KCET 2024 Biology Question Paper: Download Question Paper with Solution PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Updated 3+ months ago

KCET 2024 Biology Question Paper is available here for download. KCET Biology question paper was conducted on April 18, 2024 by Karnataka Examination Authority (KEA). KCET 2024 Biology question paper consists of 60 questions to be attempted in 80 minutes for a total of 60 marks.

KCET 2024 Biology Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

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KCET 2024 Biology Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

Which among the following is used to treat Emphysema?

  • (A) Human Hormone - α-Antitrypsin
  • (B) Human α-Interferon
  • (C) Human protein - α-Antitrypsin
  • (D) Human α-Lactalbumin
Correct Answer: (C) Human protein - α-Antitrypsin
View Solution

Question 2:

Homeostasis is a condition where the organisms:

  • (A) Maintain a constant internal environment in an ever-changing external environment
  • (B) Do not maintain a constant internal environment
  • (C) Change their internal environment according to their external environment
  • (D) Change their internal environment when the external environment is constant
Correct Answer: (A) Maintain a constant internal environment in an ever-changing external environment
View Solution

Question 3:

Which of the following is not a parasitic adaptation?

  • (A) Loss of unnecessary sense organs
  • (B) Absence of adhesive organs or suckers
  • (C) Loss of digestive system
  • (D) High reproductive capacity
Correct Answer: (B) Absence of adhesive organs or suckers
View Solution

Question 4:

DNA polymerase of Thermus aquaticus is:

  • (A) Thermolabile
  • (B) Thermophobic
  • (C) Exonuclease
  • (D) Thermostable
Correct Answer: (D) Thermostable
View Solution

Question 5:

If a recombinant DNA bearing a gene for resistance to Ampicillin is transferred into E.coli cells, host cells become transformed into Ampicillin-resistant cells. What happens when these E.coli are grown on a medium containing Ampicillin?

  • (A) Non-transformants will grow and transformants will die
  • (B) Non-transformants will die and transformants will grow
  • (C) Both non-transformants and transformants will die
  • (D) Both non-transformants and transformants will grow
Correct Answer: (B) Non-transformants will die and transformants will grow
View Solution

Question 6:

Which of the following is based on the principle of antigen-antibody interaction?

  • (A) PCR
  • (B) ELISA
  • (C) rDNA technology
  • (D) Gel Electrophoresis
Correct Answer: (B) ELISA
View Solution

Question 7:

A strict protection of biodiversity hotspots could reduce the ongoing mass extinction by almost:

  • (A) 20%
  • (B) 25%
  • (C) 30%
  • (D) 35%
Correct Answer: (C) 30%
View Solution

Question 8:

Identify the incorrect match with respect to recently extinct animals and their place of extinction according to the IUCN Red List:

  • (A) Dodo - Mauritius
  • (B) Quagga - Africa
  • (C) Thylacine - Australia
  • (D) Steller's Sea Cow - North America
Correct Answer: (D) Steller's Sea Cow - North America
View Solution

Question 9:

According to the hypothesis proposed by environmental biologists, a relatively constant environment in tropics promotes:

  • (A) Niche specialization and lesser species diversity
  • (B) Niche specialization and greater species diversity
  • (C) Niche diversity and lesser species specialization
  • (D) Niche diversity and greater species specialization
Correct Answer: (B) Niche specialization and greater species diversity
View Solution

Question 10:

In the prevention of air pollution, the role of a scrubber is to remove:

  • (A) Particulate SO₂
  • (B) Liquid SO₂
  • (C) Gaseous SO₂
  • (D) Liquid SO₃
Correct Answer: (C) Gaseous SO₂
View Solution

Question 11:

Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer.

List-I:

1) Nitrogen rich fertilizers

2) Carbon dioxide

3) Carbon monoxide

4) CFC's

List-II:

p) Ozone depletion

q) Eutrophication

r) Greenhouse effect

s) Air pollutant

  • (A) 1-p, 2-q, 3-r, 4-s
  • (B) 1-q, 2-r, 3-s, 4-p
  • (C) 1-r, 2-s, 3-p, 4-q
  • (D) 1-s, 2-p, 3-q, 4-r
Correct Answer: (B) 1-q, 2-r, 3-s, 4-p
View Solution

Question 12:

Following representations P, Q, and R denote a few steps of Griffith's Experiment. Identify the correct one(s).

Steps:

P. R strain → Inject into mice → Mice die

Q. S strain (Heat killed) → Inject into mice → Mice die

R. R strain → Inject into mice → Mice live

  • (A) P only
  • (B) R only
  • (C) P and R
  • (D) Q and R
Correct Answer: (B) R only
View Solution

Question 13:

In tRNA, the region that binds with mRNA is:

  • (A) Anticodon loop of tRNA
  • (B) Amino acid acceptor end of tRNA
  • (C) Amino acyl synthetase loop of tRNA
  • (D) Ribosomal binding loop of tRNA
Correct Answer: (A) Anticodon loop of tRNA
View Solution

Question 14:

The mRNA has Untranslated Regions (UTRs):

  • (A) At 3' -end beyond Terminator codon
  • (B) At 5' -end before AUG
  • (C) At both 3' -end and 5' -end beyond Terminator codon and before AUG respectively
  • (D) AUG and Terminator codon flank the UTR
Correct Answer: (C) At both 3' -end and 5' -end beyond Terminator codon and before AUG respectively
View Solution

Question 15:

In a structural gene, the template DNA strand has nucleotide sequences: 3' ATGCATGCATGCATGC 5'. Find the correct and complementary nucleotide sequence on the coding strand.

  • (A) 5' ATGCATGCATGCATGC 3'
  • (B) 3' GCATGCATGCATGCAT 5'
  • (C) 5' TACGTACGTACGTACG 3'
  • (D) 3' TACGTACGTACGTACG 5'
Correct Answer: (C) 5' TACGTACGTACGTACG 3'
View Solution

Question 16:

Read the following statements:
Statement I: All vertebrates develop a row of vestigial gill slits during the embryonic stage.
Statement II: Embryos always pass through the adult stages of other animals.
Which of the following options is correct with reference to these statements?

  • (A) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect.
  • (B) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct.
  • (C) Both Statements I and II are correct.
  • (D) Both Statements I and II are incorrect.
Correct Answer: (A) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect.
View Solution

Question 17:

Which of the following exhibits a haplodiplontic lifecycle?

  • (A) Fucus
  • (B) Chlamydomonas
  • (C) Gelidium
  • (D) Ectocarpus
Correct Answer: (D) Ectocarpus
View Solution

Question 18:

Identify the phylum which shows the following characteristics:
1. Animals are exclusively marine, radially symmetrical, and diploblastic.
2. Body bears eight external rows of ciliated comb plates which help in locomotion.
3. Digestion is both extracellular and intracellular.
4. Reproduction only by sexual modes.

  • (A) Coelenterata
  • (B) Mollusca
  • (C) Arthropoda
  • (D) Ctenophora
Correct Answer: (D) Ctenophora
View Solution

Question 19:

When a flower has both stamens and carpels, it is described as:

  • (A) Asexual
  • (B) Unisexual
  • (C) Bisexual
  • (D) Dioecious
Correct Answer: (C) Bisexual
View Solution

Question 20:

Ciliated epithelial cells are present in:

  • (A) Kidneys
  • (B) Intestines
  • (C) Blood Vessels
  • (D) Bronchioles
Correct Answer: (D) Bronchioles
View Solution

Question 21:

Which of the following statements is correct with reference to vacuoles?

  • (A) It is membrane bound and contains storage proteins and lipids.
  • (B) It is membrane bound and contains water and excretory substances.
  • (C) It lacks membrane and contains air.
  • (D) It lacks membrane and contains water and excretory substances.
Correct Answer: (B) It is membrane bound and contains water and excretory substances.
View Solution

Question 22:

Exoskeleton of Arthropods is made up of a unique complex polysaccharide known as:

  • (A) Hyaluronic Acid
  • (B) Chitin
  • (C) Waxes
  • (D) Cellulose
Correct Answer: (B) Chitin
View Solution

Question 23:

The enzyme Recombinase is required at which stage of Meiosis I?

  • (A) Pachytene
  • (B) Zygotene
  • (C) Diplotene
  • (D) Diakinesis
Correct Answer: (A) Pachytene
View Solution

Question 24:

The water potential of pure water is:

  • (A) One
  • (B) More than one
  • (C) Zero
  • (D) Less than zero
Correct Answer: (C) Zero
View Solution

Question 25:

Match the pigments given in List I with their colour in the chromatogram given in List II.

List I (Pigments):

1. Chlorophyll 'b'

2. Carotenoids

3. Chlorophyll 'a'

4. Xanthophylls

List II (Colour in chromatogram):

p. Yellow orange

q. Orange red

r. Yellow

s. Blue green

t. Yellow green

  • (A) 1-s, 2-t, 3-r, 4-q
  • (B) 1-t, 2-p, 3-s, 4-r
  • (C) 1-p, 2-q, 3-r, 4-t
  • (D) 1-t, 2-p, 3-r, 4-s
Correct Answer: (B) 1-t, 2-p, 3-s, 4-r
View Solution

Question 26:

Which is the intermediate compound that links the end product of Glycolysis with TCA Cycle?

  • (A) Acetyl CoA
  • (B) Pyruvic Acid
  • (C) OAA
  • (D) Citric Acid
Correct Answer: (A) Acetyl CoA
View Solution

Question 27:

Auxins : Apical dominance :: Gibberellins : ________

  • (A) Adventitious shoot formation
  • (B) Accelerates abscission
  • (C) Closure of stomata
  • (D) Bolting
Correct Answer: (D) Bolting
View Solution

Question 28:

The term Uremia refers to:

  • (A) Accumulation of Urea in blood.
  • (B) Presence of Glucose in the urine.
  • (C) Accumulation of Uric acid in blood.
  • (D) Accumulation of Uric acid in kidneys.
Correct Answer: (A) Accumulation of Urea in blood.
View Solution

Question 29:

The typical 'lub-dub' sounds heard during heartbeat are produced due to:

  • (A) Closure of semilunar valves
  • (B) Closure of bicuspid and tricuspid valves
  • (C) Closure of bicuspid and tricuspid valves followed by semilunar valves
  • (D) Opening of bicuspid and tricuspid valves followed by semilunar valves
Correct Answer: (C) Closure of bicuspid and tricuspid valves followed by semilunar valves
View Solution

Question 30:

The functional unit of contraction is a:

  • (A) Portion of myofibril between two successive Z-lines
  • (B) Portion of myofibril between two successive M-lines
  • (C) Centre of the H-zone
  • (D) Centre of the I-band
Correct Answer: (A) Portion of myofibril between two successive Z-lines
View Solution

Question 31:

Match the parts of the brain given in List I with their functions given in List II.

List I: (Parts of the brain)

1. Medulla oblongata

2. Hypothalamus

3. Cerebral cortex

4. Limbic system

List II: (Functions)

p. Body temperature

q. Olfaction

r. Respiration

s. Motor function

  • (A) 1-p, 2-r, 3-s, 4-q
  • (B) 1-q, 2-s, 3-r, 4-p
  • (C) 1-s, 2-p, 3-q, 4-r
  • (D) 1-r, 2-p, 3-s, 4-q
Correct Answer: (D) 1-r, 2-p, 3-s, 4-q
View Solution

Question 32:

Hydra reproduces asexually by producing:

  • (A) Zoospores
  • (B) Conidia
  • (C) Buds
  • (D) Gemmule
Correct Answer: (C) Buds
View Solution

Question 33:

When male and female gametes are morphologically distinct, the condition is known as:

  • (A) Homogametes
  • (B) Heterogametes
  • (C) Hermaphrodites
  • (D) Sexual Dimorphism
Correct Answer: (B) Heterogametes
View Solution

Question 34:

The role of Filiform apparatus in synergids is to:

  • (A) Protect the egg apparatus
  • (B) Endosperm formation
  • (C) Guide the entry of pollen tube
  • (D) Prevention of gamete entry
Correct Answer: (C) Guide the entry of pollen tube
View Solution

Question 35:

Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant is called:

  • (A) Xenogamy
  • (B) Autogamy
  • (C) Cleistogamy
  • (D) Geitonogamy
Correct Answer: (D) Geitonogamy
View Solution

Question 36:

Match the content of List I with List II:

List I:

1. Polyembryony

2. Perisperm

3. False fruit

4. Parthenocarpy

List II:

p. Black pepper

q. Banana

r. Lemon

s. Apple

  • (A) 1-r, 2-p, 3-s, 4-q
  • (B) 1-p, 2-r, 3-s, 4-q
  • (C) 1-q, 2-p, 3-s, 4-r
  • (D) 1-r, 2-s, 3-p, 4-q
Correct Answer: (A) 1-r, 2-p, 3-s, 4-q
View Solution

Question 37:

Which of the following hormones is not secreted by human placenta?

  • (A) Progestogen
  • (B) HCG
  • (C) Estrogen
  • (D) LH
Correct Answer: (D) LH
View Solution

Question 38:

In human females, the endometrium of the uterus consists of:

  • (A) Smooth muscle
  • (B) Glandular layer
  • (C) Adipose layer
  • (D) Cartilaginous layer
Correct Answer: (B) Glandular layer
View Solution

Question 39:

If two primary spermatocytes and two primary oocytes undergo meiosis simultaneously, what will be the ratio of spermatozoa and ova produced at the end of gametogenesis?

  • (A) 2:1
  • (B) 4:1
  • (C) 6:2
  • (D) 1:2
Correct Answer: (B) 4:1
View Solution

Question 40:

The Government of India legalized MTP with some strict regulations in the year:

  • (A) 1951
  • (B) 1961
  • (C) 1971
  • (D) 2001
Correct Answer: (C) 1971
View Solution

Question 41:

The process in which a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through a small incision, is called:

  • (A) MTP
  • (B) Vasectomy
  • (C) Tubectomy
  • (D) GIFT
Correct Answer: (B) Vasectomy
View Solution

Question 42:

Test cross in pea plant is:

  • (A) A cross between F2 tall plant and recessive parent.
  • (B) A cross between F2 dwarf plant and recessive parent.
  • (C) A cross between F2 tall plant with dominant parent.
  • (D) A cross between two F1 plants.
Correct Answer: (A) A cross between F2 tall plant and recessive parent.
View Solution

Question 43:

The genotype ratio of incomplete dominance is:

  • (A) 3:1
  • (B) 1:2:1
  • (C) 1:1:2
  • (D) 9:3:3:1
Correct Answer: (B) 1:2:1
View Solution

Question 44:

Find the incorrect statement among the following:

  • (A) In sex-linked recessive traits, the gene is transmitted from an unaffected carrier female to some of the male progeny.
  • (B) Accumulation of phenylpyruvic acid in the brain results in mental retardation.
  • (C) Individuals affected by Down's Syndrome will have congenital heart defects and are more intelligent.
  • (D) Turner's Syndrome is caused due to the absence of one X chromosome.
Correct Answer: (C) Individuals affected by Down's Syndrome will have congenital heart defects and are more intelligent.
View Solution

Question 45:

In a dihybrid cross between a true breeding round yellow seeded and true breeding wrinkled green seeded pea plant, the ratio of segregation of round and wrinkled seed traits in F2 is:

  • (A) 9:1
  • (B) 3:1
  • (C) 9:3
  • (D) 3:3
Correct Answer: (B) 3:1
View Solution

Question 46:

Stanley Miller simulated the conditions of pre-biotic Earth using a spark-discharge apparatus. Which organic compounds were observed by him on analyzing the end product of his experiment?

  • (A) Pigments
  • (B) Fats
  • (C) Nitrogen bases
  • (D) Amino acids
Correct Answer: (D) Amino acids
View Solution

Question 47:

The most ape-like ancestral primate was:

  • (A) Dryopithecus
  • (B) Ramapithecus
  • (C) Australopithecus
  • (D) Neanderthal man
Correct Answer: (A) Dryopithecus
View Solution

Question 48:

The principle of vaccination is based on which property of the immune system?

  • (A) Memory
  • (B) Specificity
  • (C) Diversity
  • (D) Plasticity
Correct Answer: (A) Memory
View Solution

Question 49:

The genome of HIV replicates in the macrophages with the help of an enzyme called:

  • (A) DNA Polymerase
  • (B) RNA Polymerase
  • (C) Reverse Transcriptase
  • (D) DNA Ligase
Correct Answer: (C) Reverse Transcriptase
View Solution

Question 50:

Read the following statements:
Statement I: Morphine is obtained by acetylation of Heroin.
Statement II: Cannabinoids are known for their effect on the cardiovascular system.
Which of the following options is correct with reference to these statements?

  • (A) Both Statements I and II are correct.
  • (B) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
  • (C) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
  • (D) Both Statements I and II are incorrect.
Correct Answer: (C) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
View Solution

Question 51:

Mule is the result of:

  • (A) Out-crossing
  • (B) Cross-breeding
  • (C) Interspecific hybridization
  • (D) Out-breeding
Correct Answer: (C) Interspecific hybridization
View Solution

Question 52:

Identify the bacterial disease among the following:

  • (A) Brown rust of wheat
  • (B) Tobacco mosaic disease
  • (C) Black rot of crucifers
  • (D) Late blight of potato
Correct Answer: (C) Black rot of crucifers
View Solution

Question 53:

Match the nutrients given in List-I with the source in List-II:

List-I:

1. Vitamin A

2. Single cell protein

3. Vitamin C

4. Protein

List-II:

p. Bitter gourd

q. Beans

r. Carrots

s. Spirulina spp

  • (A) 1-p, 2-q, 3-r, 4-s
  • (B) 1-r, 2-s, 3-p, 4-q
  • (C) 1-p, 2-r, 3-s, 4-q
  • (D) 1-q, 2-s, 3-p, 4-r
Correct Answer: (B) 1-r, 2-s, 3-p, 4-q
View Solution

Question 54:

The chemical substances produced by some microbes which can kill or retard the growth of other microbes are known as:

  • (A) Statins
  • (B) Streptokinases
  • (C) Cyclosporins
  • (D) Antibiotics
Correct Answer: (D) Antibiotics
View Solution

Question 55:

Select the correct statement from the following:

  • (A) *Methanobacterium* is an aerobic bacterium found in the rumen of cattle.
  • (B) Biogas is produced by the activity of aerobic bacteria.
  • (C) Biogas is pure methane.
  • (D) Activated sludge in sediment tanks is a rich source of aerobic bacteria.
Correct Answer: (D) Activated sludge in sediment tanks is a rich source of aerobic bacteria.
View Solution

Question 56:

Which of these enzymes is required to cleave a plasmid?

  • (A) Ligase
  • (B) Endonuclease
  • (C) Exonuclease
  • (D) Polymerase
Correct Answer: (B) Endonuclease
View Solution

Question 57:

The natural reservoir of phosphorus is:

  • (A) Rocks
  • (B) Soil solution
  • (C) Detritus
  • (D) Atmosphere
Correct Answer: (A) Rocks
View Solution

Question 58:

The sequence of communities of primary succession in water is:

  • (A) Phytoplanktons → Scrubs → Free floating hydrophytes → Rooted hydrophytes → Grasses → Trees.
  • (B) Phytoplanktons → Free floating hydrophytes → Rooted hydrophytes → Trees → Scrubs.
  • (C) Free floating hydrophytes → Scrubs → Phytoplanktons → Rooted hydrophytes → Grasses → Trees.
  • (D) Phytoplanktons → Rooted hydrophytes → Free floating hydrophytes → Reed swamps → Marsh meadows → Scrubs → Trees.
Correct Answer: (D) Phytoplanktons → Rooted hydrophytes → Free floating hydrophytes → Reed swamps → Marsh meadows → Scrubs → Trees.
View Solution

Question 59:

Match the type of adaptation given in List-I with their examples given in List-II:

List-I (Types of adaptation):

1. Biochemical adaptation

2. Behavioural adaptation

3. Physiological adaptation

4. Morphological adaptation

List-II (Examples):

p. Desert lizards

q. Deep sea fishes

r. *Opuntia*

s. Kangaroo rats

  • (A) 1-q, 2-r, 3-s, 4-p
  • (B) 1-p, 2-q, 3-r, 4-s
  • (C) 1-q, 2-p, 3-s, 4-r
  • (D) 1-s, 2-r, 3-q, 4-p
Correct Answer: (C) 1-q, 2-p, 3-s, 4-r
View Solution

Question 60:

The annual net primary productivity of the biosphere is approximately:

  • (A) 170 billion tons
  • (B) 55 billion tons
  • (C) 170 million tons
  • (D) 55 million tons
Correct Answer: (A) 170 billion tons
View Solution


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