KCET 2022 Chemistry D1 Question Paper With Answer Key And Solutions PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Updated on - Nov 19, 2025

KCET 2022 Chemistry D-1 Question Paper with Answer Key pdf is available for download. The exam was conducted by Karnataka Examination Authority (KEA) on June 17, 2022. In terms of difficulty level, KCET Chemistry was of Easy level. The question paper comprised a total of 60 questions.

KCET 2022 Chemistry (D-1) Question Paper with Answer Key

KCET Chemistry (D-1) Question Paper 2022 with Answer Key download iconDownload Check Solution

KCET 2022 Chemistry D1 Question Paper  With Answer Key And Solutions PDF


Question 1:

In Carbylamine test for primary amines the resulting foul smelling product is

  • (A) CH₃NC
  • (B) CH₃NCl₂
  • (C) COCl₂
  • (D) CH₃CN
Correct Answer: (A) CH₃NC
View Solution

Carbylamine reaction (isocyanide test) is given by primary amines only.
R–NH₂ + CHCl₃ + 3KOH → R–NC (alkyl isocyanide) + 3KCl + 3H₂O
The foul-smelling product is alkyl/aryl isocyanide.
For methylamine: CH₃NH₂ → CH₃NC (methyl isocyanide) Quick Tip: Only 1° amines give carbylamine test → foul smell of R–NC.


Question 2:

Ethanoic acid undergoes Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction but Methanoic acid does not because of

  • (A) absence of α–H atom in ethanoic acid
  • (B) presence of α–H atom in methanoic acid
  • (C) higher acidic strength of ethanoic acid than methanoic acid
  • (D) presence of α–H atom in ethanoic acid
Correct Answer: (D) presence of α–H atom in ethanoic acid
View Solution

Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky (HVZ) reaction requires the presence of α-hydrogen atom in carboxylic acid.
The reaction involves α-bromination using X₂/P or X₂/red P.
Ethanoic acid: CH₃COOH → has α-H → undergoes HVZ
Methanoic acid: HCOOH → no α-H (the H is directly attached to carbonyl carbon) → does not undergo HVZ Quick Tip: HVZ reaction is possible only when the carboxylic acid has at least one α-hydrogen.


Question 3:

The general name of the compound formed by the reaction between aldehyde and alcohol is

  • (A) Glycol
  • (B) Ester
  • (C) Acetate
  • (D) Acetal
Correct Answer: (D) Acetal
View Solution

Aldehyde reacts with two molecules of monohydric alcohol (in presence of dry HCl) to form acetal.
RCHO + 2ROH → RCH(OR)₂ + H₂O
The product is called acetal (gem-dialkoxy compound).
Ketones form ketals similarly. Quick Tip: Aldehyde + 1 alcohol → hemiacetal Aldehyde + 2 alcohol → acetal


Question 4:

Reaction by which benzaldehyde cannot be prepared is

Correct Answer: (D) Benzoic acid + Zn-Hg and conc. HCl →
View Solution

(A) Etard reaction → gives benzaldehyde
(B) Gattermann-Koch reaction → gives benzaldehyde
(C) Rosenmund reduction → gives benzaldehyde
(D) Clemmensen reduction (Zn-Hg/conc. HCl) is used for carbonyl (aldehyde/ketone) → methylene (–CH₂–) conversion.
Benzoic acid (ArCOOH) cannot be reduced by Clemmensen reduction. It does not give benzaldehyde. Quick Tip: Clemmensen reduction is not applicable to aromatic acids.


Question 5:

The test to differentiate between pentan-2-one and pentan-3-one is

  • (A) Fehling’s test
  • (B) Baeyer’s test
  • (C) Iodoform test
  • (D) Benedict’s test
Correct Answer: (C) Iodoform test
View Solution

Pentan-2-one: CH₃COCH₂CH₂CH₃ → has CH₃CO– group → gives iodoform test (yellow ppt)
Pentan-3-one: CH₃CH₂COCH₂CH₃ → does not have CH₃CO– or CH₃CH(OH)– group → does not give iodoform test

Both are ketones, so do not give Fehling’s/Benedict’s test (only aldehydes and α-hydroxy ketones do).
Baeyer’s test is for unsaturation.

Hence, iodoform test distinguishes them. Quick Tip: Iodoform test positive for: CH₃COR (methyl ketones) and CH₃CH(OH)R, acetaldehyde, ethanol.


Question 6:

A secondary amine is

  • (A) a compound with an NH₂ group on the carbon atom in number 2 position
  • (B) an organic compound with two NH₂ groups
  • (C) a compound in which 2 of the hydrogen of NH₃ have been replaced by organic groups
  • (D) a compound with two carbon atoms and an NH₂ group
Correct Answer: (C) a compound in which 2 of the hydrogen of NH₃ have been replaced by organic groups
View Solution

Amines are classified based on the number of hydrogen atoms in NH₃ replaced by alkyl/aryl groups:
- Primary amine (1°): R–NH₂ (one H replaced)
- Secondary amine (2°): R₂NH (two H replaced)
- Tertiary amine (3°): R₃N (three H replaced)

Thus, secondary amine is R₂NH, where two hydrogens of NH₃ are replaced by organic groups. Quick Tip: Remember: Primary = 1 alkyl/aryl, Secondary = 2, Tertiary = 3.


Question 7:

Which of the following is correctly matched?

  • (A) Bakelite – Novolac
  • (B) Nylon – acrylonitrile
  • (C) Polyester – tetrafluoroethene
  • (D) Teflon – coprolactam
Correct Answer: (A) Bakelite – Novolac
View Solution

Step 1: Bakelite is a thermosetting plastic made from phenol and formaldehyde. Novolac is the linear polymer intermediate in its synthesis (phenol + formaldehyde with acid catalyst), which on heating with hexamethylenetetramine cross-links to form Bakelite.

Step 2: Check others:
- Nylon: Polyamide from hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid (not acrylonitrile, which is for PAN).
- Polyester: From ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid (not tetrafluoroethene, which is for Teflon).
- Teflon: PTFE from tetrafluoroethene (not caprolactam, which is for Nylon-6).

Hence, only (A) is correct. Quick Tip: Novolac → linear, Bakelite → cross-linked version.


Question 8:

Which institute has approved the emergency use of 2-deoxy-D-Glucose as additive therapy for COVID-19 patients?

  • (A) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  • (B) Indian Council of Medical Research
  • (C) Drug Controller General of India
  • (D) World Health Organisation
Correct Answer: (C) Drug Controller General of India
View Solution

Step 1: 2-Deoxy-D-Glucose (2-DG), developed by DRDO and Dr. Reddy's Laboratories, was approved for emergency use as an adjunct therapy for moderate to severe COVID-19 patients on May 8, 2021.

Step 2: The approval was granted by the Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI), the head of the Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO), responsible for drug approvals in India.

Step 3: ICMR conducted clinical trials, but DCGI provides regulatory approval. MoHFW oversees health policy, and WHO provides global guidelines but not country-specific emergency approvals. Quick Tip: DCGI approves emergency use authorizations for drugs in India, similar to FDA's EUA in the US.


Question 9:

A Nucleic acid, whether DNA or RNA gives on complete hydrolysis, two purine bases, two pyrimidine bases, a pentose sugar and phosphoric acid. Nucleotides which are intermediate products in the hydrolysis contain

  • (A) purine or pyrimidine base and ortho-phosphoric acid
  • (B) purine or pyrimidine base and pentose sugar
  • (C) Purine or pyrimidine base, a pentose sugar and ortho-phosphoric acid
  • (D) a purine base, pentose sugar and ortho-phosphoric acid
Correct Answer: (C) Purine or pyrimidine base, a pentose sugar and ortho-phosphoric acid
View Solution

Step 1: Nucleic acids (DNA/RNA) hydrolyze completely to: bases (2 purines: A, G; 2 pyrimidines: C, T/U), pentose sugar (deoxyribose/ribose), and phosphoric acid (H₃PO₄).

Step 2: Hydrolysis steps:
- Nucleic acid → Nucleotides (intermediate)
- Nucleotides → Nucleosides + phosphoric acid
- Nucleosides → Base + sugar

Step 3: Nucleotide = Nucleoside (base + sugar) + phosphate group (ortho-phosphoric acid).
Thus, nucleotides contain: purine/pyrimidine base + pentose sugar + ortho-phosphoric acid. Quick Tip: Nucleotide = Base + Sugar + Phosphate Nucleoside = Base + Sugar


Question 10:

Which is most VISCOUS?

  • (A) Ethylene glycol
  • (B) Methanol
  • (C) Glycerol
  • (D) Ethanol
Correct Answer: (C) Glycerol
View Solution

Viscosity increases with number of –OH groups and molecular mass due to stronger H-bonding.
- Methanol CH₃OH → 1 OH
- Ethanol CH₃CH₂OH → 1 OH
- Ethylene glycol HO–CH₂–CH₂–OH → 2 OH
- Glycerol HO–CH₂–CH(OH)–CH₂OH → 3 OH

Glycerol has three –OH groups → maximum H-bonding → highest viscosity (≈ 1500 cP at 20 °C, while ethylene glycol ≈ 20 cP, alcohols < 2 cP). Quick Tip: More –OH groups → more H-bonding → higher viscosity (Glycerol > Ethylene glycol > Ethanol/Methanol)


Question 11:

The volume of 2.8 g of CO at 27 °C and 0.821 atm. pressure is (R = 0.08210 L atm K⁻¹ mol⁻¹)

  • (A) 3 litres
  • (B) 0.3 litres
  • (C) 30 litres
  • (D) 1.5 litres
Correct Answer: (A) 3 litres
View Solution

Moles of CO = 2.8 / 28 = 0.1 mol
T = 27 °C = 300 K
P = 0.821 atm, R = 0.0821 L atm K⁻¹ mol⁻¹

PV = nRT
V = nRT / P = (0.1 × 0.0821 × 300) / 0.821
= (2.463) / 0.821 ≈ 3 L Quick Tip: At same T & P, volume ∝ number of moles. Standard 1 mol → 24.6 L at 27 °C & 1 atm, here pressure is lower → volume slightly higher → 3 L.


Question 12:

The work done when 2 moles of an ideal gas expands reversibly and isothermally from a volume of 1 L to 10 L at 300 K is (R = 0.0083 kJ K⁻¹ mol⁻¹)

  • (A) 0.115 kJ
  • (B) 11.5 kJ
  • (C) 55.5 kJ
  • (D) 5.8 kJ
Correct Answer: (B) 11.5 kJ
View Solution

Reversible isothermal expansion work (magnitude):
W = –nRT ln(V₂/V₁)
= 2 × 0.0083 × 300 × ln(10/1)
= 4.98 × ln(10)
ln(10) ≈ 2.3026
W = 4.98 × 2.3026 ≈ 11.47 kJ ≈ 11.5 kJ Quick Tip: For isothermal reversible expansion: |W| = 2.303 nRT log₁₀(V₂/V₁) Here 2.303 × 2 × 0.0083 × 300 × 1 = 11.5 kJ exactly.


Question 13:

An aqueous solution of alcohol contains 18 g of water and 414 g of ethyl alcohol. The mole fraction of water is

  • (A) 0.7
  • (B) 0.1
  • (C) 0.9
  • (D) 0.4
Correct Answer: (B) 0.1
View Solution

Moles of water = 18 / 18 = 1 mol
Moles of ethanol = 414 / 46 = 9 mol
Total moles = 1 + 9 = 10 mol

Mole fraction of water = 1 / 10 = 0.1 Quick Tip: Mole fraction = moles of component / total moles


Question 14:

If wavelength of photon is 2.2 × 10⁻¹¹ m and h = 6.6 ×10⁻³⁴ J s, then momentum of photon is

  • (A) 1.452 ×10⁻⁴⁴ kg m s⁻¹
  • (B) 3 ×10⁻²³ kg m s⁻¹
  • (C) 6.89 ×10⁻⁴⁴ kg m s⁻¹
  • (D) 3.33 ×10⁻²³ kg m s⁻¹
Correct Answer: (B) 3 ×10⁻²³ kg m s⁻¹
View Solution

Momentum of photon p = h / λ
p = 6.6 × 10⁻³⁴ / 2.2 × 10⁻¹¹
= (6.6 / 2.2) × 10⁻³⁴⁺¹¹
= 3 × 10⁻²³ kg m s⁻¹ Quick Tip: p = h/λ → very small wavelength → very large momentum (X-ray/gamma ray region).


Question 15:

Elements X, Y and Z have atomic numbers 19, 37 and 55 respectively. Which of the following statements is true about them?

  • (A) Z would have the highest ionization potential.
  • (B) Their ionization potential would increase with increasing atomic number.
  • (C) Y would have the highest ionization potential.
  • (D) Y would have an ionization potential between those of X and Z.
Correct Answer: (D) Y would have an ionization potential between those of X and Z.
View Solution

X(19) = K → 4s¹
Y(37) = Rb → 5s¹
Z(55) = Cs → 6s¹

All are alkali metals (Group 1).
Ionization energy decreases down the group due to increasing size and shielding.
∴ I.E. order: X (K) > Y (Rb) > Z (Cs)
So Y lies between X and Z. Quick Tip: In alkali metals: Li > Na > K > Rb > Cs (I.E. decreasing down the group)


Question 16:

In oxygen and carbon molecule the bonding is

  • (A) O₂: 1σ, 1π; C₂: 0σ, 2π
  • (B) O₂: 1σ, 1π; C₂: 1σ, 1π
  • (C) O₂: 0σ, 2π; C₂: 2σ, 0π
  • (D) O₂: 2σ, 0π; C₂: 0σ, 2π
Correct Answer: (A) O₂: 1σ, 1π; C₂: 0σ, 2π
View Solution

Molecular orbital configuration:

O₂ (16 electrons):
(σ1s)² (σ1s)² (σ2s)² (σ2s)² (σ2pz)² (π2px)² (π2py)² (π2px)¹ (π2py)¹
→ Bond order = 2
→ 1 σ bond (from σ2pz), 1 π bond (parallel p-orbitals), and one unpaired electron in each π → paramagnetic

C₂ (8 electrons):
(σ1s)² (σ1s)² (σ2s)² (σ2s)² (π2px)² (π2py)²
→ Bond order = 2
→ No σ bond from p-orbitals, only 2 π bonds

Hence:
O₂ → 1σ + 1π
C₂ → 0σ + 2π Quick Tip: C₂ has π₂p orbitals below σ₂p (for Z ≤ 8), so C₂ has two π bonds only.


Question 17:

Amphoteric oxide among the following

  • (A) Ag₂O
  • (B) BeO
  • (C) SnO₂
  • (D) CO₂
Correct Answer: (B) BeO
View Solution

Amphoteric oxides react with both acids and bases.
BeO + 2HCl → BeCl₂ + H₂O (acidic behaviour)
BeO + 2NaOH → Na₂BeO₂ (sodium beryllate) + H₂O (basic behaviour)
SnO₂ is also amphoteric, but BeO is more commonly and correctly accepted in board exams as the classic example from the options.
Ag₂O (basic), CO₂ (acidic) are not amphoteric. Quick Tip: BeO, Al₂O₃, ZnO, SnO₂, PbO₂ are common amphoteric oxides.


Question 18:

Which property of CO₂ makes it biologically and geo-chemically important?

  • (A) It has low solubility in water
  • (B) Its acidic nature
  • (C) Its high compressibility
  • (D) It is colourless and odourless nature
Correct Answer: (B) Its acidic nature
View Solution

CO₂ dissolves in water to form carbonic acid (H₂CO₃), which is responsible for:
- Blood pH regulation (bicarbonate buffer)
- Weathering of rocks (geochemical)
- Ocean acidification
- Photosynthesis (as carbon source)
Its acidic nature (formation of H₂CO₃) is the key property making it biologically and geochemically significant. Quick Tip: CO₂ + H₂O ⇌ H₂CO₃ ⇌ H⁺ + HCO₃⁻ → crucial for life and geology.


Question 19:

The IUPAC name for

  • (A) 1-carboxybutan-3-one
  • (B) 1-hydroxy pentane-1,4-dione
  • (C) 4-oxopentanoic acid
  • (D) 1,4-dioxopentanol
Correct Answer: (C) 4-oxopentanoic acid
View Solution

The compound is CH₃–CO–CH₂–CH₂–COOH
- Principal functional group = –COOH (carboxylic acid)
- Longest chain = 5 carbons including carbonyl of keto group
- Numbering starts from –COOH carbon
- Keto group at position 4
Hence: 4-oxopentanoic acid Quick Tip: In oxoacids, –COOH gets priority; keto group is indicated by "oxo" prefix.


Question 20:

1 mole of HI is heated in a closed container of capacity of 2 L. At equilibrium half a mole of HI is dissociated. The equilibrium constant of the reaction is

  • (A) 0.25
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 0.35
  • (D) 0.5
Correct Answer: (A) 0.25
View Solution

Reaction: 2HI(g) ⇌ H₂(g) + I₂(g)
Initial: 1 mol
At eq: HI = 1 – 0.5 = 0.5 mol (since half dissociated)
H₂ = 0.25 mol, I₂ = 0.25 mol
Volume = 2 L

[HI] = 0.5/2 = 0.25 M
[H₂] = [I₂] = 0.25/2 = 0.125 M

Kc = [H₂][I₂] / [HI]² = (0.125)(0.125) / (0.25)² = 0.015625 / 0.0625 = 0.25 Quick Tip: For 2HI ⇌ H₂ + I₂, if α is degree of dissociation, Kc = α²/(1–α²) × (total moles/volume)


Question 21:

Which among the following has highest pH?

  • (A) 1 M H₂SO₄
  • (B) 1 M HCl
  • (C) 0.1 M NaOH
  • (D) 1 M NaOH
Correct Answer: (D) 1 M NaOH
View Solution

- 1 M H₂SO₄ → [H⁺] ≈ 2 M → pH ≈ –0.3
- 1 M HCl → [H⁺] = 1 M → pH = 0
- 0.1 M NaOH → [OH⁻] = 0.1 M → pOH = 1 → pH = 13
- 1 M NaOH → [OH⁻] = 1 M → pOH = 0 → pH = 14

Highest pH = 14 → 1 M NaOH Quick Tip: Strong base with highest concentration has highest pH.


Question 22:

In which of the following compounds, an element exhibits two different oxidation states?

  • (A) N₂H₄
  • (B) NH₂CONH₂
  • (C) N₂H
  • (D) NH₂NO₂
Correct Answer: (D) NH₂NO₂
View Solution

NH₂NO₂ = Nitrous amide (nitramide)
Structure: H₂N–NO₂
N in –NH₂ group: –3
N in –NO₂ group: +3 (let oxidation state = x → x + 2(–2) = 0 → x = +4? Wait, correct structure is H₂N–N(=O)₂ actually, but standard is NH₂–NO₂.

Correct: NH₂NO₂ → nitroamine
Oxidation state:
N in NH₂ = –3
N in NO₂ = +5 (since O = –2, 2O = –4, N = +5 to make neutral group)
Thus, two N atoms show –3 and +5 oxidation states.

Others:
N₂H₄ → both N = –2
NH₂CONH₂ (urea) → both N = –3
N₂H₂ (diimide) → both N = –1

Only NH₂NO₂ has N in two different states. Quick Tip: Compounds like NH₂OH, N₂H₄, NH₂NO₂ show different oxidation states of nitrogen.


Question 23:

Which of the following hydrides is electron deficient?

  • (A) CH₄
  • (B) NaH
  • (C) B₂H₆
  • (D) CaH₂
Correct Answer: (C) B₂H₆
View Solution

Electron-deficient hydrides have insufficient electrons to form normal covalent bonds → show 3-center-2-electron bonds.
- CH₄ → electron precise (8 electrons around C)
- NaH → ionic
- CaH₂ → ionic/saline hydride
- B₂H₆ (diborane) → only 12 valence electrons for 6 B–H bonds → electron deficient → banana bonds (3c–2e) Quick Tip: Group 13 hydrides (especially B₂H₆) are electron deficient.


Question 24:

Identify A and B in the reaction

Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Propene = CH₃–CH=CH₂

1. HBr + benzoyl peroxide → anti-Markownikoff addition (free radical mechanism)
→ CH₃–CH₂–CH₂Br (1-bromopropane) is major product
A = CH₃–CH₂–CH₂Br

2. HI (no peroxide) → Markownikoff addition (electrophilic addition)
I⁻ is very good nucleophile → attacks more substituted carbocation
→ CH₃–CHBr–CH₃ wait no, HI → I⁻ attacks → CH₃–CH(I)–CH₃ (2-iodopropane) is major product
B = CH₃–CHI–CH₃

Thus A: Br on terminal carbon, B: I on middle carbon → (D) Quick Tip: HBr + peroxide → anti-Markownikoff (Br on less substituted carbon) HI/HCl/HBr (no peroxide) → Markownikoff (halogen on more substituted carbon)


Question 25:

Vacant space in body-centred cubic lattice unit cell is about

  • (A) 23%
  • (B) 32%
  • (C) 46%
  • (D) 10%
Correct Answer: (B) 32%
View Solution

BCC has 2 atoms per unit cell.
Packing efficiency of BCC = 68%
∴ Vacant space = 100% – 68% = 32%

Formula:
Packing efficiency = (2 × (4/3)πr³) / a³ × 100
In BCC, 4r = √3 a → a = 4r/√3
Packing efficiency = π√3 / 8 ≈ 68% → vacant space ≈ 32% Quick Tip: CCP/FCC → 74% (26% vacant) BCC → 68% (32% vacant) Simple cubic → 52% (48% vacant)


Question 26:

How many number of atoms are there in a cube-based unit cell, having one atom on each corner and 2 atoms on each body diagonal of cube?

  • (A) 4
  • (B) 8
  • (C) 9
  • (D) 6
Correct Answer: (C) 9
View Solution

Cube has 8 corners → 8 × 1/8 = 1 atom from corners
Cube has 4 body diagonals (from one corner to opposite corner through the body)
Each body diagonal has 2 atoms (apart from corner atoms)
But each of these atoms lies on the body diagonal and is shared by all 4 diagonals that pass through the centre? No.

Actually:
In a cube, there are 4 body diagonals.
Atoms placed on body diagonals (excluding corners) → if 2 atoms per diagonal, but they are inside.
Standard interpretation:
- Corner atoms: 8 × 1/8 = 1
- Each body diagonal has 2 additional atoms → 4 diagonals × 2 = 8 atoms
- These 8 atoms are only on the diagonals and not shared with other unit cells → each contributes 1
Total = 1 + 8 = 9 atoms per unit cell Quick Tip: Body diagonal atoms (if not at centre) are unique to the unit cell → count as 1 each.


Question 27:

Which of the following is NOT true about the amorphous solids?

  • (A) Amorphous solids can be moulded by heating.
  • (B) On heating they may become crystalline at certain temperature.
  • (C) They are anisotropic in nature.
  • (D) They may become crystalline on keeping for long time.
Correct Answer: (C) They are anisotropic in nature.
View Solution

Amorphous solids are isotropic (properties same in all directions) because they lack long-range order.
Crystalline solids are anisotropic.

(A) True → glass can be moulded
(B) True → devitrification (e.g., glass → crystalline on strong heating)
(D) True → some amorphous solids slowly crystallise (e.g., glass over centuries)
(C) False → amorphous solids are isotropic, not anisotropic Quick Tip: Amorphous = isotropic, Crystalline = anisotropic


Question 28:

Which of the following colligative properties can provide molar mass of proteins, polymers and colloids with greater precision?

  • (A) Depression in freezing point
  • (B) Relative lowering of vapour pressure
  • (C) Osmotic pressure
  • (D) Elevation in boiling point
Correct Answer: (C) Osmotic pressure
View Solution

For macromolecules (proteins, polymers, colloids), the number of moles is very small → ΔTₖ and ΔT₆ are too small to measure accurately.
Osmotic pressure π = CRT is large even at low concentrations (high molar mass → low n → but π measurable).
Hence osmotic pressure gives the most precise molar mass for high molecular weight substances. Quick Tip: High molar mass → use osmotic pressure for accurate M.


Question 29:

In Fuel cells \phantom{abcde} are used as catalysts.

  • (A) Zinc – Mercury
  • (B) Platinum – Palladium
  • (C) Lead – Manganese
  • (D) Nickel – Cadmium
Correct Answer: (B) Platinum – Palladium
View Solution

In H₂–O₂ fuel cells (PEMFC), platinum (or Pt–Pd alloys) is used as electrocatalyst at both anode and cathode to facilitate H₂ oxidation and O₂ reduction.
Ni–Cd and Zn–Hg are used in batteries, not fuel cells. Quick Tip: Fuel cells → Pt/Pd catalyst; Batteries → Ni–Cd, Zn–Hg, Li-ion, etc.


Question 30:

The molar conductivity is maximum for the solution of concentration

  • (A) 0.005 M
  • (B) 0.004 M
  • (C) 0.001 M
  • (D) 0.002 M
Correct Answer: (C) 0.001 M
View Solution

Molar conductivity (Λₘ) increases with dilution (decrease in concentration) for both strong and weak electrolytes.
At infinite dilution, Λₘ is maximum (Λₘ°).
Among the given options, 0.001 M is the most dilute → highest molar conductivity. Quick Tip: Λₘ ↑ as concentration ↓


Question 31:

Alkali halides do not show dislocation defect because

  • (A) Cations and anions have almost equal size.
  • (B) Cations and anions have low co-ordination number.
  • (C) There is large difference in size of cations and anions.
  • (D) Anions cannot be accommodated in vacant spaces.
Correct Answer: (A) Cations and anions have almost equal size.
View Solution

Alkali halides (NaCl, KCl, etc.) have nearly equal-sized cations and anions (ratio ≈ 0.7–1).
Frenkel defect requires large size difference (small cation fits into interstitial site).
Schottky defect (vacancy) is common, but dislocation defect (edge/screw) is rare because similar-sized ions make slip difficult → high lattice energy → brittle → no dislocation movement. Quick Tip: Ionic crystals with similar cation–anion size are brittle → no dislocation defect.


Question 32:

Solubility of a gas in a liquid increases with

  • (A) increase of P and decrease of T
  • (B) increase of P and increase of T
  • (C) decrease of P and decrease of T
  • (D) decrease of P and increase of T
Correct Answer: (A) increase of P and decrease of T
View Solution

Henry’s law: Solubility ∝ pressure
Dissolution of gas is exothermic → solubility ∝ 1/T (Le Chatelier)
Hence solubility increases with increase in pressure and decrease in temperature. Quick Tip: Cold soda has more dissolved CO₂ than warm soda.


Question 33:

The rise in boiling point of a solution containing 1.8 g of glucose in 100 g of solvent is 0.1 °C. The molal elevation constant of the liquid is

  • (A) 2 K kg/mol
  • (B) 0.1 K kg/mol
  • (C) 10 K kg/mol
  • (D) 1 K kg/mol
Correct Answer: (D) 1 K kg/mol
View Solution

ΔT₆ = K₆ × m
m = (1.8/180) / 0.1 kg = 0.01 / 0.1 = 0.1 molal
0.1 = K₆ × 0.1
K₆ = 1 K kg mol⁻¹ Quick Tip: K₆ = ΔT₆ / molality


Question 34:

If 3 g of glucose (molar mass = 180 g) is dissolved in 60 g of water at 15 °C, the osmotic pressure of the solution will be

  • (A) 6.57 atm
  • (B) 0.34 atm
  • (C) 5.57 atm
  • (D) 0.65 atm
Correct Answer: (A) 6.57 atm
View Solution

n₉ₗᵤ = 3/180 = 1/60 mol
V = 60 g ≈ 60 mL = 0.06 L (density ≈ 1 g/mL)
T = 15 °C = 288 K
R = 0.0821 L atm K⁻¹ mol⁻¹

π = CRT = (1/60) × 0.0821 × 288 / 0.06
= (0.01667 × 0.0821 × 288) / 0.06
= (0.3938) / 0.06 ≈ 6.563 ≈ 6.57 atm Quick Tip: π = (w/M) × (RT/V) → always use volume in litres.


Question 35:

A first order reaction is half completed in 45 min. How long does it need 99.9% of the reaction to be completed?

  • (A) 10 hours
  • (B) 5 hours
  • (C) 20 hours
  • (D) 7.5 hours
Correct Answer: (A) 10 hours
View Solution

For first order reaction:
t₁/₂ = 45 min → k = ln(2)/45 min⁻¹

Time for 99.9% completion (99.9% reacted → 0.1% reactant left)
t = (2.303/k) log(100/0.1) = (2.303/k) log(1000) = (2.303/k) × 3

k = 0.693/45 min⁻¹
t = (2.303 × 45 × 3) / 0.693 ≈ (311.535) / 0.693 ≈ 449.4 min ≈ 450 min

450 min = 450/60 = 7.5 hours? Wait… let me calculate precisely.

Actually:
t = [2.303 log(1/0.001)] / k = [2.303 × 3] / (ln2 / 45)
= (6.909 × 45) / 0.693 ≈ 310.905 / 0.693 ≈ 448.5 min
448.5 ÷ 60 ≈ 7.475 hours ≈ 7.5 hours

But many boards give answer as 10 half-lives ≈ 10 × 45 = 450 min = 7.5 h, but 99.9% needs ≈ 10 half-lives exactly?

1 half-life → 50% left
2 → 25%
3 → 12.5%
4 → 6.25%
5 → 3.125%
6 → 1.5625%
7 → 0.781%
8 → 0.390%
9 → 0.195%
10 → 0.0975% ≈ 0.1% left → 99.9% completed

Yes, 10 half-lives = 10 × 45 = 450 min = 7.5 hours

But options have 7.5 and 10. Since 10 half-lives ≈ 99.9%, many keys mark (D) 7.5 hours.

Exact calculation also gives ≈7.5 h.
10 hours would be wrong. Answer is (D) 7.5 hours.

Correct Answer: (D) 7.5 hours Quick Tip: For first order, time for 99.9% completion ≈ 10 × t₁/₂


Question 36:

The rate of the reaction CH₃COOC₂H₅ + NaOH → CH₃COONa + C₂H₅OH is given by Rate = k [CH₃COOC₂H₅] [NaOH]. Unit of k is

  • (A) L mol⁻¹ s⁻¹
  • (B) mol⁻¹ L s⁻¹
  • (C) s⁻¹
  • (D) mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹
Correct Answer: (A) L mol⁻¹ s⁻¹
View Solution

Rate = k [ester][OH⁻] → second order reaction
Unit of rate = mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹
Unit of k = (mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹) / (mol L⁻¹)(mol L⁻¹) = L mol⁻¹ s⁻¹ Quick Tip: Order = 2 → unit of k = L mol⁻¹ s⁻¹


Question 37:

Colloidal solution commonly used in the treatment of skin disease is

  • (A) Colloidal Gold
  • (B) Colloidal Sulphur
  • (C) Colloidal Antimony
  • (D) Colloidal Silver
Correct Answer: (B) Colloidal Sulphur
View Solution

Colloidal sulphur is widely used in ointments, creams and lotions for treatment of acne, seborrheic dermatitis, scabies, psoriasis etc.
Colloidal silver is antiseptic, but sulphur is more common for skin diseases. Quick Tip: Colloidal sulphur → acne, psoriasis; Colloidal silver → antiseptic (Argyrol)


Question 38:

Specific conductance of 0.1 M HNO₃ is 6.3 × 10⁻² ohm⁻¹ cm⁻¹. The molar conductance is

  • (A) 6.30 ohm⁻¹ cm² mol⁻¹
  • (B) 630 ohm⁻¹ cm² mol⁻¹
  • (C) 63.0 ohm⁻¹ cm² mol⁻¹
  • (D) 315 ohm⁻¹ cm² mol⁻¹
Correct Answer: (B) 630 ohm⁻¹ cm² mol⁻¹
View Solution

Λₘ = κ × 1000 / C
κ = 6.3 × 10⁻² S cm⁻¹
C = 0.1 mol L⁻¹
Λₘ = (6.3 × 10⁻² × 1000) / 0.1 = 63 / 0.1 = 630 ohm⁻¹ cm² mol⁻¹ Quick Tip: Λₘ = κ × 1000 / normality (or molarity for strong acids)


Question 39:

For spontaneity of a cell, which is correct?

  • (A) ΔG = +ve, ΔE = –ve
  • (B) ΔG = 0, ΔE = 0
  • (C) ΔG = –ve
  • (D) ΔG = –ve, ΔE = 0
Correct Answer: (C) ΔG = –ve
View Solution

Spontaneity condition: ΔG < 0
ΔG = –nFE_cell
So ΔG negative when E_cell positive.
Only (C) is universally correct. Quick Tip: Cell spontaneous ⇔ ΔG < 0 ⇔ E_cell > 0


Question 40:

For nᵗʰ order of reaction, half-life period is directly proportional to

  • (A) aⁿ⁻¹
  • (B) 1/aⁿ⁻¹
  • (C) a¹⁻ⁿ
  • (D) 1/a¹⁻ⁿ
Correct Answer: (B) 1/aⁿ⁻¹
View Solution

t₁/₂ ∝ 1/aⁿ⁻¹ (for n ≠ 1)
This is standard formula.
For n = 1, t₁/₂ independent of a.
For n > 1, t₁/₂ ∝ 1/aⁿ⁻¹ Quick Tip: Higher order → shorter half-life at high concentration


Question 41:

Half-life of a reaction is found to be inversely proportional to the fifth power of its initial concentration, the order of reaction is

  • (A) 5
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (C) 6
View Solution

t₁/₂ ∝ 1/aⁿ⁻¹
Given t₁/₂ ∝ 1/a⁵
So n–1 = 5 → n = 6 Quick Tip: Exponent in denominator of t₁/₂ = n–1


Question 42:

The strong reducing property of hypophosphorous acid is due to

  • (A) two P–H bonds
  • (B) its concentration
  • (C) presence of phosphorus in its highest oxidation state
  • (D) the positive valency of phosphorus
Correct Answer: (A) two P–H bonds
View Solution

Hypophosphorous acid is H₃PO₂ (actually H–P(=O)(OH)₂) and contains two P–H bonds.
These P–H bonds are responsible for its strong reducing character because they can easily donate H (or hydride).
P is in +1 oxidation state (not highest). Quick Tip: Number of P–H bonds decides reducing strength: H₃PO₂ (2 P–H) > H₃PO₃ (1 P–H) > H₃PO₄ (0 P–H)


Question 43:

A transition metal exists in its highest oxidation state. It is expected to behave as

  • (A) an oxidizing agent
  • (B) a chelating agent
  • (C) a reducing agent
  • (D) a central metal in a coordination compound
Correct Answer: (A) an oxidizing agent
View Solution

Highest oxidation state means the metal has lost maximum electrons → high effective nuclear charge → strong tendency to gain electrons → acts as strong oxidizing agent.
Examples: MnO₄⁻ (+7), Cr₂O₇²⁻ (+6), FeO₄²⁻ (+8) are powerful oxidants. Quick Tip: Highest O.S. → strong oxidizing agent; Lowest O.S. → strong reducing agent.


Question 44:

What will be the value of x in Fe⁺ˣ, if the magnetic moment μ = √24 BM ?

  • (A) 0
  • (B) +2
  • (C) +1
  • (D) +3
Correct Answer: (B) +2
View Solution

Spin-only magnetic moment μ = √[n(n+2)] BM
Given √24 = √[n(n+2)]
24 = n(n+2) → n² + 2n – 24 = 0
n = 4 (since n = –6 not possible)

Fe (Z = 26): electronic configuration [Ar] 3d⁶ 4s²
Fe²⁺ → 3d⁶ → high spin → 4 unpaired electrons
Fe³⁺ → 3d⁵ → 5 unpaired electrons
Thus x = +2 Quick Tip: μ = √24 ≈ 4.9 BM → 4 unpaired electrons → Fe²⁺, Mn³⁺, Co⁴⁺ etc.


Question 45:

Which can adsorb larger volume of hydrogen gas?

  • (A) Finely divided platinum
  • (B) Finely divided nickel
  • (C) Colloidal Fe(OH)₃
  • (D) Colloidal solution of palladium
Correct Answer: (D) Colloidal solution of palladium
View Solution

Colloidal palladium adsorbs about 900–3000 times its own volume of H₂ (highest known).
It is used in hydrogenation reactions and hydrogen purification.
Finely divided Ni and Pt also adsorb H₂ well, but colloidal Pd is superior. Quick Tip: Adsorption power for H₂: Colloidal Pd > Pt black > Ni (finely divided)


Question 46:

The property of halogens which is not correctly matched is

  • (A) I > Br > Cl > F (density)
  • (B) F > Cl > Br > I (ionization enthalpy)
  • (C) F > Cl > Br > I (electron gain enthalpy)
  • (D) F > Cl > Br > I (electronegativity)
Correct Answer: (C) F > Cl > Br > I (electron gain enthalpy)
View Solution

Correct order of electron gain enthalpy (–ΔHₑ₉):
Cl > F > Br > I
Fluorine has lower value than chlorine due to small size and high electron density → repulsion.
All other trends are correct:
Density increases down the group
Ionization enthalpy decreases down the group
Electronegativity decreases down the group Quick Tip: Exception in halogens: Electron gain enthalpy: Cl > F


Question 47:

Which noble gas has least tendency to form compounds?

  • (A) Ar
  • (B) He
  • (C) Kr
  • (D) Ne
Correct Answer: (B) He
View Solution

Helium has the smallest noble gas, has the highest ionization enthalpy (2372 kJ/mol) and no known stable compounds under normal conditions.
Xe, Kr, Rn form compounds; Ar has only one (HArF); Ne has none confirmed; He has least tendency. Quick Tip: Tendency to form compounds: Xe > Kr > Ar > Ne > He


Question 48:

(NH₄)₂Cr₂O₇ on heating liberates a gas. The same gas will be obtained by

  • (A) treating H₂O₂ with NaNO₂
  • (B) heating NH₄NO₃
  • (C) treating Mg₃N₂ with H₂O
  • (D) heating NH₄NO₂
Correct Answer: (C) treating Mg₃N₂ with H₂O
View Solution

(NH₄)₂Cr₂O₇ →(Δ) N₂ + Cr₂O₃ + 4H₂O
Gas liberated = N₂

Now check others:
(A) H₂O₂ + NaNO₂ → no N₂
(B) NH₄NO₃ →(Δ) N₂O + 2H₂O
(C) Mg₃N₂ + 6H₂O → 3Mg(OH)₂ + 2NH₃ (not N₂) wait — wrong?

Wait — correct reaction:
Actually, the standard answer is (B) heating NH₄NO₃ gives N₂O, not N₂.

Correct one:
(NH₄)₂Cr₂O₇ → N₂ gas

Same N₂ gas is obtained by heating NH₄NO₂:
NH₄NO₂ →(Δ) N₂ + 2H₂O

And Mg₃N₂ + H₂O → NH₃ (ammonia)

So correct answer is (D) heating NH₄NO₂

Many textbooks confirm (D). Quick Tip: (NH₄)₂Cr₂O₇ → N₂ NH₄NO₂ → N₂ NH₄NO₃ → N₂O


Question 49:

The complex hexammine platinum ( (IV) chloride will give ______ number of ions on ionization.

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 5
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (B) 5
View Solution

Formula of hexammine platinum(IV) chloride = [Pt(NH₃)₆]Cl₄
Ionization: [Pt(NH₃)₆]⁴⁺ + 4Cl⁻
Total ions = 1 complex cation + 4 chloride anions = 5 ions Quick Tip: Number of ions = 1 + number of counter ions outside the coordination sphere.


Question 50:

In the following pairs of halogen compounds, which compound undergoes faster Sₙ1 reaction?

Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Sₙ1 rate depends on stability of carbocation.
Tertiary carbocation is most stable → fastest Sₙ1.
Even with bulky groups, tertiary halide undergoes faster Sₙ1 than primary.
Hence in all pairs where one is tertiary and other is primary/secondary, tertiary undergoes faster Sₙ1.
The question asks which pair has the compound undergoing faster Sₙ1 → the tertiary one in (D). Quick Tip: Order of Sₙ1 reactivity: 3° > 2° > 1°


Question 51:

The only Lanthanoid which is radioactive

  • (A) Promethium
  • (B) Lanthanum
  • (C) Praseodymium
  • (D) Cerium
Correct Answer: (A) Promethium
View Solution

All lanthanoids from La to Lu are non-radioactive except Promethium (Pm, Z=61).
Promethium has no stable isotope; all its isotopes (especially ¹⁴⁵Pm, ¹⁴⁷Pm) are radioactive. Quick Tip: Pm is the only radioactive lanthanoid; all others have stable isotopes.


Question 52:

All Cu(II) halides are known, except the iodide, the reason for it is that

  • (A) Cu²⁺ has much more negative hydration enthalpy.
  • (B) Iodide is bulky ion.
  • (C) Cu²⁺ ion has smaller size.
  • (D) Cu²⁺ oxidises iodide to iodine.
Correct Answer: (D) Cu²⁺ oxidises iodide to iodine.
View Solution

CuI₂ does not exist because Cu²⁺ is a strong oxidizing agent and oxidizes I⁻ to I₂:
2Cu²⁺ + 4I⁻ → 2CuI↓ (white) + I₂
CuI (Cu⁺) is stable due to high hydration energy and favorable lattice energy. Quick Tip: Cu²⁺ + 2I⁻ → CuI + ½I₂ (disproportionation of iodide)


Question 53:

The correct IUPAC name of cis-platin is

  • (A) diamine dichlorido platinum (0)
  • (B) diamine dichlorido platinum (II)
  • (C) dichlorido diamine platinum (IV)
  • (D) diamine dichlorido platinum (IV)
Correct Answer: (B) diamine dichlorido platinum (II)
View Solution

Cis-platin = cis-[Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂]
Pt is in +2 oxidation state (2NH₃ neutral, 2Cl⁻ → Pt = +2)
Square planar, d⁸ → typical for Pt(II)
IUPAC name: cis-diamminedichloridoplatinum(II) Quick Tip: Cis-platin → Pt(II), square planar, anticancer drug.


Question 54:

Crystal Field Splitting Energy (CFSE) for [CoCl₄]²⁻ is 18000 cm⁻¹. The Crystal Field Splitting Energy (CFSE) for [CoCl₆]³⁻ will be

  • (A) 8000 cm⁻¹
  • (B) 18000 cm⁻¹
  • (C) 10,000 cm⁻¹
  • (D) 16000 cm⁻¹
Correct Answer: (A) 8000 cm⁻¹
View Solution

[CoCl₄]²⁻ → tetrahedral (Cl⁻ weak field ligand, Co²⁺ d⁷)
Δ_t = (4/9) Δ_o

[CoCl₆]³⁻ → octahedral (Co³⁺ d⁶, high-spin with Cl⁻)
Δ_o for [CoCl₆]³⁻ ≈ Δ_t of [CoCl₄]²⁻ × (9/4)
Given Δ_t = 18000 cm⁻¹
∴ Δ_o = 18000 × (9/4) = 40500 cm⁻¹? No — reverse!

Question asks CFSE, not Δ.
But commonly, the splitting parameter Δ_t (tetrahedral) is smaller than Δ_o (octahedral) for same metal and ligand.

Standard ratio: Δ_t ≈ (4/9) Δ_o
So if [CoCl₄]²⁻ has Δ_t = 18000 cm⁻¹
Then for same ligand Cl⁻, Δ_o ≈ 18000 × (9/4) ≈ 40500 cm⁻¹ — but options are small.

Actually, many boards give the answer as 8000 cm⁻¹ based on approximate values or misinterpretation.

Correct reasoning:
Δ_t for [CoCl₄]²⁻ is larger than expected because Co²⁺, but standard comparison shows octahedral splitting is larger.

Upon checking standard answer in many papers:
Δ_o ≈ (9/4) Δ_t → so Δ for [CoCl₆]³⁻ should be larger → but options show smaller → so question likely means Δ for octahedral is smaller? No.

Actually, the question says "Crystal Field Splitting Energy (CFSE)", but CFSE is the energy stabilization, not Δ itself.

CFSE for tetrahedral is smaller in magnitude.
But many sources mark (A) 8000 cm⁻¹ as answer, considering Δ_o < Δ_t in some contexts — incorrect.

Correct:
Δ_t = (4/9) Δ_o → Δ_o = (9/4) Δ_t ≈ 40500 cm⁻¹ — not in options.

But in some questions, they consider [CoCl₆]³⁻ has smaller splitting due to Co³⁺ vs Co²⁺, but no.

Standard answer in NCERT-based exams: (A) 8000 cm⁻¹
They use approximate ratio Δ_o ≈ 2 Δ_t or something — but technically incorrect.

Accepted answer: (A) 8000 cm⁻¹ Quick Tip: Δ_t = (4/9) Δ_o → tetrahedral splitting is smaller.


Question 55:

The major product obtained when ethanol is heated with excess of conc. H₂SO₄ at 443 K is

  • (A) ethane
  • (B) ethene
  • (C) methane
  • (D) ethyne
Correct Answer: (B) ethene
View Solution

At 443 K (170 °C) with excess conc. H₂SO₄, ethanol undergoes intermolecular dehydration:
CH₃CH₂OH →[conc. H₂SO₄][443 K] CH₂=CH₂ + H₂O
This is the standard condition for preparation of ethene. Quick Tip: 413–443 K → alkene  |  > 443 K → ether (with conc. H₂SO₄


Question 56:

Among the following, the products formed by the reaction of anisole with HI are:

  • (A) Benzene + Methanol
  • (B) Phenol + Iodomethane
  • (C) Phenol + Methane
  • (D) Sodium phenate + Methanol
Correct Answer: (B) Phenol + Iodomethane
View Solution

Anisole (C₆H₅–O–CH₃) + HI (cold or hot) → C₆H₅OH + CH₃I
In aryl alkyl ethers, the alkyl group attached to oxygen is cleaved as alkyl iodide, and phenol is formed (Sₙ2 on methyl carbon). Quick Tip: Ar–O–R + HI → ArOH + RI  (alkyl iodide is formed)


Question 57:

Which one of the following Chlorohydrocarbon readily undergoes solvolysis?

Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Solvolysis follows Sₙ1 mechanism → rate depends on carbocation stability.
Tertiary alkyl halide (CH₃)₃CCl forms most stable 3° carbocation → fastest solvolysis. Quick Tip: Solvolysis rate: 3° >> 2° >> 1° > methyl


Question 58:

Identify the products A and B in the reactions:
R–X + AgCN → A + AgX
R–X + KCN → B + KX

  • (A) A = RNC; B = RCN
  • (B) A = R–CN; B = RCN
  • (C) A = RNC; B = RNC
  • (D) A = RCN; B = RNC
Correct Answer: (A) A = RNC; B = RCN
View Solution

- AgCN is largely covalent → provides :CN⁻ (N-atom attacks) → R–NC (alkyl isocyanide)
- KCN is ionic → provides CN⁻ (C-atom attacks) → R–CN (alkyl cyanide/nitrile) Quick Tip: AgCN → isocyanide  |  KCN/NaCN → cyanide (nitrile)


Question 59:

An organic compound with molecular formula C₇H₈O dissolves in NaOH and gives a characteristic colour with FeCl₃. On treatment with bromine, it gives a tribromo derivative C₇H₅OBr₃. The compound is

  • (A) m–Cresol
  • (B) Benzyl alcohol
  • (C) p–Cresol
  • (D) o–Cresol
Correct Answer: (C) p–Cresol
View Solution

- C₇H₈O, soluble in NaOH → phenolic –OH
- Gives colour with FeCl₃ → confirms phenol
- On bromination gives C₇H₅OBr₃ → three H replaced by Br → three ortho/para positions available w.r.t. –OH
Only para-cresol (4-methylphenol) has three free ortho/para positions (2 positions ortho to –OH + 1 para).
o- and m-cresol have blocked positions → give only dibromo derivative.
Benzyl alcohol does not give FeCl₃ test. Quick Tip: Tribromo derivative from C₇H₇H₈O → only p-cresol


Question 60:

In Kolbe's reaction the reacting substances are

  • (A) Sodium phenate and CCl₄
  • (B) Sodium phenate and CO₂
  • (C) Phenol and CHCl₃
  • (D) Phenol and CCl₄
Correct Answer: (B) Sodium phenate and CO₂
View Solution

Kolbe–Schmitt reaction:
C₆H₅ONa + CO₂ →[413 K, 4–7 atm] sodium salicylate →[H⁺] salicylic acid
Reagents: sodium/potassium phenoxide (sodium phenate) + CO₂ Quick Tip: Kolbe → sodium phenate + CO₂ → o-hydroxy benzoic acid (salicylic acid) Reimer-Tiemann → phenol + CHCl₃ + KOH → salicylaldehyde

KCET Questions

  • 1.
    Which of the following statements is/are true about equilibrium?

      • Equilibrium is possible only in a closed system at a given temperature
      • All the measurable properties of the system remain constant at equilibrium.
      • Equilibrium constant for the reverse reaction is the inverse of the equilibrium constant for the reaction in the forward direction.

    • 2.
      The correct statement/s about Galvanic cell is/are:
      (a) Current flows from cathode to anode
      (b) Anode is positive terminal
      (c) If \(E_{\text{cell}} < 0\), then it is spontaneous reaction
      (d) Cathode is positive terminal

        • a, b, and c
        • a, b, and c
        • a, b, and c
        • a and b only

      • 3.
        Which of the following methods of expressing concentration are unitless?

          • Molality and Mole fraction
          • Mass percent (W/W) and Molality
          • Molality and Molality
          • Mole fraction and Mass percent (W/W)

        • 4.

          Match List-I with List-II and select the correct option: 

            • a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii
            • a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
            • a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
            • a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

          • 5.
            In which of the following pairs, both the elements do not have \( (n-1)d^{10}ns^2 \) configuration?

              • Zn, Cd
              • Cd, Hg
              • Ag, Cu
              • Cu, Zn

            • 6.

              Match List-I with List-II for the following reaction pattern: \[ \text{Glucose} \quad \text{Reagent} \quad \rightarrow \quad \text{Product} \quad \rightarrow \quad \text{Structural prediction} \] 

               

                • a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
                • a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
                • a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
                • a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

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