GRE 2025 Model Paper Set 4 Question Paper with Solutions PDF

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Updated on, Oct 14, 2025

byShivam Yadav

GRE 2025 Model Paper Set 4 Question Paper with Solutions PDF is available for download. The overall test time is about 1 hour and 58 minutes. GRE has total 5 sections:

  • Analytical Writing  (One "Analyze an Issue" task, Alloted time 30 minutes)
  • Verbal Reasoning  (Two Sections, with 12 questions and 15 questions respectively)
  • Quantitative Reasoning (Two Sections, with 12 questions and 15 questions respectively)

GRE 2025 Model Paper Set 4 Question Paper with Solutions PDF

GRE 2025 Model Paper Set 4 Question Paper with Solutions PDF download iconDownload Check Solutions
GRE 2025 Model Paper Set 4 Question Paper with Solutions PDF

Question 1:

Which of the following is an acceptable seating arrangement, with the driver listed first under "Front Seat" and the passengers in the back seat listed from one side to the other side?

  • (A) Front Seat: Mohsen, Ursula Back Seat: Theo, Orlando, Shelly
  • (B) Front Seat: Orlando, Mohsen Back Seat: Shelly, Theo, Ursula
  • (C) Front Seat: Orlando, Shelly Back Seat: Mohsen, Ursula, Theo
  • (D) Front Seat: Shelly, Mohsen Back Seat: Ursula, Orlando, Theo
  • (E) Front Seat: Shelly, Orlando  Back Seat: Theo, Mohsen, Ursula

Question 2:

If Mohsen sits in the front seat, which of the following can be true?

  • (A) Orlando will be the driver.
  • (B) Orlando will sit next to Ursula.
  • (C) Shelly will sit in the middle position in the back.
  • (D) Shelly will be the driver.
  • (E) Ursula will sit in the middle position in the back seat.

Question 3:

If Theo sits in the front seat, which of the following must be true?

  • (A) Mohsen and Shelly will sit side by side.
  • (B) Mohsen and Ursula will sit side by side.
  • (C) Orlando and Theo will sit side by side.
  • (D) Orlando and Ursula will sit side by side.
  • (E) Shelly and Ursula will sit side by side.

Question 4:

If both persons sitting in the front seat speak Hebrew, then it must be true that

  • (A) exactly one person sitting in the back seat speaks Russian
  • (B) neither speaker of Farsi is sitting in the front seat
  • (C) no one sitting in the front seat speaks Russian
  • (D) no one sitting in the back seat speaks Hebrew
  • (E) a speaker of Russian is sitting in the middle position in the back seat

Question 5:

Which of the following must be true if Orlando is the driver?

  • (A) If Shelly sits in the front seat, Ursula will sit in the middle position in the back seat.
  • (B) If Shelly sits in the back seat, she will sit next to Ursula.
  • (C) If Theo sits in the front seat, Ursula will sit in the middle position in the back seat.
  • (D) If Theo sits in the back seat, he will sit between Mohsen and Ursula.
  • (E) If Ursula sits in the back seat, she will sit in the middle position in the back seat.seat.

Question 6:

Which of the following, if true about early 1990, would most help to explain the decrease, in 1990, of the percent of people commuting to jobs in downtown Allentia who do so via public transportation?

  • (A) The termination of a governmental subsidy to the public transportation system that serves both the city and its suburbs caused a substantial increase in fares.
  • (B) Many new trains and buses were put into service in the public transportation system both within the city and between the city and its suburbs.
  • (C) Security was improved in the passenger waiting areas and on the public trains and buses used within the city as well as on those used between the city and its suburbs.
  • (D) Legislation was passed that increased the frequency of public transportation service within the city as well as between the city and its suburbs.
  • (E) The number of points served by the public transportation system both within the city and between the city and its suburbs was increased substantially by adding new routes.
Correct Answer: (A) The termination of a governmental subsidy to the public transportation system that serves both the city and its suburbs caused a substantial increase in fares.
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for a reason that would explain the decrease in the percentage of people using public transportation in 1990, as shown by the dip in both lines on the graph for that year. We need to find a cause that would make public transport less attractive for commuters from both downtown and the outer suburbs.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze the options:


(A) Increased fares: A substantial increase in fares would make using public transportation more expensive. This would be a strong disincentive for people to use it, likely causing a decrease in ridership from all areas. This aligns perfectly with the data shown in the graph.

(B) New trains and buses: Adding new vehicles would improve the service, likely making it more attractive and \textit{increasing the percentage of commuters. This contradicts the graph.

(C) Improved security: Better security would make passengers feel safer, which would encourage more people to use the service, leading to an \textit{increase in the percentage. This contradicts the graph.

(D) Increased frequency: More frequent service would make public transport more convenient, which would likely lead to an \textit{increase in its use. This contradicts the graph.

(E) Adding new routes: Expanding the service to more areas would make it accessible to more people, which would also be expected to \textit{increase its use. This contradicts the graph.



Step 3: Final Answer:

The only option that provides a logical reason for a \textit{decrease in public transport usage is the increase in fares. Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: In data interpretation questions, look for causes that match the effect shown in the data. If the graph shows a negative trend (a decrease), the correct explanation must be a negative factor (like higher cost, worse service, etc.). Quickly eliminate options that describe positive changes.


Question 7:

Which of the following, if true about early 1992, could most contribute to an explanation of the change, between 1991 and 1992, in the percent of those who commute via public transportation from the outer suburbs of Allentia, as compared to the change for the other group of commuters?

  • (A) The price per gallon for gasoline declined by five percent.
  • (B) The cost of using public transportation, per mile traveled, increased.
  • (C) The number of people who commuted to work via public transportation from points in or near downtown Allentia increased.
  • (D) The frequency of public transportation service between the city and its suburbs decreased.
  • (E) The cost per mile of getting to and from work by car tripled.

Question 8:

A new and more aggressive form of the fungus that caused the Irish potato famine of the nineteenth century has recently arisen. However, since this new form of the fungus can be killed by increased application of currently used fungicides, it is unlikely that the fungus will cause widespread food shortages in countries that currently rely on potatoes for sustenance.

Which of the following, if true, most calls into question the conclusion in the argument above?

  • (A) Though potatoes are an important staple crop in many parts of the world, people in most countries rely primarily on wheat or rice for sustenance.
  • (B) Potato farmers in many countries to which the new form of the fungus has spread cannot afford to increase their spending on fungicides.
  • (C) The new form of the fungus first began to spread when contaminated potato seeds were inadvertently exported from a major potato-exporting country.
  • (D) Potato farmers in most countries use several insecticides on their crops in addition to fungicides of the sort that kill the new form of the fungus.
  • (E) Most governments have funds set aside that can be used to alleviate the effects of large-scale disasters such as severe food shortages and floods.

Question 9:

Which of the following can be the musicians scheduled to teach the master classes, in the order in which they will teach, from first to sixth?

  • (A) F, J, G, T, Z, S
  • (B) F, W, H, T, G, Z
  • (C) G, F, H, T, S, Z
  • (D) S, G, W, H, R, J
  • (E) T, G, W, H, R, S

Question 10:

If R is scheduled to teach the second class, which of the following could be scheduled to teach the third class?

  • (A) F
  • (B) G
  • (C) J
  • (D) T
  • (E) W

Question 11:

Which of the following must be true about the schedule of master classes?

  • (A) J is not scheduled to teach if R is scheduled to teach.
  • (B) J is not scheduled to teach if T is scheduled to teach.
  • (C) J is not scheduled to teach if W is scheduled to teach.
  • (D) W is not scheduled to teach if F is scheduled to teach.
  • (E) Z is not scheduled to teach if W is scheduled to teach.

Question 12:

If pianists are scheduled to teach the fourth, fifth, and sixth classes, which of the following must be true?

  • (A) F is scheduled to teach the first class.
  • (B) G is scheduled to teach the first class.
  • (C) H is scheduled to teach an earlier class than the class Z is scheduled to teach.
  • (D) R is scheduled to teach an earlier class than the class T is scheduled to teach.
  • (E) S is scheduled to teach an earlier class than the class T is scheduled to teach.

Question 13:

Which of the following must be true about the schedule of the master classes?

  • (A) If F is scheduled to teach a class, then H is also scheduled to teach a class.
  • (B) If J is scheduled to teach a class, then R is also scheduled to teach a class.
  • (C) If J is scheduled to teach a class, then S is also scheduled to teach a class.
  • (D) If T is scheduled to teach a class, then R is also scheduled to teach a class.
  • (E) If W is scheduled to teach a class, then Z is also scheduled to teach a class.

Question 14:

If classes are scheduled so that the classes taught by pianists and the classes taught by violinists alternate with one another, which of the following can be true?

  • (A) F is scheduled to teach the fourth class.
  • (B) G is scheduled to teach the first class.
  • (C) H is scheduled to teach the third class.
  • (D) R is scheduled to teach the fifth class.
  • (E) W is scheduled to teach the second class.

Question 15:

If a violinist is scheduled to teach the first class and another violinist is scheduled to teach the sixth class, which of the following can be true?

  • (A) F is scheduled to teach the second class.
  • (B) H is scheduled to teach the sixth class.
  • (C) R is scheduled to teach the fourth class.
  • (D) T is scheduled to teach the second class.
  • (E) W is scheduled to teach the third class.

Question 16:

Which of the following CANNOT be true about the schedule of the master classes?

  • (A) F is scheduled to teach the third class.
  • (B) G is scheduled to teach the first class.
  • (C) T is scheduled to teach the sixth class.
    (D) W is scheduled to teach the sixth class.
  • (E) Z is scheduled to teach the fifth class.

Question 17:

Which of the following can be the list of the six people in the order of their offices, from office 1 through office 6?

  • (A) Q, U, S, T, P, R
  • (B) R, P, T, S, U, Q
  • (C) R, S, Q, U, P, T
  • (D) S, T, Q, P, U, R
  • (E) T, P, S, R, Q, U

Question 18:

If T is assigned to office 6, then U must be assigned to office

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4
  • (E) 5

Question 19:

If Q is assigned to office 2, then the person assigned to office 6 must be

  • (A) P
  • (B) R
  • (C) S
  • (D) T
  • (E) U

Question 20:

If Q is assigned to office 1, which of the following CANNOT be true?

  • (A) P is assigned to office 3.
  • (B) P is assigned to office 4.
  • (C) S is assigned to office 4.
  • (D) T is assigned to office 2.
  • (E) T is assigned to office 3.

Question 21:

If U is assigned to office 3, then Q must be assigned to office

  • (A) 1 or 2
  • (B) 1 or 6
  • (C) 2 or 5
  • (D) 4 or 5
  • (E) 4 or 6

Question 22:

If S is assigned to office 2, which of the following can be true?

  • (A) P is assigned to office 1.
  • (B) Q is assigned to office 3.
  • (C) R is assigned to office 6.
  • (D) T is assigned to office 5.
  • (E) U is assigned to office 4.

Question 23:

As government agencies, faced with budget difficulties, reduce their funding for scientific research, a greater amount of such research is being funded by private foundations. This shift means that research projects likely to produce controversial results will almost certainly comprise a smaller proportion of all funded research projects, since private foundations, concerned about their public image, tend to avoid controversy.

Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?

  • (A) Only research that is conducted without concern for the possibility of generating controversy is likely to produce scientifically valid results.
  • (B) Private foundations that fund scientific research projects usually recognize that controversial results from those projects cannot always be avoided.
  • (C) Scientists who conduct research projects funded by private foundations are unlikely to allow the concerns of the funding organizations to influence the manner in which they conduct the research.
  • (D) Many government agencies are more concerned about their public image than are most private foundations.
  • (E) Government agencies are more willing than are private foundations to fund research projects that are likely to produce controversial results.

Question 24:

Juries in criminal trials do not base verdicts on uncorroborated testimony given by any one witness. Rightly so, because it is usually prudent to be highly skeptical of unsubstantiated claims made by any one person. But then, to be consistent, juries should end an all-too-common practice: convicting defendants on the basis of an uncorroborated full confession.

Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument above?

  • (A) Juries often acquit in cases in which a defendant retracts a full confession made before trial.
  • (B) The process of jury selection is designed to screen out people who have a firm opinion about the defendant's guilt in advance of the trial.
  • (C) Defendants sometimes make full confessions when they did in fact do what they are accused of doing and have come to believe that the prosecutor has compelling proof of this.
  • (D) Highly suggestible people who are accused of wrongdoing sometimes become so unsure of their own recollection of the past that they can come to accept the accusations made against them.
  • (E) Many people believe that juries should not convict defendants who have not made a full confession.

Question 25:

Although spinach is rich in calcium, it also contains large amounts of oxalic acid, a substance that greatly impedes calcium absorption by the body. Therefore, other calcium-containing foods must be eaten either instead of or in addition to spinach if a person is to be sure of getting enough calcium.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument above?

  • (A) Rice, which does not contain calcium, counteracts the effects of oxalic acid on calcium absorption.
  • (B) Dairy products, which contain even more calcium than spinach does, are often eaten by people who eat spinach on a regular basis.
  • (C) Neither the calcium nor the oxalic acid in spinach is destroyed when spinach is cooked.
  • (D) Many leafy green vegetables other than spinach that are rich in calcium also contain high concentrations of oxalic acid.
  • (E) Oxalic acid has little effect on the body's ability to absorb nutrients other than calcium.

Question 26:



\( \displaystyle \frac{1}{4} - \frac{1}{5} \) & \( \displaystyle \frac{1}{20} \)


 


Question 27:



{\( x - y - 3 = 0 \)


Column A & Column B


\( x \) & \( y \)



 


Question 28:

The average (arithmetic mean) of 3 numbers is 37.5.
Column A: The sum of the 3 numbers
Column B: 100


Question 29:



\( x > 0 \)


Column A & Column B


\( \displaystyle \frac{1{x} + 1 \) & \( \displaystyle \frac{1}{x+1} \)



 


Question 30:

Column A: The perimeter of a square with sides of length 5 
Column B: The perimeter of a rectangle with length 10 and width 2

 


Question 31:

x is positive number and y is 30 percent of x
Column A: 25. percent of y
Column B: 55 percent fo x

 


Question 32:



\( r \) & \( v \)



 


Question 33:



{\( x < 0 \)


{{Column A & {{Column B


\( |x| \) & \( x \)



 


Question 34:


 

Column A: r
Column B: 1/r


 


Question 35:

\(m\) and \(n\) are positive integers.
Column A & Column B


\( m+n \) & \( mn \)



 


Question 36:


A bicycle registration costs $2.250$2.250 in City X and $3.00$3.00 in City Y. At these rates, the cost of 4 registrations in City X is k percent of the cost of 3 registrations in City Y.
Column A: k
Column B: 90


 


Question 37:



\( \left(\frac{1}{x}\right)^2 \) & \( x^2 \)


 


Question 38:



Column A: The area of the triangular region
Column B: 6

 


Question 39:

An identification code read from left to right consists of 2 digits, a dash, 3 digits, a dash, and then 4 digits. Each digit can be any number from 0 through 9.
Column A: The number of different identification codes possible
Column B: 109

 


Question 40:

In a rectangular coordinate system, line \(k\) has \(x\)-intercept 4 and slope -2.


The \(y\)-intercept of \(k\) & 2



 


Question 41:

Of the following, which is the closest approximation to \( \displaystyle \frac{(1.5)(19.9)(4.012)}{3.02} \)?

  • (A) 400
  • (B) 120
  • (C) 100
  • (D) 40
  • (E) 10

Question 42:

If \( (x-1)^2 = (x-2)^2 \), then \(x=\)

  • (A) \( -\frac{5}{8} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{2}{3} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{4}{3} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{3}{2} \)
  • (E) \( \frac{5}{2} \)

Question 43:

In the figure above, the areas of square regions X and Y are 1 and 4, respectively. What is the area of the triangular region?

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 1
  • (C) \( \frac{3}{4} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (E) \( \frac{1}{4} \)

Question 44:

If erasers cost
(0.25 each, at most how many erasers can be purchased for n dollars, where n is an integer?

  • (A) \( \frac{n}{25} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{n}{4} \)
  • (C) 4n
  • (D) 25n
  • (E) \( \frac{25n}{4} \)

Question 45:

Three salespeople are paid commissions in proportion to the amount of their sales, which total $25,000, $40,000, and $60,000 respectively. If a total of $20,000 is allocated for these three commissions, what is the amount of the largest commission paid?

  • (A) $8,000
  • (B) $8,400
  • (C) $9,600
  • (D) $10,000
  • (E) $12,000

Question 46:

When compared with the transaction fee for a
(1,000 cash advance, the transaction fee for a
)500 cash advance is

  • (A)
    (5 more
  • (B)
    )10 more
  • (C) the same
  • (D)
    (5 less
  • (E)
    )10 less

Question 47:

For which of the following cash advance amounts is the transaction fee approximately
(4?

  • (A)
    )190
  • (B)
    (420
  • (C)
    )750
  • (D)
    (1,200
  • (E)
    )1,580

Question 48:

For a total of
(1,500 that is advanced in separate cash amounts, for which of the following is the total of the transaction fees the LEAST?

  • (A) Two cash advances of
    )750
  • (B) Three cash advances of
    (500
  • (C) Six cash advances of
    )250
  • (D) Two cash advances, one of
    (1,100 and one of
    )400
  • (E) Two cash advances, one of
    (1,250 and one of
    )250

Question 49:

What is the median nighttime charge for 360 minutes of calling?

  • (A)
    (63.84
  • (B)
    )71.40
  • (C)
    (72.50
  • (D)
    )87.92
  • (E)
    (113.29

Question 50:

The daytime charge for 360 minutes of calling for phone service T is approximately what percent more than the nighttime charge?

  • (A) 7%
  • (B) 14%
  • (C) 28%
  • (D) 33%
  • (E) 40%
Correct Answer: (E) 40%
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question asks for the percent increase from the nighttime charge to the daytime charge for phone service T.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

The formula for percent increase is: \[ Percent Increase = \frac{New Value - Original Value}{Original Value} \times 100% \]
Here, the "New Value" is the daytime charge, and the "Original Value" is the nighttime charge.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

First, we need to read the charges for phone service T from the bar chart.

Daytime charge (light bar) for T:
(99.40
Nighttime charge (dark bar) for T:
)71.40

The "Original Value" (the value we are comparing to) is the nighttime charge,
(71.40.
The "New Value" is the daytime charge,
)99.40.
First, find the amount of the increase: \[ Increase =
(99.40 -
)71.40 =
(28.00 \]
Now, use the percent increase formula: \[ Percent Increase = \frac{
)28.00}{
(71.40} \times 100% \]
To approximate this calculation: \[ \frac{28}{71.4} \approx \frac{28}{70} = \frac{4 \times 7}{10 \times 7} = \frac{4}{10} = 0.4 \]
Converting the decimal to a percentage: \[ 0.4 \times 100% = 40% \]
Let's check with a slightly more precise calculation: \(28 / 71.4 \approx 0.392\). This is very close to 40%.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The daytime charge is approximately 40% more than the nighttime charge for service T.
Quick Tip: When calculating "percent more than," the number that comes after "than" is always the original value and goes in the denominator of the fraction. Approximating the numbers can make the division much easier.


Question 51:

A square dart board has four dark circular regions of radius 3 inches as shown in the design above. Each point on the dart board is equally likely to be hit by a dart that hits the board. What is the probability that a dart that hits the board will hit one of the circular regions?

  • (A) \( \frac{\pi}{16} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{\pi}{48} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{\pi}{64} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{1}{3} \)
  • (E) \( \frac{1}{4} \)

Question 52:

If \(x\) increased by 50 percent is equal to 20, then \(x=\)

  • (A) \( \frac{40}{3} \)
  • (B) 10
  • (C) \( \frac{20}{3} \)
  • (D) 5
  • (E) \( \frac{3}{4} \)

Question 53:

In the rectangular coordinate plane, point A has coordinates (-4, 0), point B has coordinates (0, 4), point C has coordinates (4, 0), and point D has coordinates (0, -4). What is the area of quadrilateral ABCD?

  • (A) 8
  • (B) 16
  • (C) 24
  • (D) 32
  • (E) 64

Question 54:

An experiment has three possible outcomes, I, J, and K. The probabilities of the outcomes are 0.25, 0.35, and 0.40, respectively. If the experiment is to be performed twice and the successive outcomes are independent, what is the probability that K will not be an outcome either time?

  • (A) 0.36
  • (B) 0.40
  • (C) 0.60
  • (D) 0.64
  • (E) 0.80

Question 55:

If the inside diameter of a cylindrical garden hose is 1 inch, what is the length, in inches, of a straight hose that can hold a maximum of 1 gallon of water? (1 gallon = 231 cubic inches)

  • (A) \( 231\pi \)
  • (B) \( \frac{231}{\pi} \)
  • (C) 924
  • (D) \( 924\pi \)
  • (E) \( \frac{924}{\pi} \)

Question 56:

It is assumed that scientists will avoid making ---- claims about the results of their experiments because of the likelihood that they will be exposed when other researchers cannot ---- their findings.

  • (A) hypothetical.. evaluate
  • (B) fraudulent.. duplicate
  • (C) verifiable.. contradict
  • (D) radical.. contest
  • (E) extravagant.. dispute

Question 57:

As long as the nuclear family is ---- a larger kinship group through contiguous residence on undivided land, the pressure to ---- and thus to get along with relatives is strong.

  • (A) nurtured among.. abstain
  • (B) excluded from.. compromise
  • (C) embedded in.. share
  • (D) scattered throughout.. reject
  • (E) accepted by.. lead

Question 58:

In contrast to the substantial muscular activity required for inhalation, exhalation is usually a ---- process.

  • (A) slow
  • (B) passive
  • (C) precise
  • (D) complex
  • (E) conscious

Question 59:

The documentary film about high school life was so realistic and ---- that feelings of nostalgia flooded over the college-age audience.

  • (A) logical
  • (B) pitiful
  • (C) evocative
  • (D) critical
  • (E) clinical

Question 60:

Although Georgia O'Keeffe is best known for her affinity with the desert landscape, her paintings of urban subjects ---- her longtime residency in New York City.

  • (A) condemn
  • (B) obfuscate
  • (C) attest to
  • (D) conflict with
  • (E) contend with

Question 61:

Even though the survey was designated as an interdisciplinary course, it involved no real ---- of subject matter.

  • (A) encapsulation
  • (B) organization
  • (C) synthesis
  • (D) discussion
  • (E) verification

Question 62:

The failure of many psychotherapists to ---- the results of pioneering research could be due in part to the specialized nature of such findings: even ---- findings may not be useful.

  • (A) understand.. baffling
  • (B) envision.. accessible
  • (C) utilize.. momentous
  • (D) reproduce.. duplicated
  • (E) affirm.. controversial

Question 63:

EARPLUG: NOISE::

  • (A) saw: wood
  • (B) detonation: explosion
  • (C) clothes: covering
  • (D) liquid: flask
  • (E) shield: impact

Question 64:

REVISE: MANUSCRIPT::

  • (A) retouch: picture
  • (B) replicate: experiment
  • (C) repair: hammer
  • (D) replace: book
  • (E) restore: masterpiece

Question 65:

DAREDEVIL: AUDACITY::

  • (A) malcontent: dissatisfaction
  • (B) perfectionist: patience
  • (C) cynic: indiscretion
  • (D) melancholic: bitterness
  • (E) hedonist: ambition

Question 66:

CALCIUM: MINERAL::

  • (A) sugar: carbohydrate
  • (B) salt: solution
  • (C) enzyme: food
  • (D) milk: cheese
  • (E) calorie: diet

Question 67:

DIRGE: GRIEF::

  • (A) diatribe: uneasiness
  • (B) parody: cruelty
  • (C) paean: praise
  • (D) testimonial: veracity
  • (E) anthem: seriousness

Question 68:

ABANDON: INHIBITION::

  • (A) ascendancy: effort
  • (B) prickliness: sensation
  • (C) surrender: resignation
  • (D) reversal: instigation
  • (E) tranquillity: agitation

Question 69:

INAUGURATION: OFFICIAL::

  • (A) instruction: lecturer
  • (B) election: politician
  • (C) pilgrimage: devotee
  • (D) dispute: arbitrator
  • (E) matriculation: student

Question 70:

SCORN: REJECT::

  • (A) adulate: flatter
  • (B) conjecture: forecast
  • (C) pledge: renege
  • (D) allege: declare
  • (E) disparage: ignore

Question 71:

PROFLIGATE: SOLVENT::

  • (A) mercurial: committed
  • (B) caustic: rational
  • (C) indecisive: confused
  • (D) cautious: uncertain
  • (E) practical: seemly

Question 72:

With which of the following statements concerning the stiffening of aging tissues would the author most likely agree?

  • (A) It is caused to a large degree by an increased rate of cell multiplication.
  • (B) It paradoxically both helps and hinders the longevity of proteins in the human body.
  • (C) It can be counteracted in part by increased ingestion of glucose-free foods.
  • (D) It is exacerbated by increased enzymatic glycosylation.
  • (E) It probably involves the nonenzymatic glycosylation of proteins.
    % Correct answer \textbf{Correct Answer:} (E) It probably involves the nonenzymatic glycosylation of proteins.

Question 73:

According to the passage, which of the following statements is true of the process that discolors and toughens foods?

  • (A) It takes place more slowly than glycosylation in the human body.
  • (B) It requires a higher ratio of glucose to protein than glycosylation requires in the human body.
  • (C) It does not require the aid of enzymes to attach glucose to protein.
  • (D) It proceeds more quickly when the food proteins have a molecular structure similar to that of crystallin proteins.
  • (E) Its effectiveness depends heavily on the amount of environmental moisture.
    % Correct answer \textbf{Correct Answer:} (C) It does not require the aid of enzymes to attach glucose to protein.

Question 74:

According to the passage, which of the following is characteristic of enzymatic glycosylation of proteins?

  • (A) AGE's are formed after a period of months or years.
  • (B) Proteins affected by the process are made unstable.
  • (C) Glucose attachment impairs and stiffens tissues.
  • (D) Glucose is attached to proteins for specific purposes.
  • (E) Amino groups combine with aldehyde groups to form Schiff bases.
    % Correct answer \textbf{Correct Answer:} (D) Glucose is attached to proteins for specific purposes.

Question 75:

According to the passage, which of the following statements is true of Amadori products in proteins?

  • (A) They are more plentiful in a dehydrated environment.
  • (B) They are created through enzymatic glycosylation.
  • (C) They are composed entirely of glucose molecules.
  • (D) They are derived from Schiff bases.
  • (E) They are derived from AGE's.

Question 76:

Which of the following best describes the function of the third paragraph of the passage (lines 19-29)?

  • (A) It offers evidence that contradicts the findings described in the first two paragraphs.
  • (B) It presents a specific example of the process discussed in the first two paragraphs.
  • (C) It explains a problem that the researchers mentioned in the second paragraph have yet to solve.
  • (D) It evaluates the research discoveries described in the previous paragraph.
  • (E) It begins a detailed description of the process introduced in the previous two paragraphs.

Question 77:

The passage suggests that which of the following would be LEAST important in determining whether nonenzymatic glycosylation is likely to have taken place in the proteins of a particular tissue?

  • (A) The likelihood that the tissue has been exposed to free glucose
  • (B) The color and spectrographic properties of structures within the tissue.
  • (C) The amount of time that the proteins in the tissue have persisted in the body
  • (D) The number of amino groups within the proteins in the tissue
  • (E) The degree of elasticity that the tissue exhibits

Question 78:

If the hypothesis stated in lines 56-58 is true, it can be inferred that the crystallin proteins in the lenses of people with cataracts

  • (A) have increased elasticity
  • (B) do not respond to enzymatic glycosylation
  • (C) are more susceptible to stiffening than are other proteins
  • (D) are at least several months old
  • (E) respond more acutely than other proteins to changes in moisture levels

Question 79:

The primary purpose of the passage is to

  • (A) question the published conclusions of a scholar concerning the history of the Iroquois nation
  • (B) establish the relationship between an earlier scholar's work and new anthropological research
  • (C) summarize scholarly controversy concerning an incident from Iroquois history
  • (D) trace two generations of scholarly opinion concerning Iroquois social institutions
  • (E) differentiate between Iroquois political practices and Iroquois religious practices

Question 80:

It can be inferred that the author of the passage regards Smith's argument as

  • (A) provocative and potentially useful, but flawed by poor organization
  • (B) eloquently presented, but needlessly inflammatory
  • (C) accurate in some of its particulars, but inaccurate with regard to an important point.
  • (D) historically sound, but overly detailed and redundant
  • (E) persuasive in its time, but now largely outdated

Question 81:

The author of the passage implies that which of the following occurred after the Iroquois were resettled on reservations early in the nineteenth century?

  • (A) Chiefs became more involved in their tribes' religious affairs.
  • (B) The authority of the chiefs' council over the affairs of individual tribes increased.
  • (C) The political influence of the Iroquois shamans was diminished.
  • (D) Individual tribes coalesced into the Iroquois tribal league.
  • (E) The longhouse because a political rather than a religious institution.

Question 82:

Which of the following best expresses an opinion presented by the author of the passage?

  • (A) Smith has overstated the importance of the political role played by Iroquois tribal chiefs in the nineteenth century.
  • (B) Smith has overlooked the fact that the Iroquois rarely allowed their shamans to exercise political authority.
  • (C) Smith has failed to explain why the chiefs' council was dissolved late in the nineteenth century.
  • (D) Smith has failed to acknowledge the role prior to the nineteenth century of the Iroquois tribal chiefs in religious affairs.
  • (E) Smith has failed to recognize that the very structure of Iroquois social institutions reflects religious beliefs.

Question 83:

DRONE:

  • (A) behave bestially
  • (B) decide deliberately
  • (C) err intentionally
  • (D) speak animatedly
  • (E) plan inefficiently

Question 84:

CERTAINTY:

  • (A) obstinacy
  • (B) impetuosity
  • (C) recklessness
  • (D) indecision
  • (E) indifference

Question 85:

MORIBUND:

  • (A) fully extended
  • (B) automatically controlled
  • (C) loosely connected
  • (D) completely dispersed
  • (E) increasingly vital

Question 86:

PROFANE:

  • (A) approach expectantly
  • (B) punish mildly
  • (C) appease fully
  • (D) treat reverently
  • (E) admonish sternly

Question 87:

PERSONABLE:

  • (A) unrefined
  • (B) unselfish
  • (C) unattractive
  • (D) uncommitted
  • (E) undistinguished

Question 88:

MIRE:

  • (A) straighten
  • (B) fracture
  • (C) extricate
  • (D) elevate
  • (E) augment

Question 89:

CONCEPTUAL:

  • (A) proven
  • (B) effective
  • (C) manageable
  • (D) concrete
  • (E) punctilious

Question 90:

SURFEIT:

  • (A) precise length
  • (B) delayed increment
  • (C) obtainable quantity
  • (D) unascertained limit
  • (E) insufficient supply

Question 91:

TENACITY:

  • (A) vacillation
  • (B) servility
  • (C) temerity
  • (D) perversity
  • (E) diversity

Question 92:

APPOSITE:

  • (A) irrelevant
  • (B) nameless
  • (C) tentative
  • (D) disfavored
  • (E) lavish

Question 93:

STYMIE:

  • (A) ponder
  • (B) predict
  • (C) divulge
  • (D) abet
  • (E) explain

Question 94:





x, y, and z are coordinates of three points on the number line above.
COLUMN A: xy
COLUMN B: xz


Question 95:

10 inches of snowfall is equivalent to 1 inch of rainfall. (1 foot = 12 inches)
COLUMN A: The number of inches of rainfall equivalent to 1 food of snowfall
COLUMN B: 1


Question 96:

b > 0
COLUMN A: a – b
COLUMN B: b – a


Question 97:

The geometric mean of any two positive numbers x and y is xyxy​
COLUMN A: The geometric mean of 4 and 8
COLUMN B: The average arithmetic mean of 4 and 8


Question 98:


\begin{tabular}{p{5cm} p{5cm}}
\textbf{Column A} & \textbf{Column B}
\( \displaystyle \frac{16}{35} \) & \( \displaystyle \frac{4}{9} \)

 


Question 99:

1 < x < y
COLUMN A: x+4
COLUMN B: y


Question 100:




\begin{tabular}{p{5cm} p{5cm}}
\textbf{Column A} & \textbf{Column B}

The length of ST & The length of RS

}


Question 101:


\begin{tabular}{p{5cm} p{5cm}}
\multicolumn{2}{l}{\(x+5=3\)

\multicolumn{2{l{\(y=2x\)

Column A & Column B
\( x \) & \( y \)

 


Question 102:


1 gallon = 8 pints
1 quart = 2 pints
COLUMN A: The least number of half-pint bottles needed of to hold x quarts milk
COLUMN B: The least number of one-quart bottles needed to hold x gallons of milk


Question 103:




The figure shows a cube with edge of length e.
COLUMN A: The length of diagonal AB
COLUMN B: 
 \( \sqrt{2} e \)

 


Question 1:


\begin{tabular}{p{5.5cm} p{5.5cm}}
\multicolumn{2}{l}{\( y = 3x - 1 \)


{Column A & {{Column B


\( x \) & \( \frac{y{3} + 3 \)



 


Question 2:


\begin{tabular}{p{5.5cm} p{5.5cm}}
&


\( 37 \times \frac{37}{36} \) & \( 37 + \frac{37}{36} \)



 

Correct Answer: (A) The quantity in Column A is greater.
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The problem asks us to compare two expressions involving the same numbers: \(37\) and \(\frac{37}{36}\). Specifically, we are asked to compare: \[ Column A: 37 \times \frac{37}{36}, \quad Column B: 37 + \frac{37}{36}. \]
At first glance, it might seem that a product and a sum would naturally differ, but we need to carefully compute both values to determine which is larger—or if they are equal.



Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

We can approach this problem systematically using the following methods:

Express both Column A and Column B with a common denominator so that we can compare them directly.
Alternatively, use a general algebraic check: for two numbers \(a\) and \(b\), the product \(ab\) is equal to the sum \(a+b\) if \((a-1)(b-1) = 1\). This is derived as follows:
\[ ab = a+b \implies ab - a - b = 0 \implies (a-1)(b-1) = 1. \]
This formula can help confirm whether the two quantities are equal.



Step 3: Detailed Explanation:


Step 3.1: Evaluate Column A \[ Column A = 37 \times \frac{37}{36} = \frac{37 \times 37}{36} = \frac{1369}{36}. \]
This is a straightforward calculation of the product.

Step 3.2: Evaluate Column B \[ Column B = 37 + \frac{37}{36}. \]
To combine these terms, we write 37 as a fraction with denominator 36: \[ 37 = \frac{37 \times 36}{36} = \frac{1332}{36}. \]
Now add the second term: \[ Column B = \frac{1332}{36} + \frac{37}{36} = \frac{1332 + 37}{36} = \frac{1369}{36}. \]

Step 3.3: Compare Column A and Column B
Both Column A and Column B simplify to the same fraction: \[ \frac{1369}{36}. \]
Thus, the two quantities are exactly equal.



Step 3.4: Verification Using the General Formula
For two numbers \(a\) and \(b\), we can verify equality using: \[ ab = a+b \iff (a-1)(b-1) = 1. \]
Here, \(a = 37\) and \(b = \frac{37}{36}\): \[ a-1 = 37-1 = 36, \quad b-1 = \frac{37}{36} - 1 = \frac{1}{36}. \]
Multiply: \[ (a-1)(b-1) = 36 \cdot \frac{1}{36} = 1. \]
This confirms that indeed \(ab = a+b\), which agrees with our direct calculation.



Step 4: Observations and Conclusion
Even though one expression is a product and the other is a sum, in this specific case the two quantities turn out to be equal. This is due to the particular relationship between the numbers: one number is slightly greater than 1 and the other is large enough to satisfy \((a-1)(b-1) = 1\).



Step 5: Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Column A = Column B} \] Quick Tip: When comparing complex-looking arithmetic expressions, try to find an algebraic relationship. Factoring or finding a common denominator can reveal that the two expressions are actually the same, as in this case where \(a \times \frac{a}{a-1}\) is being compared to \(a + \frac{a}{a-1}\).


Question 3:


\begin{tabular}{p{5.5cm} p{5.5cm}}
&


0.01% of 1,000 & 1

}

 

Correct Answer: (B) The quantity in Column B is greater.
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question requires calculating a percentage of a number and comparing it to another number. The key is to correctly convert the percentage to a decimal or fraction.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

"P percent of a number" means \( \frac{P}{100} \times Number \).
In this case, P = 0.01.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Column A: We need to calculate 0.01% of 1,000.
First, convert the percentage to a decimal. \[ 0.01% = \frac{0.01}{100} = 0.0001 \]
Now, multiply this decimal by 1,000. \[ 0.0001 \times 1,000 = 0.1 \]
Multiplying by 1,000 moves the decimal point 3 places to the right.
So, the quantity in Column A is 0.1.

Column B:
The quantity is 1.

Comparison:
We are comparing 0.1 (Column A) with 1 (Column B).
Since \(0.1 < 1\), the quantity in Column B is greater.


Step 4: Final Answer:

0.01% of 1,000 is 0.1, which is less than 1.
Quick Tip: Be very careful with decimal percentages. A common mistake is to confuse 0.01% with 0.01. Remember that the "%" sign means "divide by 100," so 0.01% is \(0.01 \div 100 = 0.0001\).


Question 4:


\begin{tabular}{p{5.5cm} p{5.5cm}}
\multicolumn{2}{l}{\(x\) and \(y\) are positive integers and \(x > y\).


{Column A & {{Column B


\( \displaystyle \frac{x^2{y^3} \) & \( \displaystyle \frac{y^3}{x^2} \)



 


Question 5:





\begin{tabular}{p{5.5cm} p{5.5cm}}

&


The perimeter of the shaded region in the rectangle & \( 2\sqrt{2} + 2 \)



 


Question 6:

\( -(\frac{-6}{2}) = \)

  • (A) -4
  • (B) -3
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4
  • (E) 8

Question 7:

A rectangular parking lot 2x feet long and x feet wide is to be enlarged so that the lot will be 2 times as long and 3 times as wide as it is now. The area of the enlarged rectangular lot will be how many times the area of the present lot?

  • (A) 6
  • (B) 5
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 3
  • (E) 2

Question 8:

If \(2x = 5\) and \(3y = 8\), then \( \frac{4x}{9y} = \)

  • (A) \( \frac{5}{18} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{5}{16} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{5}{12} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{5}{8} \)
  • (E) \( \frac{5}{4} \)

Question 9:

A certain jar contains 100 jelly beans: 50 white, 30 green, 10 yellow, 5 red, 4 purple, and 1 black. If a jelly bean is to be chosen at random, what is the probability that the jelly bean will be neither purple nor red?

  • (A) 0.09
  • (B) 0.11
  • (C) 0.55
  • (D) 0.91
  • (E) 0.96

Question 10:

The average (arithmetic mean) of \(|x|\) and \(x\) equals

  • (A) x if x > 0, and equals 0 if x = 0
  • (B) -x if x < 0, and equals 0 if x = 0
  • (C) 0, regardless of the value of x
  • (D) x, regardless of the value of x
  • (E) \(|x|\), regardless of the value of x

Question 11:

Expenditures for physician services in 1989 were approximately how many billion dollars more than expenditures for nursing care?

  • (A) 38.5
  • (B) 66.0
  • (C) 82.5
  • (D) 110.0
  • (E) 154.0
Correct Answer: (B) 66.0
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question asks us to find the difference in the dollar amount of expenditures between two categories shown in the pie chart. We need to use the percentages from the chart and the total expenditure amount.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

1. Find the percentage for "Physician Services" and "Nursing Care" from the pie chart.
2. Calculate the difference between these two percentages.
3. Multiply this percentage difference by the total expenditure amount (
(550 billion) to find the difference in dollars.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

From the pie chart:
- Percentage for Physician Services = 20%
- Percentage for Nursing Care = 8%

First, find the difference in percentages: \[ Percentage Difference = 20% - 8% = 12% \]
Now, calculate what this percentage represents in terms of the total expenditure of
)550 billion. \[ Dollar Difference = 12% of
(550 billion \] \[ Dollar Difference = 0.12 \times 550 \]
To calculate this without a calculator: \[ 0.12 \times 550 = (0.10 \times 550) + (0.02 \times 550) \] \[ = 55 + (2 \times 5.5) = 55 + 11 = 66 \]
So, the difference is
)66 billion.

Alternatively, you could calculate each amount separately and then subtract:
- Physician Services expenditure = \( 20% \times 550 = 0.20 \times 550 =
(110 \) billion.
- Nursing Care expenditure = \( 8% \times 550 = 0.08 \times 550 =
)44 \) billion.
- Difference = \(
(110 -
)44 =
(66 \) billion.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The expenditures for physician services were
)66 billion more than for nursing care.
Quick Tip: When asked for the difference between two parts of a whole, it's often faster to find the difference in their percentages first and then calculate that percentage of the total. This saves you from performing two separate multiplication steps.


Question 12:

If health care expenditures accounted for 11 percent of the gross domestic product in 1989, then the gross domestic product was approximately how many billion dollars?

  • (A) 605
  • (B) 5,000
  • (C) 5,500
  • (D) 6,050
  • (E) 6,500

Question 13:

The total enrollment in 1985 was approximately how much greater than the total enrollment in 1960?

  • (A) 4 million
  • (B) 5 million
  • (C) 7 million
  • (D) 9 million
  • (E) 11 million
Correct Answer: (D) 9 million
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question requires us to read data from a bar graph for two different years, calculate the total for each year, and then find the difference between these totals.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

1. Read the male and female enrollment numbers for 1960 and 1985.
2. Calculate the total enrollment for each year by adding the male and female values.
3. Subtract the 1960 total from the 1985 total to find the difference.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

First, let's read the approximate values from the bar graph (in millions).

For 1960:
- Males (dark bar) \(\approx\) 2.2 million
- Females (light bar) \(\approx\) 1.3 million
- Total enrollment in 1960 \(\approx\) 2.2 + 1.3 = 3.5 million

For 1985:
- Males (dark bar) \(\approx\) 6.0 million
- Females (light bar) \(\approx\) 6.5 million
- Total enrollment in 1985 \(\approx\) 6.0 + 6.5 = 12.5 million

Now, find the difference: \[ Difference = Total in 1985 - Total in 1960 \] \[ Difference \approx 12.5 million - 3.5 million = 9.0 million \]
The total enrollment in 1985 was approximately 9 million greater than in 1960.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The difference in total enrollment is approximately 9 million.
Quick Tip: When reading from a bar graph, you often have to estimate the values. Read them as carefully as you can, but don't worry about extreme precision. The answer choices are usually spread out enough to accommodate small estimation errors.


Question 14:

For which of the years shown was the ratio of male to female enrollment greatest?

  • (A) 1980
  • (B) 1975
  • (C) 1970
  • (D) 1965
  • (E) 1960
Correct Answer: (E) 1960
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

We need to find the year where the ratio of male enrollment to female enrollment was the highest. This means we are looking for the year where the number of males was largest in comparison to the number of females.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

The ratio is \( \frac{Males{Females} \). We can either estimate this ratio for each year or visually inspect the graph. A larger ratio means the male bar is much taller than the female bar.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Let's visually inspect the graph for each year. We are looking for the year where the dark bar (Males) is proportionally the largest compared to the light bar (Females).


- 1960: Male bar (\(\approx\) 2.2M) is significantly taller than the female bar (\(\approx\) 1.3M). The ratio is clearly greater than 1. \( \frac{2.2}{1.3} \approx 1.69 \)
- 1965: Male bar (\(\approx\) 3.5M) is taller than the female bar (\(\approx\) 2.2M). The ratio is greater than 1, but visually, the proportional difference seems smaller than in 1960. \( \frac{3.5}{2.2} \approx 1.59 \)
- 1970: Male bar (\(\approx\) 4.5M) is taller than the female bar (\(\approx\) 3.2M). The proportional difference continues to shrink. \( \frac{4.5}{3.2} \approx 1.41 \)
- 1975: Male bar (\(\approx\) 5.8M) is taller than the female bar (\(\approx\) 5.0M). They are getting very close in height. \( \frac{5.8}{5.0} = 1.16 \)
- 1980: The male bar (\(\approx\) 5.8M) and female bar (\(\approx\) 6.2M) are very close, and the female bar is now slightly taller. The ratio is less than 1.
- 1985: The female bar (\(\approx\) 6.5M) is clearly taller than the male bar (\(\approx\) 6.0M). The ratio is less than 1.

By both visual inspection and approximate calculation, the ratio of males to females was highest in 1960, when the male bar was proportionally much taller than the female bar. The ratio has consistently decreased over time.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The greatest ratio of male to female enrollment occurred in 1960.
Quick Tip: For ratio questions on bar graphs, you can often solve them by visual inspection. Look for the largest proportional difference between the two bars being compared. You don't always need to calculate the exact numbers if the visual difference is clear.


Question 15:

For which of the following periods was the percent increase in female enrollment the greatest?

  • (A) 1960 to 1965
  • (B) 1965 to 1970
  • (C) 1970 to 1975
  • (D) 1975 to 1980
  • (E) 1980 to 1985

Question 16:

If a certain town has 90 doctors and the ratio of male doctors to female doctors is 3 to 2, then the number of female doctors in this town is

  • (A) 18
  • (B) 30
  • (C) 36
  • (D) 45
  • (E) 54

Question 17:

Which of the following points (x, y) is NOT on the graph of \(y < 2x\)?

  • (A) (-3, -7)
  • (B) (3, 3)
  • (C) (2, -9)
  • (D) (2, 2)
  • (E) (2, 5)

Question 18:

If apples sell for
(0.68 per pound and Juanita bought 36 apples for
)8.16, then the average (arithmetic mean) number of apples per pound was

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{3} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (C) 1
  • (D) 2
  • (E) 3

Question 19:

The sum of the first 50 positive integers is 1,275. What is the sum of the integers from 51 to 100?

  • (A) 2,525
  • (B) 2,550
  • (C) 3,250
  • (D) 3,775
  • (E) 5,050

Question 20:

The figure above shows a semicircle with center O and a quarter circle with center R. If OQ = 4 and QR = 6, what is the ratio of the area of the shaded region to the area of the semicircular region?

  • (A) 2:3
  • (B) 4:3
  • (C) 8:9
  • (D) 9:4
  • (E) 9:8

Question 21:

Joyce: Three years ago the traffic commission modified our town's busiest intersection for better visibility, a commendable effort to cut down on traffic accidents there.

Gary: Over the past three years there have been more, not fewer, traffic accidents per week at that intersection, so the modification has increased the likelihood of accidents there

The answer to which of the following questions would be most useful in evaluating Gary's argument?

  • (A) What proportion of the town's drivers involved in accidents that occurred prior to the modification suffered personal injury in their accidents?
  • (B) How long, on average, had the members of the traffic commission held their offices when the modification was implemented?
  • (C) Do a majority of the town's residents approve of the traffic commission's overall performance?
  • (D) What measures have nearby towns taken within the last three years in order to improve visibility at dangerous intersections?
  • (E) How has the volume of traffic at the town's busiest intersection changed over the last three years?

Question 22:

Women make up the majority of the population in the country, and many of the prescriptions written by doctors for tranquilizers are for women patients. The testing of these drugs for efficacy and the calibration of recommended doses, however, was done only on men. Not even the animals used to test toxicity were female.

The statements above, if true, best support which of the following as a conclusion?

  • (A) Some tranquilizers are more appropriately prescribed for women than for men.
  • (B) There have been no reports of negative side effects from prescribed tranquilizers in women.
  • (C) Tranquilizers are prescribed for patients in some instances when doctors do not feel confident of their diagnoses. (This option is from the next page of the test)
  • (D) The toxicity of drugs to women is less than the toxicity of the same drugs to men. (This option is from the next page of the test)
  • (E) Whether the recommended dosages of tranquilizers are optimal for women is not known. (This option is from the next page of the test)

Question 23:

Which of the following is an acceptable selection of species to be planted at the two locations?

  • (A) Location 1: Linden, maple, pine, quince \quad Location 2: Maple, pine, tupelo, walnut
  • (B) Location 1: Linden, pine, quince, walnut \quad Location 2: Linden, maple, tupelo, walnut
  • (C) Location 1: Maple, quince, spruce, tupelo \quad Location 2: Maple, pine, tupelo, walnut
  • (D) Location 1: Quince, spruce, tupelo, walnut \quad Location 2: Linden, maple, pine, tupelo
  • (E) Location 1: Quince, spruce, tupelo, walnut \quad Location 2: Linden, pine, quince, spruce

Question 24:

If maple, spruce, and tupelo are planted at location 1, then which of the following must be the other species planted at location 1?

  • (A) Quince
  • (B) Redbud
  • (C) Spruce
  • (D) Tupelo
  • (E) Walnut

Question 25:

If maple, redbud, and walnut are planted at location 1, then any of the following species can be planted at location 2 EXCEPT

  • (A) linden
  • (B) pine
  • (C) quince
  • (D) tupelo
  • (E) walnut

Question 26:

If linden and quince are planted at location 1, then which of the following must be true?

  • (A) Quince is planted at location 2.
  • (B) Spruce is planted at location 2.
  • (C) Pine is not planted at location 1.
  • (D) Spruce is not planted at location 1.
  • (E) Tupelo is planted at location 1.

Question 27:

If each of the eight species is selected for planting and spruce is planted at location 2, then which of the following must also be planted at location 2?

  • (A) Linden
  • (B) Pine
  • (C) Quince
  • (D) Tupelo
  • (E) Walnut

Question 28:

If each of the eight species must be selected for planting and quince and tupelo are planted at location 1, then which of the following can be the other two species planted at location 1?

  • (A) Maple and spruce
  • (B) Maple and walnut
  • (C) Pine and redbud
  • (D) Pine and spruce
  • (E) Redbud and walnut

Question 29:

Gray wolves have been absent from a large national park for decades. Park officials wish to reestablish the wolves without jeopardizing any existing species of wildlife there. Since the park contains adequate prey for the wolves and since the wolves avoid close contact with people, reintroducing them would serve the officials' purpose without seriously jeopardizing visitors' safety.

Each of the following, if true, strengthens the argument above EXCEPT:

  • (A) The park is so large that wolves will not need to venture into areas frequented by people.
  • (B) Rabies is very rare in wolves, and there have been no verified cases of serious human injuries from nonrabid wild wolves since records have been kept.
  • (C) Ranchers in the region near the park have expressed concern that gray wolves, if reintroduced, would sometimes prey on their livestock.
  • (D) Predation by gray wolves on elk in the park is likely to improve the health and viability of the park's elk population as a whole by reducing malnutrition among the elk.
  • (E) Wolves do not prey on animals of any endangered species that currently inhabit the park.

Question 30:

Osteoporosis is a disease that reduces bone mass, leading to fragile bones that break easily. Current treatments for osteoporosis such as estrogen or calcitonin help prevent further loss of bone but do not increase bone mass. Since fluoride is known to increase bone mass, administering fluoride to osteoporosis patients would therefore help make their bones less susceptible to breaking.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument above?

  • (A) Most people who suffer from osteoporosis are not aware that administration of fluoride can increase bone mass.
  • (B) Fluoride is added to drinking water in many locations in order to strengthen the teeth of people who drink the water.
  • (C) The risk of contracting osteoporosis and other degenerative bone diseases is lessened by exercise and an adequate intake of calcium.
  • (D) Unlike administration of fluoride, administration of estrogen or calcitonin is known to cause undesirable side effects for many people.
  • (E) The new bone mass that is added by the administration of fluoride is more brittle and less elastic than normal bone tissue.

Question 31:

The closest distance from which an asteroid has been photographed using ground-based radar is 2.2 million miles, the distance from which the asteroid Toutatis was recently photographed. The closest photograph of an asteroid is of Gaspra, which was photographed from a distance of only 10,000 miles.

Which of the following can be properly concluded from the statements above?

  • (A) Toutatis is more likely to collide with the Earth than Gaspra is.
  • (B) Toutatis, unlike Gaspra, has only recently been discovered.
  • (C) Asteroids can be photographed only by using ground-based radar.
  • (D) Ground-based radar photography cannot take photographs of objects much beyond 2.2 million miles from Earth.
  • (E) The photograph of Gaspra was not taken using ground-based radar.

Question 32:

Which of the following most logically completes the argument below?

Alone among living species, human beings experience adolescence, a period of accelerated physical growth prior to full maturity. Whether other hominid species, which are now all extinct and are known only through the fossil record, went through adolescence cannot be known, since

  • (A) the minimum acceleration in physical growth that would indicate adolescence might differ according to species
  • (B) the fossil record, though steadily expanding, will always remain incomplete
  • (C) detecting the adolescent growth spurt requires measurements on the same individual at different ages
  • (D) complete skeletons of extinct hominids are extremely rare
  • (E) human beings might be the first species to benefit from the survival advantages, if any, conferred by adolescence

Question 33:

If the mouse is in chamber 2, and the other four animals are all in chambers, which of the following is a pair of chambers that must be empty?

  • (A) 1 and 3
  • (B) 1 and 4
  • (C) 2 and 4
  • (D) 3 and 5
  • (E) 3 and 6

Question 34:

If the mouse in chamber 2, the parakeet is in chamber 4, and all the other animals are in chambers, then the hen can be in chamber.

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4
  • (E) 5

Question 35:

If no chamber contains more than one animal and each of the five animals is in a chamber, then there is a total of how many different chambers any one of which could be the chamber that contains the mouse?

  • (A) One
  • (B) Two
  • (C) Three
  • (D) Four
  • (E) Five

Question 36:

If all five animals are in the chambers, the mouse is in chamber 2, and the frog's chamber is different from and not directly adjacent to the hen's chamber, then the parakeet must be in chamber

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 5
  • (E) 6

Question 37:

If the hen is in chamber 1 with another animal, one animal is in chamber 5, and two animals are in chamber 3, which of the following pairs of animals must be in chamber 3?

  • (A) The frog and the mouse
  • (B) The frog and the parakeet
  • (C) The frog and the rabbit
  • (D) The mouse and the rabbit
  • (E) The parakeet and the rabbit

Question 38:

Which of the following is an acceptable assignment of students to groups?

  • (A) John, Kate, and Mark; Luz, Nelson, and Olga; Pat
  • (B) John, Mark, and Olga; Kate and Luz; Nelson and Pat
  • (C) Kate, Luz, and Olga; John and Nelson; Mark and Pat
  • (D) Mark, Nelson, and Pat; John and Kate; Luz and Olga
  • (E) Nelson, Olga, and Pat; John and Luz; Kate and Mark

Question 39:

If one of the groups of two consists of Luz and Mark, which of the following must be true?

  • (A) John is assigned to the group to which Kate is assigned.
  • (B) John is assigned to the group to which Nelson is assigned.
  • (C) Kate is assigned to the group to which Pat is assigned.
  • (D) Kate is assigned to a group consisting of two students.
  • (E) Nelson is assigned to the group consisting of three students.

Question 40:

If Nelson is assigned to the group to which Olga is assigned, which of the following can be true?

  • (A) Kate is assigned to the group to which John is assigned.
  • (B) Kate is assigned to the group to which Mark is assigned.
  • (C) Luz is assigned to the group to which Olga is assigned.
  • (D) John is assigned to the group consisting of three students.
  • (E) Pat is assigned to a group consisting of two students.

Question 41:

If Mark is assigned to a group to which neither John nor Pat is assigned, which of the following must be true?

  • (A) John is assigned to the group to which Kate is assigned.
  • (B) John is assigned to the group to which Nelson is assigned.
  • (C) Kate is assigned to the group to which Luz is assigned.
  • (D) Kate is assigned to the group to which Nelson is assigned.
  • (E) Kate is assigned to the group to which Olga is assigned.

Question 42:

If John and Olga are assigned to different groups from each other, which of the following CANNOT be true?

  • (A) John is assigned to the group to which Mark is assigned.
  • (B) Luz is assigned to the group to which Kate is assigned.
  • (C) Nelson is assigned to the group to which Olga is assigned.
  • (D) John is assigned to the group consisting of three members.
  • (E) John and Kate are assigned to different groups from each other.

Question 43:

GRAND CITY CENSUS REPORTS (1950-1980)


Which of the following, if true, most helps to reconcile the increase in housing units with the decline in population shown in the table above?

  • (A) The percentage of families that included adult children living at home increased during the 1970's.
  • (B) The number of people moving to Grand City from other cities gradually decreased during the three decades.
  • (C) The number of housing units that were vacant in Grand City fell steadily between 1950 and 1980.
  • (D) The number of adults who lived alone in Grand City housing units increased dramatically between 1950 and 1980.
  • (E) Many housing units that were occupied by only one family in 1950 were occupied by two or more families in 1980.

Question 44:

Fossils of the coral Acrocora palmata that date from the last period when glaciers grew and consequently spread from the polar regions are found at ocean depths far greater than those at which A. palmata can now survive. Therefore, although the fossilized A. palmata appears indistinguishable from A. palmata now living, it must have differed in important respects to have been able to live in deep water.

The argument depends on the assumption that

  • (A) no fossils of the coral A. palmata have been found that date from periods when glaciers were not spreading from the polar regions
  • (B) geological disturbances since the last period during which glaciers spread have caused no major downward shift in the location of A. palmata fossils
  • (C) A. palmata now live in shallow waters in most of the same geographical regions as those in which deep-lying A. palmata fossils have been found
  • (D) A. palmata fossils have been found that date from each of the periods during which glaciers are known to have spread from the polar region
  • (E) A. palmata can live at greater depths where the ocean temperature is colder than they can where the ocean temperature is warmer

Question 45:

Conservationists have believed that by concentrating their preservation efforts on habitats rich in an easily surveyed group of species, such as birds, they would thereby be preserving areas rich in overall species diversity. This belief rests on a view that a geographical area rich in one group of species will also be rich in the other groups characteristic of the entire regional climate zone.

Which of the following findings about widely scattered tracts 10 kilometers by 10 kilometers in a temperate climate zone would most seriously challenge the conservationists' assumptions?

  • (A) The tracts show little damage from human intrusion and from pollution by human activities.
  • (B) Where a certain group of species, such as birds, is abundant, there is also an abundance of the species, such as insects, on which that group of species feeds...
  • (C) The area of one of the tracts is generally large enough to contain a representative sample of the organisms in the region.
  • (D) There is little overlap between the list of tracts that are rich in species of butterflies and the list of those that are rich in species of birds.
  • (E) The highest concentration of individuals of rare species is found where the general diversity of species is greatest.

Question 46:

In the nineteenth century, novelists and unsympathetic travelers portrayed the American West as a land of ---- adversity, whereas promoters and idealists created a ---- image of a land of infinite promise.

  • (A) lurid.. a mundane
  • (B) incredible.. an underplayed
  • (C) dispiriting.. an identical
  • (D) intriguing.. a luxuriant
  • (E) unremitting.. a compelling

Question 47:

Honeybees tend to be more ---- than earth bees: the former, unlike the latter, search for food together and signal their individual findings to one another.

  • (A) insular
  • (B) aggressive
  • (C) differentiated
  • (D) mobile
  • (E) social

Question 48:

Joe spoke of superfluous and ---- matters with exactly the same degree of intensity, as though for him serious issues mattered neither more nor less than did ----.

  • (A) vital.. trivialities
  • (B) redundant.. superficialities
  • (C) important.. necessities
  • (D) impractical.. outcomes
  • (E) humdrum.. essentials

Question 49:

The value of Davis' sociological research is compromised by his unscrupulous tendency to use materials ---- in order to substantiate his own claims, while ---- information that points to other possible conclusions.

  • (A) haphazardly.. deploying
  • (B) selectively.. disregarding
  • (C) cleverly.. weighing
  • (D) modestly.. refuting
  • (E) arbitrarily.. emphasizing

Question 50:

Once Renaissance painters discovered how to ---- volume and depth, they were able to replace the medieval convention of symbolic, two-dimensional space with the more ---- illusion of actual space.

  • (A) reverse.. conventional
  • (B) portray.. abstract
  • (C) deny.. concrete
  • (D) adumbrate.. fragmented
  • (E) render.. realistic

Question 51:

He had expected gratitude for his disclosure, but instead he encountered ---- bordering on hostility.

  • (A) patience
  • (B) discretion
  • (C) openness
  • (D) ineptitude
  • (E) indifference

Question 52:

The diplomat, selected for her demonstrated patience and skill in conducting such delicate negotiations, ---- to make a decision during the talks because any sudden commitment at that time would have been ----.

  • (A) resolved.. detrimental
  • (B) refused.. apropos
  • (C) declined.. inopportune
  • (D) struggled.. unconscionable
  • (E) hesitated.. warranted

Question 53:

CONDUCTOR: INSTRUMENTALIST::

  • (A) director: actor
  • (B) sculptor: painter
  • (C) choreographer: composer
  • (D) virtuoso: amateur
  • (E) poet: listener

Question 54:

QUARRY: ROCK

  • (A) silt: gravel
  • (B) sky: rain
  • (C) cold: ice
  • (D) mine: ore
  • (E) jewel: diamond

Question 55:

STICKLER: EXACTING::

  • (A) charlatan: forthright
  • (B) malcontent: solicitous
  • (C) misanthrope: expressive
  • (D) defeatist: resigned
  • (E) braggart: unassuming

Question 56:

WALK: AMBLE::

  • (A) dream: imagine
  • (B) talk: chat
  • (C) swim: float
  • (D) look: stare
  • (E) speak: whisper

Question 57:

JAZZ: MUSIC::

  • (A) act: play
  • (B) variety: vaudeville
  • (C) portraiture: painting
  • (D) menu: restaurant
  • (E) species: biology

Question 58:

REPATRIATE: EMIGRATION::

  • (A) reinstate: election
  • (B) recall: impeachment
  • (C) appropriate: taxation
  • (D) repeal: ratification
  • (E) appeal: adjudication

Question 59:

PLACEBO: INNOCUOUS::

  • (A) antibiotic: viral
  • (B) vapor: opaque
  • (C) salve: unctuous
  • (D) anesthetic: astringent
  • (E) vitamin: synthetic

Question 60:

DISSEMINATE: INFORMATION::

  • (A) amend: testimony
  • (B) analyze: evidence
  • (C) investigate: crime
  • (D) prevaricate: confirmation
  • (E) foment: discontentment

Question 61:

VOICE: QUAVER::

  • (A) pace: quicken
  • (B) cheeks: dimple
  • (C) concentration: focus
  • (D) hand: tremble
  • (E) eye: blink

Question 62:

Which of the following best describes the author's attitude toward Gaskell's use of the method of documentary record in Mary Barton?

  • (A) Uncritical enthusiasm
  • (B) Unresolved ambivalence
  • (C) Qualified approval
  • (D) Resigned acceptance
  • (E) Mild irritation

Question 63:

According to the passage, Mary Barton and the early novels of D. H. Lawrence share which of the following?

  • (A) Depiction of the feelings of working-class families
  • (B) Documentary objectivity about working-class circumstances
  • (C) Richly detailed description of working-class adjustment to urban life
  • (D) Imaginatively structured plots about working-class characters
  • (E) Experimental prose style based on working-class dialect

Question 64:

Which of the following is most closely analogous to Job Legh in Mary Barton, as that character is described in the passage?

  • (A) An entomologist who collected butterflies as a child
  • (B) A small-town attorney whose hobby is nature photography
  • (C) A young man who leaves his family's dairy farm to start his own business
  • (D) A city dweller who raises exotic plants on the roof of his apartment building
  • (E) A union organizer who works in a textile mill under dangerous conditions

Question 65:

It can be inferred from examples given in the last paragraph of the passage that which of the following was part of "the new and crushing experience of industrialism" (lines 46-47) for many members of the English working class in the nineteenth century?

  • (A) Extortionate food prices
  • (B) Geographical displacement
  • (C) Hazardous working conditions
  • (D) Alienation from fellow workers
  • (E) Dissolution of family ties

Question 66:

It can be inferred that the author of the passage believes that Mary Barton might have been an even better novel if Gaskell had

  • (A) concentrated on the emotions of a single character
  • (B) made no attempt to re-create experiences of which she had no firsthand knowledge
  • (C) made no attempt to reproduce working-class dialects
  • (D) grown up in an industrial city
  • (E) managed to transcend her position as an outsider

Question 67:

Which of the following phrases could best be substituted for the phrase "this aspect of Mary Barton" in line 29 without changing the meaning of the passage as a whole?

  • (A) the material details in an urban working-class environment
  • (B) the influence of Mary Barton on lawrence's early work
  • (C) the place of Mary Barton in the development of the English novel
  • (D) the extent of the poverty and physical suffering among England's industrial workers in the 1840's.
  • (E) the portrayal of the particular feelings and responses of working-class characters

Question 68:

The author of the passage describes Mary Barton as each of the following EXCEPT

  • (A) insightful
  • (B) meticulous
  • (C) vivid
  • (D) poignant
  • (E) lyrical

Question 69:

The author of the passage is primarily concerned with

  • (A) confirming a theory
  • (B) supporting a statement
  • (C) presenting new information
  • (D) predicting future discoveries
  • (E) reconciling discrepant findings

Question 70:

It can be inferred that one reason the fourteen models described in the passage failed to agree was that

  • (A) they failed to incorporate the most up-to-date information about the effect of clouds on climate
  • (B) they were based on faulty information about factors other than clouds that affect climate.
  • (C) they were based on different assumptions about the overall effects of clouds on climate
  • (D) their originators disagreed about the kinds of forecasts the models should provide
  • (E) their originators disagreed about the factors other than clouds that should be included in the models

Question 71:

It can be inferred that the primary purpose of the models included in the study discussed in the second paragraph of the passage was to

  • (A) predict future changes in the world's climate
  • (B) predict the effects of cloud systems on the world's climate
  • (C) find a way to prevent a disastrous planetwide temperature increase
  • (D) assess the percentage of the Earth's surface covered by cloud systems
  • (E) estimate by how much the amount of carbon dioxide in the Earth's atmosphere will increase

Question 72:

The information in the passage suggests that scientists would have to answer which of the following questions in order to predict the effect of clouds on the warming of the globe?

  • (A) What kinds of cloud systems will form over the Earth?
  • (B) How can cloud systems be encouraged to form over the ocean?
  • (C) What are the causes of the projected planetwide temperature increase?
  • (D) What proportion of cloud systems are currently composed of cirrus clouds?
  • (E) What proportion of the clouds in the atmosphere form over land masses?

Question 73:

SUSPEND:

  • (A) force
  • (B) split
  • (C) tilt
  • (D) slide down
  • (E) let fall

Question 74:

CREDULITY:

  • (A) originality
  • (B) skepticism
  • (C) diligence
  • (D) animation
  • (E) stoicism

Question 75:

MILD:

  • (A) toxic
  • (B) uniform
  • (C) maximal
  • (D) asymptomatic
  • (E) acute

Question 76:

IMPLEMENT:

  • (A) distort
  • (B) foil
  • (C) overlook
  • (D) aggravate
  • (E) misinterpret

Question 77:

DIFFIDENCE::

  • (A) trustworthiness
  • (B) assertiveness
  • (C) lack of preparation
  • (D) resistance to change
  • (E) willingness to blame

Question 78:

BYZANTINE:

  • (A) symmetrical
  • (B) variegated
  • (C) discordant
  • (D) straightforward
  • (E) unblemished

Question 79:

PROCLIVITY:

  • (A) confusion
  • (B) deprivation
  • (C) obstruction
  • (D) aversion
  • (E) hardship

Question 80:

PROTRACT:

  • (A) treat fairly
  • (B) request hesitantly
  • (C) take back
  • (D) cut short
  • (E) make accurate

Question 81:

VAUNTING:

  • (A) plucky
  • (B) meek
  • (C) chaste
  • (D) cowardly
  • (E) ardent

Question 82:

HALE:

  • (A) unenthusiastic
  • (B) staid
  • (C) odious
  • (D) infirm
  • (E) uncharacteristic

Question 83:

SEMINAL:

  • (A) derivative
  • (B) substantiated
  • (C) reductive
  • (D) ambiguous
  • (E) extremist

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