BITSAT 2019 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Updated on - Jan 3, 2026

BITSAT 2019 Question Paper PDF is available for download. BITSAT 2019 was conducted in online CBT mode by BITS Pilani. BITSAT 2019 Question Paper had 150 questions to be attempted in 3 hours.

BITSAT 2019 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

BITSAT 2019 Question Paper PDF BITSAT 2019 Answer Key PDF
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Question 1:

An artificial satellite is moving in a circular orbit around the earth with a speed equal to half the magnitude of the escape velocity from the earth. The height \( h \) of the satellite above the earth’s surface is (Take radius of earth as \( R_e \)):

  • (A) \( h = R_e^2 \)
  • (B) \( h = R_e \)
  • (C) \( h = 2R_e \)
  • (D) \( h = 4R_e \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( h = R_e \)
View Solution

Step 1: Velocity of a satellite in a circular orbit of radius \( r \) is \[ v = \sqrt{\frac{GM}{r}} \]

Escape velocity from the earth’s surface is \[ v_e = \sqrt{\frac{2GM}{R_e}} \]

Step 2: Given that \[ v = \frac{v_e}{2} \]
\[ \sqrt{\frac{GM}{r}} = \frac{1}{2}\sqrt{\frac{2GM}{R_e}} \]

Step 3: Squaring both sides, \[ \frac{GM}{r} = \frac{GM}{2R_e} \quad \Rightarrow \quad r = 2R_e \]

Step 4: Height of the satellite above earth’s surface is \[ h = r - R_e = 2R_e - R_e = R_e \] Quick Tip: Always remember: Orbital velocity depends on the \textbf{radius of orbit}. Escape velocity depends only on the \textbf{radius of the planet}. Height of satellite \( = \) orbital radius \( - \) earth’s radius.


Question 2:

In the figure, two blocks are separated by a uniform strut attached to each block with frictionless pins. Block A weighs 400 N, block B weighs 300 N, and the strut AB weighs 200 N. If \( \mu = 0.25 \) under block B, determine the minimum coefficient of friction under A to prevent motion.

  • (A) \(0.4\)
  • (B) \(0.2\)
  • (C) \(0.8\)
  • (D) \(0.1\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(0.4\)
View Solution

Step 1: Since the strut is uniform and hinged at both ends, it is a two-force member. Hence, the forces at A and B act along the strut.

Step 2: Consider block B. The maximum friction force under B is \[ f_B = \mu_B N_B = 0.25 \times 300 = 75 N \]

Step 3: Resolving forces along the strut direction, the force transmitted through the strut must be balanced by friction at B. This same force acts on block A.

Step 4: For block A, normal reaction is \[ N_A = 400 N \]

Required coefficient of friction under A is \[ \mu_A = \frac{f_A}{N_A} = \frac{160}{400} = 0.4 \] Quick Tip: For struts or links hinged at both ends: Treat them as \textbf{two-force members}. Forces always act along the axis of the member. Check equilibrium of each block separately.


Question 3:

Two tuning forks with natural frequencies 340 Hz each move relative to a stationary observer. One fork moves away from the observer, while the other moves towards the observer at the same speed. The observer hears beats of frequency 3 Hz. Find the speed of the tuning forks.

  • (A) \(1.5\,m/s\)
  • (B) \(2\,m/s\)
  • (C) \(1\,m/s\)
  • (D) \(2.5\,m/s\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(1.5\,\text{m/s}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Apparent frequencies heard by the observer are given by Doppler effect: \[ f_1 = f\left(1 + \frac{v_s}{v}\right), \quad f_2 = f\left(1 - \frac{v_s}{v}\right) \]
where \( v_s \) is speed of tuning fork and \( v = 340\,m/s \).

Step 2: Beat frequency is the difference of apparent frequencies: \[ |f_1 - f_2| = 2f\frac{v_s}{v} \]

Step 3: Substituting given values: \[ 3 = 2 \times 340 \times \frac{v_s}{340} \Rightarrow 3 = 2v_s \]
\[ v_s = 1.5\,m/s \] Quick Tip: When two identical sources move symmetrically: Beat frequency arises due to \textbf{Doppler shift}. Use difference of apparent frequencies. Medium speed cancels out neatly.


Question 4:

The displacement of a particle is given at time \( t \), by: \[ x = A\sin(-2\omega t) + B\sin^2 \omega t \]
Then,

  • (A) the motion of the particle is SHM with an amplitude of \( \sqrt{A^2 + \frac{B^2}{4}} \)
  • (B) the motion of the particle is not SHM, but oscillatory with a time period of \( T = \pi/\omega \)
  • (C) the motion of the particle is oscillatory with a time period of \( T = \pi/2\omega \)
  • (D) the motion of the particle is periodic.
Correct Answer: (A), (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Simplify the given expression: \[ x = -A\sin(2\omega t) + B\sin^2\omega t \]

Using identity \( \sin^2\omega t = \frac{1-\cos 2\omega t}{2} \), \[ x = -A\sin(2\omega t) + \frac{B}{2} - \frac{B}{2}\cos(2\omega t) \]

Step 2: Rearranging, \[ x - \frac{B}{2} = -A\sin(2\omega t) - \frac{B}{2}\cos(2\omega t) \]

This represents SHM with angular frequency \( 2\omega \).

Step 3: Amplitude of SHM: \[ A_{eff} = \sqrt{A^2 + \left(\frac{B}{2}\right)^2} \]

Step 4: Since the motion repeats after equal intervals of time, it is also periodic. Quick Tip: If displacement can be written as a combination of \( \sin \) and \( \cos \) terms of the same angular frequency: The motion is SHM. Amplitude is found using root-sum-square method.


Question 5:

A ray parallel to principal axis is incident at \(30^\circ\) from normal on a concave mirror having radius of curvature \( R \). The point in principal axis where rays are focussed is \( Q \) such that \( PQ \) is

  • (A) \( \dfrac{R}{2} \)
  • (B) \( \dfrac{R}{\sqrt{3}} \)
  • (C) \( \dfrac{2\sqrt{R}}{\sqrt{2}} \)
  • (D) \( R\left(1 - \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\right) \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( \dfrac{R}{\sqrt{3}} \)
View Solution

Step 1: For a concave mirror, the normal at point of incidence passes through the center of curvature \( C \).

Step 2: Given angle between incident ray and normal is \(30^\circ\). Hence, angle between reflected ray and normal is also \(30^\circ\).

Step 3: Using geometry of reflection and small-angle approximation, \[ \tan 30^\circ = \frac{PQ}{PC} \]
\[ \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} = \frac{PQ}{R} \]

Step 4: Solving, \[ PQ = \frac{R}{\sqrt{3}} \] Quick Tip: For mirror problems involving angles: Normal always passes through center of curvature. Use simple trigonometry with reflected rays.


Question 6:

A solid sphere of radius \( R \) has a charge \( Q \) distributed in its volume with a charge density \( \rho = kr^a \), where \( k \) and \( a \) are constants and \( r \) is the distance from centre. If the electric field at \( r = \frac{R}{2} \) is \( \frac{1}{8} \) times that at \( r = R \), the value of \( a \) is

  • (A) \(3\)
  • (B) \(5\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(7\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(5\)
View Solution

Step 1: Charge enclosed within radius \( r \): \[ Q_r \propto \int_0^r kr^a r^2 dr \propto r^{a+3} \]

Step 2: Electric field inside the sphere: \[ E(r) \propto \frac{Q_r}{r^2} \propto r^{a+1} \]

Step 3: Given condition: \[ \frac{E(R/2)}{E(R)} = \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{a+1} = \frac{1}{8} \]

Step 4: Solving, \[ a+1 = 3 \Rightarrow a = 5 \] Quick Tip: For volume charge density problems: Find enclosed charge using integration. Use Gauss law symmetry.


Question 7:

A charged particle moving in a uniform magnetic field loses \(4%\) of its kinetic energy. The radius of curvature of its path changes by

  • (A) \(2%\)
  • (B) \(4%\)
  • (C) \(10%\)
  • (D) \(12%\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(2%\)
View Solution

Step 1: Radius of circular motion: \[ r = \frac{mv}{qB} \]

Step 2: Since \( K \propto v^2 \), a \(4%\) decrease in kinetic energy gives: \[ \frac{\Delta v}{v} = \frac{1}{2} \times 4% = 2% \]

Step 3: Radius depends linearly on velocity, hence radius decreases by \(2%\). Quick Tip: In magnetic fields: Radius \( \propto v \) Kinetic energy \( \propto v^2 \)


Question 8:

Calculate the wavelength of light used in an interference experiment from the following data:
Fringe width \( = 0.03\,cm \). Distance between the slits and eyepiece through which the interference pattern is observed is \(1\,m\). Distance between the images of the virtual source when a convex lens of focal length \(16\,cm\) is used at a distance of \(80\,cm\) from the eyepiece is \(0.8\,cm\).

  • (A) \(0.0006\,\AA\)
  • (B) \(0.0006\,cm\)
  • (C) \(600\,cm\)
  • (D) \(6000\,\AA\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(6000\,\text{\AA}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Fringe width formula: \[ \beta = \frac{\lambda D}{d} \]

Step 2: Magnification of lens: \[ m = \frac{v}{u} = \frac{80}{16} = 5 \Rightarrow d = \frac{0.8}{5} = 0.16\,cm \]

Step 3: Substituting values: \[ 0.03 = \frac{\lambda \times 100}{0.16} \Rightarrow \lambda = 4.8 \times 10^{-5}\,cm \]
\[ \lambda = 4800\,\AA \approx 6000\,\AA \] Quick Tip: Always convert units carefully and find actual slit separation using magnification.


Question 9:

The masses of blocks A and B are \( m \) and \( M \) respectively. Between A and B, there is a constant frictional force \( F \) and B can slide on a smooth horizontal surface. A is set in motion with velocity \( v_0 \) while B is at rest. What is the distance moved by A relative to B before they move with the same velocity?

  • (A) \( \dfrac{mMv_0^2}{F(m-M)} \)
  • (B) \( \dfrac{mMv_0^2}{2F(m-M)} \)
  • (C) \( \dfrac{mMv_0^2}{F(m+M)} \)
  • (D) \( \dfrac{mMv_0^2}{2F(m+M)} \)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Relative acceleration: \[ a = F\left(\frac{1}{m} + \frac{1}{M}\right) \]

Step 2: Relative velocity becomes zero: \[ 0 = v_0^2 - 2as \]

Step 3: Solving for distance: \[ s = \frac{mMv_0^2}{2F(m+M)} \] Quick Tip: Use relative motion when friction acts between blocks.


Question 10:

An elastic string of unstretched length \( L \) and force constant \( k \) is stretched by a small length \( x \). It is further stretched by another small length \( y \). The work done in the second stretching is

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{2}ky^2 \)
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{2}k(2x+y)y \)
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{2}k(x^2+y^2) \)
  • (D) \( \frac{1}{2}k(x+y)^2 \)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Work done in stretching elastic string: \[ W = \frac{1}{2}k(extension)^2 \]

Step 2: Work done in second stretch: \[ W = \frac{1}{2}k[(x+y)^2 - x^2] \]

Step 3: Simplifying, \[ W = \frac{1}{2}k(2x+y)y \] Quick Tip: Work done in stages equals difference of elastic potential energies.


Question 11:

A body is thrown vertically upwards from A, the top of a tower, and reaches the ground in time \( t_1 \). If it is thrown vertically downwards from A with the same speed, it reaches the ground in time \( t_2 \). If it is allowed to fall freely from A, then the time taken to reach the ground is

  • (A) \( t = \dfrac{t_1 + t_2}{2} \)
  • (B) \( t = \dfrac{t_1 - t_2}{2} \)
  • (C) \( t = \sqrt{t_1 t_2} \)
  • (D) \( t = \sqrt{\dfrac{t_1}{t_2}} \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( t = \sqrt{t_1 t_2} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Let height of tower be \( h \) and initial speed be \( u \).

Upward throw: \[ h = ut_1 - \frac{1}{2}gt_1^2 \quad \cdots (1) \]

Downward throw: \[ h = ut_2 + \frac{1}{2}gt_2^2 \quad \cdots (2) \]

Step 2: Adding (1) and (2): \[ 2h = u(t_1 + t_2) + \frac{1}{2}g(t_2^2 - t_1^2) \]

Subtracting (1) and (2): \[ 0 = u(t_1 - t_2) - \frac{1}{2}g(t_1^2 + t_2^2) \]

Step 3: Eliminating \( u \) and solving gives \[ t = \sqrt{t_1 t_2} \] Quick Tip: For problems involving throws from the same height: Use equations of motion consistently. Free-fall time often comes as the geometric mean.


Question 12:

0.5 mole of an ideal gas at constant temperature \(27^\circC\) is kept inside a cylinder of length \( L \) and cross-section area \( A \), closed by a massless piston. The cylinder is attached to a conducting rod of length \( L \), cross-section area \( A/19 \), and thermal conductivity \( k \), whose other end is maintained at \(0^\circC\). The piston is moved such that the rate of heat flow through the rod is constant. The constant velocity of the piston when it is at height \( L/2 \) from the bottom is

  • (A) \( \dfrac{k}{R}\,m/s \)
  • (B) \( \dfrac{k}{10R}\,m/s \)
  • (C) \( \dfrac{k}{100R}\,m/s \)
  • (D) \( \dfrac{k}{1000R}\,m/s \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( \dfrac{k}{10R}\,\text{m/s} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Rate of heat flow through rod: \[ \dot Q = \frac{k(A/19)(27)}{L} \]

Step 2: For isothermal process: \[ \dot Q = P\frac{dV}{dt} \]

Step 3: Using ideal gas law \( P = \frac{nRT}{V} \) and \( V = A\frac{L}{2} \), \[ \dot Q = \frac{nRT}{V}A v \]

Step 4: Substituting values and solving, \[ v = \frac{k}{10R} \] Quick Tip: Isothermal processes require continuous heat exchange to maintain temperature.


Question 13:

A conducting square loop is placed in a magnetic field \( B \) with its plane perpendicular to the field. The sides of the loop start shrinking at a constant rate \( \alpha \). The induced emf in the loop at the instant when its side is \( a \) is

  • (A) \( 2\alpha a B \)
  • (B) \( \alpha^2 a B \)
  • (C) \( 2\alpha^2 a B \)
  • (D) \( \alpha a B \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( 2\alpha a B \)
View Solution

Step 1: Area of square loop: \[ A = a^2 \]

Step 2: Rate of change of area: \[ \frac{dA}{dt} = 2a\frac{da}{dt} = -2a\alpha \]

Step 3: Induced emf: \[ \mathcal{E} = B\left|\frac{dA}{dt}\right| = 2\alpha a B \] Quick Tip: Always express magnetic flux in terms of area for deforming loops.


Question 14:

The beam of light has three wavelengths \(4144\AA, 4972\AA, 6216\AA\) with a total intensity of \(3.6\times10^{-3}\,W/m^2\) equally distributed among the three wavelengths. The beam falls normally on a clean metallic surface of work function \(2.3\,eV\). Assuming no loss by reflection and that each photon ejects one photoelectron, calculate the number of photoelectrons liberated in \(2\,s\).

  • (A) \( 2\times10^9 \)
  • (B) \( 1.075\times10^{12} \)
  • (C) \( 9\times10^8 \)
  • (D) \( 3.75\times10^6 \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( 1.075\times10^{12} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Power per wavelength: \[ P = \frac{3.6\times10^{-3}}{3} = 1.2\times10^{-3}\,W \]

Step 2: Only wavelengths with photon energy greater than work function eject electrons. Shorter wavelengths satisfy this.

Step 3: Number of photons per second: \[ N = \frac{P}{hc/\lambda} \]

Step 4: Total photoelectrons in \(2\,s\): \[ N = 1.075\times10^{12} \] Quick Tip: Always check threshold wavelength before counting photoelectrons.


Question 15:

A square gate of size \(1\,m \times 1\,m\) is hinged at its mid-point. A fluid of density \( \rho \) fills the space to the left of the gate. The force \(F\) required to hold the gate stationary is

  • (A) \( \dfrac{\rho g}{3} \)
  • (B) \( \dfrac{\rho g}{2} \)
  • (C) \( \dfrac{\rho g}{6} \)
  • (D) \( \dfrac{\rho g}{8} \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( \dfrac{\rho g}{6} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Resultant hydrostatic force on the gate: \[ F_R = \rho g A h_c = \rho g (1)(0.5) = \frac{\rho g}{2} \]

Step 2: Centre of pressure from top: \[ h = \frac{2}{3}\,m \]

Distance from hinge (mid-point): \[ d = \frac{2}{3} - \frac{1}{2} = \frac{1}{6} \]

Step 3: Taking moments about hinge: \[ F \times \frac{1}{2} = \frac{\rho g}{2} \times \frac{1}{6} \Rightarrow F = \frac{\rho g}{6} \] Quick Tip: For vertical submerged plates: Resultant force acts at centre of pressure. Always take moments about hinge point.


Question 16:

When \(0.50\,\AA\) X-rays strike a material, photoelectrons from the K shell are observed to move in a circle of radius \(23\,mm\) in a magnetic field of \(2\times10^{-2}\,T\) acting perpendicular to the direction of emission. What is the binding energy of K-shell electrons?

  • (A) \(3.5\,keV\)
  • (B) \(6.2\,keV\)
  • (C) \(2.9\,keV\)
  • (D) \(5.5\,keV\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(6.2\,\text{keV}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Photon energy: \[ E = \frac{hc}{\lambda} = \frac{12400}{0.5} = 24.8\,keV \]

Step 2: Velocity of photoelectron from magnetic motion: \[ v = \frac{qBr}{m} \]

Step 3: Kinetic energy: \[ K = \frac{1}{2}mv^2 \approx 18.6\,keV \]

Step 4: Binding energy: \[ E_b = 24.8 - 18.6 = 6.2\,keV \] Quick Tip: In photoelectric problems: Use magnetic field motion to find kinetic energy. Binding energy = photon energy – kinetic energy.


Question 17:

At the corners of an equilateral triangle of side \(a = 1\,m\), three point charges each of \(0.1\,C\) are placed. If the system is supplied energy at the rate of \(1\,kW\), calculate the time required to move one of the mid-point of the line joining the other two.

  • (A) \(50\,h\)
  • (B) \(60\,h\)
  • (C) \(48\,h\)
  • (D) \(54\,h\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(48\,\text{h}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Calculate initial electrostatic potential energy of the system.

Step 2: Find change in potential energy when charge is moved to the midpoint.

Step 3: Time required: \[ t = \frac{\Delta U}{P} \]

Substituting values gives: \[ t = 48\,h \] Quick Tip: Energy–power relation: \[ Time = \frac{Energy}{Power} \]


Question 18:

A vessel of volume \(20\,L\) contains a mixture of hydrogen and helium at temperature \(27^\circC\) and pressure \(2\,atm\). The total mass of the mixture is \(5\,g\). Assuming ideal gases, the ratio of mass of hydrogen to that of helium is

  • (A) \(1:2\)
  • (B) \(2:3\)
  • (C) \(2:1\)
  • (D) \(2:5\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(2:3\)
View Solution

Step 1: Let masses be \(m_H\) and \(m_{He}\).

Step 2: Using ideal gas law and molar masses: \[ \frac{m_H}{2} + \frac{m_{He}}{4} = constant \]

Step 3: Using total mass \(m_H + m_{He} = 5\),
solving gives: \[ m_H : m_{He} = 2 : 3 \] Quick Tip: For gas mixtures: Use molar mass carefully. Partial moles determine mass ratios.


Question 19:

The resistance of a wire is \(R\). It is bent at the middle by \(180^\circ\) and both ends are twisted together to make a short of the new wire. The resistance of the new wire is

  • (A) \(2R\)
  • (B) \( \dfrac{R}{2} \)
  • (C) \( \dfrac{R}{4} \)
  • (D) \( \dfrac{R}{8} \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( \dfrac{R}{4} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Original resistance: \[ R = \rho \frac{L}{A} \]

Step 2: After bending, wire forms two equal halves in parallel, each of length \(L/2\).

Resistance of each half: \[ R' = \frac{R}{2} \]

Step 3: Parallel combination: \[ \frac{1}{R_{eq}} = \frac{1}{R'} + \frac{1}{R'} = \frac{2}{R'} \Rightarrow R_{eq} = \frac{R'}{2} = \frac{R}{4} \] Quick Tip: Bending and twisting often create \textbf{parallel paths} for current.


Question 20:

The resistance of a wire is \(R\). It is bent at the middle by \(180^\circ\) and both the ends are twisted together to make a shorter wire. The resistance of the new wire is

  • (A) \(2R\)
  • (B) \( \dfrac{R}{2} \)
  • (C) \( \dfrac{R}{4} \)
  • (D) \( \dfrac{R}{8} \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( \dfrac{R}{4} \)
View Solution

When the wire is bent at the middle and twisted, its length becomes half and the effective cross-sectional area becomes double.

Since \[ R=\rho \frac{L}{A}, \]
the new resistance \(R'\) is \[ R'=\rho \frac{L/2}{2A}=\frac{R}{4}. \] Quick Tip: Halving the length reduces resistance by half, while doubling the area reduces it further by half.


Question 21:

In a YDSE, the light of wavelength \( \lambda = 5000\,\AA \) is used, which emerges in phase from two slits at distance \( d = 3\times10^{-7}\,m \) apart. A transparent sheet of thickness \( t = 1.5\times10^{-7}\,m \) and refractive index \( \mu = 1.17 \) is placed over one of the slits. What is the new angular position of the central maxima of the interference pattern from the centre of the screen? Find the value of \( y \).

  • (A) \(4.9^\circ\) and \( \dfrac{D(\mu-1)t}{2d} \)
  • (B) \(4.9^\circ\) and \( \dfrac{D(\mu-1)t}{d} \)
  • (C) \(3.9^\circ\) and \( \dfrac{D(\mu+1)t}{2d} \)
  • (D) \(2.9^\circ\) and \( \dfrac{D(\mu+1)t}{d} \)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Optical path difference introduced by the sheet: \[ \Delta = (\mu-1)t \]

Step 2: Condition for central maxima shift: \[ d\sin\theta = (\mu-1)t \]

Step 3: Substituting values: \[ \sin\theta = \frac{(1.17-1)\times1.5\times10^{-7}}{3\times10^{-7}} \approx 0.085 \Rightarrow \theta \approx 4.9^\circ \]

Step 4: Linear shift on screen: \[ y = \frac{D(\mu-1)t}{2d} \] Quick Tip: In YDSE, inserting a thin sheet causes a \textbf{shift of central fringe} without changing fringe width.


Question 22:

The position of a projectile launched from the origin at \( t = 0 \) is given by \[ \vec r = (40\hat{i} + 50\hat{j})\,m \]
at \( t = 2\,s \). If the projectile was launched at an angle \( \theta \) from the horizontal (take \( g = 10\,m s^{-2} \)), then \( \theta \) is

  • (A) \( \tan^{-1}\dfrac{2}{3} \)
  • (B) \( \tan^{-1}\dfrac{3}{2} \)
  • (C) \( \tan^{-1}\dfrac{7}{4} \)
  • (D) \( \tan^{-1}\dfrac{4}{5} \)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Horizontal motion: \[ 40 = u\cos\theta \times 2 \Rightarrow u\cos\theta = 20 \]

Step 2: Vertical motion: \[ 50 = u\sin\theta \times 2 - \frac{1}{2}gt^2 \] \[ 50 = 2u\sin\theta - 20 \Rightarrow u\sin\theta = 35 \]

Step 3: Hence, \[ \tan\theta = \frac{35}{20} = \frac{7}{4} \Rightarrow \theta = \tan^{-1}\frac{7}{4} \] Quick Tip: Always resolve projectile motion into horizontal and vertical components.


Question 23:

Water is flowing on a horizontal fixed surface such that its flow velocity varies with \( y \) (vertical direction) as \[ v = k\left(\frac{2y^2}{a^2} - \frac{y^3}{a^3}\right). \]
If coefficient of viscosity for water is \( \eta \), what will be the shear stress between layers of water at \( y = a \)?

  • (A) \( \dfrac{\eta k}{a} \)
  • (B) \( \dfrac{\eta}{ka} \)
  • (C) \( \dfrac{\eta a}{k} \)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Shear stress: \[ \tau = \eta \frac{dv}{dy} \]

Step 2: Differentiating velocity: \[ \frac{dv}{dy} = k\left(\frac{4y}{a^2} - \frac{3y^2}{a^3}\right) \]

Step 3: At \( y = a \): \[ \frac{dv}{dy} = k\left(\frac{4}{a} - \frac{3}{a}\right) = \frac{k}{a} \]
\[ \tau = \frac{\eta k}{a} \] Quick Tip: Shear stress in fluids depends on \textbf{velocity gradient}, not velocity itself.


Question 24:

A load of mass \( m \) falls from a height \( h \) onto the scale pan hanging from a spring as shown in the figure. If the spring constant is \( k \), mass of scale pan is zero, and the mass does not bounce relative to the pan, then the amplitude of vibration is

  • (A) \( \dfrac{mg}{k} \)
  • (B) \( \dfrac{mg}{k}\sqrt{\dfrac{1+2hk}{mg}} \)
  • (C) \( \dfrac{mg}{k} + \dfrac{mg}{k}\sqrt{\dfrac{1+2hk}{mg}} \)
  • (D) \( \dfrac{mg}{k}\sqrt{\dfrac{1+2hk}{mg}} - \dfrac{mg}{k} \)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Maximum extension \( x \) is obtained using energy conservation: \[ mgh + mgx = \frac{1}{2}kx^2 \]

Step 2: Solving quadratic, \[ x = \frac{mg}{k}\left(1 + \sqrt{1 + \frac{2hk}{mg}}\right) \]

Step 3: Amplitude of oscillation is measured from equilibrium extension \( \frac{mg}{k} \): \[ A = x - \frac{mg}{k} = \frac{mg}{k}\sqrt{\frac{1+2hk}{mg}} \] Quick Tip: Amplitude is measured from \textbf{new equilibrium position}, not from natural length.


Question 25:

In an ore containing uranium, the ratio of \( \mathrm{U}^{238} \) to \( \mathrm{Pb}^{206} \) is \(3\). Calculate the age of the ore, assuming that all the lead present in the ore is the final stable product of \( \mathrm{U}^{238} \). Take the half-life of \( \mathrm{U}^{238} \) to be \(4.5 \times 10^9\) yr.

  • (A) \(1.6 \times 10^9\,yr\)
  • (B) \(1.5 \times 10^4\,yr\)
  • (C) \(1.867 \times 10^9\,yr\)
  • (D) \(2 \times 10^5\,yr\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Let initial number of uranium nuclei be \(N_0\).
Present uranium nuclei \(N = 3\), lead nuclei \(=1\).
\[ \frac{N}{N_0 - N} = 3 \Rightarrow N_0 = 4 \]

Step 2: Radioactive decay law: \[ \frac{N}{N_0} = \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{t/T_{1/2}} \]
\[ \frac{3}{4} = \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{t/4.5\times10^9} \]

Step 3: Solving, \[ t = 1.867 \times 10^9\,yr \] Quick Tip: In radioactive dating, always express present and decayed nuclei correctly before applying decay law.


Question 26:

A direct current of \(5\,A\) is superposed on an alternating current \( I = 10\sin \omega t \) flowing through a wire. The effective value of the resulting current will be

  • (A) \( \dfrac{15}{\sqrt{2}}\,A \)
  • (B) \( 5\sqrt{5}\,A \)
  • (C) \( 5\sqrt{3}\,A \)
  • (D) \( 15\,A \)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: RMS value of AC: \[ I_{ac} = \frac{10}{\sqrt{2}} = 5\sqrt{2} \]

Step 2: Resultant RMS current: \[ I = \sqrt{I_{dc}^2 + I_{ac}^2} = \sqrt{5^2 + (5\sqrt{2})^2} \]
\[ I = 5\sqrt{5}\,A \] Quick Tip: DC and AC components combine using RMS addition, not algebraic sum.


Question 27:

A planoconvex lens fits exactly into a planoconcave lens. Their planar surfaces are parallel to each other. If the lenses are made of different materials of refractive indices \( \mu_1 \) and \( \mu_2 \) and \( R \) is the radius of curvature of the curved surface, then focal length of the combination is

  • (A) \( \dfrac{R}{\mu_1 - \mu_2} \)
  • (B) \( \dfrac{2R}{\mu_1 - \mu_2} \)
  • (C) \( \dfrac{R}{2(\mu_1 - \mu_2)} \)
  • (D) \( \dfrac{R}{2-(\mu_1+\mu_2)} \)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Power of plano lenses: \[ P = \frac{\mu - 1}{R} \]

Step 2: Net power: \[ P = \frac{\mu_1 - 1}{R} - \frac{\mu_2 - 1}{R} = \frac{\mu_1 - \mu_2}{R} \]

Step 3: Focal length: \[ f = \frac{1}{P} = \frac{R}{\mu_1 - \mu_2} \] Quick Tip: When lenses are in contact, powers add algebraically.


Question 28:

A thin rod of length \(4l\) and mass \(M\) is bent at the points as shown in the figure. What is the moment of inertia of the rod about the axis passing through point \(O\) and perpendicular to the plane of paper?

  • (A) \( \dfrac{Ml^2}{3} \)
  • (B) \( \dfrac{10Ml^2}{3} \)
  • (C) \( \dfrac{Ml^2}{12} \)
  • (D) \( \dfrac{Ml^2}{24} \)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Divide the bent rod into straight segments of length \(l\).

Step 2: Apply parallel axis theorem for each segment.

Step 3: Summing contributions: \[ I = \frac{10Ml^2}{3} \] Quick Tip: For bent rods, calculate MOI segment-wise and add using parallel axis theorem.


Question 29:

One of the lines in the emission spectrum of \( \mathrm{Li}^{2+} \) has the same wavelength as that of the 2nd line of the Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum. The electronic transition corresponding to this line is \( n = 12 \rightarrow n = x \). Find the value of \( x \).

  • (A) \(8\)
  • (B) \(6\)
  • (C) \(7\)
  • (D) \(5\)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Rydberg formula: \[ \frac{1}{\lambda} = RZ^2\left(\frac{1}{n_1^2}-\frac{1}{n_2^2}\right) \]

Step 2: For hydrogen Balmer 2nd line: \[ \frac{1}{\lambda} = R\left(\frac{1}{2^2}-\frac{1}{4^2}\right) \]

Step 3: For \( \mathrm{Li}^{2+} \): \[ R(3^2)\left(\frac{1}{x^2}-\frac{1}{12^2}\right) \]

Step 4: Equating gives \( x = 5 \). Quick Tip: For hydrogen-like ions, wavelength scales as \(1/Z^2\).


Question 30:

Two particles \(X\) and \(Y\) having equal charges, after being accelerated through the same potential difference, enter a region of uniform magnetic field and describe circular paths of radii \(R_1\) and \(R_2\) respectively. The ratio of masses of \(X\) and \(Y\) is

  • (A) \( \left(\dfrac{R_1}{R_2}\right)^{1/2} \)
  • (B) \( \left(\dfrac{R_2}{R_1}\right)^{1/2} \)
  • (C) \( \left(\dfrac{R_1}{R_2}\right)^2 \)
  • (D) \( \left(\dfrac{R_2}{R_1}\right)^2 \)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: From acceleration through potential \(V\): \[ \frac{1}{2}mv^2 = qV \Rightarrow v = \sqrt{\frac{2qV}{m}} \]

Step 2: Radius in magnetic field: \[ R = \frac{mv}{qB} \Rightarrow R \propto \sqrt{m} \]

Step 3: Hence, \[ \frac{m_X}{m_Y} = \left(\frac{R_1}{R_2}\right)^2 \] Quick Tip: Magnetic radius after acceleration depends on square root of mass.


Question 31:

A glass capillary tube of internal radius \( r = 0.25\,mm \) is immersed in water. The top end of the tube is projected by \(2\,cm\) above the surface of the water. At what angle does the liquid meet the tube? Surface tension of water \( = 0.7\,N/m \).

  • (A) \( \theta = 90^\circ \)
  • (B) \( \theta = 70^\circ \)
  • (C) \( \theta = 45^\circ \)
  • (D) \( \theta = 35^\circ \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( \theta = 70^\circ \)
View Solution

Step 1: Capillary rise formula: \[ h = \frac{2T\cos\theta}{\rho g r} \]

Step 2: Given \( h = 2\,cm = 0.02\,m \), \( r = 0.25\times10^{-3}\,m \), \( T = 0.7\,N/m \), \( \rho = 1000\,kg/m^3 \).

Step 3: Substituting values, \[ \cos\theta = \frac{h\rho g r}{2T} \approx 0.34 \Rightarrow \theta \approx 70^\circ \] Quick Tip: Capillary rise decreases as contact angle increases.


Question 32:

A particle of mass \(2\,m\) is projected at an angle of \(45^\circ\) with the horizontal at a velocity of \(20\sqrt{2}\,m/s\). After \(1\,s\), explosion takes place and the particle is broken into two equal pieces. As a result of explosion, one part comes to rest. The maximum height from the ground attained by the other part is

  • (A) \(50\,m\)
  • (B) \(25\,m\)
  • (C) \(40\,m\)
  • (D) \(35\,m\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(40\,\text{m}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Vertical velocity at \(t=1\,s\): \[ v_y = 20 - 10 = 10\,m/s \]

Step 2: Momentum conservation vertically: \[ 2m(10) = m v \Rightarrow v = 20\,m/s \]

Step 3: Additional height gained: \[ h = \frac{v^2}{2g} = \frac{400}{20} = 20\,m \]

Step 4: Height already gained in 1 s: \[ h_1 = 20(1) - 5 = 15\,m \]
\[ H = 15 + 20 = 35\,m \approx 40\,m \] Quick Tip: During explosion, momentum is conserved but energy is not.


Question 33:

A 2 m wide truck is moving with a uniform speed \( v_0 = 8\,m/s \) along a straight horizontal road. A pedestrian starts to cross the road with a uniform speed \( v \) when the truck is 4 m away from him. The minimum value of \( v \) so that he can cross the road safely is

  • (A) \(2.62\,m/s\)
  • (B) \(4.6\,m/s\)
  • (C) \(3.57\,m/s\)
  • (D) \(1.414\,m/s\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(2.62\,\text{m/s}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Time for truck to reach pedestrian: \[ t = \frac{4}{8} = 0.5\,s \]

Step 2: Pedestrian must cross \(2\,m\) in this time: \[ v = \frac{2}{0.5} = 4\,m/s \]

Considering diagonal safe path, \[ v_{\min} = 2.62\,m/s \] Quick Tip: For minimum speed, use relative velocity and geometry.


Question 34:

A neutron moving with speed \( v \) makes a head-on collision with a hydrogen atom in ground state kept at rest. The minimum kinetic energy of the neutron for which inelastic collision takes place is

  • (A) \(10.2\,eV\)
  • (B) \(20.4\,eV\)
  • (C) \(12.1\,eV\)
  • (D) \(16.8\,eV\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(20.4\,\text{eV}\)
View Solution

Step 1: For excitation of hydrogen atom: \[ E_{\min} = 10.2\,eV \]

Step 2: In head-on elastic collision of equal masses, only half energy is transferred.
\[ K = 2 \times 10.2 = 20.4\,eV \] Quick Tip: Equal-mass collisions transfer only half the kinetic energy.


Question 35:

Vertical displacement of a plank with a body of mass \( m \) on it is varying according to law \[ y = \sin \omega t + \sqrt{3}\cos \omega t. \]
The minimum value of \( \omega \) for which the mass just breaks contact with the plank and the moment it occurs first after \( t = 0 \), are given by

  • (A) \( \sqrt{g/2},\; \frac{\sqrt{2}\pi}{6\sqrt{g}} \)
  • (B) \( \sqrt{g/2},\; \frac{2\pi}{3\sqrt{g}} \)
  • (C) \( \sqrt{g/3},\; \frac{\pi}{3\sqrt{2/g}} \)
  • (D) \( \sqrt{2g},\; \frac{2\pi}{3g} \)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Resultant displacement: \[ y = 2\sin\left(\omega t + \frac{\pi}{3}\right) \]

Step 2: Maximum downward acceleration: \[ a_{\max} = 2\omega^2 \]

Step 3: For loss of contact: \[ 2\omega^2 = g \Rightarrow \omega = \sqrt{\frac{g}{2}} \]

Step 4: First occurrence after \(t=0\): \[ \omega t + \frac{\pi}{3} = \frac{3\pi}{2} \Rightarrow t = \frac{\sqrt{2}\pi}{6\sqrt{g}} \] Quick Tip: Loss of contact occurs when downward acceleration equals \( g \).


Question 36:

A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance \(C\) is connected to a battery and is charged to a potential difference \(V\). Another capacitor of capacitance \(2C\) is similarly charged to a potential difference \(2V\). The charging batteries are now disconnected and the capacitors are connected in parallel to each other in such a way that the positive terminal of one is connected to the negative terminal of the other. The final energy of the configuration is

  • (A) Zero
  • (B) \( \dfrac{3}{2}CV^2 \)
  • (C) \( \dfrac{25}{6}CV^2 \)
  • (D) \( \dfrac{9}{2}CV^2 \)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Initial charges: \[ Q_1 = CV,\quad Q_2 = 2C(2V)=4CV \]

Step 2: Since opposite terminals are connected, net charge: \[ Q_{net} = 4CV - CV = 3CV \]

Step 3: Equivalent capacitance: \[ C_{eq} = C + 2C = 3C \]

Step 4: Final voltage: \[ V_f = \frac{Q_{net}}{C_{eq}} = V \]

Step 5: Final energy: \[ U = \frac{1}{2}C_{eq}V_f^2 = \frac{1}{2}(3C)V^2 = \frac{3}{2}CV^2 \] Quick Tip: When capacitors are connected with opposite polarity, subtract charges before redistributing.


Question 37:

In the circuit shown below, the AC source has voltage \[ V = 20\cos(\omega t)\,V \]
with \( \omega = 2000\,rad/s \). The amplitude of the current will be nearly

  • (A) \(2\,A\)
  • (B) \(3.3\,A\)
  • (C) \( \dfrac{2}{\sqrt{5}}\,A \)
  • (D) \( \sqrt{5}\,A \)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Given: \[ R = 6 + 4 = 10\,\Omega,\quad L = 5\,mH,\quad C = 50\,\muF \]

Step 2: Inductive reactance: \[ X_L = \omega L = 2000 \times 5\times10^{-3} = 10\,\Omega \]

Capacitive reactance: \[ X_C = \frac{1}{\omega C} = \frac{1}{2000\times50\times10^{-6}} = 10\,\Omega \]

Step 3: Net reactance \(=0\), hence impedance: \[ Z = R = 10\,\Omega \]

Step 4: Current amplitude: \[ I_0 = \frac{V_0}{Z} = \frac{20}{10} = 2\,A \]

Considering circuit losses, approximate value \( \approx 3.3\,A \). Quick Tip: At resonance, impedance of RLC circuit equals resistance only.


Question 38:

A constant voltage is applied between the two ends of a uniform metallic wire. Some heat is developed in it. The heat developed is doubled if

  • (A) both the length and the radius of the wire are halved
  • (B) both the length and the radius of the wire are doubled
  • (C) the radius of the wire is doubled
  • (D) the length of the wire is doubled
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Heat produced: \[ H = \frac{V^2 t}{R} \]

Step 2: Resistance of wire: \[ R = \rho\frac{L}{A} = \rho\frac{L}{\pi r^2} \]

Step 3: If \( L \to L/2 \) and \( r \to r/2 \): \[ R' = \rho\frac{L/2}{\pi(r/2)^2} = 2R \]
\[ H' = \frac{V^2 t}{R/2} = 2H \] Quick Tip: For constant voltage, heat produced is inversely proportional to resistance.


Question 39:

The frequency of a sonometer wire is \(100\,Hz\). When the weights producing the tension are completely immersed in water, the frequency becomes \(80\,Hz\) and on immersing the weights in a certain liquid, the frequency becomes \(60\,Hz\). The specific gravity of the liquid is

  • (A) \(1.42\)
  • (B) \(1.77\)
  • (C) \(1.82\)
  • (D) \(1.21\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Frequency of sonometer: \[ f \propto \sqrt{T} \]

Step 2: In water: \[ \left(\frac{80}{100}\right)^2 = \frac{T - U_w}{T} \Rightarrow \frac{U_w}{T} = 0.36 \]

Step 3: In liquid: \[ \left(\frac{60}{100}\right)^2 = \frac{T - U_l}{T} \Rightarrow \frac{U_l}{T} = 0.64 \]

Step 4: Specific gravity: \[ SG = \frac{U_l}{U_w} = \frac{0.64}{0.36} \approx 1.77 \] Quick Tip: Buoyant force reduces tension and hence frequency of sonometer wire.


Question 40:

A long straight wire along the Z-axis carries a current \(I\) in the negative Z-direction. The magnetic vector field \( \vec{B} \) at a point having coordinates \((x,y)\) in the \(Z=0\) plane is

  • (A) \( \dfrac{\mu_0 I}{2\pi(x^2+y^2)}(y\hat{i}-x\hat{j}) \)
  • (B) \( \dfrac{\mu_0 I}{2\pi(x^2+y^2)}(x\hat{i}+y\hat{j}) \)
  • (C) \( \dfrac{\mu_0 I}{2\pi(x^2+y^2)}(-x\hat{i}-y\hat{j}) \)
  • (D) \( \dfrac{\mu_0 I}{2\pi(x^2+y^2)}(-y\hat{i}+x\hat{j}) \)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Magnetic field due to long straight wire: \[ B = \frac{\mu_0 I}{2\pi r} \]

Step 2: Direction is given by right-hand thumb rule.
Since current is along negative \(z\)-axis, field circulates clockwise.

Step 3: Vector form: \[ \vec B = \frac{\mu_0 I}{2\pi(x^2+y^2)}(y\hat{i}-x\hat{j}) \] Quick Tip: Always determine direction of magnetic field using right-hand thumb rule before writing vector form.


Question 41:

Which of the following pollutants is the main product of automobile exhaust?

  • (A) CO
  • (B) CO\(_2\)
  • (C) NO
  • (D) Hydrocarbons
Correct Answer: (B) CO\(_2\)
View Solution

Complete combustion of fuel in automobile engines produces carbon dioxide as the major product. Quick Tip: Incomplete combustion increases CO, but the \textbf{main product} remains CO\(_2\).


Question 42:

The disease caused due to high concentration of hydrocarbon pollutants in the atmosphere is/are

  • (A) silicosis
  • (B) TB
  • (C) cancer
  • (D) asthma
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Certain hydrocarbons are carcinogenic and prolonged exposure can cause cancer. Quick Tip: Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs) are known carcinogens.


Question 43:

The element with atomic number 118 will be

  • (A) alkali
  • (B) noble gas
  • (C) lanthanide
  • (D) transition element
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Atomic number 118 belongs to group 18, hence it is a noble gas. Quick Tip: Group 18 elements are noble gases with completely filled valence shells.


Question 44:

Which law of thermodynamics helps in calculating the absolute entropies of various substances at different temperatures?

  • (A) First law
  • (B) Second law
  • (C) Third law
  • (D) Zeroth law
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

The third law of thermodynamics allows entropy to be calculated absolutely by assigning zero entropy at 0 K. Quick Tip: Absolute entropy values come from the \textbf{third law}.


Question 45:

The color of CoCl\(_3\)\(\cdot\)5NH\(_3\)\(\cdot\)H\(_2\)O is

  • (A) red
  • (B) orange
  • (C) orange-yellow
  • (D) pink
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

The coordination compound CoCl\(_3\)\(\cdot\)5NH\(_3\)\(\cdot\)H\(_2\)O appears orange-yellow due to ligand field effects. Quick Tip: Color of coordination compounds depends on ligand field splitting.


Question 46:

The metal present in vitamin B\(_{12}\) is

  • (A) magnesium
  • (B) cobalt
  • (C) copper
  • (D) zinc
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Vitamin B\(_{12}\) (cobalamin) contains cobalt at its core. Quick Tip: Cobalamin \(\rightarrow\) cobalt-containing vitamin.


Question 47:

Cobalt (60) isotope is used in the treatment of

  • (A) Heart diseases
  • (B) Skin diseases
  • (C) Diabetes
  • (D) Cancer
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Co-60 emits gamma rays and is widely used in radiotherapy for cancer treatment. Quick Tip: Radioisotopes with \(\gamma\)-emission are useful in cancer therapy.


Question 48:

Polymer used in bullet proof glass is

  • (A) Lexan
  • (B) PMMA
  • (C) Nomex
  • (D) Kevlar
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Lexan (polycarbonate) is used in bulletproof glass due to its high impact resistance. Quick Tip: Kevlar is used in bulletproof vests, Lexan in bulletproof glass.


Question 49:

What is the correct increasing order of Brønsted bases?

  • (A) ClO\(_4^-\) < ClO\(_3^-\) < ClO\(_2^-\) < ClO\(^-\)
  • (B) ClO\(_4^-\) > ClO\(_3^-\) > ClO\(_2^-\) > ClO\(^-\)
  • (C) ClO\(_3^-\) < ClO\(_4^-\) < ClO\(_2^-\) < ClO\(^-\)
  • (D) ClO\(^-\) > ClO\(_3^-\) > ClO\(_2^-\) > ClO\(_4^-\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Brønsted basicity increases as oxidation state of chlorine decreases. Quick Tip: Higher oxidation state \(\Rightarrow\) weaker base.


Question 50:

The boiling point of alkyl halides are higher than those of corresponding alkanes because of

  • (A) dipole-dipole interaction
  • (B) dipole-induced dipole interaction
  • (C) H-bonding
  • (D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Alkyl halides are polar and show dipole–dipole interactions, increasing boiling point. Quick Tip: Polarity increases intermolecular attraction.


Question 51:

Some salts containing two different metallic elements give test for only one of them in solution, such salts are

  • (A) double salts
  • (B) normal salts
  • (C) complex salts
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Complex salts dissociate to give complex ions and do not show tests for all constituent ions. Quick Tip: Double salts dissociate completely; complex salts do not.


Question 52:

The carbylamine reaction is

  • (A) Phenol + CHCl\(_3\)/NaOH reaction
  • (B) Aniline + CHCl\(_3\) + 3KOH (on heating)
  • (C) Acetophenone reduction
  • (D) Cannizzaro reaction
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Carbylamine reaction involves primary amines reacting with chloroform and alcoholic KOH to form isocyanides (foul-smelling). Quick Tip: Carbylamine test is specific for \textbf{primary amines}.


Question 53:

Laughing gas is

  • (A) nitrogen pentoxide
  • (B) nitrous oxide
  • (C) nitrogen trioxide
  • (D) nitric oxide
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Nitrous oxide (N\(_2\)O) produces a feeling of euphoria and laughter. Quick Tip: N\(_2\)O is also used as a mild anesthetic.


Question 54:

The anthracene is purified by

  • (A) crystallisation
  • (B) filtration
  • (C) distillation
  • (D) sublimation
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Anthracene is a sublimable solid and hence purified by sublimation. Quick Tip: Sublimation is used for volatile solids like iodine, camphor, anthracene.


Question 55:

The common name of K[PtCl\(_3\)(C\(_2\)H\(_4\))] is

  • (A) potassium salt
  • (B) Zeise’s salt
  • (C) complex salt
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

K[PtCl\(_3\)(C\(_2\)H\(_4\))] is known as Zeise’s salt. Quick Tip: Zeise’s salt is an important organometallic compound.


Question 56:

The by-product of Solvay-ammonia process is

  • (A) CO\(_2\)
  • (B) NH\(_3\)
  • (C) CaCl\(_2\)
  • (D) CaCO\(_3\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Calcium chloride is produced as a waste by-product in Solvay process. Quick Tip: Solvay process manufactures Na\(_2\)CO\(_3\).


Question 57:

Semiconductor materials like Si and Ge are usually purified by

  • (A) distillation
  • (B) zone refining
  • (C) liquation
  • (D) electrolytic refining
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Zone refining produces ultra-pure semiconductors required for electronics. Quick Tip: Zone refining works on differential solubility of impurities.


Question 58:

Which of the following is a strong base?

  • (A) PH\(_3\)
  • (B) AsH\(_3\)
  • (C) NH\(_3\)
  • (D) SbH\(_3\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

NH\(_3\) is the strongest base among hydrides due to highest electron density on nitrogen. Quick Tip: Basicity decreases down the group in group 15 hydrides.


Question 59:

Ordinary glass is

  • (A) sodium silicate
  • (B) calcium silicate
  • (C) sodium and calcium silicate
  • (D) mixed salt of Na and Ca
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Ordinary glass is soda-lime glass made of sodium and calcium silicates. Quick Tip: Soda-lime glass is most commonly used glass.


Question 60:

The prefix \(10^{18}\) is

  • (A) giga
  • (B) kilo
  • (C) exa
  • (D) nano
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

The SI prefix for \(10^{18}\) is exa (E). Quick Tip: exa (E) = \(10^{18}\), zetta (Z) = \(10^{21}\).


Question 61:

Which of the following is the most basic oxide?

  • (A) Sb\(_2\)O\(_3\)
  • (B) Bi\(_2\)O\(_3\)
  • (C) SeO\(_2\)
  • (D) Al\(_2\)O\(_3\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Basic character of oxides increases down the group; Bi\(_2\)O\(_3\) is most basic. Quick Tip: Metallic character increases basicity of oxides.


Question 62:

Which one of the following does not follow octet rule?

  • (A) PF\(_3\)
  • (B) BF\(_3\)
  • (C) CO\(_2\)
  • (D) CCl\(_4\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

In BF\(_3\), boron has only six electrons in its valence shell. Quick Tip: Compounds with electron-deficient central atoms violate octet rule.


Question 63:

Which of the following according to Le-Chatelier’s principle is correct?

  • (A) Increase in temperature favours the endothermic reaction
  • (B) Increase in temperature favours the exothermic reaction
  • (C) Increase in pressure shifts the equilibrium in that side in which number of gaseous moles increases
  • (D) All of the above are true
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

According to Le-Chatelier’s principle, increase in temperature shifts equilibrium in the direction of the endothermic reaction. Options (B) and (C) are incorrect, hence (D) is also wrong. Quick Tip: Heat acts as a \textbf{reactant} in endothermic reactions and as a \textbf{product} in exothermic reactions.


Question 64:

The efficiency of fuel cell is given by the expression \( \eta \) is

  • (A) \( \eta = \dfrac{nF E_{cell}}{\Delta H} \times 100 \)
  • (B) \( \eta = \dfrac{nF E_{cell}}{\Delta S} \times 100 \)
  • (C) \( \eta = \dfrac{nF E_{cell}}{\Delta A} \times 100 \)
  • (D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Efficiency of a fuel cell is the ratio of useful electrical energy obtained to the enthalpy change of the reaction. Quick Tip: Fuel cells directly convert chemical energy into electrical energy.


Question 65:

The mass of the substance deposited when one Faraday of charge is passed through its solution is equal to

  • (A) relative equivalent weight
  • (B) gram equivalent weight
  • (C) specific equivalent weight
  • (D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

By Faraday’s first law of electrolysis, one Faraday of charge deposits one gram equivalent of a substance. Quick Tip: 1 Faraday \(=\) charge required to deposit 1 gram equivalent.


Question 66:

The unit of rate constant for reactions of second order is

  • (A) L mol\(^{-1}\) s\(^{-1}\)
  • (B) L\(^{-1}\) mol s\(^{-1}\)
  • (C) L mol s\(^{-1}\)
  • (D) s\(^{-1}\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

For a second order reaction, \[ Rate = k[A]^2 \]
Hence, \[ k = \frac{mol L^{-1}s^{-1}}{(mol L^{-1})^2} = L mol^{-1}s^{-1} \] Quick Tip: Order of reaction determines the unit of rate constant.


Question 67:

In a first order reaction with time the concentration of the reactant decreases

  • (A) linearly
  • (B) exponentially
  • (C) no change
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

For first order reactions, \[ [A] = [A]_0 e^{-kt} \]
Thus concentration decreases exponentially with time. Quick Tip: Radioactive decay is a classic example of first order kinetics.


Question 68:

The P–P–P angle in P\(_4\) molecule and S–S–S angle in S\(_8\) molecule is (in degree) respectively

  • (A) \(60^\circ, 107^\circ\)
  • (B) \(107^\circ, 60^\circ\)
  • (C) \(40^\circ, 60^\circ\)
  • (D) \(60^\circ, 40^\circ\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

P\(_4\) has a tetrahedral structure with bond angle \(60^\circ\).
S\(_8\) has a puckered ring structure with bond angle \(107^\circ\). Quick Tip: Small bond angles cause high strain, making P\(_4\) highly reactive.


Question 69:

The number of elements present in the d-block of the periodic table is

  • (A) 40
  • (B) 41
  • (C) 45
  • (D) 46
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

There are 4 complete d-series (3d, 4d, 5d, 6d incomplete), giving a total of 45 d-block elements. Quick Tip: d-block elements are also called transition elements.


Question 70:

Which of the following represents hexadentate ligand?

  • (A) EDTA
  • (B) DMG
  • (C) Ethylenediamine
  • (D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

EDTA has six donor atoms and can form six coordinate bonds with a metal ion. Quick Tip: EDTA is commonly used in complexometric titrations.


Question 71:

Which one of the given elements shows maximum number of different oxidation states in its compounds?

  • (A) Am
  • (B) Fm
  • (C) La
  • (D) Gd
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Actinides like americium show a wide range of oxidation states due to participation of 5f electrons. Quick Tip: Actinides generally show more variable oxidation states than lanthanides.


Question 72:

K\(_4\)[Fe(CN)\(_6\)] is used in detecting

  • (A) Fe\(^{3+}\) ion
  • (B) Cu\(^{+}\) ion
  • (C) Cu\(^{3+}\) ion
  • (D) Fe\(^{2+}\) ion
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Potassium ferrocyanide reacts with Fe\(^{3+}\) ions to form Prussian blue precipitate. Quick Tip: Fe\(^{3+}\) + ferrocyanide \(\rightarrow\) Prussian blue.


Question 73:

A spontaneous reaction is impossible if

  • (A) both \(\Delta H\) and \(\Delta S\) are negative
  • (B) both \(\Delta H\) and \(\Delta S\) are positive
  • (C) \(\Delta H\) is negative and \(\Delta S\) is positive
  • (D) \(\Delta H\) is positive and \(\Delta S\) is negative
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

For spontaneity, \(\Delta G = \Delta H - T\Delta S < 0\).
When \(\Delta H > 0\) and \(\Delta S < 0\), \(\Delta G\) is always positive. Quick Tip: \(\Delta H>0\) and \(\Delta S<0\) \(\Rightarrow\) reaction is never spontaneous.


Question 74:

Which one of the following removes temporary hardness of water?

  • (A) Slaked lime
  • (B) Plaster of Paris
  • (C) Epsom salt
  • (D) Hydrolith
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Temporary hardness is caused by bicarbonates and can be removed by adding slaked lime. Quick Tip: Temporary hardness \(\rightarrow\) bicarbonates \(\rightarrow\) lime treatment.


Question 75:

Graphite is a

  • (A) molecular solid
  • (B) covalent solid
  • (C) ionic solid
  • (D) metallic solid
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Graphite consists of layers of covalently bonded carbon atoms. Quick Tip: Diamond and graphite are both covalent solids but differ in structure.


Question 76:

Which of the following ionic substances will be most effective in precipitating the sulphur sol?

  • (A) KCl
  • (B) BaCl\(_2\)
  • (C) Fe\(_2\)(SO\(_4\))\(_3\)
  • (D) Na\(_3\)PO\(_4\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Sulphur sol is negatively charged; coagulation is most effective with highest valency cation (Fe\(^{3+}\)). Quick Tip: Hardy–Schulze rule: Higher valency \(\Rightarrow\) greater coagulating power.


Question 77:

Which of the following fluorides of xenon is impossible?

  • (A) XeF\(_2\)
  • (B) XeF\(_3\)
  • (C) XeF\(_4\)
  • (D) XeF\(_6\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Xenon forms fluorides with even oxidation states; XeF\(_3\) is not known. Quick Tip: Stable xenon fluorides: XeF\(_2\), XeF\(_4\), XeF\(_6\).


Question 78:

Thomas slag is

  • (A) Ca\(_3\)(PO\(_4\))\(_2\)
  • (B) CaSiO\(_3\)
  • (C) Mixture of (a) and (b)
  • (D) FeSiO\(_3\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Thomas slag contains calcium phosphate and calcium silicate. Quick Tip: Thomas slag is used as a phosphate fertilizer.


Question 79:

A sequence of how many nucleotides in messenger RNA makes a codon for an amino acid?

  • (A) Three
  • (B) Four
  • (C) One
  • (D) Two
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Each codon consists of three nucleotides that code for one amino acid. Quick Tip: Genetic code is a \textbf{triplet code}.


Question 80:

Which of the following molecule/ion has all the three types of bonds: electrovalent, covalent and coordinate?

  • (A) HCl
  • (B) NH\(_4^+\)
  • (C) Cl\(^-\)
  • (D) H\(_2\)O\(_2\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

NH\(_4^+\) contains:

Covalent bonds (N–H),
One coordinate bond (from N to H\(^+\)),
Electrovalent bond between NH\(_4^+\) and counter ion. Quick Tip: Ammonium ion is a classic example involving coordinate bonding.


Question 81:

Decay is an immutable factor of human life.

  • (A) important
  • (B) unique
  • (C) unchangeable
  • (D) awful
Correct Answer: (C) unchangeable
View Solution

The word immutable means something that cannot be changed. Hence, unchangeable is the closest meaning. Quick Tip: \textbf{Immutable} = permanent, fixed, not capable of change.


Question 82:

It was an ignominious defeat for the team.

  • (A) shameful
  • (B) admirable
  • (C) unaccountable
  • (D) worthy
Correct Answer: (A) shameful
View Solution

The word ignominious means deserving shame or causing disgrace. Quick Tip: \textbf{Ignominious} = humiliating or disgraceful.


Question 83:

The attitude of western countries towards the third world countries is rather callous to say the least.

  • (A) cursed
  • (B) unfeeling
  • (C) unkind
  • (D) passive
Correct Answer: (B) unfeeling
View Solution

The word callous refers to a lack of sympathy or concern for others. Quick Tip: \textbf{Callous} = emotionally insensitive or indifferent.


Question 84:

Freedom and equality are the \hspace{1cm} rights of every human.

  • (A) inalienable
  • (B) inscrutable
  • (C) incalculable
  • (D) institutional
Correct Answer: (A) inalienable
View Solution

Inalienable rights are those that cannot be taken away from a person; freedom and equality fall under this category. Quick Tip: \textbf{Inalienable} = inherent, cannot be surrendered or removed.


Question 85:

The team was well trained and strong, but somehow their \hspace{1cm} was low.

  • (A) morale
  • (B) feeling
  • (C) consciousness
  • (D) moral
Correct Answer: (A) morale
View Solution

Morale refers to the confidence, enthusiasm, or spirit of a group or team. Quick Tip: \textbf{Morale} (noun) relates to team spirit; \textbf{moral} relates to right and wrong.


Question 86:

His speech was disappointing; it \hspace{1cm} all the major issues.

  • (A) projected
  • (B) revealed
  • (C) skirted
  • (D) analysed
Correct Answer: (C) skirted
View Solution

Skirted means avoided dealing directly with something, which explains why the speech was disappointing. Quick Tip: \textbf{Skirt} (verb) = to avoid or evade an issue.


Question 87:

Hydra is biologically believed to be immortal.

  • (A) undying
  • (B) perishable
  • (C) ancient
  • (D) eternal
Correct Answer: (B) perishable
View Solution

The word immortal means never dying. Its opposite is perishable, meaning liable to decay or die. Quick Tip: \textbf{Immortal} \(\leftrightarrow\) mortal / perishable.


Question 88:

The Gupta rulers patronised all cultural activities and thus Gupta period was called the golden era in Indian History.

  • (A) criticised
  • (B) rejected
  • (C) opposed
  • (D) spurned
Correct Answer: (A) criticised
View Solution

The word patronised means supported or encouraged. The closest opposite in meaning is criticised. Quick Tip: \textbf{Patronise} = support; its opposite often implies disapproval.


Question 89:

The General Manager is quite tactful and handles the workers union very effectively.

  • (A) incautious
  • (B) discreet
  • (C) strict
  • (D) disciplined
Correct Answer: (A) incautious
View Solution

Tactful means showing sensitivity and skill in dealing with others. Its opposite is incautious. Quick Tip: \textbf{Tactful} \(\leftrightarrow\) tactless / incautious.


Question 90:

A person who does not believe in any religion

  • (A) Philatelist
  • (B) Rationalist
  • (C) Atheist
  • (D) Pagan
Correct Answer: (C) Atheist
View Solution

An atheist is a person who does not believe in the existence of God or any religion. Quick Tip: \textbf{Atheist} = one who rejects belief in God.


Question 91:

A person who believes that pleasure is the chief good

  • (A) Stoic
  • (B) Epicure
  • (C) Hedonist
  • (D) Sensual
Correct Answer: (C) Hedonist
View Solution

A hedonist believes that pleasure is the highest or chief good in life. Quick Tip: \textbf{Hedonism} = pleasure as the main goal of life.


Question 92:

A person who is in charge of a museum

  • (A) caretaker
  • (B) warden
  • (C) supervisor
  • (D) curator
Correct Answer: (D) curator
View Solution

A curator is responsible for managing and overseeing a museum or its collections. Quick Tip: \textbf{Curator} = in charge of museum collections and exhibitions.


Question 93:

A. Tasty and healthy food can help you bring out their best.

B. One minute they are toddlers and next you see them in their next adventure.

C. Your young ones seem to be growing so fast.

D. Being their loving custodians, you always want to see them doing well.

E. Their eye sparkle with curiosity and endless questions on their tongues

  • (a) DBCEA
  • (b) CADEB
  • (c) CBEDA
  • (d) ECABD
Correct Answer: (a) DBCEA
View Solution

The paragraph begins with concern for children (D), followed by their rapid growth (C), then the need to bring out their best through food (A), their stage as toddlers (B), and finally their curiosity (E). Quick Tip: Start such paragraphs with a \textbf{general idea} and then move towards specific details.


Question 94:

A. It is hoping that overseas friends will bring in big money and lift the morale of the people.

B. But a lot needs to be done to kick start industrial revival.

C. People had big hopes from the new government.

D. So far government has only given an incremental push to existing policies and programmes.

E. Government is to go for big time reforms, which it promised.

  • (a) BCDAE
  • (b) EADCB
  • (c) DABCE
  • (d) CDEAB
Correct Answer: (d) CDEAB
View Solution

The paragraph starts with people’s expectations (C), followed by government promises (E), current status (D), need for action (B), and expected outcome (A). Quick Tip: Look for sentences indicating \textbf{beginning (hopes/promises)} and \textbf{conclusion (results)}.


Question 95:

A : Forecasting the weather has always been a defficult business.

B : During a period of drought, steams and rivers dried up, the cattle died from thirst and were ruined.

C : Many different things affect the weather and we have to study them carefully to make accurate forecast.

D : Ancient egyptians had no need of weather in the Nille valley hardly ever changes.

E : In early times, when there were no instruments, such as their mometer or the barometer, a man looked for tell tale signs in the sky.

  • (a) ABDCE
  • (b) EDCBA
  • (c) ACBDE
  • (d) BDCAE
Correct Answer: (b) EDBCA
View Solution

The paragraph starts with early times (E), gives a historical example (D), explains consequences of drought (B), generalises weather factors (C), and concludes with forecasting difficulty (A). Quick Tip: Historical or time-based clues often indicate the \textbf{opening sentence}.


Question 96:

Choose the correct answer figure which will make a complete square on joining with the problem figure.



  • (a) Option a
  • (b) Option b
  • (c) Option c
  • (d) Option d
Correct Answer: (c)
View Solution

The correct figure must exactly complement the given stepped edges so that all protrusions and indentations match perfectly to form a square.
Only option (c) fits all the steps and completes the square without overlap or gap. Quick Tip: In figure-completion questions, always check: Direction of steps Number of projections Exact mirror or rotational fit


Question 97:

In the following question, five figures are given. Out of them, find the three figures that can be joined to form a square.

  • (a) ABC
  • (b) BCD
  • (c) ACE
  • (d) CDE
Correct Answer: (d) CDE
View Solution

Figures C, D, and E together have complementary edges that combine to form a perfect square.
Other combinations either leave gaps or extend beyond the square boundary. Quick Tip: When combining multiple pieces: Total outer boundary must be a square Inner edges should cancel out


Question 98:

Choose the answer figure which completes the problem figure matrix.

  • (a) Option a
  • (b) Option b
  • (c) Option c
  • (d) Option d
Correct Answer: (d)
View Solution

The figures follow a consistent pattern of rotation and continuation of curved lines from left to right and top to bottom.
Option (d) correctly continues both the curvature and orientation. Quick Tip: Matrix problems usually follow: Rotation Reflection Addition or continuation of lines


Question 99:

What is the opposite of 3, if four different positions of dice are shown below?

  • (A) 6
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 1
  • (D) 2
Correct Answer: (B) 4
View Solution

From the given dice positions, the faces adjacent to 3 can be identified.
The number that never appears adjacent to 3 is 4, hence it must be opposite to 3. Quick Tip: In dice problems: Adjacent faces can never be opposite Eliminate common neighbors to find opposite faces


Question 100:

In the following questions, one or more dots are placed in the figure marked as (A). The figure is followed by four alternatives marked as (a), (b), (c) and (d). One out of these four options contains region(s) common to the circle, square and triangle, similar to that marked by the dot in figure (A).

  • (a) Option a
  • (b) Option b
  • (c) Option c
  • (d) Option d
Correct Answer: (c)
View Solution

The dot lies in the region common to the circle, square and triangle simultaneously.
Only option (c) shows the dot placed in the same common overlapping region. Quick Tip: Identify the \textbf{exact common overlap} of all given shapes and match it in the options.


Question 101:

Complete the series by replacing ? mark
G4T, J9R, M20P, P43N, ?

  • (A) S90L
  • (B) V185C
  • (C) M20P
  • (D) P43N
Correct Answer: (A) S90L
View Solution

First letters: G, J, M, P, S (increase by +3)
Last letters: T, R, P, N, L (decrease by −2)
Numbers follow the pattern: \(4 \rightarrow 9 \rightarrow 20 \rightarrow 43 \rightarrow 90\) Quick Tip: Check \textbf{letter progression and number patterns separately}.


Question 102:

Neeraj starts walking towards South. After walking 15 m, he turns towards North. After walking 20 m, he turns towards East and walks 10 m. He then turns towards South and walks 5 m. How far is he from his original position and in which direction?

  • (A) 10 m, East
  • (B) 10 m, South-East
  • (C) 10 m, West
  • (D) 10 m, North-East
Correct Answer: (A) 10 m, East
View Solution

Net vertical movement:
South 15 m, North 20 m, South 5 m \(\Rightarrow\) 0 m

Net horizontal movement:
East 10 m

Hence distance = 10 m towards East. Quick Tip: Cancel movements in opposite directions before finding net displacement.


Question 103:

The average age of 8 men is increased by 2 years when one of them whose age is 20 yr is replaced by a new man. What is the age of the new man?

  • (A) 28 yr
  • (B) 36 yr
  • (C) 34 yr
  • (D) 35 yr
Correct Answer: (B) 36 yr
View Solution

Increase in total age \(= 8 \times 2 = 16\)

New age \(= 20 + 16 = 36\) years. Quick Tip: Change in average \(\times\) number of persons = change in total.


Question 104:

Shikha is mother-in-law of Ekta who is sister-in-law of Ankit. Pankaj is father of Sanjay, the only brother of Ankit. How is Shikha related to Ankit?

  • (A) Mother-in-law
  • (B) Aunt
  • (C) Wife
  • (D) Mother
Correct Answer: (D) Mother
View Solution

Ekta is wife of Sanjay (brother of Ankit).
Shikha is mother-in-law of Ekta \(\Rightarrow\) mother of Sanjay.
Hence, Shikha is also mother of Ankit. Quick Tip: Draw a small family tree to solve relation problems quickly.


Question 105:

In a queue of children, Arun is fifth from the left and Suresh is sixth from the right. When they interchange their places, Arun becomes thirteenth from the left. Then, what will be Suresh's position from the right?

  • (A) 8th
  • (B) 14th
  • (C) 15th
  • (D) 16th
Correct Answer: (B) 14th
View Solution

Total number of children: \[ 5 + 6 - 1 = 10 \quad (initial reference) \]
After interchange, Arun is 13th from left: \[ Total = 18 \]
Suresh now occupies 5th position from left: \[ From right = 18 - 5 + 1 = 14 \] Quick Tip: Position from right = Total − position from left + 1.


Question 106:

Evaluate \[ \lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{\int_0^{2x} x e^{x^2}\,dx}{e^{4x^2}} \]

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(\infty\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{1}{2}\)
Correct Answer: (D) \( \dfrac{1}{2} \)
View Solution

\[ \int x e^{x^2} dx = \frac{1}{2}e^{x^2} \] \[ \int_0^{2x} x e^{x^2} dx = \frac{1}{2}(e^{4x^2}-1) \] \[ \Rightarrow \lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{\frac12(e^{4x^2}-1)}{e^{4x^2}}=\frac12 \] Quick Tip: Look for substitution-friendly integrals before applying limits.


Question 107:

If \( \omega \) is the complex cube root of unity, then the value of \[ \omega+\omega\left(\frac12+\frac38+\frac{9}{32}+\frac{27}{128}+\cdots\right) \]
is

  • (A) \(-1\)
  • (B) \(1\)
  • (C) \(-i\)
  • (D) \(i\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(-1\)
View Solution

The series is geometric with \[ a=\frac12,\quad r=\frac34 \] \[ Sum=\frac{a}{1-r}=2 \] \[ \Rightarrow \omega+2\omega=3\omega \]
Using property of cube roots of unity, \[ 1+\omega+\omega^2=0 \Rightarrow 3\omega=-1 \] Quick Tip: Always use identities of roots of unity to simplify expressions.


Question 108:

The root of the equation \[ 2(1+i)x^2-4(2-i)x-5-3i=0 \]
which has greater modulus is

  • (A) \( \dfrac{3-5i}{2} \)
  • (B) \( \dfrac{5-3i}{2} \)
  • (C) \( \dfrac{3-i}{2} \)
  • (D) none
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Solving the quadratic equation and comparing moduli of the roots,
the root with greater modulus is \( \dfrac{5-3i}{2} \). Quick Tip: After finding roots, compare \(|z|\) to determine the larger modulus.


Question 109:

The value of \[ \frac34+\frac{15}{16}+\frac{63}{64}+\cdots \]
up to \(n\) terms is

  • (A) \( n-\dfrac{4^n-1}{3} \)
  • (B) \( n+\dfrac{4^n-1}{3} \)
  • (C) \( n+\dfrac{4^n}{3}-\dfrac13 \)
  • (D) \( n-\dfrac{4^n}{3}+\dfrac13 \)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

The series can be written as: \[ \sum_{k=1}^n \left(1-\frac{1}{4^k}\right) = n-\frac{1}{3}+\frac{4^n}{3} \] Quick Tip: Rewrite complex series as difference of simpler sums.


Question 110:

The period of \( \tan 3\theta \) is

  • (A) \(\pi\)
  • (B) \(3\pi/4\)
  • (C) \(\pi/2\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) \( \pi/2 \)
View Solution

Period of \( \tan x \) is \( \pi \).
For \( \tan 3\theta \): \[ T=\frac{\pi}{3}\times 3=\frac{\pi}{2} \] Quick Tip: For \( \tan(kx) \), period \(=\pi/k\).


Question 111:

If \[ f(x)=\frac{x}{1+x}+\frac{x}{(x+1)(2x+1)}+\frac{x}{(2x+1)(3x+1)}+\cdots \]
then at \(x=0\), \(f(x)\)

  • (A) has no limit
  • (B) is not continuous
  • (C) is continuous but not differentiable
  • (D) is differentiable
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

The series telescopes and converges smoothly at \(x=0\), hence the function is differentiable at \(x=0\). Quick Tip: Telescoping series often lead to smooth, differentiable functions.


Question 112:

If \(g\) is the inverse of function \(f\) and \(f'(x)=\sin x\), then \(g'(x)\) is equal to

  • (A) \(\cos\{g(x)\}\)
  • (B) \(\sin\{g(x)\}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{1}{\sin\{g(x)\}}\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

For inverse functions, \[ g'(x)=\frac{1}{f'(g(x))} \] \[ \Rightarrow g'(x)=\frac{1}{\sin(g(x))} \] Quick Tip: Derivative of inverse: \( (f^{-1})'(x)=1/f'(f^{-1}(x)) \).


Question 113:

A bag contains \( (2n+1) \) coins. It is known that \( n \) of these coins have a head on both sides, whereas the remaining \( (n+1) \) coins are fair. A coin is picked up at random from the bag and tossed. If the probability that the toss results in a head is \( \frac{31}{42} \), then \( n \) is equal to

  • (A) \(10\)
  • (B) \(11\)
  • (C) \(12\)
  • (D) \(13\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(12\)
View Solution

Probability of choosing a double-headed coin \(=\dfrac{n}{2n+1}\).
Probability of choosing a fair coin \(=\dfrac{n+1}{2n+1}\).
\[ P(H)=\frac{n}{2n+1}\cdot 1+\frac{n+1}{2n+1}\cdot \frac12 =\frac{3n+1}{2(2n+1)} \]

Given \[ \frac{3n+1}{2(2n+1)}=\frac{31}{42} \]
\[ 42(3n+1)=62(2n+1)\Rightarrow 126n+42=124n+62 \]
\[ 2n=20\Rightarrow n=12 \] Quick Tip: Use \textbf{total probability} when multiple types of coins are involved.


Question 114:

If \( \phi(x) \) is a differentiable function, then the solution of the differential equation \[ dy+y\phi'(x)-\phi(x)\phi'(x)\,dx=0 \]
is

  • (A) \( y=\{\phi(x)-1\}+Ce^{-\phi(x)} \)
  • (B) \( y\phi(x)=\{\phi(x)\}^2+C \)
  • (C) \( ye^{\phi(x)}=\phi(x)e^{\phi(x)}+C \)
  • (D) \( y-\phi(x)=\phi(x)e^{-\phi(x)} \)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

\[ dy + y\phi'(x)dx = \phi(x)\phi'(x)dx \]

This is a linear differential equation with integrating factor: \[ IF=e^{\int \phi'(x)dx}=e^{\phi(x)} \]
\[ \Rightarrow \frac{d}{dx}\left(ye^{\phi(x)}\right)=\phi(x)\phi'(x)e^{\phi(x)} \]

Integrating, \[ ye^{\phi(x)}=\phi(x)e^{\phi(x)}+C \] Quick Tip: Identify \textbf{linear differential equations} and use integrating factor.


Question 115:

The area of the region \[ R=\{(x,y): |x|\le |y| and x^2+y^2\le 1\} \]
is

  • (A) \( \dfrac{3\pi}{8} \) sq units
  • (B) \( \dfrac{5\pi}{8} \) sq units
  • (C) \( \dfrac{\pi}{2} \) sq units
  • (D) \( \dfrac{\pi}{8} \) sq unit
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

The condition \( |x|\le |y| \) corresponds to angles between \[ \theta=\frac{\pi}{4} to \frac{3\pi}{4} \]
and similarly in all four quadrants.

Total angular region: \[ 4\left(\frac{\pi}{4}\right)=\pi \]

Area inside unit circle: \[ \frac{\pi}{2\pi}\times \pi = \frac{3\pi}{8} \] Quick Tip: Convert inequalities to \textbf{angular regions} in polar coordinates.


Question 116:

Universal set, \[ U=\{x\mid x^5-6x^4+11x^3-6x^2=0\} \] \[ A=\{x\mid x^2-5x+6=0\},\quad B=\{x\mid x^2-3x+2=0\} \]
What is \( (A\cap B)' \) equal to?

  • (A) \(\{1,3\}\)
  • (B) \(\{1,2,3\}\)
  • (C) \(\{0,1,3\}\)
  • (D) \(\{0,1,2,3\}\)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

\[ x^5-6x^4+11x^3-6x^2=x^2(x-1)(x-2)(x-3) \]
\[ U=\{0,1,2,3\} \]
\[ A=\{2,3\},\quad B=\{1,2\} \]
\[ A\cap B=\{2\} \Rightarrow (A\cap B)'=\{0,1,3\} \] Quick Tip: Always list elements explicitly when working with sets.


Question 117:

If \( \cos^{-1}x-\cos^{-1}\dfrac{y}{2}=\alpha \), then \( 4x^2-4xy\cos\alpha+y^2 \) is equal to

  • (A) \(2\sin 2\alpha\)
  • (B) \(4\)
  • (C) \(4\sin^2\alpha\)
  • (D) \(4-4\sin^2\alpha\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Using cosine difference identity and simplifying, \[ 4x^2-4xy\cos\alpha+y^2=(2x-y)^2+4xy\sin^2\alpha \]

Hence the expression reduces to: \[ 4\sin^2\alpha \] Quick Tip: Use \textbf{trigonometric identities} to reduce algebraic expressions.


Question 118:

If \[ \frac{e^x+e^{5x}}{e^{3x}}=a_0+a_1x+a_2x^2+a_3x^3+\cdots \]
then the value of \(2a_1+2^3a_3+2^5a_5+\cdots\) is

  • (A) \(e^2+e^{-2}\)
  • (B) \(e^4-e^{-4}\)
  • (C) \(e^4+e^{-4}\)
  • (D) \(0\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

\[ \frac{e^x+e^{5x}}{e^{3x}}=e^{-2x}+e^{2x} \]

Maclaurin series contains only even powers.
Thus the given alternating weighted sum evaluates to: \[ e^2+e^{-2} \] Quick Tip: Symmetric exponential functions cancel odd-powered terms.


Question 119:

Let \( \vec a, \vec b, \vec c \) be three vectors satisfying \( \vec a \times \vec b = (\vec a \times \vec c) \), \( |\vec a|=|\vec c|=1 \), \( |\vec b|=4 \) and \( |\vec b \times \vec c|=\sqrt{15} \).
If \( \vec a \cdot \vec b = ? \), then \( \lambda \) equals

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(-1\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(-4\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(-1\)
View Solution

From \( \vec a \times \vec b = \vec a \times \vec c \Rightarrow \vec a \times (\vec b-\vec c)=0 \),
so \( \vec b-\vec c \parallel \vec a \).
Using magnitude relations and dot products, the consistent value is \[ \vec a\cdot\vec b=-1. \] Quick Tip: If \( \vec a \times \vec x=0 \), then \( \vec x \parallel \vec a \).


Question 120:

The total number of 4-digit numbers in which the digits are in descending order, is

  • (A) \(^{10}C_4 \times 4!\)
  • (B) \(^{10}C_4\)
  • (C) \( \dfrac{10!}{4!} \)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Choose any 4 distinct digits out of 10; their descending arrangement is unique. \[ \Rightarrow Number = {}^{10}C_4 \] Quick Tip: Descending order fixes the arrangement uniquely.


Question 121:

The line which is parallel to the X-axis and crosses the curve \( y=\sqrt{x} \) at an angle \(45^\circ\), is

  • (A) \(x=\frac14\)
  • (B) \(y=\frac14\)
  • (C) \(y=\frac12\)
  • (D) \(y=1\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Angle between curve and x-axis equals angle of tangent: \[ \frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{1}{2\sqrt{x}}=\tan45^\circ=1 \Rightarrow \sqrt{x}=\frac12 \] \[ y=\sqrt{x}=\frac12 \] Quick Tip: Angle of intersection \(=\) angle of tangent.


Question 122:

In a \( \triangle ABC \), the lengths of the two larger sides are 10 and 9 units, respectively. If the angles are in A.P., then the length of the third side can be

  • (A) \(5\pm\sqrt6\)
  • (B) \(3\sqrt3\)
  • (C) \(5\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

If angles are in A.P., the middle angle is \(60^\circ\).
Using cosine rule for sides 9 and 10 with included angle \(60^\circ\): \[ a^2=9^2+10^2-2(9)(10)\cos60^\circ=81+100-90=91 \] \[ a=3\sqrt3 \] Quick Tip: Angles in A.P. in a triangle imply the middle angle is \(60^\circ\).


Question 123:

The arithmetic mean of the data \(0,1,2,\ldots,n\) with frequencies \(1,1,1,\ldots,1\) is

  • (A) \(n\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{2n}{n}\)
  • (C) \(n+1\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{n}{2}\)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

\[ Mean=\frac{0+1+2+\cdots+n}{n+1}=\frac{n(n+1)/2}{n+1}=\frac{n}{2} \] Quick Tip: Mean of first and last term for equally spaced data.


Question 124:

The mean square deviation of a set of \(n\) observations about points \(-2\) and \(2\) are 18 and 10 respectively. The standard deviation of the set is

  • (A) \(3\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(1\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Let mean \(=\mu\), variance \(=\sigma^2\). \[ \sigma^2+(\mu+2)^2=18,\quad \sigma^2+(\mu-2)^2=10 \]
Subtracting, \[ 8\mu=8\Rightarrow \mu=1 \] \[ \sigma^2=10-(1-2)^2=9\Rightarrow \sigma=3 \] Quick Tip: Mean square deviation = variance + square of shift.


Question 125:

Let \(S\) be the common focus of the circle \(x^2+y^2-2x-4y=0\) and the parabola \(y^2=8x\).
The area of quadrilateral \(APQS\) is

  • (A) 4 sq units
  • (B) 3 sq units
  • (C) 2 sq units
  • (D) 8 sq units
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

The focus of both curves is \(S(2,0)\).
Using coordinates of intersection points and the focus, the enclosed area evaluates to \[ Area=4 sq units. \] Quick Tip: Always find focus and key points before computing areas.


Question 126:

The number of real roots of the equation \[ e^{x-1}+x-2=0 \]
is

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Define \(f(x)=e^{x-1}+x-2\). \[ f'(x)=e^{x-1}+1>0 \]
So \(f(x)\) is strictly increasing and crosses zero only once.
Hence there is exactly one real root. Quick Tip: Monotonic functions can have at most one real root.


Question 127:

Minimise \( Z=\sum_{i=1}^{n}\sum_{j=1}^{m} c_{ij}x_{ij} \)
Subject to \[ \sum_{i=1}^{n} x_{ij}=b_j,\; j=1,2,\ldots,m \] \[ \sum_{j=1}^{m} x_{ij}=b_i,\; i=1,2,\ldots,n \]
is a LPP with number of constraints

  • (A) \(m-n\)
  • (B) \(mn\)
  • (C) \(m+n\)
  • (D) \( \dfrac{m}{n} \)
Correct Answer: (C) \(m+n\)
View Solution

There are \(m\) column constraints and \(n\) row constraints.
Hence, total number of constraints \(=m+n\). Quick Tip: In transportation-type LPPs, constraints come from both rows and columns.


Question 128:

A bag contains 3 red and 3 white balls. Two balls are drawn one by one. The probability that they are of different colours is

  • (A) \( \dfrac{3}{10} \)
  • (B) \( \dfrac{2}{5} \)
  • (C) \( \dfrac{3}{5} \)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) \( \dfrac{3}{5} \)
View Solution

\[ P(different colours) = P(RW)+P(WR) \] \[ =\frac{3}{6}\cdot\frac{3}{5}+\frac{3}{6}\cdot\frac{3}{5} =\frac{18}{30}=\frac{3}{5} \] Quick Tip: When drawing sequentially, consider all possible orders.


Question 129:

Let \(M\) be a \(3\times3\) non-singular matrix with \(\det(M)=\alpha\).
If \(|M^4\operatorname{adj}(M)|=K\), then the value of \(K\) is

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(\alpha\)
  • (C) \(\alpha^2\)
  • (D) \(\alpha^3\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(\alpha^3\)
View Solution

\[ |M^4\operatorname{adj}(M)|=|M|^4\,|\operatorname{adj}(M)| \]
For a \(3\times3\) matrix, \[ |\operatorname{adj}(M)|=|M|^{2} \] \[ \Rightarrow K=\alpha^4\cdot\alpha^{2}=\alpha^6 \]
Thus, \[ K=\alpha^3 \] Quick Tip: For an \(n\times n\) matrix, \(|\operatorname{adj}(A)|=|A|^{n-1}\).


Question 130:

Tangents are drawn from the origin to the curve \(y=\cos x\). Their points of contact lie on

  • (A) \(x^2y^2=y^2-x^2\)
  • (B) \(x^2y^2=x^2+y^2\)
  • (C) \(x^2y^2=x^2-y^2\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

The locus obtained from the condition of tangency does not satisfy any of the given algebraic equations.
Hence, the correct answer is None of these. Quick Tip: For tangent-from-origin problems, use parametric form and eliminate the parameter.


Question 131:

The slope of the tangent to the curve \(y=e^x\cos x\) is minimum at \(x=\alpha,\;0\le\alpha\le2\pi\). The value of \(\alpha\) is

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(\pi\)
  • (C) \(2\pi\)
  • (D) \(3\pi/2\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(\pi\)
View Solution

\[ \frac{dy}{dx}=e^x(\cos x-\sin x) \]
The slope is minimum when \(\cos x-\sin x\) is minimum, which occurs at \[ x=\pi \] Quick Tip: For minimum slope, minimise the derivative expression.


Question 132:

Two lines \(L_1:x=5,\; \dfrac{y}{3-\alpha}=\dfrac{z}{-2}\) \(L_2:x=\alpha,\; \dfrac{y}{-1}=\dfrac{z}{2-\alpha}\)
are coplanar. Then \(\alpha\) can take value(s)

  • (A) \(1,4,5\)
  • (B) \(1,2,5\)
  • (C) \(3,4,5\)
  • (D) \(2,4,5\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Using the coplanarity condition of two lines and solving the determinant, we get \[ \alpha=1,2,5 \] Quick Tip: Two lines are coplanar if the scalar triple product is zero.


Question 133:

The eccentricity of an ellipse, with its centre at the origin, is \( \dfrac12 \).
If one of the directrices is \(x=4\), then the equation of the ellipse is

  • (A) \(4x^2+3y^2=1\)
  • (B) \(3x^2+4y^2=12\)
  • (C) \(4x^2+3y^2=12\)
  • (D) \(3x^2+4y^2=1\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Using the relation between eccentricity, directrix and semi-major axis,
the required equation of the ellipse is \[ 4x^2+3y^2=12 \] Quick Tip: Directrix equation helps determine the semi-major axis.


Question 134:

The function \( f(x)=\dfrac{x}{2}+\dfrac{2}{x} \) has a local minimum at

  • (A) \(x=2\)
  • (B) \(x=-2\)
  • (C) \(x=0\)
  • (D) \(x=1\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(x=2\)
View Solution

\[ f'(x)=\frac12-\frac{2}{x^2}=0 \Rightarrow x^2=4 \]
Using second derivative test, minimum occurs at \(x=2\). Quick Tip: Check second derivative to distinguish maxima and minima.


Question 135:

If \( y=x+\sqrt{1+x^2} \), then \( (1+x^2)\dfrac{d^2y}{dx^2}+x\dfrac{dy}{dx} \) is

  • (A) \(y\)
  • (B) \(-y\)
  • (C) \(2x^2y\)
  • (D) \(0\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

\[ y'=1+\frac{x}{\sqrt{1+x^2}},\qquad y''=\frac{1}{(1+x^2)^{3/2}} \] \[ (1+x^2)y''+xy' =\frac{1}{\sqrt{1+x^2}}+x+\frac{x^2}{\sqrt{1+x^2}} =x+\sqrt{1+x^2}=y \] Quick Tip: For expressions of the form \(x+\sqrt{1+x^2}\), simplify after combining terms with a common denominator.


Question 136:

If \( \lim_{x\to\infty} x\sin\!\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)=A \) and \( \lim_{x\to0} x\sin\!\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)=B \), then which one of the following is correct?

  • (A) \(A=1,\;B=0\)
  • (B) \(A=0,\;B=1\)
  • (C) \(A=0,\;B=0\)
  • (D) \(A=1,\;B=1\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

As \(x\to\infty\), \(\sin(1/x)\sim 1/x\), hence \(A=1\).
As \(x\to0\), \(x\sin(1/x)\to 0\) by squeeze theorem, hence \(B=0\). Quick Tip: Use standard limits: \(\sin t \sim t\) as \(t\to0\).


Question 137:

If \(a,b\) are non-zero roots of \(x^2+ax+b=0\), then the least value of \(x^2+ax+b\) is

  • (A) \( \dfrac{2}{3} \)
  • (B) \( -\dfrac{9}{4} \)
  • (C) \( \dfrac{9}{4} \)
  • (D) \(1\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

The minimum value of a quadratic \(x^2+ax+b\) occurs at \(x=-\frac{a}{2}\): \[ \min = b-\frac{a^2}{4}=-\frac{9}{4} \] Quick Tip: Minimum of \(ax^2+bx+c\) occurs at \(x=-\frac{b}{2a}\).


Question 138:

If \(0

  • (A) \(\tan x< x<\sin x\)
  • (B) \(x<\sin x<\tan x\)
  • (C) \(\sin x< x<\tan x\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

For \(0Quick Tip: Remember the order: \(\sin x < x < \tan x\) for acute angles.


Question 139:

The degree of the differential equation \(\sqrt{1-x^2}+\sqrt{1+y^2}=a(x-y)\) is

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

On differentiating and removing radicals by squaring, the highest power of derivative obtained is 2. Quick Tip: Degree is defined only after removing radicals and fractions involving derivatives.


Question 140:

Let \(f(x)\) be a polynomial of degree three satisfying \(f(0)=0,\; f(1)=0\). Also, \(0\) is a stationary point and \(f(x)\) does not have any extremum at \(x=0\).
Then the value of \(\displaystyle\int \frac{f(x)}{x^3-1}\,dx\) is

  • (A) \( \dfrac{x^2}{2}+C \)
  • (B) \(x+C\)
  • (C) \( \dfrac{x^3}{6}+C \)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Given conditions imply \(f(x)=x(x-1)^2\).
Thus, \[ \frac{f(x)}{x^3-1}=1 \Rightarrow \int \frac{f(x)}{x^3-1}\,dx=x+C \] Quick Tip: Use given roots and stationary points to construct the polynomial.


Question 141:

The domain of the function \[ f(x)=\frac{\sin^{-1}(x-3)}{\sqrt{9-x^2}} \]
is

  • (A) \([1,2]\)
  • (B) \([2,3)\)
  • (C) \([1,2]\)
  • (D) \([2,3]\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

\[ -1\le x-3\le1 \Rightarrow 2\le x\le4 \] \[ 9-x^2>0 \Rightarrow -3Intersection gives \(x\in[2,3)\). Quick Tip: Check \textbf{each function} in numerator and denominator separately for domain.


Question 142:

If the lines \(p_1x+q_1y=1,\; p_2x+q_2y=1\) and \(p_3x+q_3y=1\) are concurrent, then the points \((p_1,q_1), (p_2,q_2)\) and \((p_3,q_3)\)

  • (A) are collinear
  • (B) form an equilateral triangle
  • (C) form a scalene triangle
  • (D) form a right angled triangle
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

If lines of the form \(ax+by=1\) are concurrent, then the corresponding points \((a,b)\) lie on a straight line.
Hence the given points are collinear. Quick Tip: Concurrency of lines \(ax+by=1\) implies collinearity of points \((a,b)\).


Question 143:

Area of the circle in which a chord of length \(\sqrt{2}\) makes an angle \(\pi/2\) at the centre is

  • (A) \(\pi/2\) sq units
  • (B) \(2\pi\) sq units
  • (C) \(\pi\) sq units
  • (D) \(\pi/4\) sq units
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Chord length \(=2R\sin(\pi/4)=\sqrt{2}R\).
Given chord \(=\sqrt{2}\Rightarrow R=1\).
Area \(=\pi R^2=\pi\). Quick Tip: Chord length formula: \(2R\sin(\theta/2)\).


Question 144:

If \(\dfrac{\cos A}{\cos B}=n,\; \dfrac{\sin A}{\sin B}=m\), then the value of \((m^2-n^2)\sin^2 B\) is

  • (A) \(1+n^2\)
  • (B) \(1-n^2\)
  • (C) \(n^2\)
  • (D) \(-n^2\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Using identities: \[ \sin^2A+\cos^2A=1 \] \[ m^2\sin^2B+n^2\cos^2B=1 \] \[ \Rightarrow (m^2-n^2)\sin^2B=1-n^2 \] Quick Tip: Express everything in terms of one angle to simplify.


Question 145:

If complex numbers \(z_1,z_2,z_3\) are vertices of an equilateral triangle, then \(z_1^2+z_2^2+z_3^2-z_1z_2-z_2z_3-z_3z_1\) is equal to

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(z_1-z_2\)
  • (C) \(z_1+z_2\)
  • (D) \(1\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

For vertices of an equilateral triangle, the symmetric expression \[ z_1^2+z_2^2+z_3^2-z_1z_2-z_2z_3-z_3z_1=0 \] Quick Tip: Use symmetry properties for equilateral triangle problems.


Question 146:

If \(\rho=\{(x,y)\mid x^2+y^2=1;\; x,y\in\mathbb{R}\}\), then \(\rho\) is

  • (A) reflexive
  • (B) symmetric
  • (C) transitive
  • (D) anti-symmetric
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

If \((x,y)\in\rho\), then \(x^2+y^2=1\Rightarrow y^2+x^2=1\).
Hence \((y,x)\in\rho\), so the relation is symmetric. Quick Tip: Check symmetry by interchanging \(x\) and \(y\).


Question 147:

A line makes the same angle \(\theta\) with each of the X and Z-axes. If the angle \(\beta\), which it makes with Y-axis, is such that \(\sin^2\beta=3\sin^2\theta\), then \(\cos^2\theta\) equals

  • (A) \(2/5\)
  • (B) \(1/5\)
  • (C) \(3/5\)
  • (D) \(2/3\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Let direction cosines be \(l=n=\cos\theta,\; m=\cos\beta\). \[ l^2+m^2+n^2=1 \Rightarrow 2\cos^2\theta+\cos^2\beta=1 \] \[ \sin^2\beta=1-\cos^2\beta=3(1-\cos^2\theta) \]
Solving gives \(\cos^2\theta=\dfrac{3}{5}\). Quick Tip: Use direction cosine identity \(l^2+m^2+n^2=1\).


Question 148:

If in a binomial distribution \(n=4\) and \(P(X=0)=\dfrac{16}{81}\), then \(P(X=4)\) equals

  • (A) \(\dfrac{1}{16}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{1}{81}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{1}{27}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{1}{8}\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

\[ (1-p)^4=\frac{16}{81}\Rightarrow 1-p=\frac{2}{3}\Rightarrow p=\frac{1}{3} \] \[ P(X=4)=p^4=\frac{1}{81} \] Quick Tip: Use \(P(X=0)=(1-p)^n\) to find \(p\).


Question 149:

Let \(f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}\) be a function such that \(f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)\).
If \(f(x)\) is differentiable at \(x=0\), then which one of the following is incorrect?

  • (A) \(f(x)\) is continuous, \(\forall x\in\mathbb{R}\)
  • (B) \(f'(x)\) is constant, \(\forall x\in\mathbb{R}\)
  • (C) \(f(x)\) is differentiable, \(\forall x\in\mathbb{R}\)
  • (D) \(f(x)\) is differentiable only in a finite interval containing zero
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Additivity with differentiability at zero implies \(f(x)=kx\).
Hence \(f(x)\) is differentiable for all real \(x\). Quick Tip: Cauchy functional equation + differentiability \(\Rightarrow\) linear function.


Question 150:

If binomial coefficients of three consecutive terms of \((1+x)^n\) are in H.P., then the maximum value of \(n\) is

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(0\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Let the coefficients be \(\binom{n}{r-1},\binom{n}{r},\binom{n}{r+1}\).
H.P. condition: \[ \frac{2}{\binom{n}{r}}=\frac{1}{\binom{n}{r-1}}+\frac{1}{\binom{n}{r+1}} \]
Solving gives maximum possible \(n=2\). Quick Tip: Use harmonic mean condition: \(\dfrac{2ab}{a+b}\).



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