KCET 2023 Biology Question Paper (Available): Download Set C1 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

Question 1:

In the female reproductive system, a tiny finger-like structure which lies at the upper junction of the two labia minora above the urethral opening is called:

• (A) Clitoris
• (B) Hymen
• (C) Vagina
• (D) Mons pubis

Consider the following statements with reference to female reproductive system:
Statement 1: The presence or absence of the hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity or sexual experience.

Statement 2: The sex of the foetus is determined by the father and not by the mother.

Choose the correct option from the following:

• (A) Statement 1 is wrong and Statement 2 is correct.
• (B) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is wrong.
• (C) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are wrong.
• (D) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct.

The male sex accessory ducts include:

• (A) Rete testis, vasa efferentia, seminal vesicle and vas deferens
• (B) Rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and seminal vesicle
• (C) Rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas deferens
• (D) Rete testis, vasa efferentia, seminal vesicle and vas deferens

With reference to human sperm, match the List-I with List-II.

• (A) 1-q, 2-s, 3-r, 4-p
• (B) 1-s, 2-p, 3-q, 4-r
• (C) 1-r, 2-q, 3-s, 4-p
• (D) 1-s, 2-r, 3-p, 4-q

Which pair of the following cells in the embryo sac are destined to change their ploidy after fertilization?

• (A) Central cell and antipodals
• (B) Antipodals and synergids
• (C) Egg cell and central cell
• (D) Synergids and egg cell

Which of the following is abbreviated as ZIFT?

• (A) Zygote Intra Fallopian Tube
• (B) Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer
• (C) Zygote Inter Fallopian Tube
• (D) Zygote Inter Fallopian Transfer

An example for hormone releasing IUD is

• (A) Lippes loop
• (B) LNG-20
• (C) Implant
• (D) Multiload 375

MTPs are considered relatively safe during

• (A) 180 days of pregnancy
• (B) Second trimester
• (C) First trimester
• (D) 24 weeks of pregnancy

Which of the following statements is correct?

• (A) Sickle cell anaemia is a quantitative problem.
• (B) Thalassemia is a qualitative problem.
• (C) Female carrier for haemophilia may transmit the disease to sons.
• (D) Change in whole set of chromosomes is called aneuploidy.

'Gene-mapping' technology was developed by

• (A) Sturtevant
• (B) Tschermak
• (C) Mendel
• (D) Correns

Find the correct statement.

Statement 1: Generally, a gene regulates a trait, but sometimes one gene has an effect on multiple traits.

Statement 2:The trait AB-blood group of man is regulated by one dominant allele and another recessive allele. Hence it is co-dominant.


Choose the correct option from the following:

• (A) Both Statements (1) and (2) are correct.
• (B) Statement (1) is correct.
• (C) Both the Statements are wrong.
• (D) Statement (2) is correct.

From the following table, select the option that correctly characterizes various phases of the menstrual cycle:

• (A) Menses, L.H. Surge, Regeneration of endometrium
• (B) Matured follicle, Regression of corpus luteum, Ovulation
• (C) Regeneration of endometrium, High level of progesterone, Developing corpus luteum
• (D) Menses, Developing corpus luteum, Follicle maturation

In one of the hybridisation experiments, a homozygous dominant parent and a homozygous recessive parent are crossed for a trait. (Plant shows Mendelian inheritance pattern)

• (A) Dominant parent trait appears in F1 generation and recessive parent trait appears in F2 generations.
• (B) Dominant parent trait appears in F1 generation and recessive parent trait appears in F2 generation.
• (C) Dominant parent trait appears in F2 generation and recessive parent trait appears only in F1 generation.
• (D) Dominant parent trait appears in both F1 \& F2 generations, recessive parent trait appears in only F2 generation.

Histone proteins are positively charged because they are rich in basic amino acid residues.

• (A) Arginine and Phenylalanine
• (B) Arginine and Alanine
• (C) Arginine and Proline
• (D) Arginine and Lysine

Eukaryotic genes are monocistronic but they are split genes because

• (A) Exons are interrupted by Introns.
• (B) they contain Exons only.
• (C) Introns are interrupted with Mutons.
• (D) they contain Introns only.

The Lac-Operon model was elucidated by

• (A) Hershey and Chase
• (B) Watson and Crick
• (C) Jacob and Crick
• (D) Francois Jacob and Jaques Monad

Which of these is NOT an example of Adaptive radiation?

• (A) Placental mammals
• (B) Darwin's finches
• (C) Long-necked Giraffe
• (D) Australian marsupials

In a population of 800 rabbits showing Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of recessive individuals was 0.16. What is the frequency of heterozygous individuals?

• (A) 0.84
• (B) 0.4
• (C) 0.36
• (D) 0.48

In male heterogametic type of sex determination

• (A) Male parent produces dissimilar gametes.
• (B) Male parent produces similar gametes.
• (C) Males do not produce gametes.
• (D) Female parent produces dissimilar gametes.

Identify the symptoms of pneumonia.

• (A) Constipation, Abdominal pain, cramps, blood clots
• (B) Difficulty in breathing, fever, chills, cough, headache
• (C) High fever, weakness, stomach pain, loss of appetite
• (D) Nasal congestion and discharge, cough, sore throat, headache

The variety of Okra, Pusa Sawani is resistant to which of the following insect pests?

• (A) Shoot \& Fruit borer
• (B) Aphids
• (C) Cereal leaf beetle
• (D) Jassids

With respect to Inbreeding, which among the following is not true?

• (A) It helps in elimination of less desirable genes.
• (B) Inbreeding decreases homozygosity.
• (C) It helps to evolve a pure line in an animal.
• (D) It helps in accumulation of superior genes.

Identify from the following a pair of better yielding semi dwarf varieties of rice developed in India.

• (A) Jaya and Kalyan Sona
• (B) Jaya and Ratna
• (C) Kalyan Sona and Sonalika
• (D) Sonalika and Ratna

In MoET technique fertilized eggs are transferred into surrogate mother in which of the following stage?

• (A) 8-32 celled stage
• (B) 2-4 celled stage
• (C) 16-32 celled stage
• (D) 8-16 celled stage

Roquefort cheese is ripened by

• (A) Virus
• (B) Bacterium
• (C) Yeast
• (D) Fungi

Four students were assigned a science project to find out the pollution levels of lakes in their surroundings. After analyzing the quality of water samples, the BOD values were found as follows:

• (A) 6 mg/L
• (B) 0.6 mg/L
• (C) 0.16 mg/L
• (D) 0.06 mg/L

The toxic substance 'haemozoin' responsible for high fever and chill, is released in which of the following diseases?

• (A) Malaria
• (B) Dengue
• (C) Typhoid
• (D) Pneumonia

Which of these is NOT a method to make host cells 'competent' to take up DNA?

• (A) Biolistics
• (B) Micro-injection
• (C) Use of disarmed pathogen vectors
• (D) Elution

Select the correct statement from the following:

Choose the incorrect statement with reference to Kangaroo rat.

• (A) Uses minimal water to remove excretory products.
• (B) Found in North American desert.
• (C) Eliminates dilute urine.
• (D) Meets its water requirements through internal fat oxidation.

Generally, bears avoid winter by undergoing

• (A) Aestivation
• (B) Diapause
• (C) Migration
• (D) Hibernation

Match Column-I with Column-II. Select the option with correct combination.

• (A) 1-q, 2-r, 3-s, 4-p
• (B) 1-q, 2-r, 3-p, 4-s
• (C) 1-p, 2-s, 3-r, 4-q
• (D) 1-p, 2-r, 3-s, 4-q

PCR is used for

• (A) DNA digestion
• (B) DNA isolation
• (C) DNA amplification
• (D) DNA ligation

The toxic heavy metals from various industries which cause water pollution, normally have a density

• (A) more than 7.5 g/cm³
• (B) more than 5 g/cm³
• (C) more than 12.5 g/cm³
• (D) more than 15 g/cm³

Identify the correct option showing the relative contribution of different greenhouse gases to the total global warming.

• (A) CFC–14%, CO\textsubscript{2}–60%, Methane–6%, N\textsubscript{2}O–20%
• (B) CFC–14%, CO\textsubscript{2}–60%, Methane–20%, N\textsubscript{2}O–6%
• (C) CFC–20%, CO\textsubscript{2}–60%, Methane–14%, N\textsubscript{2}O–6%
• (D) CFC–6%, CO\textsubscript{2}–60%, Methane–20%, N\textsubscript{2}O–14%

A flower has 10 stamens each having bilobed dithecous anther. If each microsporangium has 5 pollen mother cells, how many pollen grains would be produced by the flower?

• (A) 800
• (B) 200
• (C) 1600
• (D) 400

During transcription the DNA strand with 3' \(\rightarrow\) 5' polarity of the structural gene always acts as a template because

• (A) Enzyme DNA dependent RNA polymerase always catalyse polymerisation in both the directions.
• (B) Enzyme DNA dependent RNA polymerase always catalyse the polymerisation in 5' \(\rightarrow\) 3' direction.
• (C) Nucleotides of DNA strand with 5' \(\rightarrow\) 3' are transferred to mRNA.
• (D) Enzyme DNA dependent RNA polymerase always catalyse the polymerisation in 3' \(\rightarrow\) 5' direction.

According to David Tilman's long term ecosystem experiments, the total biomass in plots with more species shows,

• (A) Average variation from year-to-year.
• (B) Less variation from year-to-year.
• (C) No variation from year-to-year.
• (D) High variation from year-to-year.

Identify the incorrect statement regarding the flow of energy between various components of the food chain.

• (A) Green plants capture about 10% of the solar energy that falls on leaves.
• (B) The amount of energy available at each trophic level is 10% of previous trophic level.
• (C) Each trophic level loses some energy as heat to the environment.
• (D) Energy flow is unidirectional.

Find out the correct match.

• (A) Filariasis - Common round worm - Small intestine
• (B) Ringworm - Fungus - Skin
• (C) Dysentery - Protozoa - Liver
• (D) Typhoid - Bacteria - Lungs

Match the following columns and choose the correct option:

• (A) s, p, q, r
• (B) q, r, s, p
• (C) r, p, s, q
• (D) r, s, p, q

From the following tools / techniques of genetic engineering, identify those which are required for cloning a bacterial gene in animal cells and choose the correct option:


I. Endonuclease
II. Ligase
III. \textit{A. tumefaciens
IV. Microinjection
V. Gene gun
VI. Lysozyme
VII. Cellulase
VIII. Electrophoresis

Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct option from the following:

• (A) q, p, s, r
• (B) s, r, q, p
• (C) q, s, p, r
• (D) r, p, s, q

Flame cells present in the members of platyhelminthes are specialized to perform

• (A) Respiration and Excretion
• (B) Osmoregulation and Circulation
• (C) Respiration and Osmoregulation
• (D) Osmoregulation and Excretion

Identify the floral formula of plant belonging to potato family.

• (A) \( \oplus, K(5), C_5, A_{9}+1, G_1 \)
• (B) \( \oplus, K(5), C_5, A_5, G_2 \)
• (C) \( \oplus, K_{10}, C_{10}, A_{10}, G_2 \)
• (D) \( \oplus, P_{3+3}, A_{3+3}, G_3 \)

When the vascular cambium is present between the xylem and phloem, then the vascular bundle is called:

• (A) Endarch
• (B) Exarch
• (C) Closed
• (D) Open

The function of Typhlosole in earthworm is:

• (A) Transportation
• (B) Grinding of soil particles
• (C) Increasing the effective area of absorption in the intestine
• (D) Grinding of decaying leaves

Select the correctly matched pair of organisms with their order.

• (A) Homo sapiens : Poales
• (B) Triticum aestivum : Sapindales
• (C) Mangifera indica : Primata
• (D) Musa domestica : Diptera

Match List-I and List-II with respect to proteins and their functions and select the correct option.

• (A) 1-s, 2-r, 3-q, 4-p
• (B) 1-q, 2-r, 3-p, 4-s
• (C) 1-s, 2-q, 3-r, 4-p
• (D) 1-s, 2-q, 3-s, 4-p

The complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is called,

• (A) Bivalent
• (B) Pentavalent
• (C) Univalent
• (D) Trivalent

Match column-I with column-II. Select the option with correct combination.

• (A) 1-q, 2-p, 3-s, 4-r
• (B) 1-q, 2-s, 3-r, 4-p
• (C) 1-q, 2-p, 3-p, 4-r
• (D) 1-q, 2-r, 3-p, 4-s

Toxicity of which micronutrient induces deficiency of iron, magnesium, and calcium?

• (A) Manganese
• (B) Zinc
• (C) Boron
• (D) Molybdenum

Considering the stroke volume of an adult healthy human being is 70 mL, identify the cardiac output in one hour from the following:

• (A) 302.4 Lit/hour
• (B) 504.0 Lit/hour
• (C) 50.40 Lit/hour
• (D) 302.4 Lit/hour

Function of contractile vacuole in Amoeba is:

• (A) Osmoregulation and movements
• (B) Excretion and osmoregulation
• (C) Digestion and excretion
• (D) Digestion and respiration

Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF) acts as a:

• (A) Vasoconstrictor
• (B) Check on Renin-Angiotensin mechanism
• (C) Hypertension inducer
• (D) Promoter on Renin-Angiotensin mechanism

The vibrations from the ear drum are transmitted through ear ossicles to:

• (A) Tectorial membrane
• (B) Cochlea
• (C) Auditory nerves
• (D) Oval window

Bamboo species flowers:

• (A) Once in lifetime
• (B) Every year
• (C) Twice in 50-100 years
• (D) Once in 12 years

In Bryophyllum, the adventitious buds arise from:

• (A) Shoot apex
• (B) Leaf axil
• (C) Leaf base
• (D) Notches in the leaf margin

Primary endosperm nucleus is formed by fusion of

• (A) One polar nucleus and male gamete
• (B) Two polar nuclei and one male gamete
• (C) Two polar nuclei and two male gametes
• (D) Ovum and male gamete

Identify the option showing the correct labelling for p, q, r, and s with reference to the conducting system of the human heart.

• (A) p- Bundle of His, q- SAN, r- Interventricular septum, s- AVN
• (B) p- SAN, q- AVN, r- Bundle of His, s- Interventricular septum
• (C) p- Interventricular septum, q- AVN, r- Bundle of His, s- SAN
• (D) p- AVN, q- SAN, r- Interventricular septum, s- Bundle of His