the given pair of options is correct with respect to Down's syndrome and Turner's syndrome

  • (1) c
  • (2) d
  • (3) a
  • (4) b
Correct Answer: (1) c
View Solution

Question 54:

RNA polymerase II is responsible for the transcription of __

  • (1) hnRNA
  • (2) snRNA
  • (3) tRNA
  • (4) rRNA
Correct Answer: (1) hnRNA
View Solution

Question 55:

Which of the following enzymes increases the permeability of the bacterial cell to lactose?

  • (1) Transacetylase
  • (2) Amylase
  • (3) \(\beta\)-galactosidase
  • (4) Permease
Correct Answer: (4) Permease
View Solution

Question 56:

Which of the following statements are correct with reference to prokaryotic genome?

  • (1) Monocistronic structural genes
  • (2) Introns absent in structural genes
  • (3) Transcription and translation are coupled processes
  • (4) Primary transcript undergoes splicing
  • (5) Only one RNA polymerase is present
Correct Answer: (4) Only b, c and e are correct
View Solution

Question 57:

When a change in the gene frequency of population occurs by chance, it is called

  • (1) Genetic recombination
  • (2) Genetic drift
  • (3) Founder effect
  • (4) Gene migration
Correct Answer: (2) Genetic drift
View Solution

Question 58:

Darwin’s finches represent one of the best examples of ____

  • (1) Chemical evolution
  • (2) Genetic equilibrium
  • (3) Seasonal migration
  • (4) Adaptive radiation
Correct Answer: (4) Adaptive radiation
View Solution

Question 59:

Choose the correct statement from the following:

  • (1) Charles Darwin travelled around the world in a ship called HMS Beagle
  • (2) There has been gradual evolution of life forms
  • (3) According to Darwin, fitness refers to physical fitness only
  • (4) Fossils are remains of hard parts of life forms found in rocks
  • (5) Hugo De Vries, a naturalist worked in Malay Archipelago.
Correct Answer: (1) a, b and d are correct
View Solution

Question 60:

In which of the following, HIV replicates and produces its progeny viruses?

  • (1) Killer T-lymphocytes
  • (2) Suppressor T-lymphocytes
  • (3) Helper T-lymphocytes
  • (4) Memory T-lymphocytes
Correct Answer: (3) Helper T-lymphocytes
View Solution


 

Also Check: 
KCET 2025 April 17 Mathematics Question Paper

KCET 2025 Biology Difficulty level

The KCET 2025 Biology paper was of moderate difficulty level with approximately 60–70% direct NCERT-based questions.

Topics such as Ecology, Biotechnology, and Microbes will be scoring ones, while Human and Plant Physiology might have concept-based or confusing questions.

Biology Section Expected Difficulty Level Remarks
Human Physiology Moderate to High Concept-oriented, has subjects like digestion, respiration, circulation
Genetics & Evolution Moderate Needs lucid knowledge of Mendelian laws, DNA structure, etc.
Plant Physiology Moderate Subjects like Photosynthesis, Respiration are tricky but linear
Ecology & Environment Easy to Moderate Theory-oriented; mostly direct and scoring
Cell Biology & Biomolecules Moderate Knowledge of cell structure, organelles, and enzymes necessary
Biotechnology Easy to Moderate Primarily application-based; generally has 3–5 simple questions
Reproduction Moderate Reproduction in plants and animals included; diagrams crucial
Diversity of Living Organisms Easy Fundamentals of classification; fact-based questions likely
Structural Organisation in Animals & Plants Moderate May be lengthy because of diagram-based or structural Qs
Health, Disease & Microbes in Human Welfare Easy Primarily direct NCERT lines; highly scoring segment

KCET 2025 Safe Score: Minimum Marks for Top Ranks

KCET 2025 Biology Topics

KCET Biology typically focuses on the Class 11 and Class 12 biology syllabus as prescribed by the Karnataka State Board, specifically covering topics from botany, zoology, and general biology. Here are the most important topics with their expected weightage

Topic Weightage Expected Number of Questions
Human Physiology 25% 10
Plant Physiology 20% 8
Genetics and Evolution 25% 10
Ecology and Environment 15% 6
Cell Biology 10% 4
Biotechnology 5% 2

Also Check:

KCET Previous Year Question Papers

KCET Questions

  • 1.
    Fusion of a male gamete with the central cell in the embryo sac of an angiosperm is called

      • Syngamy
      • Apomixis
      • Double fertilization
      • Triple fusion

    • 2.
      Primary endosperm nucleus is formed by fusion of

        • Two polar nuclei and two male gametes
        • Two polar nuclei and one male gamete
        • Ovum and male gamete
        • One polar nucleus and male gamete

      • 3.
        When a flower has both stamens and carpels, it is described as:

          • Asexual
          • Unisexual
          • Bisexual
          • Dioecious

        • 4.
          In Bryophyllum, the adventitious buds arise from

            • Leaf base
            • Leaf axil
            • Notches in the leaf margin
            • Shoot apex

          • 5.
            Which of the following exhibits a haplodiplontic lifecycle?

              • Fucus
              • Chlamydomonas
              • Gelidium
              • Ectocarpus

            • 6.
              Bamboo species flowers

                • Twice in 50-100 years
                • Every year
                • Once in 12 years
                • Once in lifetime

              Fees Structure

              Structure based on different categories

              CategoriesState
              General750
              sc500

              Note: INR 750/- in case of candidates residing outside the state of Karnataka and INR 5,000/- in case of candidates residing outside India.

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