GRE 2025 Model Paper Set 2 Question Paper with Solutions PDF

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Updated on, Oct 14, 2025

byShivam Yadav

GRE 2025 Model Paper Set 2 Question Paper with Solutions PDF is available for download. The overall test time is about 1 hour and 58 minutes. GRE has total 5 sections:

  • Analytical Writing  (One "Analyze an Issue" task, Alloted time 30 minutes)
  • Verbal Reasoning  (Two Sections, with 12 questions and 15 questions respectively)
  • Quantitative Reasoning (Two Sections, with 12 questions and 15 questions respectively)

GRE 2025 Model Paper Set 2 Question Paper with Solutions PDF

GRE 2025 Model Paper Set 2 Question Paper with Solutions PDF download iconDownload Check Solutions
GRE 2025 Model Paper Set 2 Question Paper with Solutions PDF

Question 1:

A computer program can provide information in ways that force students to --- learning instead of being merely ---- of knowledge.

  • (A) shore up.. reservoirs
  • (B) accede to.. consumers
  • (C) participate in .. recipients
  • (D) compensate for.. custodians
  • (E) profit from.. beneficiaries

Question 2:

The form and physiology of leaves vary according to the -- in which they develop: for example, leaves display a wide range of adaptations to different degrees of light and moisture.

  • (A) relationship
  • (B) species
  • (C) sequence
  • (D) patterns
  • (E) environment

Question 3:

One theory about intelligence sees ---- as the logical structure underlying thinking and insists that since animals are mute, they must be ---- as well.

  • (A) behavior.. inactive
  • (B) instinct.. cooperative
  • (C) heredity.. thoughtful
  • (D) adaptation.. brutal
  • (E) language.. mindless

Question 4:

Though ---- in her personal life, Edna St. Vincent Millay was nonetheless ---- about her work, usually producing several pages of complicated rhyme in a day.

  • (A) jaded.. feckless
  • (B) verbose.. ascetic
  • (C) vain.. humble
  • (D) impulsive.. disciplined
  • (E) self-assured.. sanguine

Question 5:

The children's ---- natures were in sharp contrast to the even-tempered dispositions of their parents.

  • (A) mercurial
  • (B) blithe
  • (C) phlegmatic
  • (D) introverted
  • (E) artless

Question 6:

By ---- scientific rigor with a quantitative approach, researchers in the social sciences may often have ---- their scope to those narrowly circumscribed topics that are well suited to quantitative methods.

  • (A) undermining.. diminished
  • (B) equating.. enlarged
  • (C) vitiating.. expanded
  • (D) identifying.. limited
  • (E) imbuing.. broadened

Question 7:

As early as the seventeenth century, philosophers called attention to the ---- character of the issue, and their twentieth-century counterparts still approach it with ----.

  • (A) absorbing.. indifference
  • (B) unusual.. composure
  • (C) complex.. antipathy
  • (D) auspicious.. caution
  • (E) problematic.. uneasiness

Question 8:

TRIPOD: CAMERA::

  • (A) scaffolding: ceiling
  • (B) prop: set
  • (C) easel: canvas
  • (D) projector: film
  • (E) frame: photograph

Question 9:

AQUATIC: WATER::

  • (A) cumulus: clouds
  • (B) inorganic: elements
  • (C) variegated: leaves
  • (D) rural: soil
  • (E) arboreal: trees

Question 10:

EMOLLIENT: SUPPLENESS::

  • (A) unguent: elasticity
  • (B) precipitant: absorption
  • (C) additive: fusion
  • (D) desiccant: dryness
  • (E) retardant: permeability

Question 11:

DRAW: DOODLE::

  • (A) talk: whisper
  • (B) travel: ramble
  • (C) run: walk
  • (D) calculate: add
  • (E) eat: gobble

Question 12:

CONSPICUOUS: SEE::

  • (A) repulsive: forget
  • (B) prohibited: discount
  • (C) deceptive: delude
  • (D) impetuous: disregard
  • (E) transparent: understand

Question 13:

IMMATURE: DEVELOPED::

  • (A) accessible: exposed
  • (B) theoretical: conceived
  • (C) tangible: identified
  • (D) irregular: classified
  • (E) incipient: realized

Question 14:

PERSPICACITY: ACUTE::

  • (A) adaptability: prescient
  • (B) decorum: complacent
  • (C) caprice: whimsical
  • (D) discretion: literal
  • (E) ignorance: pedantic

Question 15:

PLAYFUL: BANTER::

  • (A) animated: originality
  • (B) exaggerated: hyperbole
  • (C) insidious: effrontery
  • (D) pompous: irrationality
  • (E) taciturn: solemnity

Question 16:

QUARANTINE: CONTAGION::

  • (A) blockage: obstacle
  • (B) strike: concession
  • (C) embargo: commerce
  • (D) vaccination: inoculation
  • (E) prison: reform

Influenced by the view of some twentieth-century feminists that women's position within the family is one of the central factors determining women's social position, some historians have underestimated the significance of the woman suffrage movement. These historians contend that nineteenth-century suffragism was less radical and, hence, less important than, for example, the moral reform movement or domestic feminism—two nineteenth-century movements in which women struggled for more power and autonomy within the family. True, by emphasizing these struggles, such historians have broadened the conventional view of nineteenth-century feminism, but they do a historical disservice to suffragism. Nineteenth-century feminists and anti-feminist alike perceived the suffragists' demand for enfranchisement as the most radical element in women's protest, in part because suffragists were demanding power that was not based on the institution of the family, women's traditional sphere. When evaluating nineteenth-century feminism as a social force, contemporary historians should consider the perceptions of actual participants in the historical events.

Question 17:

The author asserts that the historians discussed in the passage have

  • (A) influenced feminist theorists who concentrate on the family
  • (B) honored the perceptions of the women who participated in the women suffrage movement
  • (C) treated feminism as a social force rather than as an intellectual tradition
  • (D) paid little attention to feminist movements
  • (E) expanded the conventional view of nineteenth-century feminism

Question 18:

The author of the passage asserts that some twentieth-century feminists have influenced some historians view of the

  • (A) significance of the woman suffrage movement
  • (B) importance to society of the family as an institution
  • (C) degree to which feminism changed nineteenth-century society
  • (D) philosophical traditions on which contemporary feminism is based
  • (E) public response to domestic feminism in the nineteenth century

Question 19:

The author of the passage suggests that which of the following was true of nineteenth-century feminists?

  • (A) Those who participated in the moral reform movement were motivated primarily by a desire to reconcile their private lives with their public positions.
  • (B) Those who advocated domestic feminism, although less visible than the suffragists, were in some ways the more radical of the two groups.
  • (C) Those who participated in the woman suffrage movement sought social roles for women that were not defined by women's familial roles.
  • (D) Those who advocated domestic feminism regarded the gaining of more autonomy within the family as a step toward more participation in public life.
  • (E) Those who participated in the nineteenth-century moral reform movement stood midway between the positions of domestic feminism and suffragism.

Question 20:

The author implies that which of the following is true of the historians discussed in the passage?

  • (A) They argue that nineteenth-century feminism was not as significant a social force as twentieth-century feminism has been.
  • (B) They rely too greatly on the perceptions of the actual participants in the events they study.
  • (C) Their assessment of the relative success of nineteenth-century domestic feminism does not adequately take into account the effects of antifeminist rhetoric.
  • (D) Their assessment of the significance of nineteenth-century suffragism differs considerably from that of nineteenth-century feminists.
  • (E) They devote too much attention to nineteenth-century suffragism at the expense of more radical movements that emerged shortly after the turn of the century.

Question 21:

In the passage, the author is primarily concerned with

  • (A) identifying the kinds of thinking that are used by technologists
  • (B) stressing the importance of nonverbal thinking in engineering design
  • (C) proposing a new role for nonscientific thinking in the development of technology
  • (D) contrasting the goals of engineers with those of technologists
  • (E) criticizing engineering schools for emphasizing science in engineering curricula

Question 22:

It can be inferred that the author thinks engineering curricula are

  • (A) strengthened when they include courses in design
  • (B) weakened by the substitution of physical science courses for courses designed to develop mathematical skills
  • (C) strong because nonverbal thinking is still emphasized by most of the courses
  • (D) strong despite the errors that graduates of such curricula have made in the development of automatic control systems
  • (E) strong despite the absence of nonscientific modes of thinking

Question 23:

Which of the following statements best illustrates the main point of lines 1-28 of the passage?

  • (A) When a machine like a rotary engine malfunctions, it is the technologist who is best equipped to repair it.
  • (B) Each component of an automobile—for example, the engine or the fuel tank—has a shape that has been scientifically determined to be best suited to that component's function.
  • (C) A telephone is a complex instrument designed by technologists using only nonverbal thought.
  • (D) The designer of a new refrigerator should consider the designs of other refrigerators before deciding on its final form.
  • (E) The distinctive features of a suspension bridge reflect its designer's conceptualization as well as the physical requirements of its site.

Question 24:

Which of the following statements would best serve as an introduction to the passage?

  • (A) The assumption that the knowledge incorporated in technological developments must be derived from science ignores the many non-scientific decisions made by technologists.
  • (B) Analytical thought is no longer a vital component in the success of technological development.
  • (C) As knowledge of technology has increased, the tendency has been to lose sight of the important role played by scientific thought in making decisions about form, arrangement, and texture.
  • (D) A movement in engineering colleges toward a technician's degree reflects a demand for graduates who have the nonverbal reasoning ability that was once common among engineers.
  • (E) A technologist thinking about a machine, reasoning through the successive steps in a dynamic process, can actually turn the machine over mentally.

Question 25:

The author calls the predicament faced by the Historic American Engineering Record "paradoxical" (lines 36-37) most probably because

  • (A) the publication needed drawings that its own staff could not make
  • (B) architectural schools offered but did not require engineering design courses for their students
  • (C) college students were qualified to make the drawings while practicing engineers were not
  • (D) the drawings needed were so complicated that even students in architectural schools had difficulty making them.
  • (E) engineering students were not trained to make the type of drawings needed to record the development of their own discipline.
Correct Answer: (E) engineering students were not trained to make the type of drawings needed to record the development of their own discipline.
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question asks us to explain the meaning of the word "paradoxical" in the context of the passage. A paradox is a situation that seems contradictory but is nevertheless true. We need to identify the contradiction described in lines 36-43.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The situation is that the "Historic American Engineering Record" needed special drawings to document the history of American engineering. One would logically expect that engineering students would be the ideal candidates for this job. However, the passage states that "the only college students with the requisite abilities were not engineering students, but rather students attending architectural schools."

The paradox is the contradiction: the students of a particular field (engineering) were not equipped to document the history of that very same field, while students from another field (architecture) were.

Option (E) captures this contradiction perfectly: "engineering students were not trained to make the type of drawings needed to record the development of their own discipline."

Let's analyze the other options:

(A) The paradox is not about the staff, but about the contrast between students of different disciplines.

(B) This is irrelevant to the specific contradiction the author points out.

(C) The comparison in the text is between engineering students and architectural students, not students vs. practicing engineers.

(D) The passage does not state that the drawings were complicated, only that they required certain "abilities."


Step 3: Final Answer:

The paradoxical situation is that the very people studying engineering were not the ones qualified to visually document it, a task that fell to students of architecture. Option (E) is the most accurate description of this irony.
Quick Tip: To understand a paradox, identify the two conflicting ideas. Here, idea 1 is "It's an engineering project." Idea 2 is "Engineering students can't do it." The paradox lies in the conflict between these two truths.


Question 26:

According to the passage, random failures in automatic control systems are "not merely trivial aberrations" (line 53) because

  • (A) automatic control systems are designed by engineers who have little practical experience in the field
  • (B) the failures are characteristic of systems designed by engineers relying too heavily on concepts in mathematics
  • (C) the failures occur too often to be taken lightly
  • (D) designers of automatic control systems have too little training in the analysis of mechanical difficulties
  • (E) designers of automatic control systems need more help from scientists who have a better understanding of the analytical problems to be solved before such systems can work efficiently

Question 27:

The author uses the example of the early models of high-speed railroad cars primarily to

  • (A) weaken the argument that modern engineering systems have major defects because of an absence of design courses in engineering curricula
  • (B) support the thesis that the number of errors in modern engineering systems is likely to increase
  • (C) illustrate the idea that courses in design are the most effective means for reducing the cost of designing engineering systems
  • (D) support the contention that a lack of attention to the nonscientific aspects of design results in poor conceptualization by engineers
  • (E) weaken the proposition that mathematics is a necessary part of the study of design

Question 28:

IGNITE:

  • (A) amplify
  • (B) douse
  • (C) obscure
  • (D) blemish
  • (E) replicate

Question 29:

MUTATE:

  • (A) recede
  • (B) grow larger
  • (C) link together
  • (D) remain the same
  • (E) decrease in speed

Question 30:

FRAGMENT:

  • (A) ensue
  • (B) revive
  • (C) coalesce
  • (D) balance
  • (E) accommodate

Question 31:

OSTENSIBLE:

  • (A) gargantuan
  • (B) inauspicious
  • (C) intermittent
  • (D) perpetual
  • (E) inapparent

Question 32:

PROLIXITY:

  • (A) ceremoniousness
  • (B) flamboyance
  • (C) succinctness
  • (D) inventiveness
  • (E) lamentation

Question 33:

CONCERTED:

  • (A) meant to obstruct
  • (B) not intended to last
  • (C) enthusiastically supported
  • (D) run by volunteers
  • (E) individually devised

Question 34:

FORBEARANCE:

  • (A) fragility
  • (B) impatience
  • (C) freedom
  • (D) nervousness
  • (E) tactlessness

Question 35:

COSSETED:

  • (A) unspoiled
  • (B) irrepressible
  • (C) serviceable
  • (D) prone to change
  • (E) free from prejudice

Question 36:

PROBITY:

  • (A) timidity
  • (B) sagacity
  • (C) impertinence
  • (D) uncertainty
  • (E) unscrupulousness

Question 37:

ESCHEW:

  • (A) habitually indulge in
  • (B) take without authorization
  • (C) leave unsaid
  • (D) boast about
  • (E) handle carefully

Question 38:

REDOUBTABLE:

  • (A) trustworthy
  • (B) unschooled
  • (C) credulous
  • (D) not formidable
  • (E) not certain

Question 39:

Which of the following is an order in which the six magazines can be arranged, from position 1 through position 6?

  • (A) M, O, P, S, V, T
  • (B) P, O, S, M, V, T
  • (C) P, V, T, O, M, S
  • (D) P, V, T, S, O, M
  • (E) T, P, V, M, O, S

Question 40:

If P occupies position 3, which of the following must be true?

  • (A) M occupies position 4.
  • (B) O occupies position 2.
  • (C) S occupies position 5.
  • (D) T occupies position 6.
  • (E) V occupies position 2.

Question 41:

If O and T, not necessarily in that order, occupy consecutively numbered positions, then T can be in position

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 5
  • (E) 6

Question 42:

Which of the following can be true?

  • (A) M occupies position 4 and P occupies position 5.
  • (B) P occupies position 4 and V occupies position 5.
  • (C) S occupies position 2 and P occupies position 3.
  • (D) P occupies position 2.
  • (E) S occupies position 5.

Question 43:

If V occupies position 4, then T must occupy the position that is numbered exactly one lower than the position occupied by

  • (A) M
  • (B) O
  • (C) P
  • (D) S
  • (E) V

Question 44:

If S and V, not necessarily in that order, occupy consecutively numbered positions, which of the following must be true?

  • (A) M occupies position 4.
  • (B) O occupies position 2.
  • (C) P occupies position 1.
  • (D) S occupies position 6.
  • (E) T occupies position 6.

Question 45:

Patel: Although enrollment in the region's high school has been decreasing for several years, enrollment at the elementary school has grown considerably. Therefore, the regional school board proposes building a new elementary school.
Quintero: Another solution would be to convert some high school classrooms temporarily into classrooms for elementary school students.
Which of the following, if true, most helps to support Quintero's alternative proposal?

  • (A) Some rooms at the high school cannot be converted into rooms suitable for the use of elementary school students.
  • (B) The cost of building a high school is higher than the cost of building an elementary school.
  • (C) Although the birth rate has not increased, the number of families sending their children to the region's high school has increased markedly.
  • (D) A high school atmosphere could jeopardize the safety and self-confidence of elementary school students.
  • (E) Even before the region's high school population began to decrease, several high school classrooms rarely needed to be used.

Question 46:

Which of the following, if true, most helps explain the difference in the rates of decline between 1980 and 1990 in population of puffins and arctic terns, two kinds of seabirds for which sand eels serve as a primary source of food?

  • (A) Puffins switched in part from their preferred food of sand eels to rockfish and other fish, but arctic terns did not.
  • (B) The marked decline in the populations of puffins and arctic terns that occurred on Alair Island did not occur on other similar islands nearby, where there are substantial populations of both species.
  • (C) The decline in sand eels was due to changes in environmental conditions that affected the reproduction of eels rather than to overfishing by people.
  • (D) The main diet of puffin and arctic tern chicks on Alair Island in 1980 consisted of young sand eels.
  • (E) Unusual severe weather that disrupted the breeding cycle of the sand eels of Alair Island in 1989 also damaged the nests of puffins but not those of arctic terns.

Question 47:

Peter: More than ever before in Risland, college graduates with science degrees are accepting permanent jobs in other fields. That just goes to show that scientists in Risland are not being paid enough.
Lila: No, it does not. These graduates are not working in science for the simple reason that there are not enough jobs in science in Risland to employ all of these graduates.
Which of the following, if true in Risland, would most undermine the reasoning in Peter's argument?

  • (A) The college graduates with science degrees who are not working in science are currently earning lower salaries than they would earn as scientists.
  • (B) Fewer college students than ever before are receiving degrees in science.
  • (C) The number of jobs in science has steadily risen in the last decade.
  • (D) A significant number of college graduates with science degrees worked at low-paying jobs while they were in college.
  • (E) Every year some recent college graduates with science degrees accept permanent jobs in nonscientific fields.

Question 48:

Which of the following can be the order of lectures and lunch at the conference?

  • (A) W, X, Lunch, Y, S, T, Z
  • (B) X, Y, T, Lunch, S, Z, W
  • (C) Y, T, Lunch, S, W, X, Z
  • (D) Z, T, W, S, Lunch, Y, X
  • (E) Z, W, Y, S, Lunch, X, T

Question 49:

If exactly two lectures are given before lunch, they must be

  • (A) X and T
  • (B) Y and T
  • (C) Z and T
  • (D) Z and W
  • (E) Z and Y

Question 50:

If exactly three lectures, including Y and Z, are given before lunch, which of the following can be true?

  • (A) T is the second lecture.
  • (B) T is the fifth lecture.
  • (C) W is the third lecture.
  • (D) X is the first lecture.
  • (E) X is the third lecture.

Question 51:

If T is the sixth lecture, which of the following must be true?

  • (A) X is the first lecture.
  • (B) X is the second lecture.
  • (C) Exactly two lectures are given before lunch.
  • (D) Exactly three lectures are given before lunch.
  • (E) Exactly four lectures are given before lunch.

Question 52:

If S and Z are both given after lunch, which of the following must be true?

  • (A) X is given before lunch.
  • (B) X is given after lunch.
  • (C) Y is given before lunch.
  • (D) T is the third lecture.
  • (E) Z is the fifth lecture.

Question 53:

Which of the following lectures CANNOT be given immediately before lunch?

  • (A) S
  • (B) T
  • (C) X
  • (D) Y
  • (E) Z

Question 54:

If the lion is in enclosure 1 and the tiger is in enclosure 3, and the lion is to be moved to enclosure 7, the tiger could be in which of the following enclosures when all of the transfers have been completed?

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 5
  • (E) 6

Question 55:

If the tiger is in enclosure 5 and the lion is in enclosure 3, moving the tiger to which of the following enclosures requires exactly two transfers?

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 6
  • (E) 7

Question 56:

If the lion is in enclosure 6 and the tiger is in enclosure 7, and the lion is to be moved to enclosure 7 and the tiger to enclosure 6, then which of the following must be true?

  • (A) The lion is transferred to enclosure 3 at some time during the move.
  • (B) The tiger is transferred to enclosure 5 twice.
  • (C) One of the two animals is transferred to enclosure 3 twice.
  • (D) Three transfers to enclosure 5 are made.
  • (E) At least one transfer is made to either enclosure 2 or enclosure 4.

Question 57:

If the lion is in enclosure 3 and the tiger is in enclosure 4, and the lion is to be moved to enclosure 5 and the tiger to enclosure 7, then exactly how many transfers must be made?

  • (A) Four
  • (B) Five
  • (C) Six
  • (D) Seven
  • (E) Eight

Question 58:

If the lion is in enclosure 1 and the tiger is in enclosure 7, and the lion is to be transferred to enclosure 3 and the tiger to enclosure 1, then which of the following CANNOT be true?

  • (A) The lion is transferred to enclosure 2 in the first transfer.
  • (B) The lion is transferred to enclosure 3 in the second transfer.
  • (C) The lion is transferred to enclosure 4 in the second transfer.
  • (D) The tiger is transferred to enclosure 5 in the first transfer.
  • (E) The tiger is transferred to enclosure 3 in the second transfer.

Question 59:

If the lion is in enclosure 1 and the tiger is in enclosure 3, and the lion is to be moved to enclosure 6 and the tiger to enclosure 5, then the second transfer could be a transfer of the

  • (A) lion to enclosure 2
  • (B) lion to enclosure 5
  • (C) tiger to enclosure 4
  • (D) tiger to enclosure 5
  • (E) tiger to enclosure 7

Question 60:

If the lion is in enclosure 3 and the tiger is in enclosure 6, and the lion is to be moved to enclosure 6 and the tiger to enclosure 3, then which of the following must be true?

  • (A) Exactly five enclosures are used in the move
  • (B) One animal is transferred exactly twice as many times as the other animal.
  • (C) All of the transfers of the lion are completed before any transfer of the tiger occurs.
  • (D) At one point one of the animals is transferred to either enclosure 2 or enclosure 4.
  • (E) At one point neither the lion nor the tiger is in enclosure 3, enclosure 5, or enclosure 6

Question 61:

Counselor: Every year a popular newsmagazine publishes a list of United States colleges, ranking them according to an overall numerical score that is a composite of ratings according to several criteria. However, the overall scores generally should not be used by students as the basis for deciding to which colleges to apply.

Which of the following, if true, most helps to justify the counselor's recommendation?

  • (A) The vast majority of people who purchase the magazine in which the list appears are not college-bound students.
  • (B) Colleges that are ranked highest in the magazine's list use this fact in advertisements aimed at attracting students.
  • (C) The rankings seldom change from one year to the next.
  • (D) The significance that particular criteria have for any two students is likely to differ according to the students' differing needs.
  • (E) Some college students who are pleased with their schools considered the magazine's rankings before deciding which college to attend.

Question 62:

A thorough search of Edgar Allan Poe's correspondence has turned up not a single letter in which he mentions his reputed morphine addiction. On the basis of this evidence it is safe to say that Poe's reputation for having been a morphine addict is undeserved and that reports of his supposed addiction are untrue.

Which of the following is assumed by the argument above?

  • (A) Reports claiming that Poe was addicted to morphine did not begin to circulate until after his death.
  • (B) None of the reports of Poe's supposed morphine addiction can be traced to individuals who actually knew Poe.
  • (C) Poe's income from writing would not have been sufficient to support a morphine addiction.
  • (D) Poe would have been unable to carry on an extensive correspondence while under the influence of morphine.
  • (E) Fear of the consequences would not have prevented Poe from indicating in his correspondence that he was addicted to morphine.

Question 63:

Adelle: The government's program to reduce the unemployment rate in the province of Carthena by encouraging job creation has failed, since the rate there has not changed appreciably since the program began a year ago.

Fran: But the unemployment rate in Carthena had been rising for three years before the program began, so the program is helping.

Which of the following, if true, most strongly counters Fran's objection to Adelle's argument?

  • (A) The government is advised by expert economists, some of whom specialize in employment issues.
  • (B) The unemployment rate in the province of Carthena has historically been higher than that of the country as a whole.
  • (C) The current government was elected by a wide margin, because of its promises to reduce the unemployment rate in Carthena.
  • (D) Around the time the government program began, large numbers of unemployed Carthena residents began leaving the province to look for work elsewhere.
  • (E) The unemployment rate in Carthena had been relatively stable until shortly before the current government took office.

Question 64:

\(x^2 - 1 = y\)
\(x = 3\)

Column A: \(y^2\)

Column B: 80


Question 65:

The gross receipts from the sale of t tickets, at
(17 per ticket, total
)16,660.

Column A: \(t\)

Column B: 1,000


Question 66:

Points T and U are on a circle with center O.

Column A: The length of segment OT

Column B: The length of segment TU

  • (A) The quantity in Column A is greater.
  • (B) The quantity in Column B is greater.
  • (C) The two quantities are equal.
  • (D) The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Question 67:

A box contains 20 marbles, all of which are solid colored; 5 of the marbles are green and 10 of the marbles are red.

Column A: The probability that a marble selected at random from the box will be green

Column B: The probability that a marble selected at random from the box will be neither red nor green


Question 68:

Column A: Eleven thousand plus eleven hundred plus eleven

Column B: 11,111


Question 69:



Column A: \(x\)

Column B: 15


Question 70:

The cost \(c\) of an order of \(n\) special envelopes is given by \(c = (
(0.50)n +
)15.00\).

Column A: The cost of an order of 500 special envelopes

Column B:
(260


Question 71:

The average (arithmetic mean) of 7, 9, and \(x\) is greater than 9.

Column A: \(x\)

Column B: 11


Question 72:

\(a > 0\)

Column A: \((4\sqrt{5a})^2\)

Column B: \(40a\)


Question 73:

Column A: \(\frac{0.27}{0.53}\)

Column B: \(\frac{0.027}{0.053}\)


Question 74:

Each of the numbers x, y, w, and z (not necessarily distinct) can have any of the values 2, 3, 9, or 14.

Column A: \(\frac{x}{y}\)

Column B: \(wz\)


Question 75:

\(a = -219\)

Column A: \(a^7 + a^5\)

Column B: \(a^8 + a^{18}\)


Question 76:

Column A: \(x^2 + 2x + 1\)

Column B: \(x^2\)


Question 77:



\(a > 0\)

Column A: d

Column B: e


Question 78:

w, x, y, and z are consecutive positive integers and w < x < y < z.

Column A: The remainder when \((w+x)(x+y)(y+z)\) is divided by 2

Column B: 1


Question 79:

A certain machine drills 30 holes in 8 minutes. At that constant rate, how many holes will 4 such machines drill in \(1 \frac{1}{3}\) hours?

  • (A) 300
  • (B) 900
  • (C) 960
  • (D) 1,200
  • (E) 2,560

Question 80:

Tina, Ed, and Lauren agree to share the cost of a gift and to make their contributions in proportion to their ages. Ed's age is \(\frac{1}{2}\) of Tina's age, and Lauren's age is \(\frac{1}{3}\) of Ed's age. If Lauren's share of the cost is
(2.50, what is the cost of the gift?

  • (A)
    )25
  • (B)
    (20
  • (C)
    )15
  • (D)
    (12
  • (E)
    )10

Question 81:

Three solid cubes of lead, each with edges 10 centimeters long, are melted together in a level, rectangular-shaped pan. The base of the pan has inside dimensions of 20 centimeters by 30 centimeters, and the pan is 15 centimeters deep. If the volume of the solid lead is approximately the same as the volume of the melted lead, approximately how many centimeters deep is the melted lead in the pan?

  • (A) 2.5
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 5
  • (D) 7.5
  • (E) 9

Question 82:

Which of the following CANNOT be the sum of two integers that have a product of 30?

  • (A) 31
  • (B) 17
  • (C) -11
  • (D) -13
  • (E) -21

Question 83:

In the rectangular coordinate system above, if point (a, b), shown, and the two points (4a, b) and (2a, 2b), not shown, were connected by straight lines, then the area of the resulting triangular region, in terms of a and b, would be

  • (A) \(\frac{ab}{2}\)
  • (B) ab
  • (C) \(\frac{3ab}{2}\)
  • (D) 2ab
  • (E) 4ab

Question 84:

What was the range in the daily number of shirts sold during March?

  • (A) 20
  • (B) 45
  • (C) 50
  • (D) 60
  • (E) 70

Question 85:

The average (arithmetic mean) number of shirts sold per day during February was approximately what percent greater than the average number sold during January?

  • (A) 10%
  • (B) 20%
  • (C) 30%
  • (D) 40%
  • (E) 70%

Question 86:

For which two uses of electricity was the ratio of the amounts of electricity used most nearly 3 to 1?

  • (A) Water heater and lights/small appliances
  • (B) Large appliances and lights/small appliances
  • (C) Air conditioner and water heater
  • (D) Air conditioner and lights/small appliances
  • (E) Air conditioner and large appliances
Correct Answer: (E) Air conditioner and large appliances
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question asks us to find a pair of electricity uses from the pie chart whose consumption percentages have a ratio of approximately 3 to 1. We will test the ratio for each pair given in the options.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
\[ Ratio = \frac{Percentage of first use}{Percentage of second use} \]

We need this ratio to be close to 3.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

From the pie chart, the percentages are:


Air Conditioner: 53%
Water Heater: 20%
Large Appliances: 18%
Lights/Small Appliances: 9%

Now, let's test the ratio for each option:

(A) Water heater to lights/small appliances: \(\frac{20}{9} \approx 2.22\). Not close to 3.

(B) Large appliances to lights/small appliances: \(\frac{18}{9} = 2\). The ratio is exactly 2 to 1. Not 3 to 1.

(C) Air conditioner to water heater: \(\frac{53}{20} = 2.65\). This is somewhat close, but let's check other options.

(D) Air conditioner to lights/small appliances: \(\frac{53}{9} \approx 5.89\). Not close to 3.

(E) Air conditioner to large appliances: \(\frac{53}{18} \approx 2.94\). This value is the closest to 3.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The ratio for air conditioner and large appliances (2.94 to 1) is the most nearly 3 to 1.
Quick Tip: When a question says "most nearly," it implies you should calculate the value for all options and then choose the one that is arithmetically closest to the target number.


Question 87:

The electricity used by the water heater was measured separately and its cost per kilowatt-hour was one-half the cost per kilowatt-hour of the rest of the electricity used. The cost of the electricity used by the water heater was most nearly what fraction of the total cost of all the electricity used?

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{11}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{9}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{8}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
  • (E) It cannot be determined from the information given.
Correct Answer: (B) \(\frac{1}{9}\)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a weighted average cost problem. The cost per unit (kWh) is different for the water heater than for the other appliances. We need to calculate the total cost by considering these different rates and then find what fraction of that total cost is attributable to the water heater.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

1. Define variables for the cost rates.

Let \(C\) be the cost per kWh for the "rest of the electricity".

Then the cost per kWh for the water heater is \(\frac{C}{2}\).


2. Calculate the amount of electricity used for each category.

Water heater usage = 20% of total usage = 0.20 \(\times\) Total.

Rest of the usage = (53% + 18% + 9%) of total usage = 80% of total usage = 0.80 \(\times\) Total.

(Note: We don't need the 800 kWh value, as it will cancel out. We can work with percentages.)


3. Calculate the cost for each category in terms of C and Total Usage.

Cost of water heater = (Water heater usage) \(\times\) (Cost rate for water heater)

\[ = (0.20 \times Total) \times \left(\frac{C}{2}\right) = 0.10 \times Total \times C \]

Cost of the rest = (Rest of usage) \(\times\) (Cost rate for the rest)

\[ = (0.80 \times Total) \times C = 0.80 \times Total \times C \]


4. Calculate the total cost.

Total Cost = Cost of water heater + Cost of the rest

\[ = (0.10 \times Total \times C) + (0.80 \times Total \times C) = 0.90 \times Total \times C \]


5. Find the required fraction.

Fraction = \(\frac{Cost of water heater}{Total Cost}\)

\[ = \frac{0.10 \times Total \times C}{0.90 \times Total \times C} = \frac{0.10}{0.90} = \frac{1}{9} \]


Step 3: Final Answer:

The cost of the electricity used by the water heater was \(\frac{1}{9}\) of the total cost.
Quick Tip: In problems involving fractions or percentages of a total, you often don't need the actual total value. You can work with the percentages or fractions directly, as the total value will cancel out in the final ratio.


Question 88:

In November the Smythe household used the same total amount of electricity as in July, but the water heater used 33 percent of this total amount. By approximately what percent did the amount of electricity used by the water heater increase from July to November?

  • (A) 13%
  • (B) 33%
  • (C) 50%
  • (D) 65%
  • (E) 130%
Correct Answer: (D) 65%
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is another percent increase problem. We need to calculate the amount of electricity (in kWh) used by the water heater in July and in November, and then find the percent increase from the July amount to the November amount.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
\[ Percent Increase = \left( \frac{November Usage - July Usage}{July Usage} \right) \times 100% \]


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Calculate July water heater usage.

Total electricity in July = 800 kWh.

Water heater usage in July = 20% of 800 kWh = \(0.20 \times 800 = 160\) kWh.


2. Calculate November water heater usage.

Total electricity in November = 800 kWh (same as July).

Water heater usage in November = 33% of 800 kWh = \(0.33 \times 800 = 264\) kWh.


3. Apply the percent increase formula.

July Usage (Original Value) = 160 kWh.

November Usage (New Value) = 264 kWh.

Increase = 264 - 160 = 104 kWh.

\[ Percent Increase = \left( \frac{104}{160} \right) \times 100% \]

Simplify the fraction: \(\frac{104}{160} = \frac{52}{80} = \frac{26}{40} = \frac{13}{20}\).

\[ Percent Increase = \frac{13}{20} \times 100% = 0.65 \times 100% = 65% \]


Step 4: Final Answer:

The amount of electricity used by the water heater increased by 65% from July to November.
Quick Tip: You can also solve this problem just using the percentages, since the base (total electricity) is the same for both months. The increase is from 20% to 33%. The percent increase is \(((33-20)/20) \times 100 = (13/20) \times 100 = 65%\).


Question 89:

One integer will be randomly selected from the integers 11 to 60, inclusive. What is the probability that the selected integer will be a perfect square or a perfect cube?

  • (A) 0.1
  • (B) 0.125
  • (C) 0.16
  • (D) 0.5
  • (E) 0.9

Question 90:

The measures of two angles of a parallelogram differ by 52 degrees. The number of degrees in the smaller angle is

  • (A) 38
  • (B) 52
  • (C) 64
  • (D) 76
  • (E) 128

Question 91:

The odds in favor of winning a game can be found by computing the ratio of the probability of winning to the probability of not winning. If the probability that Pat will win a game is \(\frac{4}{9}\), what are the odds that Pat will win the game?

  • (A) 4 to 5
  • (B) 4 to 9
  • (C) 5 to 4
  • (D) 5 to 9
  • (E) 9 to 5

Question 92:

If a, b, c, and d are consecutive integers such that a < b < c < d, then in terms of a, the sum a + b + d =

  • (A) a + 4
  • (B) 2a + 3
  • (C) 3a + 2
  • (D) 3a + 3
  • (E) 3a + 4

Question 93:

\(2^x + 2^x =\)

  • (A) \(2^{x+1}\)
  • (B) \(2^{x+2}\)
  • (C) \(2^{2x}\)
  • (D) \(4^x\)
  • (E) \(4^{2x}\)

Question 94:

Since most if not all learning occurs through ----, relating one observation to another, it would be strange indeed if the study of other cultures did not also illuminate the study of our own.

  • (A) assumptions
  • (B) experiments
  • (C) comparisons
  • (D) repetitions
  • (E) impressions

Question 95:

The new ---- of knowledge has created ---- people: everyone believes that his or her subject cannot and possibly should not be understood by others.

  • (A) specialization.. barriers between
  • (B) decline.. associations among
  • (C) redundancy.. complacency in
  • (D) disrepute.. concern for
  • (E) promulgation.. ignorance among

Question 96:

If a species of parasite is to survive, the host organisms must live long enough for the parasite to ----; if the host species becomes ----, so do its parasites.

  • (A) atrophy.. healthy
  • (B) reproduce.. extinct
  • (C) disappear.. widespread
  • (D) succumb.. nonviable
  • (E) mate.. infertile

Question 97:

The author argues for serious treatment of such arts as crochet and needlework, finding in too many art historians a cultural blindness ---- to their ---- textiles as a medium in which women artists predominate.

  • (A) traceable.. prejudice against
  • (B) opposed.. distrust of
  • (C) referring.. need for
  • (D) reduced.. respect for
  • (E) corresponding.. expertise in

Question 98:

Those who fear the influence of television deliberately ---- its persuasive power, hoping that they might keep knowledge of its potential to effect social change from being widely disseminated.

  • (A) promote
  • (B) underplay
  • (C) excuse
  • (D) laud
  • (E) suspect

Question 99:

Because the high seriousness of their narratives resulted in part from their metaphysics, Southern writers were praised for their ---- bent.

  • (A) technical
  • (B) discursive
  • (C) hedonistic
  • (D) philosophical
  • (E) scientific

Question 100:

Far from being ----, Pat was always ---- to appear acquiescent.

  • (A) unctuous.. loath
  • (B) brazen.. reluctant
  • (C) ignoble.. concerned
  • (D) obsequious.. eager
  • (E) gregarious.. willing

Question 101:

CHUCKLE: LAUGHING::

  • (A) uproar: shouting
  • (B) whisper: speaking
  • (C) hum: whistling
  • (D) lecture: conversing
  • (E) murmur: mimicking

Question 102:

PARAGRAPH: ESSAY::

  • (A) object: verb
  • (B) phrase: preposition
  • (C) interjection: parenthesis
  • (D) clause: sentence
  • (E) colloquialism: expression

Question 103:

STUPOR: ALERT::

  • (A) rebellion: defiant
  • (B) despair: hopeful
  • (C) expectation: unfulfilled
  • (D) circumspection: careful
  • (E) ennui: listless

Question 104:

PAEAN: JOY::

  • (A) dirge: grief
  • (B) oratory: persuasion
  • (C) aria: opera
  • (D) chant: choir
  • (E) lecture: instruction

Question 105:

RENEGADE: ALLEGIANCE::

  • (A) revolutionary: reform
  • (B) aesthete: discernment
  • (C) apostate: faith
  • (D) politician: challenge
  • (E) criminal: imprisonment

Question 106:

DEVOTED: ZEALOUS::

  • (A) affectionate: demonstrative
  • (B) animated: lively
  • (C) rabid: extreme
  • (D) objective: indifferent
  • (E) careful: fastidious

Question 107:

VESTIGE: REMAINDER::

  • (A) figurine: statue
  • (B) knife: cutlery
  • (C) hub: wheel
  • (D) angle: slope
  • (E) inventory: goods

Question 108:

EPHEMERAL: ENDURE::

  • (A) insensitive: cooperate
  • (B) infirm: react
  • (C) ineffectual: proceed
  • (D) inelastic: stretch
  • (E) inflammable: ignite

Question 109:

MISDEMEANOR: CRIME::

  • (A) interview: conversation
  • (B) lapse: error
  • (C) oath: promise
  • (D) rebuke: criticism
  • (E) vendetta: feud

Question 110:

It can be inferred from the passage that in species in which vigilant behavior is directed at predators, the tendency of the animals to be more vigilant in smaller groups than in larger ones would most likely be minimized if which of the following were true?

  • (A) The vigilance of animals on the periphery of a group always exceeded that of animals located in its interior, even when predators were not in the area.
  • (B) The risk of capture for individuals in a group was the same, whether they were located in the interior of the group or on its periphery.
  • (C) Animals on the periphery of a group tended to be less capable of defending themselves from attack by predators than animals located in the interior of the group.
  • (D) Animals on the periphery of a group tended to bear marks that were more distinctive to predators than animals located in the interior of the group.
  • (E) Animals on the periphery of a group tended to have shorter life spans than animals located in the interior of the group.

Question 111:

Which of the following best describes the relationship of the second paragraph to the first?

  • (A) The second paragraph relies on different evidence in drawing a conclusion similar to that expressed in the first paragraph.
  • (B) The second paragraph provides further elaboration on why an assertion made at the end of the first paragraph proves to be true in most cases.
  • (C) The second paragraph provides additional information in support of a hypothesis stated in the first paragraph.
  • (D) The second paragraph provides an example of a case in which the assumption described in the first paragraph is unwarranted.
  • (E) The second paragraph describes a phenomenon that has the same cause as the phenomenon described in the first paragraph.

Question 112:

It can be inferred from the passage that the author of the passage would be most likely to agree with which of the following assertions about vigilant behavior?

  • (A) The larger the group of animals, the higher the probability that individuals in the interior of the group will exhibit vigilant behavior.
  • (B) Vigilant behavior exhibited by individuals in small groups is more effective at warding off predators than the same behavior exhibited by individuals in larger groups.
  • (C) Vigilant behavior is easier to analyze in species that are preyed upon by many different predators than in species that are preyed upon by relatively few of them.
  • (D) The term "vigilant," when used in reference to the behavior of animals, does not refer exclusively to behavior aimed at avoiding predators.
    (E) The term "vigilant," when used in reference to the behavior of animals, usually refers to behavior exhibited by large groups of animals.

Question 113:

The passage provides information in support of which of the following assertions?

  • (A) The avoidance of predators is more important to an animal's survival than is the quest for food.
  • (B) Vigilant behavior aimed at predators is seldom more beneficial to groups of animals than to individual animals.
  • (C) Different species of animals often develop different strategies for dealing with predators.
  • (D) The size of a group of animals does not necessarily reflect its success in finding food.
  • (E) Similar behavior in different species of animals does not necessarily serve the same purpose.

Question 114:

In the passage, the author is primarily concerned with

  • (A) defining the Modernist attitude toward art
  • (B) explaining how photography emerged as a fine art after the controversies of the nineteenth century
  • (C) explaining the attitudes of serious contemporary photographers toward photography as art and placing those attitudes in their historical context
  • (D) defining the various approaches that serious contemporary photographers take toward their art and assessing the value of each of those approaches
  • (E) identifying the ways that recent movements in painting and sculpture have influenced the techniques employed by serious photographers

Question 115:

Which of the following adjectives best describes "the concept of art imposed by the triumph of Modernism" as the author represents it in lines 25-27?

  • (A) Objective
  • (B) Mechanical
  • (C) Superficial
  • (D) Dramatic
  • (E) Paradoxical

Question 116:

The author introduces Abstract Expressionist painters (lines 34) in order to

  • (A) provide an example of artists who, like serious contemporary photographers, disavowed traditionally accepted aims of modern art
  • (B) call attention to artists whose works often bear a physical resemblance to the works of serious contemporary photographers
  • (C) set forth an analogy between the Abstract Expressionist painters and classical Modernist painters
  • (D) provide a contrast to Pop artists and others who created works that exemplify the Modernist heritage in art
  • (E) provide an explanation of why serious photography, like other contemporary visual forms, is not and should not pretend to be an art

Question 117:

According to the author, the nineteenth-century defenders of photography mentioned in the passage stressed that photography was

  • (A) a means of making people familiar with remote locales and unfamiliar things
  • (B) a technologically advanced activity
  • (C) a device for observing the world impartially
  • (D) an art comparable to painting
  • (E) an art that would eventually replace the traditional arts
Correct Answer: (D) an art comparable to painting
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a detail question asking about a specific point made in the first paragraph. We need to find what the "defenders of photography" in the 19th century asserted.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The first paragraph describes the 19th-century debate. It states, "Against the charge that photography was a soulless, mechanical copying of reality, photographers asserted that it was instead a privileged way of seeing...and no less worthy an art than painting." (lines 8-11).

This phrase directly states their main argument: that photography was an art form that was just as valuable and worthy as painting.

Let's evaluate the options based on this text:


(A) This is a use of photography, but not the specific argument mentioned in the passage.

(B) While true, their defense focused on its artistic merit, not its technological aspect.

(C) "Impartially observing" is a claim made by contemporary photographers (line 15), not the 19th-century defenders.

(D) This is a direct paraphrase of "no less worthy an art than painting."

(E) The passage does not state that they claimed photography would replace other arts.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The passage explicitly states that 19th-century defenders argued photography was "no less worthy an art than painting."
Quick Tip: For "according to the author" questions, the answer is almost always directly stated in the text. Scan the relevant section of the passage for keywords from the question to locate the exact sentence that provides the answer.


Question 118:

According to the passage, which of the following best explains the reaction of serious contemporary photographers to the question of whether photography is an art?

  • (A) The photographers' belief that their reliance on an impersonal machine to produce their art requires the surrender of the authority of their personal vision
  • (B) The photographers' fear that serious photography may not be accepted as an art by the contemporary art public
  • (C) The influence of Abstract Expressionist painting and Pop Art on the subject matter of the modern photograph
  • (D) The photographers' belief that the best art is subversive of art as it has previously been defined
  • (E) The notorious difficulty of defining art in its relation to realistic representation

Question 119:

According to the passage, certain serious contemporary photographers expressly make which of the following claims about their photographs?

  • (A) Their photographs could be created by almost anyone who had a camera and the time to devote to the activity.
  • (B) Their photographs are not examples of art but are examples of the photographers' impartial observation of the world.
  • (C) Their photographs are important because of their subjects but not because of the responses they evoke in viewers.
  • (D) Their photographs exhibit the same ageless principles of form and shading that have been used in painting.
  • (E) Their photographs represent a conscious glorification of the mechanical aspects of twentieth-century life.

Question 120:

It can be inferred from the passage that the author most probably considers serious contemporary photography to be a

  • (A) contemporary art that is struggling to be accepted as fine art
  • (B) craft requiring sensitivity but by no means an art
  • (C) mechanical copying of reality
  • (D) modern art that displays the Modernist tendency to try to subvert the prevailing aims of art
  • (E) modern art that displays the tendency of all Modernist art to become increasingly formal and abstract

Question 121:

PREOCCUPATION:

  • (A) finality
  • (B) innocence
  • (C) liberality
  • (D) unconcern
  • (E) tolerance

Question 122:

CHROMATIC:

  • (A) opaque
  • (B) colorless
  • (C) lengthy
  • (D) profound
  • (E) diffuse

Question 123:

PEDESTRIAN:

  • (A) widely known
  • (B) strongly motivated
  • (C) discernible
  • (D) uncommon
  • (E) productive

Question 124:

EQUIVOCATE:

  • (A) communicate straightforwardly
  • (B) articulate persuasively
  • (C) instruct exhaustively
  • (D) study painstakingly
  • (E) reproach sternly

Question 125:

DENUDE:

  • (A) crowd out
  • (B) skim over
  • (C) change color
  • (D) cover
  • (E) sustain

Question 126:

RANCOR:

  • (A) deference
  • (B) optimism
  • (C) courage
  • (D) superiority
  • (E) goodwill

Question 127:

OSSIFIED:

  • (A) vulnerable to destruction
  • (B) subject to illusion
  • (C) worthy of consideration
  • (D) capable of repetition
  • (E) amenable to change

Question 128:

CONTROVERT:

  • (A) substantiate
  • (B) transform
  • (C) ameliorate
  • (D) simplify
  • (E) differentiate

Question 129:

PROTRACT:

  • (A) thrust
  • (B) reverse
  • (C) curtail
  • (D) disperse
  • (E) forestall

Question 130:

ABRADE:

  • (A) unfasten
  • (B) prolong
  • (C) augment
  • (D) extinguish
  • (E) transmit

Question 38:

APOLOGIST:

  • (A) egotist
  • (B) wrongdoer
  • (C) freethinker
  • (D) detractor
  • (E) spendthrift

Question 39:



In the rectangular coordinate system, the circle with center P is tangent to both the x- and y-axes.

Column A: The x-coordinate of P

Column B: The y-coordinate of P


Question 40:

Column A: \(\frac{3}{5} + \frac{2}{3}\)

Column B: 1


Question 41:

Column A: \(|x^2|\)

Column B: \(|x|^2\)


Question 42:



The square is inscribed in the circle.

Column A: The length of a diagonal of the square

Column B: The length of a diameter of the circle


Question 43:

\(x < y < 20\)

Column A: \(x + y\)

Column B: 35


Question 44:

In college M the average (arithmetic mean) number of students per course is 30 and the ratio of the number of students to the number of faculty is 20 to 1.

Column A: The total number of students in College M

Column B: 600


Question 45:

\(x > 0\)

Column A: \(\frac{590 + x}{800}\)

Column B: \(\frac{600 + x}{790}\)


Question 46:



Column A: x

Column B: 80


Question 47:

Integer n will be randomly selected from the integers 1 to 13, inclusive.

Column A: The probability that n will be even

Column B: The probability that n will be odd


Question 48:

\(p + q = 1\)
\(0 < p < q\)

Column A: \(\frac{1}{pq}\)

Column B: 1


Question 49:

\(2x + 3y = 29\)
\(3x + 4y = 41\)

Column A: \(x + y\)

Column B: 12


Question 50:



\(PQ = OQ = 5\)

Column A: The area of region OPQ

Column B: 10


Question 51:

Column A: \((\sqrt{5} + \sqrt{5})^2\)

Column B: 20


Question 52:

\(\frac{n}{4} + \frac{r}{8} = \frac{s}{8} + \frac{t}{6}\), where n, r, s, and t are positive integers.

Column A: \(2n + r\)

Column B: \(2s + t\)


Question 53:

In the xy-coordinate system, the point (x, y) lies on the circle with equation \(x^2 + y^2 = 1\).

Column A: \(x + y\)

Column B: 1.01


Question 54:

A health food store prepares a breakfast food that consists of oats, raisins, and nuts mixed in the ratio 9:2:1, respectively, by weight. If the nuts in the mixture weigh 9.2 pounds, how many pounds does the total mixture weigh?

  • (A) 82.2
  • (B) 92.2
  • (C) 101.2
  • (D) 110.4
  • (E) 165.6

Question 55:

\(3 - 2[5 - 7(3+2)] =\)

  • (A) -30
  • (B) -10
  • (C) 23
  • (D) 63
  • (E) 77

Question 56:

For every positive integer n greater than 1, n! is defined as the product of the first n positive integers. For example, \(4! = (1)(2)(3)(4) = 24\). What is the value of \(\frac{12!}{10!}\)?

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 66
  • (C) 121
  • (D) 132
  • (E) 144

Question 57:

A market survey showed that 76 percent of the visitors at a certain resort came from Pacific or southwestern states. Of these, \(\frac{2}{3}\) were from California, and 87 percent of the Californians were from southern California. Approximately what percent of the visitors at the resort were from southern California?

  • (A) 40%
  • (B) 45%
  • (C) 50%
  • (D) 55%
  • (E) 65%

Question 58:

If \(\frac{5^4 - 1}{n}\) is an integer an n is an integer, then n could be each of the following EXCEPT

  • (A) 4
  • (B) 6
  • (C) 13
  • (D) 25
  • (E) 26

Question 59:

What is the ratio of the amount budgeted annually for food to the amount budgeted annually for savings?

  • (A) 4 to 3
  • (B) 4 to 7
  • (C) 5 to 3
  • (D) 7 to 3
  • (E) 7 to 4
Correct Answer: (A) 4 to 3
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the ratio of the amounts budgeted for two different categories. Since the amounts are percentages of the same total budget, the ratio of the amounts will be the same as the ratio of their percentages.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

1. Find the percentages from the table.

Percent budgeted for Food = 20%.

Percent budgeted for Savings = 15%.


2. Form the ratio of the percentages.

Ratio of Food to Savings = 20 : 15.


3. Simplify the ratio.

To simplify the ratio, we find the greatest common divisor (GCD) of 20 and 15. The GCD is 5.

Divide both parts of the ratio by 5:

\[ \frac{20}{5} : \frac{15}{5} \]

\[ 4 : 3 \]

The simplified ratio is 4 to 3.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The ratio of the amount budgeted for food to the amount budgeted for savings is 4 to 3.
Quick Tip: When finding the ratio of two parts of the same whole, you don't need to calculate the actual values. The ratio of the percentages (or fractions) is sufficient and saves calculation time.


Question 60:

If a pie graph (such as the one above) were drawn to scale to represent the budget distribution into the five categories, what would be the measure of the central angle of the sector representing savings?

  • (A) 15°
  • (B) 30°
  • (C) 36°
  • (D) 42°
  • (E) 54°
Correct Answer: (E) 54°
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

A pie chart represents a whole (100%) as a full circle (360°). To find the central angle for a specific category, we need to calculate that category's percentage of the total 360 degrees.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
\[ Central Angle = (Percentage for Category) \times 360^\circ \]


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Find the percentage for Savings from the table.

The percentage for Savings is 15%.


2. Calculate the central angle.

We need to find 15% of 360°.

First, convert the percentage to a decimal: 15% = 0.15.

Now, multiply by 360°:

\[ Angle = 0.15 \times 360^\circ \]

We can break this down for easier mental calculation:

10% of 360° is 36°.

5% of 360° is half of 10%, which is 18°.

So, 15% of 360° = 36° + 18° = 54°.

Alternatively, using multiplication:

\[ 0.15 \times 360 = 54 \]


Step 4: Final Answer:

The measure of the central angle for the savings sector would be 54°.
Quick Tip: For pie chart calculations, it's useful to remember that 1% corresponds to 3.6°. You can simply multiply the percentage by 3.6 to find the angle. Here, \(15 \times 3.6 = 54\).


Question 61:

The funds distributed in 1992 for youth development were approximately

  • (A)
    (38,000
  • (B)
    )170,000
  • (C)
    (380,000
  • (D)
    )450,000
  • (E)
    (1,700,000
Correct Answer: (C)
)380,000
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question requires us to calculate a specific amount of money from a pie chart by taking the given percentage of the total funds for that year.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

1. Identify the relevant data for 1992.

From the 1992 pie chart, the percentage for Youth Development is 15%.

The total funds distributed in 1992 were
(2.54 million, which is
)2,540,000.


2. Calculate the amount.

We need to find 15% of
(2,540,000.

Amount = \(0.15 \times 2,540,000\)

Let's perform the multiplication:

\[ 0.15 \times 254 = 38.1 \]

So, \(0.15 \times 2,540,000 = 381,000\).

Alternatively, using mental math:

10% of 2,540,000 is 254,000.

5% of 2,540,000 is half of 10%, which is 127,000.

15% = 10% + 5% = 254,000 + 127,000 =
)381,000.


3. Compare with the options.

The calculated amount,
(381,000, is approximately
)380,000.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The funds distributed for youth development in 1992 were approximately
(380,000.
Quick Tip: When the question asks for an "approximate" value, you can often round the numbers to make the calculation easier. For instance, calculate 15% of
)2.5 million: \(0.15 \times 2.5 = 0.375\) million, which is
(375,000. This value is very close to option (C).


Question 62:

The increase in the amount of money distributed for family support from 1992 to 1993 was closest to which of the following?

  • (A)
    (0
  • (B)
    )24,000
  • (C)
    (40,000
  • (D)
    )60,000
  • (E)
    (94,000

Question 63:

If all of the emergency assistance funds in 1993 were distributed among 40 groups, which of the following is closest to the average (arithmetic mean) amount distributed per group?

  • (A)
    (10,000
  • (B)
    )11,000
  • (C)
    (12,000
  • (D)
    )13,000
  • (E)
    (14,000

Question 64:

The curve above consists of three semicircles: AB, BC, and CD. The diameter of AB is 2, the diameter of BC is twice the diameter of AB, and the diameter of CD is twice the diameter of BC. What is the total length of the curve?

  • (A) \(2\pi\)
  • (B) \(4\pi\)
  • (C) \(6\pi\)
  • (D) \(7\pi\)
  • (E) \(8\pi\)

Question 65:

What is the cost, in cents, of using a certain fax machine to send n pages of a report if the total cost for sending the first k pages is r cents and the cost for sending each additional page is s cents? (Assume that n > k)

  • (A) \(r + s(n - k)\)
  • (B) \(r + s(n + k)\)
  • (C) \(rs(n + k)\)
  • (D) \(kr + s(n - k)\)
  • (E) \(kr + ns\)

Question 66:

A rectangular solid has a square base and altitude of 7. If the volume of the solid is 252, then the perimeter of the square base is

  • (A) 9
  • (B) 24
  • (C) 28
  • (D) 36
  • (E) 49

Question 67:

In a series of races, 10 toy cars are raced, 2 cars at a time. If each car must race each of the other cars exactly twice, how many races must be held?

  • (A) 40
  • (B) 90
  • (C) 100
  • (D) 180
  • (E) 200

Question 68:

\((2^{10} - 2^9)(2^8 - 2^7) =\)

  • (A) 2
  • (B) \(2^2\)
  • (C) \(2^4\)
  • (D) \(2^8\)
  • (E) \(2^{16}\)

Question 69:

Soft Drink Manufacturer: Our new children's soft drink, RipeCal, is fortified with calcium. Since calcium is essential for developing healthy bones, drinking RipeCal regularly will help make children healthy.

Consumer Advocate: But RipeCal also contains large amounts of sugar, and regularly consuming large amounts of sugar is unhealthful, especially for children.

In responding to the soft drink manufacturer, the consumer advocate does which of the following?

  • (A) Challenges the manufacturer's claim about the nutritional value of calcium in children's diets
  • (B) Argues that the evidence cited by the manufacturer, when properly considered, leads to a conclusion opposite to that reached by the manufacturer.
  • (C) Implies that the manufacturer of a product is typically unconcerned with the nutritional value of that product.
  • (D) Questions whether a substance that is healthful when eaten in moderation can be unhealthful when eaten in excessive amounts.
  • (E) Presents additional facts that call into question the conclusion drawn by the manufacturer.

Question 70:

Over a period of several months, researchers attached small lights to the backs of wetas—flightless insects native to New Zealand—enabling researchers for the first time to make comprehensive observations of the insects' nighttime activities. Thus, since wetas forage only at night, the researchers' observations will significantly improve knowledge of the normal foraging habits of wetas.

Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?

  • (A) Researchers were interested only in observing the wetas' foraging habits and so did not keep track of other types of behavior.
  • (B) No pattern of behavior that is exhibited by wetas during the nighttime is also exhibited by wetas during the daytime.
  • (C) Attaching the small lights to the wetas' backs did not greatly alter the wetas' normal nighttime foraging habits.
  • (D) Wetas typically forage more frequently during the months in which the researchers studied them than they do at other times.
  • (E) The researchers did not use other observational techniques to supplement their method of using small lights to track the nighttime behavior of wetas.

Question 71:

Which of the following can be the week's telephone duty schedule?


Question 72:

If Hilda has telephone duty for exactly two days of the week, which of the following must be true?

  • (A) George and Irene have telephone duty together on Wednesday.
  • (B) George and Hilda have telephone duty together on Friday.
  • (C) Hilda and Irene have telephone duty together on Wednesday.
  • (D) Hilda and Irene have telephone duty together on Friday.
  • (E) Irene has telephone duty for exactly three days of the week.

Question 73:

If Hilda and Irene have telephone duty together on Monday and on Wednesday, which of the following must be true?

  • (A) George and Hilda have telephone duty together on Friday.
  • (B) George and Irene have telephone duty together on Friday.
  • (C) George has telephone duty on exactly three of the days of the week.
  • (D) Hilda has telephone duty on exactly three of the days of the week.
  • (E) Irene has telephone duty on exactly three of the days of the week.

Question 74:

If George and Hilda have telephone duty together on Monday and George and Irene have telephone duty together on Friday, any of the following can be true EXCEPT:

  • (A) George and Hilda have telephone duty together on Wednesday.
  • (B) George and Irene have telephone duty together on Wednesday.
  • (C) George has telephone duty for four days of the week.
  • (D) Irene has telephone duty for four days of the week.
  • (E) Hilda and Irene have telephone duty together for two days of the week.

Question 75:

If there is one pair of employees who have telephone duty together for three of the five days, which of the following must be true?

  • (A) George has telephone duty on Wednesday.
  • (B) George and Hilda have telephone duty together for three days of the week.
  • (C) Hilda and Irene have telephone duty together for three days of the week.
  • (D) One of the three employees has telephone duty for exactly two days of the week.
  • (E) Exactly one of the workers has telephone duty for exactly three days of the week.

Question 76:

Any of the following can be true EXCEPT:

  • (A) One pair of employees has telephone duty together for exactly one day of the week
  • (B) One pair of employees has telephone duty together for exactly four days of the week
  • (C) The pair of employees that has telephone duty together on Monday also has telephone duty together on Wednesday
  • (D) The pair of employees that has telephone duty together on Tuesday also has telephone duty together on Wednesday
  • (E) The pair of employees that has telephone duty together on Thursday also has telephone duty together on Friday

Question 77:




Question 9 is based on the following graph.

Which of the following, if true, contributes most to an explanation of the change in ice cream sales?

  • (A) Because of low demand for its transcontinental flights departing from the airport, one airline ceased offering such flights as of December 31, 1993.
  • (B) There were fewer airline passengers who were traveling to destinations outside the United States in January 1993 than there were in January 1992.
  • (C) The average daily number of passengers at the airport in the month of January was the same for each of the three years.
  • (D) In January 1993 a blizzard forced all flights out of the airport to be canceled for three days, stranding many passengers at the airport.
  • (E) There were five percent fewer commuter flights scheduled to depart from the airport in January 1993 than there were in January of either 1991 or 1992.

Question 78:

People whose bodies cannot produce the substance cytochrome P450 are three times as likely to develop Parkinson's disease, a disease that affects the brain, as are people whose bodies do produce this substance. Since cytochrome P450 protects the brain from toxic chemicals, toxic chemicals probably play a role in the development of Parkinson's disease.

Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the argument?

  • (A) It will soon be possible for cytochrome P450 to be synthesized for the treatment of people whose bodies cannot produce this substance.
  • (B) Many people whose bodies are unable to produce cytochrome P450 lack the ability to produce certain other substances as well.
  • (C) Cytochrome P450 has no effect on the brain other than to protect it from toxic chemicals.
  • (D) People with Parkinson's disease often exhibit a marked lessening in the severity of their symptoms when they are treated with dopamine, a chemical produced naturally in the brain.
  • (E) Many people with Parkinson's disease have the ability to produce cytochrome P450 naturally.

Question 79:

The early universe contained only the lightest elements, hydrogen and helium. Heavier elements, such as carbon, form only in nuclear reactions in stars and are dispersed when the stars explode. A recently discovered gas cloud contained carbon several billion years ago, when the universe was no more than two billion years old.

If the statements above are true, which of the following must, on the basis of them, also be true?

  • (A) The earliest stars contained only hydrogen.
  • (B) Some stars were formed before the universe was two billion years old.
  • (C) The carbon in the gas cloud later formed part of some stars.
  • (D) No stars identified to date are as old as the gas cloud.
  • (E) The gas cloud also contained hydrogen and helium.

Question 80:

Sleep deprivation is a known cause of workplace error, and many physicians frequently go without sleep for periods of 24 hours or more. However, few of these physicians have, in the course of a routine examination by a peer, been diagnosed with sleep deprivation. So there is little cause for concern that habitual sleep deprivation will cause widespread physician error.

The answer to which of the following questions would be most helpful in evaluating the argument?

  • (A) Do physicians who have been diagnosed with sleep disorders also show signs of other ills not related to sleep deprivation?
  • (B) Is the ability to recognize the symptoms of sleep deprivation in others significantly impaired by habitual sleep deprivation?
  • (C) Do factors other than habitual sleep deprivation ever lead to errors in the workplace on the part of physicians?
  • (D) Of people who have recently been treated by physicians, what percentage believe that many physicians have occasionally suffered from sleep deprivation?
  • (E) Is the incidence of sleep deprivation higher among physicians than it is among other health care workers?

Question 81:

Which of the following could be the order, from first through seventh, in which the performers sing?

  • (A) Harris, McIntyre, Williams, Trevino, Nelson, Strapp, Jones
  • (B) Jones, Harris, Williams, Strapp, McIntyre, Nelson, Trevino
  • (C) Strapp, McIntyre, Williams, Nelson, Trevino, Harris, Jones
  • (D) Trevino, Harris, Williams, Strapp, Nelson, Jones, McIntyre
  • (E) Trevino, Nelson, Harris, Strapp, Williams, McIntyre, Jones

Question 82:

If there are exactly four performers who are to sing after Nelson sings but before Strapp sings, Harris must be assigned to time slot

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 5
  • (E) 6

Question 83:

If Williams is to sing immediately after Harris sings and immediately before Trevino sings, which of the following performers could be assigned to time slot 6?

  • (A) Harris
  • (B) Jones
  • (C) Nelson
  • (D) Strapp
  • (E) Trevino

Question 84:

If Jones is to sing immediately before Harris sings, which of the following must be assigned to time slot 7?

  • (A) Harris
  • (B) Jones
  • (C) McIntyre
  • (D) Strapp
  • (E) Trevino

Question 85:

If McIntyre is to sing immediately before Strapp sings, Trevino could be assigned to which of the following time slots?

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 4
    (C) 5
    (D) 6
    (E) 7

Question 86:

If McIntyre is assigned to time slot 4, which of the following must be true?

  • (A) Harris is assigned to a lower-numbered time slot than Strapp.
  • (B) Jones is assigned to a lower-numbered time slot than Trevino.
  • (C) Nelson is assigned to a lower-numbered time slot than McIntyre.
    (D) Strapp is assigned to a lower-numbered time slot than Williams.
    (E) Trevino is assigned to a lower-numbered time slot than Jones.

Question 87:

Which of the following can be the trees planted along the side of the street that has four trees, in order of their positions beginning with position 1?

There seems to be a slight confusion in the prompt here, as the pattern shows a total of seven trees. The question "the side of the street that has four trees" might refer to the row 1-3-5-7. I will assume this is the case.

  • (A) Maple, sycamore, maple, sycamore
    (B) Maple, sycamore, red oak, maple
    (C) Red oak, maple, maple, red oak
    (D) Sycamore, sycamore, maple, maple
    (E) Sycamore, sycamore, red oak, red oak

Question 88:

If red oaks are used, then which of the following must be true?

  • (A) The other trees used are all maples.
  • (B) The other trees used are all sycamores.
  • (C) The red oaks are in positions 1, 2, and 3.
    (D) The red oaks are in positions 3, 4, and 5.
    (E) The red oaks are in positions 4, 5, and 6.

Question 89:

Among the trees left over after the planting is done there must be

  • (A) at least one maple
  • (B) at least one red oak
  • (C) at least one sycamore
    (D) at most one maple
    (E) at most one red oak
Correct Answer: (A) at least one maple
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question asks what must be true about the set of unplanted trees, regardless of which valid planting arrangement is chosen. We need to consider all possible valid combinations of two tree types.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

There are three possible pairings of two tree types:

1. Red Oaks and Sycamores: We have 3 red oaks and 4 sycamores available, for a total of 7 trees. To plant 7 trees, we must use all of them.
- Trees left over: 0 red oaks, 0 sycamores, 4 maples.
2. Red Oaks and Maples: As determined in the previous question, it's impossible to plant 4 maples and 3 red oaks while satisfying the maple rule. So this combination is not possible.
3. Sycamores and Maples: We have 4 sycamores and 4 maples available, for a total of 8 trees. We only need to plant 7. This means we must plant some combination of sycamores and maples, and one tree will be left over.
- Can we plant 4 maples and 3 sycamores? No, it's impossible to place 4 maples.
- Can we plant 3 maples and 4 sycamores? Yes, this is possible. Let's try to place 3 maples. e.g., at positions 1, 4, 7. This is a valid placement. The other 4 spots would be sycamores.
- Trees left over: 1 maple, 0 sycamores, 3 red oaks.
- Can we plant 2 maples and 5 sycamores? We only have 4 sycamores available, so this is impossible.
- Can we plant 1 maple and 6 sycamores? Impossible, not enough sycamores.
- Can we plant 0 maples and 7 sycamores? Impossible, not enough sycamores.


Summary of Leftover Trees in all Possible Scenarios:

- Scenario 1 (Oaks + Sycamores): 4 maples are left over.
- Scenario 2 (Maples + Sycamores): 1 maple and 3 red oaks are left over.


In every single possible planting scenario, there are always maples left over. In one case there are 4, in the other there is 1. Therefore, there must be at least one maple left over.


Evaluate the options:

(A) at least one maple: True in all scenarios.
(B) at least one red oak: False in Scenario 1.
(C) at least one sycamore: False in both scenarios.
(D) at most one maple: False in Scenario 1.
(E) at most one red oak: False in Scenario 2.

Step 3: Final Answer:

In all valid planting combinations, there is always at least one maple tree left over.
Quick Tip: For "must be true" questions that don't provide a new condition, you must consider all possible valid scenarios allowed by the original rules. The correct answer is the only statement that holds true in every single one of those scenarios.


Question 90:

If maples are planted, the side of the street that has four trees must have

  • (A) red oaks in positions 1 and 7
  • (B) red oaks in positions 3 and 5
  • (C) sycamores in positions 1 and 3
    (D) sycamores in positions 1 and 7
  • (E) sycamores in positions 3 and 5

Question 91:

A list of the fifteen operas most frequently performed in recent times includes no works by the nineteenth-century German composer Richard Wagner. Although music producers tend to produce what audiences want, relative infrequency of performance probably does not indicate lack of popularity in Wagner's case, since Wagner's operas are notoriously expensive to perform on stage.

Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the conclusion of the argument above?

  • (A) The list of most frequently performed operas does not include operas produced by small amateur groups.
  • (B) Some opera companies are backed by patrons who are willing to commit large sums of money in order to enjoy lavish productions.
    (C) All of the fifteen most frequently performed operas of recent times are works that have been popular for at least 75 years.
    (D) More recordings have been produced recently of the works of Wagner than of the works of any other composer of opera.
  • (E) Operatic works of all kinds have been increasing in popularity in recent years.

Question 92:

The bodies of dwarf individuals of mammalian species are generally smaller in relation to those of nondwarf individuals than are the teeth of the dwarf individuals in relation to those of the nondwarf individuals. Fragmentary skeletal remains of an adult dwarf woolly mammoth were recently found. The teeth are three-fourths the size of the teeth of an average adult nondwarf woolly mammoth.

The statements above, if true, most strongly support which of the following?

  • (A) The body of the dwarf woolly mammoth was less than three-fourths the size of the body of an average adult nondwarf woolly mammoth.
  • (B) None of the teeth of the dwarf woolly mammoth that were recently discovered was as large as any of the teeth of nondwarf woolly mammoths that have been discovered.
  • (C) The teeth of most adult dwarf individuals of mammalian species are three-fourths the size of the teeth of the adult nondwarf individuals of the same species.
  • (D) Dwarf woolly mammoths had the same number of teeth as did nondwarf woolly mammoths.
  • (E) Dwarf individuals of most mammalian species are generally no more than three-fourths the size of the adult nondwarf individuals of those species.

Question 93:

Excluding purchases by businesses, the average amount spent on a factory-new car has risen 30 percent in the last five years. In the average household budget, the proportion spent on car purchases has remained unchanged in that period. Therefore the average household budget must have increased by 30 percent over the last five years.

Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument relies?

  • (A) The average number of factory-new cars purchased per household has remained unchanged over the last five years.
  • (B) The average amount spent per car by businesses buying factory-new cars has risen 30 percent in the last five years.
  • (C) The proportion of the average household budget spent on all car-related expenses has remained unchanged over the last five years.
  • (D) The proportion of the average household budget spent on food and housing has remained unchanged over the last five years.
  • (E) The total amount spent nationwide on factory-new cars has increased by 30 percent over the last five years.

 

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