GRE 2025 Model Paper Set 1 Question Paper with Solutions PDF

Shivam Yadav logo
Updated on, Oct 14, 2025

byShivam Yadav

GRE 2025 Model Paper Set 1 Question Paper with Solutions PDF is available for download. The overall test time is about 1 hour and 58 minutes. GRE has total 5 sections:

  • Analytical Writing  (One "Analyze an Issue" task, Alloted time 30 minutes)
  • Verbal Reasoning  (Two Sections, with 12 questions and 15 questions respectively)
  • Quantitative Reasoning (Two Sections, with 12 questions and 15 questions respectively)

GRE 2025 Model Paper Set 1 Question Paper with Solutions PDF

GRE 2025 Model Paper Set 1 Question Paper with Solutions PDF download iconDownload Check Solutions
GRE 2025 Model Paper Set 1 Question Paper with Solutions PDF

Question 1:

\(5y = 15\)
\(x = 2y\)

Column A: \(x\)

Column B: 5


Question 2:




O is the center of the circle and the perimeter of \(\Delta AOB\) is 6. The angle \(\angle AOB\) is \(60^{\circ}\).

Column A: The circumference of the circle

Column B: 12


Question 3:

Ken's monthly take-home pay is \(w\) dollars. After he pays for food and rent, he has \(x\) dollars left.

Column A: \(x\)

Column B: \(w - x\)


Question 4:

Column A: \(\frac{13}{15} + \frac{7}{8} + \frac{3}{4}\)

Column B: 3


Question 5:

\((x - 2y)(x + 2y) = 4\)

Column A: \(x^2 - 4y^2\)

Column B: 8


Question 6:

Column A: \(\frac{0.3}{1.5}\)

Column B: \(\frac{2}{10}\)


Question 7:

The operation \(\diamondsuit\) is defined for all positive numbers \(r\) and \(t\) by \(r \diamondsuit t = \frac{(r-t)^2 + rt}{t}\).

Column A: \(71 \diamondsuit 37\)

Column B: \(37 \diamondsuit 71\)


Question 8:




Column A: \(\frac{BD}{AB}\)

Column B: \(\frac{DC}{BC}\)


Question 9:

Column A: \((250)(492)\)

Column B: \(\frac{492,000}{4}\)


Question 10:




Column A: \(x\)

Column B: \(y\)


Question 11:

Column A: The number of prime numbers between 70 and 76

Column B: The number of prime numbers between 30 and 36


Question 12:

\(6  x  7\)
\(y = 8\)

Column A: \(\frac{x}{y}\)

Column B: 0.85


Question 13:




KLNP is a square with a perimeter of 128.

Column A: MQ

Column B: 42


Question 14:

Column A: \(\frac{2 + 3x}{2}\)

Column B: \(1 + 3x\)


Question 15:

The median salary for professional group A is
(40,610. The median salary for professional group B is
)40,810. :

Column A: The median salary for groups A and B combined

Column B:
(40,710


Question 16:

The water level in a tank is lowered by 6 inches, then raised by \(8\frac{1}{2}\) inches, and then lowered by 4 inches. If the water level was x inches before the changes in level, which of the following represents the water level, in inches, after the changes?

  • (A) \(x - 1 \dfrac{1}{2}\)
  • (B) \(x + 1 \dfrac{1}{2}\)
  • (C) \(x - 6 \dfrac{1}{2}\)
  • (D) \(x + 6 \dfrac{1}{2}\)
  • (E) \(x - 18 \dfrac{1}{2}\)

Question 17:

In the figure above, M, N, and P are midpoints of the sides of an equilateral triangle whose perimeter is 18. What is the perimeter of the shaded region?

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 4\(\dfrac{1}{2}\)
  • (D) 6
  • (E) 9

Question 18:

Which of the following sets of numbers has the greatest standard deviation?

  • (A) 2, 3, 4
  • (B) 2.5, 3, 3.5
  • (C) 1, 1.25, 1.5
  • (D) -2, 0, 2
  • (E) 20, 21, 21.5

Question 19:

If x, y, and z represent consecutive integers, and x \textless y \textless z, which of the following equals y?

I. \(x+1\)

II. \(\frac{x+z}{2}\)

III. \(\frac{x+y+z}{3}\)

  • (A) I only
  • (B) I and II only
  • (C) I and III only
  • (D) II and III only
  • (E) I, II and III

Question 20:

When 9 students took a zoology quiz with a possible score of 0 to 10, inclusive, their average (arithmetic mean) score was 7.5. If a tenth student takes the same quiz, what will be the least possible average score on the quiz for all 10 students?

  • (A) 6.5
  • (B) 6.75
  • (C) 7.0
  • (D) 7.25
  • (E) 7.5

Question 21:

The two corporate sectors that increased their support for the arts from 1988 to 1991 made a total contribution in 1991 of approximately how many million dollars?

  • (A) 112
  • (B) 125
  • (C) 200
  • (D) 250
  • (E) 315
Correct Answer: (C) 200
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

We first need to identify which sectors "increased their support". This is ambiguous and could mean an increase in percentage share or an increase in the actual dollar amount. Given the context of the bar chart showing percentages, it most likely refers to the sectors whose percentage contribution increased. We will proceed with this assumption.


Step 2: Identify the Sectors:

Let's compare the percentages for each sector from 1988 to 1991.

- Financial: 20% \(\rightarrow\) 22% (Increase)

- Services: 17% \(\rightarrow\) 8% (Decrease)

- Manufacturing: 31% \(\rightarrow\) 19% (Decrease)

- Retail: 10% \(\rightarrow\) 19% (Increase)

- Wholesale: 6% \(\rightarrow\) 4% (Decrease)

- Other: 20% \(\rightarrow\) 18% (Decrease)

The two sectors that increased their percentage support are Financial and Retail.


Step 3: Calculate the 1991 Contribution:

We need to find the total dollar contribution from these two sectors in 1991. The total support in 1991 was
(520 million.

- Financial contribution in 1991: 22% of
)520 million
\[ 0.22 \times 520 =
(114.4 million \]
- Retail contribution in 1991: 19% of
)520 million
\[ 0.19 \times 520 =
(98.8 million \]

Step 4: Find the Total:

The total contribution from these two sectors in 1991 is the sum of their individual contributions.
\[ Total =
)114.4 million +
(98.8 million =
)213.2 million \]
The question asks for an approximate value. Among typical answer choices,
(213.2 million is closest to
)200 million.
Quick Tip: In data interpretation questions, be precise about which year's total you are using for your percentage calculations. Here, the question asks for the contribution in 1991, so all percentages must be applied to the 1991 total of
(520 million.


Question 22:

How many of the six corporate sectors listed each contributed more than
(60 million to the arts in both 1988 and 1991?

  • (A) One
  • (B) Two
  • (C) Three
  • (D) Four
  • (E) Five
Correct Answer: (D) Four
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

We need to calculate the dollar contribution for each of the six sectors in both 1988 and 1991. Then, for each sector, we check if both the 1988 value and the 1991 value are greater than
)60 million.


Step 2: Calculate Dollar Contributions:

Total for 1988 =
(630 million. Total for 1991 =
)520 million.


1. Financial:
- 1988: \(0.20 \times 630 =
(126\) million (\(\textgreater60\))
- 1991: \(0.22 \times 520 =
)114.4\) million (\(\textgreater60\))
- Condition met.

2. Services:
- 1988: \(0.17 \times 630 =
(107.1\) million (\(\textgreater60\))
- 1991: \(0.08 \times 520 =
)41.6\) million (\(\textless60\))
- Condition not met.

3. Manufacturing:
- 1988: \(0.31 \times 630 =
(195.3\) million (\(\textgreater60\))
- 1991: \(0.19 \times 520 =
)98.8\) million (\(\textgreater60\))
- Condition met.

4. Retail:
- 1988: \(0.10 \times 630 =
(63\) million (\(\textgreater60\))
- 1991: \(0.19 \times 520 =
)98.8\) million (\(\textgreater60\))
- Condition met.

5. Wholesale:
- 1988: \(0.06 \times 630 =
(37.8\) million (\(\textless60\))
- Condition not met.

6. Other:
- 1988: \(0.20 \times 630 =
)126\) million (\(\textgreater60\))
- 1991: \(0.18 \times 520 =
(93.6\) million (\(\textgreater60\))
- Condition met.

Step 3: Count the Sectors:

The sectors that meet the condition (contribution \textgreater
)60 million in BOTH years) are:
- Financial
- Manufacturing
- Retail
- Other
There are a total of 4 such sectors.
Quick Tip: When a question requires checking a condition for multiple categories, create a systematic table or list to track your calculations and avoid missing a case or miscounting.


Question 23:

Approximately how many million dollars more did the wholesale sector contribute to the arts in 1988 than in 1991?

  • (A) 10.4
  • (B) 12.6
  • (C) 14.0
  • (D) 16.5
  • (E) 19.2
Correct Answer: (D) 16.5
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question asks for the difference in the dollar amount of contributions from the wholesale sector between the two years. We need to calculate the contribution for each year and then subtract.


Step 2: Calculate Contribution for Each Year:

- Contribution in 1988: The wholesale sector contributed 6% of the total
(630 million.
\[ Amount_{1988} = 0.06 \times 630 =
)37.8 million \]
- Contribution in 1991: The wholesale sector contributed 4% of the total
(520 million.
\[ Amount_{1991} = 0.04 \times 520 =
)20.8 million \]

Step 3: Calculate the Difference:

The question asks how much more was contributed in 1988 than in 1991.
\[ Difference = Amount_{1988} - Amount_{1991} \] \[ Difference =
(37.8 -
)20.8 =
(17.0 million \]

Step 4: Final Answer:

The difference is
)17.0 million. The closest given answer choice is typically 16.5, which accounts for the word "approximately".
Quick Tip: Be careful to distinguish between a change in percentage points and a change in dollar amounts. A decrease in percentage does not automatically mean a decrease in dollars if the total amount changes, and vice-versa. Always calculate the actual values unless the question specifies otherwise.


Question 24:

From 1988 to 1991, which corporate sector decreased its support for the arts by the greatest dollar amount?

  • (A) Services
  • (B) Manufacturing
  • (C) Retail
  • (D) Wholesale
  • (E) Other
Correct Answer: (B) Manufacturing
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

We need to find the dollar amount of decrease for every sector that saw a decrease, and then identify the largest of these decreases. A decrease occurs if the 1988 contribution is greater than the 1991 contribution.


Step 2: Calculate the Dollar Decrease for Each Sector:

We can reuse the dollar amounts calculated for question 22.

- Financial:
(126M (88) \(\rightarrow\)
)114.4M (91). Decrease = \(126 - 114.4 =
(11.6\)M.

- Services:
)107.1M (88) \(\rightarrow\)
(41.6M (91). Decrease = \(107.1 - 41.6 =
)65.5\)M.

- Manufacturing:
(195.3M (88) \(\rightarrow\)
)98.8M (91). Decrease = \(195.3 - 98.8 =
(96.5\)M.

- Retail:
)63M (88) \(\rightarrow\)
(98.8M (91). This is an increase, so we ignore it.

- Wholesale:
)37.8M (88) \(\rightarrow\)
(20.8M (91). Decrease = \(37.8 - 20.8 =
)17.0\)M.

- Other:
(126M (88) \(\rightarrow\)
)93.6M (91). Decrease = \(126 - 93.6 =
(32.4\)M.


Step 3: Compare the Decreases:

The calculated decreases are:

- Financial:
)11.6M

- Services:
(65.5M

- Manufacturing:
)96.5M

- Wholesale:
(17.0M

- Other:
)32.4M

The greatest value among these is
(96.5M.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The Manufacturing sector had the greatest dollar amount decrease in support.
Quick Tip: For questions asking for the "greatest" or "least" change, it's often useful to estimate before calculating. The Manufacturing sector started with the highest percentage (31%) of a large total and dropped significantly to 19% of a smaller total, making it a strong candidate for the largest drop.


Question 25:

Of the retail sector's 1991 contribution to the arts, \(\frac{1}{4}\) went to symphony orchestras and \(\frac{1}{2}\) of the remainder went to public television. Approximately how many million dollars more did the retail sector contribute to public television that year than to symphony orchestras?

  • (A) 5.2
  • (B) 6.3
  • (C) 10.4
  • (D) 13.0
  • (E) 19.5
Correct Answer: (D) 13.0
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a multi-step problem. We must first find the total contribution from the retail sector in 1991, then calculate the amounts for the two specific causes, and finally find the difference between them.


Step 2: Detailed Calculations:

1. Total Retail Contribution in 1991:

The retail sector contributed 19% of the 1991 total of
(520 million.
\[ Total Retail = 0.19 \times 520 =
)98.8 million \]

2. Contribution to Symphony Orchestras:

This was \(\frac{1}{4}\) of the total retail contribution.
\[ Symphony = \frac{1}{4} \times 98.8 =
(24.7 million \]

3. Calculate the Remainder:

The amount remaining after the symphony contribution is:
\[ Remainder = Total Retail - Symphony = 98.8 - 24.7 =
)74.1 million \]
Alternatively, if \(\frac{1}{4}\) was given away, \(\frac{3}{4}\) remains: \(\frac{3}{4} \times 98.8 =
(74.1\) million.


4. Contribution to Public Television:

This was \(\frac{1}{2}\) of the remainder.
\[ Public TV = \frac{1}{2} \times 74.1 =
)37.05 million \]

5. Find the Difference:

The question asks how much more was given to public television than to symphony orchestras.
\[ Difference = Public TV - Symphony \] \[ Difference = 37.05 - 24.7 =
(12.35 million \]

Step 3: Final Answer:

The difference is
)12.35 million. The closest approximate answer choice would be 13.0.
Quick Tip: Be very careful with wording like "of the remainder". This indicates a two-step calculation where the second percentage or fraction is applied to a new, smaller base amount, not the original total.


Question 26:

If \(x = a^3\) and \(y = a^7\), where \(a \neq 0\), which of the following is equivalent to \(a^{13}\)?

  • (A) \(xy\)
  • (B) \(x^2y\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{x^3}{y}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{x^4}{y}\)
     
  • (E) \(\dfrac{y^3}{x}\)
     

Question 27:

The probabilities that each of two independent experiments will have a successful outcome are \(\frac{8}{15}\) and \(\frac{2}{3}\), respectively. What is the probability that both experiments will have successful outcomes?

  • (A) \(\frac{4}{5}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{6}{5}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{2}{15}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{16}{45}\)
  • (E) \(\frac{64}{225}\)

Question 28:

If x is 1, 2, or 3 and y is either 2 or 4, then the product xy can have how many different possible values?

  • (A) Three
  • (B) Four
  • (C) Five
  • (D) Six
  • (E) Seven

Question 29:

If the radius of a circular region were decreased by 20 percent, the area of the circular region would decrease by what percent?

  • (A) 16%
  • (B) 20%
  • (C) 36%
  • (D) 40%
  • (E) 44%

Question 30:

Workers at Companies X and Y are paid the same base hourly rate. Workers at company X are paid 1.5 times the base hourly rate for each hour worked per week in excess of the first 37, while workers at Company Y are paid 1.5 times the base hourly rate for each hour worked per week in excess of the first 40. In a given week, how many hours must a Company X worker work in order to receive the same pay as a company Y worker who works 46 hours?

  • (A) 46
  • (B) 45
  • (C) 44
  • (D) 43
  • (E) 42

Question 31:

As businesses become aware that their advertising must ------ the everyday concerns of consumers, their commercials will be characterized by a greater degree of ------.

  • (A) allay...pessimism
  • (B) address...realism
  • (C) evade....verisimilitude
  • (D) engage...fancy
  • (E) change...sincerity

Question 32:

Because the lawyer's methods were found to be ------, the disciplinary committee ------ his privileges.

  • (A) unimpeachable...suspended
  • (B) ingenious...withdrew
  • (C) questionable...expanded
  • (D) unscrupulous...revoked
  • (E) reprehensible...augmented

Question 33:

People of intelligence and achievement can nonetheless be so ------ and lacking in ------ that they gamble their reputations by breaking the law to further their own ends.

  • (A) devious...propensity
  • (B) culpable...prosperity
  • (C) obsequious...deference
  • (D) truculent... independence
  • (E) greedy... integrity

Question 34:

A number of scientists have published articles ------ global warming, stating ------ that there is no solid scientific evidence to support the theory that the Earth is warming because of increases in greenhouse gases.

  • (A) debunking...categorically
  • (B) rejecting...paradoxically
  • (C) deploring...optimistically
  • (D) dismissing...hesitantly
  • (E) proving...candidly

Question 35:

The senator's attempt to convince the public that she is not interested in running for a second term is as ------ as her opponent's attempt to disguise his intention to run against her.

  • (A) biased
  • (B) unsuccessful
  • (C) inadvertent
  • (D) indecisive
  • (E) remote

Question 36:

MacCrory's conversation was ------: she could never tell a story, chiefly because she always forgot it, and she was never guilty of a witticism, unless by accident.

  • (A) scintillating
  • (B) unambiguous
  • (C) perspicuous
  • (D) stultifying
  • (E) facetious

Question 37:

Despite its many ------, the whole-language philosophy of teaching reading continues to gain ------ among educators.

  • (A) detractors...notoriety
  • (B) adherents...prevalence
  • (C) critics...currency
  • (D) enthusiasts...popularity
  • (E) practitioners... credibility

Question 38:

CENSUS : POPULATION::

  • (A) interrogation : guilt
  • (B) survey : price
  • (C) interview : personality
  • (D) questionnaire : explanation
  • (E) inventory : stock

Question 39:

AUTHENTICITY : FRAUDULENT::

  • (A) morality : utopian
  • (B) intensity : vigorous
  • (C) sincerity : hypocritical
  • (D) particularity : unique
  • (E) plausibility : narrated

Question 40:

VARNISH : GLOSSY::

  • (A) sharpen : blunt
  • (B) measure : deep
  • (C) sand : smooth
  • (D) approximate : precise
  • (E) anchor : unstable

Question 41:

AMENITY : COMFORTABLE::

  • (A) tact : circumspect
  • (B) nuisance aggravated
  • (C) honorarium grateful
  • (D) favorite: envious
  • (E) lounge patient

Question 42:

PAIN : ANALGESIC::

  • (A) energy revitalization
  • (B) interest: stimulation
  • (C) symptom palliative
  • (D) despair: anxiety
  • (E) reward: incentive

Question 43:

VOICE : SHOUT::

  • (A) ear overhear
  • (B) eye: see
  • (C) hand clutch
  • (D) nerve: feel
  • (E) nose inhale

Question 44:

PONTIFICATE : SPEAK::

  • (A) strut: walk
  • (B) stare: look
  • (C) patronize frequent
  • (D) eulogize: mourn
  • (E) reciprocate give

Question 45:

BIBLIOPHILE : BOOKS::

  • (A) environmentalist: pollution
  • (B) zoologist animals
  • (C) gourmet: food
  • (D) calligrapher: handwriting
  • (E) aviator aircraft

Question 46:

INDIGENT : WEALTH::

  • (A) presumptuous: independence
  • (B) imperturbable determination
  • (C) inevitable: inescapability
  • (D) indigestible: sustenance
  • (E) redundant: indispensability

Eight times within the past million years, something in the Earth’s climatic equation has changed. allowing snow in the mountains and the northern Line latitudes to accumulate from one season to the next instead of melting away. Each time, the enormous ice  sheets resulting from this continual buildup lasted tens of thousands of years until the end of each particular glacial cycle brought a warmer climate. Scientists speculated that these glacial cycles were ultimately driven by astronomical factors: slow, cyclic changes  in the eccentricity of the Earth’s orbit and in the tilt  and orientation of its spin axis. But up until around 30 years ago, the lack of an independent record of ice- age timing made the hypothesis untestable.

Then in the early 1950’s Emiliani produced the first complete record of the waxings and wanings  of past glaciations. It came from a seemingly odd  place. the seafloor. Single-cell marine organisms called "foraminifera" house themselves in shells made from calcium carbonate. When the foraminifera die. sink to the bottom, and become part of seafloor sedi- ments, the carbonate of their shells preserves certain characteristics of the seawater they inhabited. In particular, the ratio of a heavy, isotope of oxygen (oxygen-18) to ordinary oxygen (oxygen- 16) in the carbonate preserves the ratio of the two oxygens in water molecules.

It is now understood that the ratio of oxygen iso- topes in seawater closely reflects the proportion of the world’s water locked up in glaciers and ice sheets. A kind of meteorological distillation accounts for the link. Water molecules containing the heavier isotope tend to condense and fall as precipitation slightly sooner than molecules containing the lighter isotope. Hence, as water vapor evaporated from warm oceans moves away from its source. its oxygen -18 returns more quickly to the oceans than does its oxygen-16.  What falls as snow on distant ice sheets and mountain glaciers is relatively depleted of oxygen -18. As the oxygen-18-poor ice builds up the oceans become relatively enriched in the Isotope. The larger the ice sheets grow, the higher the proportion of oxygen-18 becomes in seawater- and hence in the sediments. 

Analyzing cores drilled from seafloor sediments, Emiliani found that the isotopic ratio rose and fell in rough accord with the Earth’s astronomical cycles. Since that pioneering observation, oxygen-isotope measurements have been made on hundreds of cores. A chronology for the combined record enables scientists to show that the record contains the very same periodicities as the orbital processes. Over the past 800,000 years, the global ice volume has peaked every 100,000 years, matching the period of the orbital eccentricity variation. In addition, “wrinkles” superposed on each cycle –small decreases or surges  in ice volume – have come at intervals of roughly  23,000 and 41,000 years, in keeping with the pre- cession and tilt frequencies of the Earth’s spin axis. 

Question 47:

Which of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?

  • (A) Marine sediments have allowed scientists to amass evidence tending to confirm that astronomical cycles drive the Earth's glacial cycles.
  • (B) the ratio between two different isotopes of oxygen in seawater correlates closely with the size of the Earth's ice sheets.
  • (C) Surprisingly, single-cell marine organisms provide a record of the Earth's ice ages.
  • (D) The Earth's astronomical cycles have recently been revealed to have an unexpectedly large impact on the Earth's climate.
  • (E) The earth has experienced eight periods of intense glaciation in the past million years, primarily as a result of substantial changes in its orbit.
Correct Answer: (A) Marine sediments have allowed scientists to amass evidence tending to confirm that astronomical cycles drive the Earth's glacial cycles.
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question asks for the main idea, which should summarize the entire passage from the initial problem to the final conclusion.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The passage begins by introducing the hypothesis that astronomical factors drive glacial cycles (lines 8-12). It notes this was initially "untestable" (line 14). It then describes how a record from "the seafloor" (line 18) provided the necessary data. Finally, it concludes that the data from this record "rose and fell in rough accord with the Earth's astronomical cycles" (lines 45-47), and a "chronology for the combined record enables scientists to show that the record contains the very same periodicities as the orbital processes" (lines 49-51).

- (A) This statement correctly summarizes the entire argument: the source of evidence (marine sediments) was used to confirm the hypothesis (astronomical cycles drive glacial cycles).

- (B) This is a crucial detail explaining how the evidence works, but it is not the overall main idea. It is the mechanism, not the final conclusion.

- (C) This is a supporting detail about the source of the data. It's an interesting fact but not the central argument of the passage.

- (D) This is true, but (A) is more complete because it mentions the specific evidence (marine sediments) and the specific impact (glacial cycles) that are the focus of the passage.

- (E) This is a specific detail mentioned in the introduction, not the main point of the entire passage.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Option (A) provides the most comprehensive summary of the passage's argument and conclusion.
Quick Tip: A good main idea answer should connect the beginning of the passage (the problem or hypothesis) with the end (the solution or conclusion). Avoid answers that focus only on a single paragraph or detail.


Question 48:

The passage asserts that one reason that oceans become enriched in oxygen-18 as ice sheets grow is because

  • (A) water molecules containing oxygen-18 condense and fall as precipitation slightly sooner than those containing oxygen-16
  • (B) the ratio of oxygen-18 to oxygen-16 in water vapor evaporated from oceans is different from that of these isotopes in seawater
  • (C) growing ice sheets tend to lose their oxygen-18 as the temperature of the oceans near them gradually decreases
  • (D) less water vapor evaporates from oceans during glacial periods and therefore less oxygen-18 is removed from the seawater
  • (E) the freezing point of seawater rich in oxygen-18 is slightly lower than that of seawater poor in oxygen-18
Correct Answer: (A) water molecules containing oxygen-18 condense and fall as precipitation slightly sooner than those containing oxygen-16
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a detail question that asks for the specific cause of a phenomenon described in the passage. We must locate the relevant lines and identify the reason given.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The third paragraph explains the "meteorological distillation" that links ice volume to the ocean's oxygen isotope ratio. Lines 32-34 state: "Water molecules containing the heavier isotope tend to condense and fall as precipitation slightly sooner than molecules containing the lighter isotope." This process means that as water vapor travels from the oceans to the poles, the heavier oxygen-18 is rained out first, leaving the vapor (and the eventual snow that forms the ice sheets) poor in oxygen-18. This, in turn, leaves the ocean from which the vapor came relatively enriched in oxygen-18.

- (A) This is a direct paraphrase of the reason given in the passage (lines 32-34).

- (B) This is true, but it is the result of the process described in (A), not the root cause itself.

- (C), (D), and (E) are not mentioned in the passage as reasons for the enrichment.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The passage explicitly states that the earlier precipitation of heavier water molecules is the reason for the isotopic separation.
Quick Tip: For questions that ask "why" or "because," scan the passage for keywords from the question (like "enriched in oxygen-18") and look for causal language like "accounts for," "because," "hence," or a description of a process.


Question 49:

According to the passage, the large ice sheets typical of glacial cycles are most directly caused by

  • (A) changes in the average temperatures in the tropics and over open oceans
  • (B) prolonged increases in the rate at which water evaporates from the oceans
  • (C) extreme seasonal variations in temperature in northern latitudes and in mountainous areas
  • (D) steadily increasing precipitation rates in northern latitudes and in mountainous areas
  • (E) the continual failure of snow to melt completely during the warmer seasons in northern latitudes and in mountainous areas
Correct Answer: (E) the continual failure of snow to melt completely during the warmer seasons in northern latitudes and in mountainous areas
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a detail question asking for the direct cause of ice sheet formation as described in the passage.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The first paragraph explicitly describes the formation of ice sheets. Lines 1-6 state: "...something in the Earth's climatic equation has changed, allowing snow in the mountains and the northern latitudes to accumulate from one season to the next instead of melting away. Each time, the enormous ice sheets resulting from this continual buildup..." This clearly identifies the failure of snow to melt as the direct cause.

- (A), (B), (C), (D) describe related climatic factors, but the passage points specifically to the net accumulation of snow year after year. For example, precipitation (D) could increase, but if it all melts in the summer, no ice sheet forms. The key is that the snow doesn't melt away.

- (E) This is a direct paraphrase of the mechanism described in the first paragraph.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The passage identifies the continual accumulation of snow due to incomplete summer melting as the direct cause of ice sheet growth.
Quick Tip: Look for the most direct and specific cause mentioned in the text. While other options might be contributing factors in a broader sense, the question asks what the passage identifies as the direct cause.


Question 50:

It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following is true of the water locked in glaciers and ice sheets today?

  • (A) It is richer in oxygen-18 than frozen water was during past glacial periods.
  • (B) It is primarily located in the northern latitudes of the Earth.
  • (C) Its ratio of oxygen isotopes is the same as that prevalent in seawater during the last ice age.
    (D) It is steadily decreasing in amount due to increased thawing during summer months.
  • (E) In comparison with seawater, it is relatively poor in oxygen-18.

Question 51:

The discussion of the oxygen-isotope ratios in paragraph three of the passage suggests that which of the following must be assumed if the conclusions described in lines 49-58 are to be validly drawn?

  • (A) The Earth's overall annual precipitation rates do not dramatically increase or decrease over time.
  • (B) The various chemicals dissolved in seawater have had the same concentrations over the past million years.
  • (C) Natural processes unrelated to ice formation do not result in the formation of large quantities of oxygen-18.
  • (D) Water molecules falling as precipitation usually fall on the open ocean rather than on continents.
  • (E) Increases in global temperature do not increase the amount of water that evaporates from the oceans.

Question 52:

The passage suggests that the scientists who first constructed a coherent, continuous picture of past variations in marine-sediment isotope ratios did which of the following?

  • (A) Relied primarily on the data obtained from the analysis of Emiliani's core samples.
  • (B) Combined data derived from the analysis of many different core samples.
  • (C) Matched the data obtained by geologists with that provided by astronomers.
  • (D) Evaluated the isotope-ratio data obtained in several areas in order to eliminate all but the most reliable data.
  • (E) Compared data obtained from core samples in many different marine environments with data samples derived from polar ice caps.

Question 53:

The passage suggests that the scientists mentioned in line 8 considered their reconstruction of past astronomical cycles to be

  • (A) unreliable because astronomical observations have been made and recorded for only a few thousand years
  • (B) adequate enough to allow that reconstruction's use in explaining glacial cycles if a record of the latter could be found
  • (C) in need of confirmation through comparison with an independent source of information about astronomical phenomena
  • (D) incomplete and therefore unusable for the purposes of explaining the causes of ice ages
  • (E) adequate enough for scientists to support conclusively the idea that ice ages were caused by astronomical changes
Correct Answer: (B) adequate enough to allow that reconstruction's use in explaining glacial cycles if a record of the latter could be found
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question asks about the attitude of the early scientists (mentioned in line 8) towards their own theory about astronomical cycles, before the seafloor evidence was available.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The passage states that scientists "speculated that these glacial cycles were ultimately driven by astronomical factors" (lines 8-10). It immediately follows this with a key statement: "But up until around 30 years ago, the lack of an independent record of ice-age timing made the hypothesis untestable" (lines 12-14). This implies a specific situation: the scientists had one part of the equation (the astronomical cycles, their "reconstruction") but were missing the other part (a detailed timeline of the ice ages). Their astronomical model was good enough to form a hypothesis, but they needed the ice-age data to test it.

- (A) The passage does not suggest their astronomical reconstruction was considered unreliable. The problem was a lack of data on ice ages.

- (B) This option accurately describes the situation. The astronomical reconstruction was considered adequate for the hypothesis, but it couldn't be tested without a record of the glacial cycles ("a record of the latter").

- (C) The passage indicates they needed an independent record of ice-age timing, not of the astronomical phenomena themselves.

- (D) The reconstruction was not "unusable"; it was the basis of a hypothesis that was simply "untestable" at the time.

- (E) This is incorrect. The passage explicitly states the hypothesis was "untestable," so it could not be considered conclusive.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The scientists had a solid theory about astronomical cycles but couldn't apply it to explain the ice ages until a reliable record of the ice ages themselves became available.
Quick Tip: Understanding the scientific method is key to many reading comprehension passages. A hypothesis is a proposed explanation that can be tested. The passage describes a situation where a hypothesis existed but was "untestable" due to a lack of data on one side of the equation.


Although Victor Turner’s writings have proved  fruitful for fields beyond anthropology, his definition  of ritual is overly restrictive. Ritual, he says, is “pre- list scribed formal behavior for occasions not given over to technological routine, having reference to beliefs in  mystical beings or powers”, “ Technological routine” refers to the means by which a social group provides  for its material needs. Turner’s differentiating ritual  from technology helps us recognize that festivals and celebrations may have little purpose other than play,  but it obscures the practical aims, such as making crops grow or healing patients, of other rituals.
 
 Further, Turner’s definition implies a necessary relationship between ritual and mystical beliefs. However, not all rituals are religious; some religions have no reference to mystical beings; and individuals may be required only to participate in, not necessarily believe in, a ritual. Turner's assumption that ritual behavior follows belief thus limits the usefulness of his definition in studying ritual across cultures. 

Question 54:

According to the passage, which of the following does Turner exclude from his conception of ritual?

  • (A) Behavior based on beliefs
  • (B) Behavior based on formal rules
  • (C) Celebrations whose purpose is play
  • (D) Routines directed toward practical ends
  • (E) Festivals honoring supernatural beings

Question 55:

The passage suggests that an assumption underlying Turner's definition of ritual is that

  • (A) anthropological concepts apply to other fields
  • (B) festivals and ceremonies are related cultural phenomena
  • (C) there is a relationship between play and practical ends
  • (D) rituals refer only to belief in mystical beings or powers
  • (E) mystical beings and powers have certain common attributes across cultures

Question 56:

It can be inferred that the author of the passage believes each of the following concerning rituals EXCEPT:

  • (A) Some are unrelated to religious belief.
  • (B) Some are intended to have practical consequences.
  • (C) Some have no purpose other than play.
  • (D) They sometimes involve reference to mystical beings.
  • (E) They are predominantly focused on agricultural ends.

Question 57:

Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?

  • (A) Factual data are presented and a hypothesis is proposed.
  • (B) A distinction is introduced then shown not to be a true distinction.
  • (C) A statement is quoted, and two assumptions on which it is based are clarified.
  • (D) A definition is challenged, and two reasons for the challenge are given.
  • (E) An opinion is offered and then placed within a historical framework.

Question 58:

SLOUCH:

  • (A) stand erect
  • (B) move unhesitatingly
  • (C) stretch languidly
  • (D) scurry
  • (E) totter

Question 59:

CLAIM:

  • (A) renounce
  • (B) repeal
  • (C) deter
  • (D) hinder
  • (E) postpone

Question 60:

EXPEDITE:

  • (A) impeach
  • (B) deflect
  • (C) resist
  • (D) retard
  • (E) remove

Question 61:

VALEDICTION:

  • (A) greeting
  • (B) promise
  • (C) accusation
  • (D) denigration
  • (E) aphorism

Question 62:

FACTORABLE

  • (A) absorbent
  • (B) magnifiable
  • (C) simulated
  • (D) irreducible
  • (E) ambiguous

Question 63:

CONVOKE:

  • (A) disturb
  • (B) impress
  • (C) adjourn
  • (D) extol
  • (E) applaud

Question 64:

REND:

  • (A) sink
  • (B) unite
  • (C) find
  • (D) spend
  • (E) unleash

Question 65:

CONTRAVENE:

  • (A) condescend
  • (B) embark
  • (C) support
  • (D) offend
  • (E) amass

Question 66:

NADIR:

  • (A) summit
  • (B) impasse
  • (C) sanctuary
  • (D) weak point
  • (E) direct route

Question 67:

ABSTRACT:

  • (A) deny
  • (B) organize
  • (C) elaborate
  • (D) deliberate
  • (E) produce

Question 68:

MENDACIOUS:

  • (A) assured
  • (B) honest
  • (C) intelligent
  • (D) fortunate
  • (E) gracious

Question 69:

The painter Peter Brandon never dated his works, and their chronology is only now beginning to take shape in the critical literature. A recent dating of a Brandon self-portrait to 1930 is surely wrong. Brandon was 63 years old in 1930, yet the painting shows a young, dark-haired man-obviously Brandon, but clearly not a man of 63.



Which of the following, if justifiably assumed, allows the conclusion to be properly drawn?

  • (A) There is no securely dated self-portrait of Brandon that he painted when he was significantly younger than 63.
  • (B) In refraining from dating his works, Brandon intended to steer critical discussion of them away from considerations of chronology.
  • (C) Until recently, there was very little critical literature on the works of Brandon.
  • (D) Brandon at age 63 would not have portrayed himself in a painting as he had looked when he was a young man.
  • (E) Brandon painted several self-portraits that showed him as a man past the age of 60.

Question 70:

Dance critic from Europe: The improved quality of ballet in the United States is the result of more Europeans' teaching ballet in the United States than ever before. I know the proportion of teachers who were born and trained in Europe has gone up among ballet teachers in the United States, because last year, on my trip to New York, more of the ballet teachers I met were from Europe-born and trained there than ever before.


Which of the following identifies a questionable assumption made by the dance critic's reasoning?

  • (A) The argument overlooks the possibility that some ballet teachers in the United States could have been born in Europe but trained in the United States.
  • (B) The argument assumes that the ballet teachers whom the critic met last year on the critic's trip to New York were a generally typical group of such teachers.
  • (C) The argument assumes that the teaching of ballet in the United States is superior to the teaching of ballet in Europe
  • (D) Other possible reasons for the improved mental attitudes of United States dancers are not examined.
  • (E) The argument assumes that dancers born and trained in Europe are typically more talented than dancers born and trained in the United States.

Question 71:

Which of the following can be a complete and accurate list of the contents of one of the packages?

  • (A) Five jigsaw puzzles
  • (B) One game. four novels
  • (C) One jigsaw puzzle, four novels
  • (D) Two games, two jigsaw puzzles, two novels
  • (E) Three games, one jigsaw puzzle, one novel

Question 72:

If the first two packages contain exactly two games each, then the third package must contain exactly

  • (A) one jigsaw puzzle and four novels
  • (B) two jigsaw puzzles and three novels
  • (C) four jigsaw puzzles and one novel
  • (D) one game, one jigsaw puzzle, and three novels
  • (E) two games, one jigsaw puzzle and two novels

Question 73:

If one of the packages contains exactly three jigsaw puzzles and none of the packages contains more than three novels, which of the following must be true?

  • (A) The package that contains three jigsaw puzzles also contains exactly one game.
  • (B) One of the two packages that do not contain three jigsaw puzzles contains exactly two games.
  • (C) One of the two packages that do not contain three jigsaw puzzles contains exactly two jigsaw puzzles.
  • (D) Each of the two packages that do not contain three jigsaw puzzles contains exactly one game.
  • (E) Each of the two packages that do not contain three jigsaw puzzles contains exactly three novels.

Question 74:

If the first two packages contain exactly two jigsaw puzzles each, which of the following can be a complete and accurate list of the contents of the third package?

  • (A) One game, four novels
  • (B) Two games, three novels
  • (C) Two jigsaw puzzles, three novels
  • (D) One game, three jigsaw puzzles, one novel
  • (E) Two games, two jigsaw puzzles, one novel

Question 75:

If each of the packages contains at least one game, then it must be true that one of the package contains exactly

  • (A) two games
  • (B) two jigsaw puzzles
  • (C) one novel
  • (D) two novels
  • (E) four novels

Question 76:

If each of the packages contains a different number of novels from the others, which of the following can be true?

  • (A) There are exactly three games among the items in one of the packages.
  • (B) There are exactly two jigsaw puzzles among the items in one of the packages.
  • (D) There are exactly four games among the items in the three packages together.
  • (E) There are exactly four jigsaw puzzles among the items in the three packages together.

Question 77:

Mayor: Four years ago when we reorganized the city police department in order to save money, critics claimed that the reorganization would make the police less responsive to citizens and would thus lead to more crime. The police have compiled theft statistics from the years following the reorganization that show that the critics were wrong. There was an overall decrease in reports of thefts of all kinds, including small thefts.


Which of the following, if true, most seriously challenges the mayor's argument?

  • (A) When city police are perceived as unresponsive, victims of theft are less likely to report thefts to the police.
  • (B) The mayor's critics generally agree that police statistics concerning crime reports provide the most reliable available data on crime rates.
  • (C) In other cities where police departments have been similarly reorganized, the numbers of reported thefts have generally risen following reorganization.
  • (D) The mayor's reorganization of the police department failed to save as much money as it was intended to save.
  • (E) During the four years immediately preceding the reorganization, reports of all types of theft had been rising steadily in comparison to reports of other crimes.

Question 78:

It takes a particular talent to be a successful business manager. Business courses can help people to solve management problems, but such courses can do so only for those people with managerial talent. Such people should take business courses to acquire ideas that they can subsequently use to good advantage if management problems happen to arise.


If the statements above are true, which of the following must also be true on the basis of them?

  • (A) People who are helped by business courses in solving management problems also have managerial talent.
  • (B) People who are already skilled at solving management problems are unlikely to benefit from business courses.
  • (C) Most ideas that are used successfully in solving management problems are those acquired in business courses.
  • (D) People who lack managerial talent are more likely to take business courses than are people who have managerial talent.
  • (E) Those people who have never taken business courses are unable to solve management problems when such problems arise.

Question 79:

When a driver is suspected of having had too much to drink, testing the driver's ability to walk a straight line gives a more reliable indication of fitness to drive than does testing the driver's blood-alcohol level.
Which of the following, if true, best supports the claim made in the statement above?

  • (A) Not all observers will agree whether or not an individual has succeeded in walking a straight line.
  • (B) Because of genetic differences and variations in acquired tolerance to alcohol, some individuals suffer more serious motor impairment from a given high blood-alcohol level than do others.
  • (C) Tests designed to measure blood-alcohol levels are accurate, inexpensive, and easy to administer.
  • (D) More than half the drivers involved in fatal accidents have blood-alcohol levels that exceed the legal limit, whereas in less-serious accidents the proportion of legally intoxicated drivers is lower.
  • (E) Some individuals with high blood-alcohol levels are capable of walking a straight line but are not capable of driving safely.

Question 80:

That sales can be increased by the presence of sunlight within a store has been shown by the experience of the only Savefast department store with a large skylight. The skylight allows sunlight into half of the store, reducing the need for artificial light. The rest of the store uses only artificial light. Since the store opened two years ago, the departments on the sunlit side have had substantially higher sales than the other departments.


Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument?

  • (A) On particularly cloudy days, more artificial light is used to illuminate the part of the store under the skylight.
  • (B) When the store is open at night, the departments in the part of the store under the skylight have sales that are no higher than those of other departments.
  • (C) Many customers purchase items from departments in both parts of the store on a single shopping trip.
  • (D) Besides the skylight, there are several significant architectural differences between the two parts of the store.
  • (E) The departments in the part of the store under the skylight are the departments that generally have the highest sales in other stores in the Savefast chain.

Question 81:

Which of the following is an acceptable sequence of topics discussed, in order from first through sixth?

  • (A) Knowledge, love, madness, faith, skepticism, technology
  • (B) Knowledge, madness, utopia, skepticism, technology
  • (C) Love, technology, revolution, madness, faith, skepticism
  • (D) Revolution, madness, faith, skepticism, love, technology
  • (E) Revolution, madness, skepticism, faith, technology, love

Question 82:

If exactly one topic is discussed between faith and love, that topic could be

  • (A) knowledge
  • (B) revolution
  • (C) skepticism
  • (D) technology
  • (E) utopia
Correct Answer: (C) skepticism
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a conditional question. We must add the new condition "F-X-L" or "L-X-F" to our existing rules and determine what X could be.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

1. The new condition requires a block of F-X-L or L-X-F.

2. Since F is discussed, Rule 3 must apply: we must have the MFS block.

3. In the MFS block, the topic immediately following F is S.

4. To satisfy the condition that exactly one topic is between F and L, that topic must be the one adjacent to F in the required block. In the MFS block, S is the topic adjacent to F.

5. Therefore, the sequence of topics must contain the larger block M-F-S-L. The topic (X) between F and L is S (skepticism).

6. We can confirm this is possible by constructing a full valid sequence. We have the 4-topic block M-F-S-L. We also know T must be discussed adjacent to L (Rule 2), giving us the 5-topic block M-F-S-L-T. To satisfy Rule 4, R or K must be first. A valid sequence is: R, M, F, S, L, T. In this sequence, the topic between F and L is indeed S.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Given the requirement of the MFS block, the only topic that can be immediately after F (and thus between F and L) is skepticism.
Quick Tip: In logic games, look for how new conditions interact with existing block rules (like the MFS block). The new information often forces a larger, more defined block to form, which can solve the question.


Question 83:

If neither faith nor madness is discussed and if revolution is discussed fourth, then skepticism must be discussed

  • (A) first
  • (B) second
  • (C) third
  • (D) fourth
  • (E) fifth

Question 84:

If revolution and utopia are the first two topics discussed, the two topics not discussed could be

  • (A) faith and love
  • (B) faith and technology
  • (C) knowledge and skepticism
  • (D) love and madness
  • (E) love and technology

Question 85:

If knowledge is not discussed, the other topic not discussed could be

  • (A) faith
  • (B) love
  • (C) madness
  • (D) revolution
  • (E) skepticism

Question 86:

Which of the following can be the order, from position 1 through position 8, of the stones set around the bracelet?

  • (A) Jade, opal, malachite, ruby, zircon, garnet, sapphire, turquoise
  • (B) Jade, opal, sapphire, turquoise, garnet, ruby, zircon, malachite
  • (C) Malachite, turquoise, opal, jade, ruby, zircon, garnet, sapphire
  • (D) Turquoise, opal, jade, sapphire, garnet, zircon, ruby, malachite
  • (E) Turquoise, sapphire, opal, jade, garnet, zircon, ruby, malachite

Question 87:

If the turquoise is set in position 8, which of the following must be true?

  • (A) The garnet is set in position 5.
  • (B) The jade is set in position 1.
  • (C) The jade is set in position 3.
  • (D) The malachite is set in position 1.
  • (E) The sapphire is set in position 1.

Question 88:

Which of the following is a position in which the zircon can be set?

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4
  • (E) 5

Question 89:

If the malachite is set in position 5, which of the following can be true?

  • (A) The garnet is set in position 3.
  • (B) The jade is set in position 4.
  • (C) The opal is set in position 3.
  • (D) The sapphire is set in position 6.
  • (E) The zircon is set in position 1.

Question 90:

If the turquoise is set in position 2, which of the following can be true?

  • (A) The garnet is set in position 1.
  • (B) The jade is set in position 1.
  • (C) The malachite is set in position 5.
  • (D) The ruby is set in position 5.
  • (E) The sapphire is set in position 4.

Question 91:

To protect beachfront buildings from ocean storms, ocean resorts have built massive seawalls between beaches and the buildings. Not only do the seawalls block off some buildings' ocean view, but the beaches themselves become ever narrower, because sand can no longer creep inland as storms erode it at the water's edge.


If the information is correct, which of the following conclusions is most strongly supported on the basis of it?

  • (A) Since the ferocity of ocean storms is increasing, increasingly high seawalls must be built between beaches and beachfront property.
  • (B) Even when beaches are heavily used by people, they are necessary to the survival of the many wild species that use them.
  • (C) Seawalls constructed to protect beachfront buildings will not themselves eventually be damaged by storms and will not require, if they are to protect the buildings, expensive repair or replacement.
  • (D) The conservation of beaches for future generations should be the overriding goal of shore management at ocean coasts.
  • (E) Trying to protect beachfront buildings by constructing seawalls is counterproductive in the long run for an oceanfront community wishing to maintain itself as a beach resort.

Question 92:

A study found that 70 percent of children surveyed in 1970 had at one time had cavities, whereas only 50 percent of those surveyed in 1985 had ever had cavities. The researchers concluded that the level of dental disease in children had declined between 1970 and 1985.


Which of the following, if true, would most seriously undermine the researchers' conclusion presented above?

  • (A) Cavities are the most common kind of dental disease to which children are subject.
  • (B) The children surveyed came from a broad variety of income backgrounds.
  • (C) The children surveyed were selected from among students of teachers cooperating with the researchers.
  • (D) The accuracy of cavity detection techniques has improved dramatically since 1970.
  • (E) The children surveyed in 1985 were younger on average than those surveyed in 1970.

Question 93:

David: Since attempting to preserve every species that is currently endangered is prohibitively expensive, the endangered species whose value to humanity is the greatest should be accorded the highest priority for preservation.


Karen: Such a policy would be unsound because it is impossible to predict the future value of a species, nor is it always possible to assess the present value of species whose contributions to humanity, though significant, are indirect.
Which of the following is the main point of Karen's reply to David?

  • (A) Although it would be desirable to preserve all endangered species, doing so is not economically feasible.
  • (B) Even if the value to humanity of a given species is known, that value should not be a factor in any decision on whether to expend effort to preserve that species.
  • (C) Species whose contributions to humanity are direct should have a higher priority for preservation efforts than species whose contributions to humanity are only indirect.
  • (D) Since the methods for deciding which species have the most value to humanity are imperfect, informed decisions cannot be made on the basis of the assessment of such value.
  • (E) The preservation of endangered species whose value to humanity can be reliably predicted is more important than the preservation of species whose value for humanity is unpredictable.

Question 94:

\(x=y=z\)

Column A: \(x^3\)

Column B: \(xyz\)


Question 95:

\(x \textless 0\)

Column A: \(3x^2\)

Column B: \(3x^3\)


Question 96:




PS = SR

Column A: \(x\)

Column B: \(y\)


Question 97:

Column A: \(\frac{24}{23} + \frac{101}{100}\)

Column B: 2


Question 98:

The points P(2,0), Q(0,2), R(4,2) and S(2,4) are in the rectangular coordinate system. :

Column A: The distance from P to Q

Column B: The distance from R to S


Question 99:

The probability that events E and F will both occur is 0.42. The probability that event E will occur is 0.58.

Column A: The probability that event F will occur

Column B: 0.58


Question 100:



Column A: a

Column B: b


Question 33:

Column A: \((1+\sqrt{2})^2\)

Column B: 3


Question 34:

Column A: (109)(87-14)

Column B: (109)(87)-(109)(14)


Question 35:

Carol's age, in years, can be expressed by reversing the digits in her father's age, in years. The sum of the digits in each age is 10.

Column A: The positive difference between Carol's age, in years, and her father's age, in years

Column B: 36


Question 36:

\(0 \textless p \textless 1\)

Column A: \(p^4 - p^6\)

Column B: \(p^3 - p^5\)


Question 37:

\(3 - 2x^2 - [-x(1+2x)] = -5\)

Column A: x

Column B: -8


Question 38:

a and b are positive integers.

Column A: \(\frac{a}{b}\)

Column B: \(\frac{a+3}{b+3}\)


Question 39:






A solid cubical block of wood has dimensions as shown in the figure (3ft side), and the block is to be cut in half as indicated by the shaded region.

Column A: The total surface area of one of the resulting halves of the block

Column B: 36 square feet


Question 40:






The lengths of the line segments are a, b, and ab, respectively. The line segments are drawn to scale.

Column A: a

Column B: 1


Question 41:

The average (arithmetic mean) number of students in 3 economics classes at a certain college is 24. If the total number of students in 2 of the classes combined is 38, how many students are in the remaining class?

  • (A) 14
  • (B) 19
  • (C) 24
  • (D) 31
  • (E) 34

Question 42:

If the cube of n is 180 greater than the square of n, then n =

  • (A) 10
  • (B) 9
  • (C) 8
  • (D) 7
  • (E) 6

Question 43:




The circular clock above shows a time of exactly 3:30. What is the value of x?

  • (A) 60
  • (B) 75
  • (C) 85
  • (D) 90
  • (E) 105

Question 44:

What percent of the integers between 200 and 999, inclusive, end with the digits "03"?

  • (A) 1%
  • (B) 2.5%
  • (C) 3%
  • (D) 4%
  • (E) 5%

Question 45:






Which of the lines in the figure above contains only points (x,y) with x = y?

  • (A) A
  • (B) B
  • (C) C
  • (D) D
  • (E) E

Question 46:

The ratio of the number of male freshmen to the number of female sophomores is approximately

  • (A) 2 to 1
  • (B) 3 to 1
  • (C) 3 to 2
  • (D) 4 to 1
  • (E) 5 to 3
Correct Answer: (B) 3 to 1
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question asks for an approximate ratio between two values found in the "DISTRIBUTION OF ENROLLMENT" table.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

1. Find the required values from the table.
- Number of male freshmen: Look at the row for "Freshmen" and the column for "Males". The value is 303.
- Number of female sophomores: Look at the row for "Sophomores" and the column for "Females". The value is 109.

2. Form the ratio and approximate.
- The ratio is 303 to 109, or \(\frac{303}{109}\).
- To approximate this, we can round the numbers. 303 is very close to 300, and 109 is very close to 100.
- The ratio is approximately \(\frac{300}{100} = 3\).
- This corresponds to a ratio of 3 to 1.
- For a more precise check, \(303 \div 109 \approx 2.78\). This value is much closer to 3 than to 2, 1.5, 4, or 1.67.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The ratio is approximately 3 to 1.
Quick Tip: When a question asks for an "approximate" ratio, round the numbers to values that are easy to divide. This is usually sufficient to identify the correct multiple-choice option.


Question 47:

How many of the enrolled students are not majoring in humanities, social sciences, or physical sciences?

  • (A) 87
  • (B) 122
  • (C) 182
  • (D) 230
  • (E) 322
Correct Answer: (C) 182
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question requires us to use the second table ("PERCENT OF TOTAL ENROLLMENT") to find the number of students who fall outside the listed categories. These could be students with undeclared majors or majors in other fields not listed.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

1. Find the total percentage of students in the listed majors.
- Humanities: 33%
- Social Sciences: 30%
- Physical Sciences: 24%
- Total percentage in these majors = \(33% + 30% + 24% = 87%\).

2. Find the percentage of students NOT in these majors.
- The total of all students is 100%.
- Percentage not in these majors = \(100% - 87% = 13%\).

3. Calculate the number of students corresponding to this percentage.
- The total enrollment is given as 1,400 students.
- Number of students not in these majors = 13% of 1,400.
\[ 0.13 \times 1400 = 13 \times \frac{1400}{100} = 13 \times 14 \]
\[ 13 \times 14 = 13 \times (10 + 4) = 130 + 52 = 182 \]

Step 3: Final Answer:

There are 182 students who are not majoring in one of the three listed academic areas.
Quick Tip: When working with percentages from a table that don't add up to 100%, the remaining percentage represents the "other" or "unlisted" category. Calculate this remaining percentage first before applying it to the total.


Question 48:

Which of the following can be inferred from the tables?


I. The number of males majoring in physical sciences is greater than the number of females majoring in that area.

II. Students majoring in either social sciences or physical sciences constitute more than 50 percent of the total enrollment.

III. The ratio of the number of males to the number of females in the senior class is less than 2 to 1.

  • (A) I only
  • (B) II only
  • (C) I and II
  • (D) I and III
  • (E) II and III

Question 49:

How many students are either juniors or males or both?

  • (A) 678
  • (B) 766
  • (C) 948
  • (D) 1,130
  • (E) 1,312
Correct Answer: (C) 948
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question asks for the total number of individuals in the union of two sets: the set of juniors and the set of males. We must be careful not to double-count the individuals who are in both sets (male juniors).


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

The principle of inclusion-exclusion for two sets states: \[ |A \cup B| = |A| + |B| - |A \cap B| \]
Here, Set A = Juniors, and Set B = Males.
Alternatively, we can add the total number of males to the number of juniors who are not male (i.e., female juniors).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Method 1: Using Inclusion-Exclusion

1. Find the total number of juniors.
- From the table: Male Juniors = 182, Female Juniors = 88.
- Total Juniors = \(182 + 88 = 270\).

2. Find the total number of males.
- From the table's total row: Total Males = 860.

3. Find the number of students who are both male and junior (the intersection).
- From the table: Male Juniors = 182.

4. Apply the formula.
- Number of (Juniors or Males) = (Total Juniors) + (Total Males) - (Male Juniors)
- Number = \(270 + 860 - 182\)
- Number = \(1130 - 182 = 948\)


Method 2: Direct Addition

The group "juniors or males" consists of two distinct groups: (1) all males, and (2) all juniors who are not male (i.e., female juniors).

Total number of males (this includes all male freshmen, sophomores, juniors, and seniors): 860
Number of female juniors: 88
Total = \(860 + 88 = 948\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

There are 948 students who are either juniors or males or both.
Quick Tip: For "A or B or both" questions with overlapping categories, using the direct addition method (Count all of A, then add the part of B that is NOT in A) can be faster and less prone to error than the formal inclusion-exclusion formula.


Question 50:

If the total enrollment is 12 percent greater than it was five years ago, what was the total enrollment five years ago?

  • (A) 1,180
  • (B) 1,192
  • (C) 1,220
  • (D) 1,232
  • (E) 1,250
Correct Answer: (E) 1,250
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a reverse percentage problem. We are given the final value after a percentage increase (the current enrollment) and asked to find the original value (the enrollment five years ago).


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Let \(E_0\) be the enrollment five years ago (the original value). The current enrollment, \(E_c\), is 12% greater. The relationship can be expressed with the formula: \[ E_c = E_0 + (0.12 \times E_0) = E_0 \times (1 + 0.12) = 1.12 \times E_0 \]
To find the original enrollment, we rearrange the formula: \(E_0 = E_c / 1.12\).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Identify the given values.
- The current enrollment, \(E_c\), is 1,400 (from the information provided for the data interpretation questions).
- The percentage increase is 12%, or 0.12.

2. Set up the equation.
- Using the formula, we have: \(1400 = 1.12 \times E_0\).

3. Solve for the original enrollment, \(E_0\).
- To isolate \(E_0\), we divide both sides by 1.12.
\[ E_0 = \frac{1400}{1.12} \]
- To make the division easier, remove the decimal by multiplying the numerator and denominator by 100:
\[ E_0 = \frac{140000}{112} \]
- Simplify the fraction. We can see both are divisible by 14: \(112 = 14 \times 8\) and \(140000 = 14 \times 10000\).
\[ E_0 = \frac{10000}{8} \]
- Perform the final division:
\[ E_0 = 1250 \]

Step 4: Final Answer:

The total enrollment five years ago was 1,250.
Quick Tip: A common mistake in reverse percentage problems is to subtract 12% of the new amount (e.g., 12% of 1400). This is incorrect because the percentage increase was calculated based on the smaller, original number. Always set up the algebraic equation \( Original \times (1 + percent increase) = Final \) and solve for the "Original" value.


Question 51:

If the ratio of the number of English books to the number of all other books on a bookshelf is 4 to 1, what percent of the books on the bookshelf are English books?

  • (A) 20%
  • (B) 25%
  • (C) 50%
  • (D) 75%
  • (E) 80%

Question 52:

3, 7, 9, 14, x
The numbers in the list above are ordered from least to greatest. If the average (arithmetic mean) is 2 greater than the median, what is the value of x?

  • (A) 22
  • (B) 20
  • (C) 17
  • (D) 16
  • (E) 15

Question 53:

A developer has land that has x feet of lake frontage. The land is to be subdivided into lots, each of which is to have either 80 feet or 100 feet of lake frontage. If \(\frac{1}{9}\) of the lots are to have 80 feet of frontage each and the remaining 40 lots are to have 100 feet of frontage each, what is the value of x?

  • (A) 400
  • (B) 3,200
  • (C) 3,700
  • (D) 4,400
  • (E) 4,760

Question 54:

If \(\frac{a}{b} = \frac{3}{2}\), which of the following must be true?

I. \(\frac{b}{a} = \frac{2}{3}\)

II. \(\frac{a-b}{a} = \frac{1}{3}\)

III. \(a+b = 5\)

  • (A) I only
  • (B) II only
  • (C) III only
  • (D) I and II
  • (E) II and III

Question 55:

What is the least integer value of n such that \(\frac{1}{2^n} \textless 0.001\)?

  • (A) 10
  • (B) 11
  • (C) 500
  • (D) 501
  • (E) there is no such least value.

Question 56:

That she was ------ rock climbing did not diminish her ------ to join her friends on a rock-climbing expedition.

  • (A) attracted to ...eagerness
  • (B) timid about ... reluctance
  • (C) fearful of ... determination
  • (D) curious about... aspiration
  • (E) knowledgeable about ... hope

Question 57:

Data concerning the effects on a small population of high concentrations of a potentially hazardous chemical are frequently used to ------ the effects on a large population of lower amounts of the same chemical.

  • (A) verify
  • (B) redress
  • (C) predict
  • (D) realize
  • (E) augment

Question 58:

Conceptually, it is hard to reconcile a defense attorney's ------ to ensure that false testimony is not knowingly put forward with the attorney's mandate to mount the most ------ defense conceivable for the client.

  • (A) efforts ... cautious
  • (B) duty... powerful
  • (C) inability... eloquent
  • (D) failure... diversified
  • (E) promises... informed

Question 59:

The term "modern"has always been used broadly by historians, and recent reports indicate that its meaning has become more ------ than ever.

  • (A) precise
  • (B) pejorative
  • (C) revisionist
  • (D) acceptable
  • (E) amorphous

Question 60:

He would ------ no argument, and to this end he enjoined us to ------.

  • (A) brook... silence
  • (B) acknowledge... neglect
  • (C) broach... abstinence
  • (D) fathom... secrecy
  • (E) tolerate... defiance

Question 61:

Originally, most intellectual criticism of mass culture was ------ in character, being based on the assumption that the wider the appeal, the more ------ the product.

  • (A) unpredictable... undesirable
  • (B) ironic... popular
  • (C) extreme ... outlandish
  • (D) frivolous... superfluous
  • (E) negative ... shoddy

Question 62:

Surprisingly, given the dearth of rain that fell on the corn crop, the yield of the harvest was ------ ; consequently, the corn reserves of the country have not been ------.

  • (A) inadequate... replenished
  • (B) encouraging... depleted
  • (C) compromised... salvaged
  • (D) abundant... extended
  • (E) disappointing... harmed

Question 63:

REPELLENT: ATTRACT::

  • (A) elastic: stretch
  • (B) sensitive: cooperate
  • (C) progressive: change
  • (D) flammable: ignite
  • (E) ephemeral: endure

Question 64:

ANARCHIST: GOVERNMENT::

  • (A) legislator: taxation
  • (B) reformer: bureaucracy
  • (C) jurist: law
  • (D) suffragist: voting
  • (E) abolitionist: slavery

Question 65:

ADMONISH: DENOUNCE::

  • (A) challenge: overcome
  • (B) reward: praise
  • (C) control: contain
    (D) persuade: convince
  • (E) punish: pillory

Question 66:

JOKE: PUNCH LINE::

  • (A) sermon: congregation
  • (B) conceit: allegory
  • (C) rhetoric: persuasion
  • (D) conspiracy: arrest
  • (E) plot: denouement

Question 67:

VEER: DIRECTION::

  • (A) align: connection
  • (B) filter: contamination
  • (C) convert: belief
  • (D) deflect: motivation
  • (E) substantiate: authenticity

Question 68:

REPROBATE: MISBEHAVE::

  • (A) sycophant: fawn
  • (B) critic: rebuke
  • (C) ruffian: tease
  • (D) cynic: brood
  • (E) narcissist: covet

Question 69:

IMPERVIOUS: PENETRATE::

  • (A) ineluctable: avoid
  • (B) ineradicable: damage
  • (C) boorish: flatter
  • (D) irrepressible: censure
  • (E) disruptive: restrain

Question 70:

CONSENSUS: FACTIONALISM::

  • (A) ritual: orthodoxy
  • (B) reality: plausibility
  • (C) reason: thought
  • (D) clarity: confusion
  • (E) leadership: subordination

Question 71:

MARTINET: DISCIPLINE::

  • (A) illusionist: misdirection
  • (B) dilettante: commitment
  • (C) renegade: allegiance
  • (D) pedant: learning
  • (E) hack: writing

Question 72:

The passage is primarily concerned with discussing which of the following?

  • (A) A central issue in the explanation of how lightning occurs
  • (B) Benjamin Franklin's activities as a scientist
  • (C) Research into the strength and distribution of thunderstorms
  • (D) The direction of movement of electrical charges in thunderclouds
  • (E) The relation between a cloud's charge distribution and its voltage

Question 73:

The passage suggests that lightning bolts typically

  • (A) produce a distribution of charges called a positive dipole in the clouds where they originate
  • (B) result in the movement of negative charges to the centers of the clouds where they originate
  • (C) result in the suspension of large, positively charged raindrops at the tops of the clouds where they originate
  • (D) originate in clouds that have large numbers of negatively charged droplets in their upper regions
  • (E) originate in clouds in which the positive and negative charges are not uniformly distributed
Correct Answer: (E) originate in clouds in which the positive and negative charges are not uniformly distributed
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question asks what the passage suggests is a necessary precondition for lightning to occur. We need to find the statement that describes the state of a cloud that is ready to produce lightning.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The passage states in lines 3-6: "Such transfers [lightning] require that electrically neutral clouds, with uniform charge distributions, become electrified by separation of charges into distinct regions." The next sentence adds, "The greater this separation is, the greater the voltage... of the cloud." This directly implies that lightning originates from clouds where charges have been separated and are therefore no longer uniformly distributed. A uniform distribution is characteristic of a neutral, inactive cloud. An electrified cloud, ready to produce lightning, has a non-uniform distribution.

- (A) The positive dipole is produced by the charge separation process; it is the cause of the lightning, not a product of it.

- (B), (C), and (D) describe specific details of the precipitation hypothesis, but they are not presented as universally true for all lightning. For instance, (D) is the opposite of what the hypothesis suggests (the upper regions are filled with positively charged droplets).

- (E) This is a direct restatement of the fundamental condition required for electrification mentioned at the very beginning of the passage. A non-uniform distribution is another way of saying there has been a "separation of charges into distinct regions."


Step 3: Final Answer:

The passage states that for lightning to occur, charges within a cloud must be separated, meaning they are not uniformly distributed.
Quick Tip: In science passages, distinguish between foundational principles and specific, competing theories. The correct answer to a general question is more likely to be found in the statement of the basic principle than in the details of one particular hypothesis.


Question 74:

According to the passage, Benjamin Franklin contributed to the scientific study of lightning by

  • (A) testing a theory proposed earlier, showing it to be false, and developing an alternative, far more successful theory of his own
  • (B) making an important discovery that is still important for scientific investigations of lightning
    % C) introducing a hypothesis that, though recently shown to be false, proved to be a useful source of insights for scientists studying lightning
  • (D) developing a technique that has enabled scientists to measure more precisely the phenomena that affect the strength and location of lightning bolts
  • (E) predicting correctly that two factors previously thought unrelated to lightning would eventually be shown to contribute jointly to the strength and location of lightning bolts

Question 75:

Which of the following, if true, would most seriously undermine the precipitation hypothesis, as it is set forth in the passage?

  • (A) Larger clouds are more likely than smaller clouds to be characterized by complete separation of positive and negative charges.
  • (B) In smaller clouds lightning more often occurs within the cloud than between the cloud and the earth.
  • (C) Large raindrops move more rapidly in small clouds than they do in large clouds.
  • (D) Clouds that are smaller than average in size rarely, if ever, produce lightning bolts.
  • (E) In clouds of all sizes negative charges concentrate in the center of the clouds when the clouds become electrically charged

Question 76:

Which of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?

  • (A) Gilpin's landscape photographs more accurately documented the Southwest than did the photographs of explorers and conservationists.
  • (B) Gilpin's style of landscape photography substantially influenced the heroic style practiced by her male counterparts.
  • (C) The labeling of Gilpin's style of landscape photography as feminine ignores important ties between it and the heroic style.
  • (D) Gilpin's work exemplifies an arguably feminine style of landscape photography that contrasts with the style used by her male predecessors.
  • (E) Gilpin's style was strongly influenced by the work of women writers who described the landscape in terms of its relationship to people.

Question 77:

It can be inferred from the passage that the teams mentioned in line 19 were most interested in which of the following aspects of the land in the western United States?

  • (A) Its fragility in the face of increased human intrusion
  • (B) Its role in shaping the lives of indigenous peoples
  • (C) Its potential for sustaining future settlements
  • (D) Its importance as an environment for RARE PLANTS AND ANIMALS
  • (E) Its unusual vulnerability to extreme natural forces

Question 78:

The author of the passage claims that which of the following is the primary reason why Gilpin generally avoided extreme close-ups of natural subjects?

  • (A) Gilpin believed that pictures of natural details could not depict the interrelationship between the land and humans.
  • (B) Gilpin considered close-up photography to be too closely associated with her predecessors.
  • (C) Gilpin believed that all of her photographs should include people in them.
  • (D) Gilpin associated close-up techniques with photography used for commercial purposes.
  • (E) Gilpin feared that pictures of small details would suggest an indifference to the fragility of the land as a whole.

Question 79:

The passage suggests that a photographer who practiced the heroic style would be most likely to emphasize which of the following in a photographic series focusing on the Rio Grande?

  • (A) Indigenous people and their ancient customs relating to the river
  • (B) The exploits of navigators and explorers
  • (C) Unpopulated, pristine parts of the river and its surroundings
  • (D) Existing commercial ventures that relied heavily on the river
  • (E) The dams and other monumental engineering structures built on the river

Question 80:

It can be inferred from the passage that the first two generations of landscape photographers in the western United States had which of the following in common?

  • (A) They photographed the land as an entity that had little interaction with human culture.
  • (B) They advanced the philosophy that photographers should resist alliances with political or commercial groups.
  • (C) They were convinced that the pristine condition of the land needed to be preserved by government action.
  • (D) They photographed the land as a place ready for increased settlement.
  • (E) They photographed only those locations where humans had settled.

Question 81:

Based on the description of her works in the passage, which of the following would most likely be a subject for a photograph taken by Gilpin?

  • (A) A vista of a canyon still untouched by human culture
  • (B) A portrait of a visitor to the West against a desert backdrop
  • (C) A view of historic Native American dwellings carved into the side of a natural cliff
  • (D) A picture of artifacts from the West being transported to the eastern United States for retail sale
  • (E) An abstract pattern created by the shadows of clouds on the desert

Question 82:

The author of the passage mentions women writers in line 50 most likely in order to

  • (A) counter a widely held criticism of her argument
  • (B) bolster her argument that Gilpin's style can be characterized as a feminine style
  • (C) suggest that Gilpin took some of her ideas for photographs from landscape descriptions by women writers
  • (D) clarify the interrelationship between human culture and the land that Gilpin was attempting to capture
  • (E) offer an analogy between photographic close-ups and literary descriptions of small details

Question 83:

FICTITIOUS:

  • (A) classical
  • (B) natural
  • (C) factual
  • (D) rational
  • (E) commonplace

Question 84:

BRIDLED:

  • (A) without recourse
  • (B) without restraint
  • (C) without meaning
  • (D) without curiosity
  • (E) without subtlety

Question 85:

CAPTIVATE:

  • (A) repulse
  • (B) malign
  • (C) proscribe
  • (D) send out

Question 86:

DISSIPATE:

  • (A) accumulate
  • (B) emerge
  • (C) overwhelm
  • (D) adhere
  • (E) invigorate

Question 87:

OSTRACIZE:

  • (A) clarify
  • (B) subdue
  • (C) welcome
  • (D) renew
  • (E) crave

Question 88:

LOATH:

  • (A) clever
  • (B) reasonable
  • (C) fortunate
  • (D) eager
  • (E) confident

Question 89:

VITIATE:

  • (A) ingratiate
  • (B) convince
  • (C) regulate
  • (D) fortify
  • (E) constrict

Question 90:

LAVISH:

  • (A) insist
  • (B) criticize
  • (C) undermine
  • (D) stint
  • (E) waste

Question 91:

VITUPERATIVE:

  • (A) complimentary
  • (B) demagogic
  • (C) hopeful
  • (D) admirable
  • (E) veracious

Question 92:

MORIBUND:

  • (A) discontinuous
  • (B) natural
  • (C) nascent
  • (D) rational
  • (E) dominant

Question 93:

CATHOLIC:

  • (A) narrow
  • (B) soft
  • (C) trivial
  • (D) calm
  • (E) quick

Question 94:

Which of the following can be the schedule for the six experiments?

  • (A) Aug: P, R | Sep: T, X | Oct: Y, Z
  • (B) Aug: R, T | Sep: X, Y | Oct: P, Z
  • (C) Aug: R, X | Sep: T, Y | Oct: P, Z
  • (D) Aug: X, Y | Sep: P, Z | Oct: R, T
  • (E) Aug: Y, Z | Sep: R, T | Oct: P, X

Question 95:

Any of the following experiments can be performed in August EXCEPT

  • (A) P
  • (B) R
  • (C) X
  • (D) Y
  • (E) Z

Question 96:

If T is performed in September, which of the following must be true?

  • (A) P is performed in August.
  • (B) R is performed in September.
  • (C) X is performed in August.
  • (D) Y is performed in September.
  • (E) Z is performed in October.

Question 97:

If R is performed in the same month as Z, which of the following can be the pair of experiments performed in October?

  • (A) P and X
  • (B) P and Y
  • (C) R and Z
  • (D) T and Y
  • (E) X and Y

Question 98:

If T is performed in the month before Z is performed, which of the following is a pair of experiments that can be performed in the same month as each other?

  • (A) P and R
  • (B) P and Y
  • (C) R and Y
  • (D) R and Z
  • (E) X and Y

Question 99:

If P is performed in the same month as Y, which of the following must be true?

  • (A) R is performed in the same month as T.
  • (B) R is performed in the same month as X.
  • (C) T is performed in August.
  • (D) X is performed in August.
  • (E) Y is performed in October.

Question 100:

If X is performed in the month before Y is performed, which of the following must be true?

  • (A) P is performed in August.
  • (B) R is performed in September.
  • (C) T is performed in September.
  • (D) X is performed in August.
  • (E) Z is performed in October.

Question 101:

Roger: Reading a lot as a child causes nearsightedness-difficulty seeing things at a distance.
Louise: I disagree. Any correlation between nearsightedness and reading results from the fact that children who have trouble seeing things at a distance are likeliest to prefer those activities, such as reading, that involve looking at things close up.
Louise disputes Roger's claim by

  • (A) demonstrating that an absurd conclusion would follow if Roger's claim were accepted
  • (B) arguing that what Roger claims to be a cause of a given phenomenon is actually its effect
  • (C) using an analogy to expose a flaw in Roger's reasoning
  • (D) pointing out that Roger's claim is self-contradictory
  • (E) attempting to demonstrate that Roger uses the term" nearsightedness" in an ambiguous way

Question 102:

Years ago, consumers in Frieland began paying an energy tax in the form of two Frieland pennies for each unit of energy consumed that came from nonrenewable sources. Following the introduction of this energy tax, there was a steady reduction in the total yearly consumption of energy from nonrenewable sources.
If the statements in the passage are true, then which of the following must on the basis of them be true?

  • (A) There was a steady decline in the yearly revenues generated by the energy tax in Frieland.
  • (B) There was a steady decline in the total amount of energy consumed each year in Frieland.
  • (C) There was a steady increase in the use of renewable energy sources in Frieland
  • (D) The revenues generated by the energy tax were used to promote the use of energy from renewable sources.
  • (E) The use of renewable energy sources in Frieland greatly increased relative to the use of nonrenewable energy sources.

Question 103:

If O sits at the same table as K, which of the following must sit at the same table as each other?

  • (A) J and T
  • (B) L and R
  • (C) N and K
  • (D) N and T
  • (E) O and N

Question 104:

Which of the following can sit at a table with L and R?

  • (A) J
  • (B) K
  • (C) N
  • (D) O
  • (E) T

Question 105:

If N sits at the same table as S, which of the following can be true?

  • (A) J sits at a table with only one other person.
  • (B) L sits at a table with only one other person.
  • (C) K sits at the same table as O.
  • (D) J sits at the same table as N.
  • (E) L sits at the same table as S.

Question 106:

Each of the following is a pair of people who can sit at the same table as each other EXCEPT

  • (A) J and O
  • (B) K and S
  • (C) L and R
  • (D) N and S
  • (E) O and T

Question 107:

If O and S are the only people sitting at one of the tables, which of the following can be the group of people sitting at one of the other two tables?

  • (A) J, K, and N
  • (B) K, L, and T
  • (C) K, N, and T
  • (D) K, R, and T
  • (E) L, N, and R

Question 108:

Despite a dramatic increase in the number of people riding bicycles for recreation in Parkville, a recent report by the Parkville Department of Transportation shows that the number of accidents involving bicycles has decreased for the third consecutive year.

Which of the following, if true during the last three years, best reconciles the apparent discrepancy in the facts above?

  • (A) The Parkville Department of Recreation confiscated abandoned bicycles and sold them at auction to any interested Parkville residents.
  • (B) Increased automobile and bus traffic in Parkville has been the leading cause of the most recent increase in automobile accidents.
  • (C) Because of the local increase in the number of people bicycling for recreation, many out-of-town bicyclists ride in the Parkville area.
  • (D) The Parkville Police Department enforced traffic rules for bicycle riders much more vigorously and began requiring recreational riders to pass a bicycle safety course.
  • (E) The Parkville Department of Transportation canceled a program that required all bicycles to be inspected and registered each year.

Question 109:

Do strong electric currents, by means of the electromagnetic fields that accompany them, cause cancer in people who live and work nearby? Telephone line workers, who work near such currents every day, can provide a test case. They show elevated levels of brain cancer, therefore, the hypothesis of electromagnetic causation is supported. Which of the following if true, most seriously weakens the argument?

  • (A) Burying power lines and other measures to protect the public from such electromagnetic fields would be prohibitively expensive.
  • (B) Telephone line workers are exposed to levels of chemical solvents high enough to cause brain cancer.
  • (C) High exposure to strong electromagnetic fields is correlated with a slightly higher-than-normal incidence of childhood leukemia, which is a form of cancer.
  • (D) Public health officials who found that a group of different illnesses in people living near a power substation could not reliably be attributed to its electromagnetic field were accused of covering up the facts.
  • (E) Telephone line workers, like most people, have electrical appliances at home, and most electrical appliances, when turned on, are surrounded by and electromagnetic field of some measurable level.

Question 110:

Any of the following is an acceptable pathway for a document to be sent from S to M, listing all lines used in order from the line first used to the line last used, EXCEPT

  • (A) line 4, line 5
  • (B) line 2, line 3, line 5
  • (C) line 2, line 1, line 6
  • (D) line 4, line 1, line 6
  • (E) line 2, line 1, line 3, line 5

Question 111:

Which of the following is a complete and accurate list of the lines any one of which could be the second line used by a document sent from T to G?

  • (A) Lines 1, 2, and 3
  • (B) Lines 1, 2, and 4
  • (C) Lines 1, 2, and 6
  • (D) Lines 2, 3, and 4
  • (E) Lines 2, 3, and 6

Question 112:

If line 3 cannot be used, a document to be sent from T to H that uses as few tube lines as possible must use line

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 5
    (D) 6
    (E) 7

Question 113:

A pathway from M to H that includes as many tube lines as possible must include lines

  • (A) 1 and 2
  • (B) 1 and 3
  • (C) 3 and 4
  • (D) 4 and 5
  • (E) 5 and 6

Question 114:

Which of the following could be the pairs of skaters who skate in each set, from set 1 through set 4?

  • (A) Set 1: Fiona, Ravi | Set 2: Jill, Toby | Set 3: Gloria, Shigeru | Set 4: Heidi, Vernon
  • (B) Set 1: Gloria, Shigeru | Set 2: Heidi, Ravi | Set 3: Fiona, Toby | Set 4: Jill, Vernon
  • (C) Set 1: Heidi, Shigeru | Set 2: Gloria, Ravi | Set 3: Jill, Vernon | Set 4: Fiona, Toby
  • (D) Set 1: Heidi, Toby | Set 2: Gloria, Shigeru | Set 3: Jill, Ravi | Set 4: Fiona, Vernon
  • (E) Set 1: Jill, Vernon | Set 2: Heidi, Ravi | Set 3: Gloria, Shigeru | Set 4: Fiona, Toby

Question 115:

If Gloria skates with Toby in set 1, which of the following must be true?

  • (A) Vernon skates in set 2.
  • (B) Shigeru skates in set 4.
  • (C) Ravi skates in set 3.
  • (D) Jill skates in set 4.
  • (E) Heidi skates in set 3.

Question 116:

If Heidi skates in set 1 and Toby skates in set 2, which of the following must be true?

  • (A) Fiona skates with Ravi.
  • (B) Gloria skates with Ravi.
  • (C) Gloria skates with Shigeru.
  • (D) Gloria skates with Vernon.
  • (E) Jill skates with Vernon.

Question 117:

Neither the Sami nor the Kephrian delegations attended the international conference. Beforehand, the delegations of Daqua and Kephria, allies whose governments had grievances against Tessia, officially announced that one or both of the two would stay away if the Tessian delegation attended the conference. In response, the Sami delegation officially announced that it would definitely attend if both the Daquan and Kephrian delegations stayed away.
If the statements given are all true and all the delegations adhered to their official announcements, it must also be true that the

  • (A) Daquan delegation attended the conference
  • (B) Daquan delegation did not attend the conference
  • (C) Sami government had no grievance against Tessia
  • (D) Tessian delegation did not attend the conference
  • (E) Tessian delegation made no official announcement regarding its attendance at the conference

Question 118:

On turning 65 years old, everyone living in the town of Malton becomes eligible to receive a card that guarantees discounts. Census records for 1990 show that 2,450 inhabitants of Malton turned 64 in that year. Yet, in 1991 over 3,000 people applied for and properly received discount cards. So clearly some of Malton's population growth between 1990 and 1992 must be attributable to migration into the city by people in their mid-60's.


Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?

  • (A) The town of Malton has no complete census records for 1991.
  • (B) The overall size of the population of Malton grew by over 500 during 1990.
  • (C) Fewer people applied for and received discount cards in 1991 than did so in 1992.
  • (D) Among the people 65 years old or older who moved into Malton in 1991, there was no one who did not apply for a discount card.
  • (E) In general, people who applied for and received discount cards in 1991 first became eligible to do so in that year.

Comments


No Comments To Show