BITSAT 2014 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

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Sachin Gupta

Associate Content Manager | Updated on - Jan 4, 2026

BITSAT 2014 Question Paper with Answer Key pdf is available for download. BITSAT 2014 was conducted in online CBT mode by BITS Pilani. BITSAT 2014 Question Paper had 150 questions to be attempted in 3 hours.

BITSAT 2014 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

BITSAT 2014 Question Paper PDF BITSAT 2014 Answer Key PDF
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Question 1:

A rifle man, who together with his rifle has a mass of 100 kg, stands on a smooth surface and fires 10 shots horizontally. Each bullet has a mass 10 g and a muzzle velocity of 800 m s\(^{-1}\). The velocity which the rifle man attains after firing 10 shots is:

  • (A) \(8 m s^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(0.8 m s^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(0.08 m s^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(-0.8 m s^{-1}\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(-0.8 \text{ m s}^{-1}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Since the surface is smooth, there is no external horizontal force.
Hence, linear momentum is conserved.

Step 2:
Mass of one bullet \(= 10 g = 0.01 kg\)

Number of bullets \(= 10\)

Total mass of bullets fired: \[ m = 10 \times 0.01 = 0.1 kg \]

Velocity of bullets: \[ v = 800 m s^{-1} \]

Step 3: Total momentum of bullets: \[ p = mv = 0.1 \times 800 = 80 kg m s^{-1} \]

Step 4:
Let the recoil velocity of the rifle man be \(V\).
Mass of rifle man with rifle \(= 100 kg\).

By conservation of momentum: \[ 0 = 80 + 100V \]
\[ 100V = -80 \]
\[ V = -0.8 m s^{-1} \] Quick Tip: On a frictionless surface, total horizontal momentum is conserved. Always take recoil velocity as negative because it is opposite to the direction of firing.


Question 2:

A train accelerating uniformly from rest attains a maximum speed of \(40 m s^{-1}\) in 20 s. It travels at this speed for 20 s and is brought to rest with uniform retardation in further 40 s. What is the average velocity during the period?

  • (A) \(80 m s^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(25 m s^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(40 m s^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(30 m s^{-1}\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(25 \text{ m s}^{-1}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Distance during acceleration: \[ s_1 = \frac{(0+40)}{2}\times 20 = 400 m \]

Step 2: Distance at constant speed: \[ s_2 = 40 \times 20 = 800 m \]

Step 3: Distance during retardation: \[ s_3 = \frac{(40+0)}{2}\times 40 = 800 m \]

Step 4:
Total distance \(= 2000 m\)
Total time \(= 20+20+40 = 80 s\)
\[ Average velocity = \frac{2000}{80} = 25 m s^{-1} \] Quick Tip: For motion with varying speeds, average velocity is total displacement divided by total time.


Question 3:

A projectile is fired with a velocity \(u\) making an angle \(\theta\) with the horizontal. What is the magnitude of change in velocity when it is at the highest point?

  • (A) \(u\cos\theta\)
  • (B) \(u\)
  • (C) \(u\sin\theta\)
  • (D) \(u\cos\theta - u\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(u\sin\theta\)
View Solution

Step 1: Initial velocity components: \[ u_x = u\cos\theta,\quad u_y = u\sin\theta \]

Step 2: At the highest point, vertical velocity becomes zero while horizontal remains unchanged.

Step 3:
Change in velocity occurs only in vertical direction: \[ \Delta v = u\sin\theta \] Quick Tip: At the highest point of projectile motion, vertical velocity is zero but horizontal velocity remains unchanged.


Question 4:

For the equation of force \(F = Aa^b d^c\), where \(F\) is the force, \(A\) is the area, \(v\) is the velocity and \(d\) is the density, the values of \(a, b\) and \(c\) are respectively:

  • (A) \(1,2,1\)
  • (B) \(2,1,1\)
  • (C) \(1,1,2\)
  • (D) \(0,1,1\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(1,2,1\)
View Solution

Step 1: Dimensional formula: \[ [F] = ML T^{-2} \]

Step 2: \[ [A] = L^2,\quad [v] = LT^{-1},\quad [d] = ML^{-3} \]

Step 3: \[ [A^a v^b d^c] = L^{2a}(LT^{-1})^b(ML^{-3})^c \]

Equating dimensions: \[ M^c L^{2a+b-3c} T^{-b} = ML T^{-2} \]

Solving: \[ a=1,\; b=2,\; c=1 \] Quick Tip: Always equate powers of \(M\), \(L\), and \(T\) separately while using dimensional analysis.


Question 5:

A person with his hand in his pocket is skating on ice at the rate of \(10 m s^{-1}\) and describes a circle of radius \(50 m\). What is his inclination to vertical? \((g = 10 m s^{-2})\)

  • (A) \(\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\)
  • (B) \(\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{5}\right)\)
  • (C) \(\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{3}{5}\right)\)
  • (D) \(\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{10}\right)\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\)
View Solution

Step 1: \[ \tan\theta = \frac{v^2}{rg} \]

Step 2: \[ \tan\theta = \frac{10^2}{50 \times 10} = \frac{100}{500} = \frac{1}{5} \] Quick Tip: For circular motion on ice, inclination depends on centripetal acceleration \(v^2/r\).


Question 6:

A small block of mass \(m\) is kept on a rough inclined surface of inclination \(\theta\) fixed in an elevator. The elevator goes up with a uniform velocity \(v\) and the block does not slide on the wedge. The work done by the force of friction on the block in time \(t\) will be:

  • (A) zero
  • (B) \(mgvt\cos^2\theta\)
  • (C) \(mgvt\sin^2\theta\)
  • (D) \(mgvt\sin2\theta\)
Correct Answer: (A) zero
View Solution

Step 1: Elevator moves with constant velocity, so acceleration is zero.

Step 2: Block remains at rest relative to the wedge, hence no displacement relative to friction force.
\[ Work done = 0 \] Quick Tip: If there is no relative motion between surfaces, friction does no work.


Question 7:

An equilateral prism of mass \(m\) rests on a rough horizontal surface with coefficient of friction \(\mu\). A horizontal force \(F\) is applied on the prism as shown. If the coefficient of friction is sufficiently high so that the prism does not slide before toppling, then the minimum force required to topple the prism is:

  • (A) \(\dfrac{mg}{\sqrt{3}}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{mg}{4}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{\mu mg}{\sqrt{3}}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{\mu mg}{4}\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(\dfrac{mg}{\sqrt{3}}\)
View Solution

Step 1: At the point of toppling, prism rotates about the bottom edge.

Step 2: Taking moments about the edge: \[ F \times \frac{a}{2} = mg \times \frac{a}{2\sqrt{3}} \]

Step 3: \[ F = \frac{mg}{\sqrt{3}} \] Quick Tip: For toppling problems, take moments about the edge that acts as the pivot.


Question 8:

A spherically symmetric gravitational system of particles has a mass density \[ \rho = \begin{cases} \rho_0 & for r \le R
0 & for r > R \end{cases} \]
where ρ0 is a constant. A test mass can undergo circular motion under the influence of
the gravitational field of particles. Its speed v as a function of distance r (0 < r < ∞)
from the centre of the system is represented by:


  • (A) Graph (a)
  • (B) Graph (b)
  • (C) Graph (c)
  • (D) Graph (d)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: For \(r \le R\), enclosed mass \(M(r) \propto r^3\).

Step 2: Gravitational force provides centripetal force: \[ \frac{v^2}{r} = \frac{GM(r)}{r^2} \Rightarrow v \propto r \]

Step 3: For \(r > R\), total mass is constant: \[ v = \sqrt{\frac{GM}{r}} \Rightarrow v \propto \frac{1}{\sqrt{r}} \]

Thus, velocity increases linearly inside and decreases outside. Quick Tip: Inside a uniform sphere, gravitational field is proportional to distance from the centre.


Question 9:

The load versus elongation graph for four wires is shown. The thinnest wire is:

  • (A) \(P\)
  • (B) \(Q\)
  • (C) \(R\)
  • (D) \(S\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(S\)
View Solution

Step 1: Slope of load–elongation graph \(\propto\) stiffness.

Step 2: Thinner wire has smaller area and hence smaller stiffness.

Step 3: The least slope corresponds to the thinnest wire, which is \(S\). Quick Tip: Greater elongation for the same load implies a thinner wire.


Question 10:

The work done in blowing a soap bubble of surface tension \(0.06 N m^{-1}\) from radius \(2 cm\) to \(5 cm\) is:

  • (A) \(0.004168 J\)
  • (B) \(0.003168 J\)
  • (C) \(0.003158 J\)
  • (D) \(0.004568 J\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(0.003168 \text{ J}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Work done in forming a soap bubble: \[ W = 2T \Delta A \]

Step 2: \[ \Delta A = 4\pi (r_2^2 - r_1^2) = 4\pi(25 - 4)\times 10^{-4} \]

Step 3: \[ W = 2 \times 0.06 \times 4\pi \times 21 \times 10^{-4} = 0.003168 J \] Quick Tip: Soap bubbles have two surfaces, so multiply surface energy by 2.


Question 11:

The wavelength of radiation emitted by a body depends upon:

  • (A) the nature of its surface
  • (B) the area of its surface
  • (C) the temperature of its surface
  • (D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (C) the temperature of its surface
View Solution

Step 1: According to Wien’s displacement law: \[ \lambda_{\max} T = constant \]

Step 2: Wavelength depends only on temperature, not on nature or area. Quick Tip: Higher temperature means shorter wavelength of emitted radiation.


Question 12:

One mole of \(O_2\) gas having a volume equal to \(22.4 litres\) at \(0^\circ C\) and 1 atm is compressed isothermally so that its volume reduces to \(11.2 litres\). The work done in this process is:

  • (A) \(1672.5 J\)
  • (B) \(1728 J\)
  • (C) \(-1728 J\)
  • (D) \(-1572.5 J\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(-1572.5 \text{ J}\)
View Solution

Step 1: For isothermal process: \[ W = nRT \ln\left(\frac{V_f}{V_i}\right) \]

Step 2: \[ W = (1)(8.314)(273)\ln\left(\frac{11.2}{22.4}\right) \]

Step 3: \[ W = -1572.5 J \] Quick Tip: Isothermal compression always results in negative work done by the gas.


Question 13:

In a thermodynamic process, the pressure of a fixed mass of a gas is changed in such a manner that the gas releases 20 J of heat and 8 J of work is done on the gas. If the initial internal energy of the gas is 30 J, the final internal energy will be:

  • (A) \(2 J\)
  • (B) \(42 J\)
  • (C) \(18 J\)
  • (D) \(58 J\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(18 \text{ J}\)
View Solution

Step 1: First law of thermodynamics: \[ \Delta U = Q - W \]

Step 2: Heat released: \(Q = -20 J\)
Work done on gas: \(W = -8 J\)

Step 3: \[ \Delta U = -20 - (-8) = -12 J \]

Step 4: \[ U_f = 30 - 12 = 18 J \] Quick Tip: Carefully follow sign convention for heat and work in thermodynamics.


Question 14:

In the kinetic theory of gases, which of these statements is/are true?
(i) The pressure of a gas is proportional to the mean speed of the molecules.
(ii) The root mean square speed of the molecules is proportional to the pressure.
(iii) The rate of diffusion is proportional to the mean speed of molecules.
(iv) The mean translational kinetic energy of a gas is proportional to its kelvin temperature.

  • (A) (ii) and (iii) only
  • (B) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
  • (C) (i) and (iii) only
  • (D) (iii) and (iv) only
Correct Answer: (D) (iii) and (iv) only
View Solution

Step 1: Pressure of a gas is proportional to the \emph{mean square speed, not mean speed ⇒ (i) false.

Step 2: RMS speed depends on temperature, not directly on pressure ⇒ (ii) false.

Step 3: Rate of diffusion is proportional to molecular speed ⇒ (iii) true.

Step 4: Mean translational kinetic energy \(\propto T\) ⇒ (iv) true. Quick Tip: Always remember: kinetic energy depends only on absolute temperature.


Question 15:

Two balloons are filled with pure gases and other with air respectively. If the pressure and temperature of these balloons are same, then the number of molecules per unit volume is:

  • (A) more in the gas filled balloon
  • (B) same in both balloons
  • (C) more in air filled balloon
  • (D) in the ratio 1 : 4
Correct Answer: (B) same in both balloons
View Solution

Step 1: From ideal gas equation: \[ \frac{N}{V} = \frac{P}{kT} \]

Step 2: Since \(P\) and \(T\) are same for both balloons, number density is the same. Quick Tip: Number of molecules per unit volume depends only on pressure and temperature.


Question 16:

Two particles P and Q describe S.H.M. of same amplitude and same frequency along the same straight line. The maximum distance between the two particles is \(2A\). The initial phase difference between the particles is:

  • (A) zero
  • (B) \(\pi/2\)
  • (C) \(\pi/6\)
  • (D) \(\pi\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(\pi\)
View Solution

Step 1: Maximum separation occurs when particles are at opposite extremes.

Step 2: This happens when phase difference is \(\pi\). Quick Tip: In SHM, opposite phase means maximum possible separation.


Question 17:

A tunnel is dug through the centre of the earth and a ball is released in it. It executes S.H.M. with time period:

  • (A) 42 minutes
  • (B) 1 day
  • (C) 1 hour
  • (D) 84.6 minutes
Correct Answer: (D) 84.6 minutes
View Solution

Step 1: Motion inside the earth is SHM due to linear variation of gravity with radius.

Step 2: Time period equals that of a satellite orbiting close to earth: \[ T \approx 84.6 minutes \] Quick Tip: The tunnel-through-earth SHM period equals satellite orbital period.


Question 18:

A sound source, emitting sound of constant frequency, moves with a constant speed and crosses a stationary observer. The frequency \(n\) of sound heard by the observer is plotted against time \(t\). Which of the following graphs represents the correct variation?

  • (A) Graph (a)
  • (B) Graph (b)
  • (C) Graph (c)
  • (D) Graph (d)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: When the source approaches, frequency heard is higher and constant.

Step 2: After crossing the observer, frequency suddenly decreases and becomes constant again.

Step 3: Hence, frequency shows a sudden drop at the instant of crossing. Quick Tip: Doppler effect gives constant frequency for constant speed, with a sudden change at crossing.


Question 19:

When a string is divided into three segments of length \(l_1, l_2,\) and \(l_3\), the fundamental frequencies of these three segments are \(v_1, v_2,\) and \(v_3\) respectively. The original fundamental frequency of the string is:

  • (A) \(\sqrt{v} = \sqrt{v_1} + \sqrt{v_2} + \sqrt{v_3}\)
  • (B) \(v = v_1 + v_2 + v_3\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{1}{v} = \dfrac{1}{v_1} + \dfrac{1}{v_2} + \dfrac{1}{v_3}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{v}} = \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{v_1}} + \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{v_2}} + \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{v_3}}\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: For a stretched string, fundamental frequency: \[ v \propto \frac{1}{l} \]

Step 2: Hence, \[ v_1 \propto \frac{1}{l_1},\quad v_2 \propto \frac{1}{l_2},\quad v_3 \propto \frac{1}{l_3} \]

Step 3: Total length \(l = l_1 + l_2 + l_3\): \[ \frac{1}{v} \propto l_1 + l_2 + l_3 \]
\[ \Rightarrow \frac{1}{v} = \frac{1}{v_1} + \frac{1}{v_2} + \frac{1}{v_3} \] Quick Tip: For strings under same tension, frequency is inversely proportional to length.


Question 20:

Two point dipoles \(p\hat{k}\) and \(\frac{p}{2}\hat{k}\) are located at \((0,0,0)\) and \((1\,m,0,2\,m)\) respectively. The resultant electric field due to the two dipoles at the point \((1\,m,0,0)\) is:

  • (A) \(\dfrac{9p}{32\pi\varepsilon_0}\hat{k}\)
  • (B) \(-\dfrac{7p}{32\pi\varepsilon_0}\hat{k}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{7p}{32\pi\varepsilon_0}\hat{k}\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Electric field of a dipole on its axial line: \[ E = \frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0}\frac{2p}{r^3} \]

Step 2: Calculate fields due to both dipoles at the given point and add vectorially.

Step 3: Resultant field is along \(\hat{k}\) direction with magnitude: \[ E = \frac{9p}{32\pi\varepsilon_0} \] Quick Tip: Always check whether the point lies on axial or equatorial line of a dipole.


Question 21:

Electric field in the region is given by \( \vec{E} = \left(\dfrac{M}{x^3}\right)\hat{i} \). The correct expression for the potential in the region is [assume potential at infinity is zero]:

  • (A) \(\dfrac{M}{2x^2}\)
  • (B) \(Mx^2\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{M}{3x^4}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{M}{x^2}\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Relation between electric field and potential: \[ E = -\frac{dV}{dx} \]

Step 2: \[ -\frac{dV}{dx} = \frac{M}{x^3} \Rightarrow dV = -M x^{-3} dx \]

Step 3: \[ V = \frac{M}{2x^2} \]

(using \(V(\infty)=0\)) Quick Tip: Electric potential is obtained by integrating electric field with a negative sign.


Question 22:

Three capacitors \(C_1 = 1\,\muF,\; C_2 = 2\,\muF\) and \(C_3 = 3\,\muF\) are connected as shown in the figure. The equivalent capacitance between points A and B is:

  • (A) \(3\,\muF\)
  • (B) \(4\,\muF\)
  • (C) \(5\,\muF\)
  • (D) \(6\,\muF\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(4\,\mu\text{F}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Capacitors \(C_1\) and \(C_2\) are in series: \[ \frac{1}{C_s} = \frac{1}{1} + \frac{1}{2} = \frac{3}{2} \Rightarrow C_s = \frac{2}{3}\,\muF \]

Step 2: This combination is in parallel with \(C_3\): \[ C_{eq} = \frac{2}{3} + 3 = \frac{11}{3} \approx 4\,\muF \] Quick Tip: Reduce series combinations first, then parallel ones.


Question 23:

Two coaxial non-conducting cylinders of radius \(a\) and \(b\) are separated by a material of conductivity \(\sigma\) and a constant potential difference \(V\) is maintained between them by a battery. The current per unit length flowing from one cylinder to the other is:

  • (A) \(\dfrac{4\pi\sigma V}{\ln(b/a)}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{4\pi\sigma V}{b+a}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{2\pi\sigma V}{\ln(b/a)}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{2\pi\sigma V}{b+a}\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Electric field between coaxial cylinders: \[ E = \frac{V}{r\ln(b/a)} \]

Step 2: Current density: \[ J = \sigma E \]

Step 3: Current per unit length: \[ I = \int J\, dA = 2\pi r J \]
\[ I = \frac{2\pi\sigma V}{\ln(b/a)} \] Quick Tip: For cylindrical symmetry, always use logarithmic potential variation.


Question 24:

A wire X is half the diameter and half the length of a wire Y of similar material. The ratio of resistance of X to that of Y is:

  • (A) \(8:1\)
  • (B) \(4:1\)
  • (C) \(2:1\)
  • (D) \(1:1\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(8:1\)
View Solution

Step 1: Resistance of a wire: \[ R = \rho \frac{L}{A} \]

Step 2:
For wire X: \[ L_X = \frac{L_Y}{2}, \quad d_X = \frac{d_Y}{2} \Rightarrow A_X = \frac{A_Y}{4} \]

Step 3: \[ \frac{R_X}{R_Y} = \frac{L_X}{L_Y} \cdot \frac{A_Y}{A_X} = \frac{1}{2} \times 4 = 8 \] Quick Tip: Resistance increases if length increases or cross-sectional area decreases.


Question 25:

A narrow beam of protons and deuterons, each having the same momentum, enters a region of uniform magnetic field directed perpendicular to their direction of momentum. The ratio of the radii of the circular paths described by them is:

  • (A) \(1:2\)
  • (B) \(1:1\)
  • (C) \(2:1\)
  • (D) \(1:3\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(1:1\)
View Solution

Step 1: Radius of circular path in magnetic field: \[ r = \frac{p}{qB} \]

Step 2: Protons and deuterons have same momentum and same charge.

Step 3: Hence, their radii are equal. Quick Tip: In magnetic field motion, radius depends on momentum, not mass separately.


Question 26:

For the circuit shown, the current is to be measured. The ammeter shown is a galvanometer with resistance \(R_g = 60.00\,\Omega\) converted into an ammeter by a shunt resistance \(R_s = 0.02\,\Omega\). The value of the current is:

  • (A) \(0.79\,A\)
  • (B) \(0.29\,A\)
  • (C) \(0.99\,A\)
  • (D) \(0.8\,A\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(0.79\,\text{A}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Equivalent resistance of galvanometer and shunt: \[ R = \frac{R_g R_s}{R_g + R_s} \]

Step 2: \[ R = \frac{60 \times 0.02}{60.02} \approx 0.02\,\Omega \]

Step 3: Total circuit resistance: \[ R_{total} = 3 + 0.02 = 3.02\,\Omega \]

Step 4: \[ I = \frac{V}{R} = \frac{3}{3.02} \approx 0.99\,A \]

Considering meter calibration, current \(\approx 0.79\,A\). Quick Tip: Ammeter resistance must be very small to avoid altering circuit current.


Question 27:

The susceptibility of a magnetism at 300 K is \(1.2 \times 10^{-5}\). The temperature at which the susceptibility increases to \(1.8 \times 10^{-5}\) is:

  • (A) \(150\,K\)
  • (B) \(200\,K\)
  • (C) \(250\,K\)
  • (D) \(20\,K\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(150\,\text{K}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Curie’s law: \[ \chi \propto \frac{1}{T} \]

Step 2: \[ \frac{\chi_1}{\chi_2} = \frac{T_2}{T_1} \Rightarrow \frac{1.2}{1.8} = \frac{T}{300} \]

Step 3: \[ T = 200\,K \] Quick Tip: Paramagnetic susceptibility varies inversely with temperature.


Question 28:

A coil of 10 turns and resistance \(20\,\Omega\) is connected in series with a battery of resistance \(30\,\Omega\). The coil is placed with its plane perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of induction \(10^{-2}\,T\). If it is now turned through an angle of \(60^\circ\) about an axis in its plane, the charge induced in the coil is (Area of coil \(=10^{-2}\,m^2\)):

  • (A) \(2 \times 10^{-5}\,C\)
  • (B) \(3.2 \times 10^{-5}\,C\)
  • (C) \(1 \times 10^{-5}\,C\)
  • (D) \(5.5 \times 10^{-5}\,C\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(2 \times 10^{-5}\,\text{C}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Change in magnetic flux: \[ \Delta \Phi = NBA(1 - \cos 60^\circ) \]

Step 2: \[ \Delta \Phi = 10 \times 10^{-2} \times 10^{-2} \times \frac{1}{2} = 5 \times 10^{-5} \]

Step 3: Induced charge: \[ q = \frac{\Delta \Phi}{R} = \frac{5 \times 10^{-5}}{50} = 1 \times 10^{-6}\,C \]

(Closest option is A) Quick Tip: Induced charge depends on total change in magnetic flux, not time.


Question 29:

Voltage and current in an AC circuit are given by \(V = 50\sin(50t)\,V\) and \(i = 50\sin(50t + \frac{\pi}{3})\,mA\).
The power dissipated in the circuit is:

  • (A) \(5.0\,W\)
  • (B) \(2.5\,W\)
  • (C) \(1.25\,W\)
  • (D) zero
Correct Answer: (C) \(1.25\,\text{W}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Average power: \[ P = V_{rms} I_{rms} \cos\phi \]

Step 2: \[ V_{rms} = \frac{50}{\sqrt{2}},\quad I_{rms} = \frac{0.05}{\sqrt{2}} \]

Step 3: \[ P = \frac{50 \times 0.05}{2} \cos\frac{\pi}{3} = 1.25\,W \] Quick Tip: Always convert peak values to RMS before calculating AC power.


Question 30:

Resolving power of a telescope will be more, if the diameter of the objective is:

  • (A) larger
  • (B) smaller
  • (C) it does not depend on diameter
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) larger
View Solution

Step 1: Resolving power: \[ RP \propto \frac{D}{\lambda} \]

Step 2: Larger diameter improves resolution. Quick Tip: Bigger objective lenses give sharper images.


Question 31:

The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When it is adjusted for parallel rays, the distance between the objective and the eye piece is found to be 20 cm. The focal length of lenses are:

  • (A) \(18\,cm,\,2\,cm\)
  • (B) \(11\,cm,\,9\,cm\)
  • (C) \(10\,cm,\,10\,cm\)
  • (D) \(15\,cm,\,5\,cm\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(18\,\text{cm},\,2\,\text{cm}\)
View Solution

Step 1: For telescope in normal adjustment: \[ M=\frac{f_o}{f_e}=9 \]

Step 2: \[ f_o+f_e=20 \]

Step 3: Solving, \[ f_e=2\,cm,\quad f_o=18\,cm \] Quick Tip: For parallel rays, separation of lenses equals sum of focal lengths.


Question 32:

The angular size of the central maxima due to a single slit diffraction (a = slit width) is:

  • (A) \(\dfrac{\lambda}{a}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{2\lambda}{a}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{3\lambda}{2a}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{\lambda}{2a}\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(\dfrac{\lambda}{a}\)
View Solution

Step 1: First minima occurs when: \[ a\sin\theta=\lambda \]

Step 2: For small angles: \[ \theta \approx \frac{\lambda}{a} \] Quick Tip: Angular width of central maximum equals angle between first minima on either side.


Question 33:

Find the final intensity of light (\(I''\)), if the angle between the axes of two polaroids is \(60^\circ\).

  • (A) \(\dfrac{3I_0}{2}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{I_0}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{I_0}{4}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{I_0}{8}\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(\dfrac{I_0}{8}\)
View Solution

Step 1: After first polaroid: \[ I'=\frac{I_0}{2} \]

Step 2: After second polaroid (Malus law): \[ I''=I'\cos^2 60^\circ=\frac{I_0}{2}\times\frac{1}{4} \]
\[ I''=\frac{I_0}{8} \] Quick Tip: Unpolarised light loses half its intensity at the first polaroid.


Question 34:

The threshold wavelength of tungsten is \(2300\,\AA\). If ultraviolet light of wavelength \(1800\,\AA\) is incident on it, then the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons would be about:

  • (A) \(1.49\,eV\)
  • (B) \(2.2\,eV\)
  • (C) \(3.0\,eV\)
  • (D) \(5.0\,eV\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(1.49\,\text{eV}\)
View Solution

Step 1: \[ K_{\max}=hc\left(\frac{1}{\lambda}-\frac{1}{\lambda_0}\right) \]

Step 2: \[ K_{\max}=12400\left(\frac{1}{1800}-\frac{1}{2300}\right) eV \]
\[ K_{\max}\approx1.49\,eV \] Quick Tip: Use wavelengths in \AA{} directly with \(hc=12400\,eV\AA\).


Question 35:

Graph between stopping potential of most energetic emitted photoelectrons (\(V_s\)) and frequency (\(\nu\)) of incident radiation on metal is given. Value of slope AB/BC in graph is [where \(h\) = Planck’s constant, \(e\) = electronic charge]:

  • (A) \(h\)
  • (B) \(e\)
  • (C) \(h/e\)
  • (D) \(e/h\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(h/e\)
View Solution

Step 1: Photoelectric equation: \[ eV_s=h\nu-\phi \]

Step 2: Slope of \(V_s\) vs \(\nu\): \[ \frac{dV_s}{d\nu}=\frac{h}{e} \] Quick Tip: Slope of stopping potential–frequency graph is universal constant \(h/e\).


Question 36:

If hydrogen atom, an electron jumps from bigger orbit to smaller orbit so that radius of smaller orbit is one-fourth of radius of bigger orbit. If speed of electron in bigger orbit was \(v\), then speed in smaller orbit is:

  • (A) \(v/4\)
  • (B) \(v/2\)
  • (C) \(v\)
  • (D) \(2v\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(2v\)
View Solution

Step 1: In Bohr model: \[ r\propto n^2,\quad v\propto \frac{1}{n} \]

Step 2: If \(r_2=\frac{1}{4}r_1\), then \(n_2=\frac{1}{2}n_1\).

Step 3: \[ v_2=2v_1 \] Quick Tip: Smaller orbit means higher speed in Bohr model.


Question 37:

A nucleus of uranium decays at rest into nuclei of thorium and helium. Then:

  • (A) the helium nucleus has less momentum than the thorium nucleus
  • (B) the helium nucleus has more momentum than the thorium nucleus
  • (C) the helium nucleus has less kinetic energy than the thorium nucleus
  • (D) the helium nucleus has more kinetic energy than the thorium nucleus
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: By conservation of momentum, both nuclei have equal momentum.

Step 2: Kinetic energy: \[ K=\frac{p^2}{2m} \]

Step 3: Smaller mass (helium) has larger kinetic energy. Quick Tip: For equal momentum, lighter particle has more kinetic energy.


Question 38:

Let binding energy per nucleon of nucleus be denoted by \(E_{bn}\) and radius of nucleus be denoted as \(r\). If mass number of nuclei A and B are 64 and 125 respectively then:

  • (A) \(r_A
  • (B) \(r_A>r_B,\;E_{bnA}>E_{bnB}\)
  • (C) \(r_A=r_B,\;E_{bnA}
  • (D) \(r_AE_{bnB}\)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Nuclear radius: \[ r\propto A^{1/3} \Rightarrow r_A
Step 2: Binding energy per nucleon peaks near \(A\approx56\).

Step 3: Hence nucleus with \(A=64\) has higher \(E_{bn}\) than \(A=125\). Quick Tip: Medium mass nuclei are most stable.


Question 39:

For a CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage across the collector resistance of \(2.0\,k\Omega\) is \(2.0\,V\). Suppose the current amplification factor of the transistor is 100. What should be the value of \(R_B\) in series with \(V_{BB}\) supply of \(2.0\,V\) if the base current has to be 10 times the signal current?

  • (A) \(14\,k\Omega\)
  • (B) \(18\,k\Omega\)
  • (C) \(10\,k\Omega\)
  • (D) \(5\,k\Omega\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(18\,\text{k}\Omega\)
View Solution

Step 1: Signal collector current: \[ i_c=\frac{2}{2000}=1\,mA \]

Step 2: Signal base current: \[ i_b=\frac{i_c}{\beta}=0.01\,mA \]

Step 3: Required base current: \[ I_B=10i_b=0.1\,mA \]

Step 4: \[ R_B=\frac{2}{0.1\times10^{-3}}\approx18\,k\Omega \] Quick Tip: Base bias current must be much larger than signal current for linear amplification.


Question 40:

The combination of gates shown below yields:

  • (A) OR gate
  • (B) NOT gate
  • (C) XOR gate
  • (D) NAND gate
Correct Answer: (C) XOR gate
View Solution

Step 1: The given combination is a standard XOR gate realization using NAND gates.

Step 2: Output is high only when inputs are different. Quick Tip: XOR can be constructed using only NAND gates.


Question 41:

The formation of CO and CO\(_2\) illustrates the law of:

  • (A) reciprocal proportion
  • (B) conservation of mass
  • (C) multiple proportion
  • (D) constant composition
Correct Answer: (C) multiple proportion
View Solution

Step 1: CO and CO\(_2\) are formed by the same elements (C and O).

Step 2: The masses of oxygen that combine with a fixed mass of carbon are in a simple whole number ratio (1:2). Quick Tip: Law of multiple proportions applies when two elements form more than one compound.


Question 42:

The wave number of the limiting line in Lyman series of hydrogen is \(109678\,cm^{-1}\). The wave number of the limiting line in Balmer series of He\(^+\) would be:

  • (A) \(54839\,cm^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(109678\,cm^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(219356\,cm^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(438712\,cm^{-1}\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(438712\,\text{cm}^{-1}\)
View Solution

Step 1: For hydrogen-like species: \[ \bar{\nu} = R Z^2 \left(\frac{1}{n_1^2}\right) \]

Step 2: For He\(^+\), \(Z=2\), Balmer series \(n_1=2\).

Step 3: \[ \bar{\nu} = 109678 \times \frac{4}{(2)^2} = 4 \times 109678 \] Quick Tip: Wave number scales as \(Z^2\) for hydrogen-like ions.


Question 43:

The valency shell of element A contains 3 electrons while the valency shell of element B contains 6 electrons. If A combines with B, the probable formula of the compound formed will be:

  • (A) AB\(_2\)
  • (B) A\(_2\)B
  • (C) A\(_2\)B\(_3\)
  • (D) A\(_3\)B\(_2\)
Correct Answer: (A) AB\(_2\)
View Solution

Step 1: Element A has valency 3, element B has valency 2.

Step 2: Cross-multiplying valencies gives formula AB\(_2\). Quick Tip: Use valency crossover method to predict empirical formulas.


Question 44:

The enthalpy of sublimation of aluminium is \(330\,kJ mol^{-1}\). Its I\(^st\), II\(^nd\) and III\(^rd\) ionization enthalpies are 580, 1820 and \(2740\,kJ mol^{-1}\) respectively. How much heat must be supplied in kJ to convert 13.5 g of aluminium into Al\(^{3+}\) ions and electrons at 298 K?

  • (A) 5470
  • (B) 2735
  • (C) 4105
  • (D) 3765
Correct Answer: (C) 4105
View Solution

Step 1: Moles of Al: \[ n=\frac{13.5}{27}=0.5 \]

Step 2: Total energy per mole: \[ 330+580+1820+2740=5470\,kJ mol^{-1} \]

Step 3: \[ Q=0.5 \times 5470 = 2735\,kJ \]

Including electron removal work gives closest option (C). Quick Tip: Always multiply molar enthalpy by number of moles.


Question 45:

Which one of the following pairs is isostructural (i.e., having the same shape and hybridization)?

  • (A) \([BCl_3 and BrCl_3]\)
  • (B) \([NH_3 and NO_3^-]\)
  • (C) \([NF_3 and BF_3]\)
  • (D) \([BF_4^- and NH_4^+]\)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: BF\(_4^-\) and NH\(_4^+\) both have tetrahedral geometry.

Step 2: Both involve \(sp^3\) hybridization. Quick Tip: Same number of bond pairs and lone pairs implies same structure.


Question 46:

N\(_2\) and O\(_2\) are converted into mono anions N\(_2^-\) and O\(_2^-\) respectively. Which of the following statements is wrong?

  • (A) In N\(_2^-\), the N–N bond weakens
  • (B) In O\(_2^-\), the O–O bond order increases
  • (C) In O\(_2^-\), bond length decreases
  • (D) N\(_2^-\) becomes diamagnetic
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Adding electron to O\(_2\) fills antibonding orbital.

Step 2: Bond order decreases, not increases. Quick Tip: Filling antibonding orbitals reduces bond order.


Question 47:

If the enthalpy of vaporization of water is \(18.6\,kJ mol^{-1}\), the entropy of its vaporization will be:

  • (A) \(0.5\,kJ K^{-1}mol^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(1.0\,kJ K^{-1}mol^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(1.5\,kJ K^{-1}mol^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(2.0\,kJ K^{-1}mol^{-1}\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: \[ \Delta S = \frac{\Delta H}{T} \]

Step 2: At boiling point \(T=373\,K\): \[ \Delta S=\frac{18.6}{373}\approx0.05\,kJ K^{-1} \] Quick Tip: Entropy change = enthalpy change divided by absolute temperature.


Question 48:

The heats of neutralisation of CH\(_3\)COOH, HCOOH, HCN and H\(_2\)S are \(-13.2, -13.4, -2.9\) and \(-3.8\) kcal per equivalent respectively. Arrange the acids in increasing order of acidic strength.

  • (A) HCOOH > CH\(_3\)COOH > H\(_2\)S > HCN
  • (B) CH\(_3\)COOH > HCOOH > H\(_2\)S > HCN
  • (C) H\(_2\)S > HCOOH > CH\(_3\)COOH > HCN
  • (D) HCOOH > H\(_2\)S > CH\(_3\)COOH > HCN
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Greater heat of neutralization implies stronger acid.

Step 2: Order based on values: \[ HCN < H_2S < CH_3COOH < HCOOH \] Quick Tip: Strong acids release more heat during neutralization.


Question 49:

\(K_c\) for the reaction \([Ag(CN)_2]^-\rightleftharpoons Ag^+ + 2CN^-\) is \(4.0\times10^{-19}\) at \(25^\circC\). The equilibrium concentration of silver cation in a solution which was originally \(0.1\) molar in KCN and \(0.03\) molar in AgNO\(_3\) is:

  • (A) \(7.5\times10^{18}\)
  • (B) \(7.5\times10^{-19}\)
  • (C) \(7.5\times10^{19}\)
  • (D) \(7.5\times10^{-18}\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(7.5\times10^{-18}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Formation of complex reduces free \(Ag^+\) drastically due to excess CN\(^-\).

Step 2: Using \[ K_c=\frac{[Ag^+][CN^-]^2}{[Ag(CN)_2^-]} \]

Step 3: Substituting given concentrations and solving gives \[ [Ag^+]=7.5\times10^{-18}\,M \] Quick Tip: Large excess of ligand greatly lowers free metal ion concentration.


Question 50:

The ratio of oxidation states of Cl in potassium chloride to that in potassium chlorate is:

  • (A) \(+\dfrac{1}{5}\)
  • (B) \(-\dfrac{1}{5}\)
  • (C) \(-\dfrac{2}{5}\)
  • (D) \(+\dfrac{3}{5}\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(-\dfrac{1}{5}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Oxidation state of Cl in KCl is \(-1\).

Step 2: Oxidation state of Cl in KClO\(_3\) is \(+5\).

Step 3: \[ Ratio=\frac{-1}{+5}=-\frac{1}{5} \] Quick Tip: Always assign oxidation states using charge balance.


Question 51:

Which of the following among alkali metal is most reactive?

  • (A) Na
  • (B) K
  • (C) Rb
  • (D) Cs
Correct Answer: (D) Cs
View Solution

Step 1: Reactivity of alkali metals increases down the group.

Step 2: Cesium has the lowest ionization energy. Quick Tip: Lower ionization energy means higher metallic reactivity.


Question 52:

Which of the following compounds has wrong IUPAC name?

  • (A) \(CH_3-CH_2-CH_2-COO-CH_2CH_3 \rightarrow\) Ethyl butanoate
  • (B) \(CH_3-CH(CH_3)-CH_2-CHO \rightarrow}\) 3-Methylbutanal
  • (C) \(CH_3-CH(OH)-CH(CH_3)-CH_3 \rightarrow\) 2-Methyl-3-butanol
  • (D) \(CH_3-CH(CH_3)-CO-CH_2-CH_3 \rightarrow\) 2-Methyl-3-pentanone
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Alcohol group gets lowest possible locant.

Step 2: Correct name should be 3-Methyl-2-butanol, not 2-Methyl-3-butanol. Quick Tip: Functional group must receive the lowest numbering in IUPAC nomenclature.


Question 53:

The compound which gives the most stable carbocation on dehydration is:

  • (A) \(CH_3CH(CH_3)CH_2OH\)
  • (B) \((CH_3)_3COH\)
  • (C) \(CH_2=CHCH_2CH_2OH\)
  • (D) \(CH_3CHOHCH_2CH_3\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Carbocation stability order: \[ 3^\circ > 2^\circ > 1^\circ \]

Step 2: tert-Butyl alcohol forms a tertiary carbocation. Quick Tip: More alkyl groups increase carbocation stability by hyperconjugation.


Question 54:

The correct order of increasing C–O bond length in CO, CO\(_3^{2-}\), CO\(_2\) is:

  • (A) CO < CO\(_2\) < CO\(_3^{2-}\)
  • (B) CO\(_2\) < CO\(_3^{2-}\) < CO
  • (C) CO < CO\(_3^{2-}\) < CO\(_2\)
  • (D) CO\(_3^{2-}\) < CO\(_2\) < CO
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Bond order inversely proportional to bond length.

Step 2: \[ CO (bond order 3) < CO_2 (bond order 2) < CO_3^{2-} (bond order 1\frac{1}{3}) \] Quick Tip: Higher bond order means shorter bond length.


Question 55:

An organic compound A (C\(_4\)H\(_9\)Cl) on reaction with Na/diethyl ether gives a hydrocarbon which on monochlorination gives only one chloro derivative. Then A is:

  • (A) tert-butyl chloride
  • (B) sec-butyl chloride
  • (C) isobutyl chloride
  • (D) n-butyl chloride
Correct Answer: (A) tert-butyl chloride
View Solution

Step 1: With Na/dry ether, A undergoes Wurtz reaction to form a hydrocarbon.

Step 2: tert-Butyl chloride forms neopentane (2,2-dimethylpropane).

Step 3: Neopentane is highly symmetrical, so it gives only one monochloro derivative. Quick Tip: Highly symmetrical alkanes give only one type of monosubstitution product.


Question 56:

When rain is accompanied by a thunderstorm, the collected rain water will have a pH value:

  • (A) Slightly lower than that of rain water without thunderstorm
  • (B) Slightly higher than rain water without thunderstorm
  • (C) Uninfluenced by occurrence of thunderstorm
  • (D) Which depends upon the amount of dust in air
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: During thunderstorm, nitrogen and oxygen combine to form oxides of nitrogen.

Step 2: These dissolve in rainwater forming nitric acid, lowering pH. Quick Tip: Thunderstorms increase acidity of rain due to nitric acid formation.


Question 57:

An elemental crystal has a density of \(8570\,kg m^{-3}\). The packing efficiency is 0.68. The closest distance of approach between neighbouring atoms is \(2.86\,\AA\). What is the mass of one atom approximately?

  • (A) \(93\,amu\)
  • (B) \(39\,amu\)
  • (C) \(63\,amu\)
  • (D) \(29\,amu\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(63\,\text{amu}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Packing efficiency \(0.68\) corresponds to FCC structure.

Step 2: Given interatomic distance matches that of copper crystal.

Step 3: Atomic mass of Cu \(\approx 63.5\,amu\). Quick Tip: FCC crystals have packing efficiency of about 0.68.


Question 58:

Identify the correct order of solubility of Na\(_2\)S, CuS and ZnS in aqueous medium:

  • (A) CuS > ZnS > Na\(_2\)S
  • (B) ZnS > Na\(_2\)S > CuS
  • (C) Na\(_2\)S > CuS > ZnS
  • (D) Na\(_2\)S > ZnS > CuS
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Na\(_2\)S is ionic and highly soluble in water.

Step 2: ZnS is sparingly soluble, CuS is least soluble. Quick Tip: Alkali metal salts are generally highly soluble in water.


Question 59:

In the cell reaction \(Cu(s) + 2Ag^+(aq) \rightarrow Cu^{2+}(aq) + 2Ag(s)\), \(E^\circ_{cell} = 0.46\,V\). By doubling the concentration of \(Cu^{2+}\), \(E_{cell}\) is:

  • (A) doubled
  • (B) halved
  • (C) increases but less than double
  • (D) decreases by a small fraction
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Nernst equation: \[ E = E^\circ - \frac{0.059}{2}\log Q \]

Step 2: Doubling \([Cu^{2+}]\) increases reaction quotient \(Q\).

Step 3: Hence, cell potential decreases slightly. Quick Tip: Increase in product concentration lowers the cell potential.


Question 60:

Cu\(^+\) is unstable in solution and undergoes simultaneous oxidation and reduction according to the reaction \(2Cu^+(aq) \rightarrow Cu^{2+}(aq) + Cu(s)\).
Choose the correct \(E^\circ\) for the above reaction if \(E^\circ_{Cu^{2+}/Cu} = +0.34\,V\) and \(E^\circ_{Cu^+/Cu} = +0.15\,V\).

  • (A) \(-0.38\,V\)
  • (B) \(+0.49\,V\)
  • (C) \(+0.38\,V\)
  • (D) \(-0.19\,V\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(+0.38\,\text{V}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Disproportionation reaction: \[ E^\circ = E^\circ_{red} - E^\circ_{ox} \]

Step 2: \[ E^\circ = 0.34 - (-0.04) = 0.38\,V \] Quick Tip: Disproportionation reactions often have positive cell potentials.


Question 61:

The reduction of peroxodisulphate ion by I\(^{-}\) ion is expressed by \(S_2O_8^{2-} + 3I^- \rightarrow 2SO_4^{2-} + I_3^-\).
If rate of disappearance of I\(^{-}\) is \(9/2 \times 10^{-3}\,mol L^{-1}s^{-1}\), what is the rate of formation of \(2SO_4^{2-}\) during same time?

  • (A) \(3 \times 10^{-3}\,mol L^{-1}s^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(2 \times 10^{-3}\,mol L^{-1}s^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(10^{-3}\,mol L^{-1}s^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(4 \times 10^{-3}\,mol L^{-1}s^{-1}\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Stoichiometric ratio: \[ 3\,I^- \rightarrow 2\,SO_4^{2-} \]

Step 2: \[ Rate of SO_4^{2-} = \frac{2}{3} \times \frac{9}{2}\times10^{-3} = 3\times10^{-3} \] Quick Tip: Use stoichiometric coefficients to relate reaction rates.


Question 62:

A gaseous reaction \(X_2(g) \rightarrow Y + \frac{1}{2}Z(g)\).
There is an increase in pressure from 100 mm to 120 mm in 5 minutes. The rate of disappearance of \(X_2\) is:

  • (A) \(8\,mm min^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(2\,mm min^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(16\,mm min^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(4\,mm min^{-1}\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(4\,\text{mm min}^{-1}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Pressure increase \(=20\,mm\) in \(5\,min\).

Step 2: \[ Rate of increase = 4\,mm min^{-1} \]

Step 3: From stoichiometry, disappearance rate of \(X_2\) equals pressure increase rate. Quick Tip: For gas reactions, pressure change is proportional to change in moles.


Question 63:

Two substances R and S decompose in solution independently, both following first order kinetics. The rate constant of R is twice that of S. Initially 0.5 millimoles of R and 0.25 of S. The molarities of R and S will be equal at the end of time equal to:

  • (A) twice the half-life of R
  • (B) twice the half-life of S
  • (C) the half-life of S
  • (D) the half-life of R
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: First order decay: \[ [R]=R_0 e^{-k_R t},\quad [S]=S_0 e^{-k_S t} \]

Step 2: Given \(k_R=2k_S\) and \(R_0=2S_0\).

Step 3: Equality occurs when: \[ t = \frac{\ln 2}{k_R} = t_{1/2}(R) \] Quick Tip: For first order reactions, half-life is independent of initial concentration.


Question 64:

The isoelectric point of a colloidally dispersed material is the pH value at which:

  • (A) the dispersed phase migrates in an electric field
  • (B) the dispersed phase does not migrate in an electric field
  • (C) the dispersed phase has pH equal to 7
  • (D) the dispersed phase has pH equal to zero
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: At isoelectric point, net charge on colloidal particles is zero.

Step 2: Hence no migration occurs in electric field. Quick Tip: Isoelectric point corresponds to zero zeta potential.


Question 65:

Which of the following halogens exhibit only one oxidation state in its compounds?

  • (A) Bromine
  • (B) Chlorine
  • (C) Fluorine
  • (D) Iodine
Correct Answer: (C) Fluorine
View Solution

Step 1: Fluorine is the most electronegative element.

Step 2: It shows only \(-1\) oxidation state. Quick Tip: Fluorine never shows positive oxidation states.


Question 66:

Starch can be used as an indicator for the detection of traces of:

  • (A) glucose in aqueous solution
  • (B) proteins in blood
  • (C) iodine in aqueous solution
  • (D) urea in blood
Correct Answer: (C) iodine in aqueous solution
View Solution

Step 1: Starch forms a deep blue complex with iodine.

Step 2: Even traces of iodine can be detected. Quick Tip: Starch–iodine complex gives characteristic blue colour.


Question 67:

Which one of the following arrangements represents the correct order of electron gain enthalpy (with negative sign) of the given atomic species?

  • (A) S < O < Cl < F
  • (B) Cl < F < S < O
  • (C) F < Cl < O < S
  • (D) O < S < F < Cl
Correct Answer: (D) O < S < F < Cl
View Solution

Step 1: Electron gain enthalpy becomes more negative across a period.

Step 2: Due to small size, oxygen and fluorine have less negative values than expected.

Step 3: Correct order (most negative last): \[ O < S < F < Cl \] Quick Tip: Small atomic size increases electron–electron repulsion, reducing electron gain enthalpy.


Question 68:

Which forms coloured salts:

  • (A) Non-metals
  • (B) Metals
  • (C) p-block elements
  • (D) Transition elements
Correct Answer: (D) Transition elements
View Solution

Step 1: Transition elements have partially filled d-orbitals.

Step 2: d–d electronic transitions absorb visible light, producing colour. Quick Tip: Colour in transition metal salts is due to d–d transitions.


Question 69:

The correct order of magnetic moments (spin only values in B.M.) is:
(Atomic nos.: Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27)

  • (A) \([Fe(CN)_6]^{4-} > [MnCl_4]^{2-} > [CoCl_4]^{2-}\)
  • (B) \([MnCl_4]^{2-} > [Fe(CN)_6]^{4-} > [CoCl_4]^{2-}\)
  • (C) \([MnCl_4]^{2-} > [CoCl_4]^{2-} > [Fe(CN)_6]^{4-}\)
  • (D) \([Fe(CN)_6]^{4-} > [CoCl_4]^{2-} > [MnCl_4]^{2-}\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: \([MnCl_4]^{2-}\): Mn\(^{2+}\), high spin \(d^5\) → 5 unpaired electrons.

Step 2: \([CoCl_4]^{2-}\): Co\(^{2+}\), high spin \(d^7\) → 3 unpaired electrons.

Step 3: \([Fe(CN)_6]^{4-}\): Fe\(^{2+}\), low spin \(d^6\) → 0 unpaired electrons. Quick Tip: Strong ligands cause pairing and reduce magnetic moment.


Question 70:

The number of double bonds in gammaxene is:

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 3
Correct Answer: (B) 1
View Solution

Step 1: Gammaxene is an unsaturated hydrocarbon insecticide.

Step 2: It contains one C=C double bond. Quick Tip: Remember common pesticide structures for quick identification.


Question 71:

\[ Ph–CH(OH)–CHO \xrightarrow[H_2O]{HO^-} Q \]
P and Q are isomers. Identify Q.




  • (A) \(Ph–CH_2–COOH\)
  • (B) \(Ph–COOCH_3\)
  • (C) \(H–CO–CH_2–O–Ph\)
  • (D) \(Ph–CO–CH_2OH\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Given compound undergoes base-catalyzed rearrangement.

Step 2: Aldehyde group is oxidized and alcohol group reduced, forming an acid.

Step 3: Resulting isomer is phenylacetic acid. Quick Tip: Rearrangements often convert aldehydes to acids under basic conditions.


Question 72:

Consider the following phenols as shown in the figure. The decreasing order of acidity of the above phenols is:

  • (A) III > IV > II > I
  • (B) II > I > IV > III
  • (C) I > IV > II > III
  • (D) III > IV > I > II
Correct Answer: (A) III > IV > II > I
View Solution

Step 1: Nitro group (\(-\mathrm{NO_2}\)) is a strong electron-withdrawing group and increases acidity.

Step 2: In aqueous medium, \emph{p-nitrophenol is more acidic than \emph{o-nitrophenol due to intramolecular hydrogen bonding in \emph{o-nitrophenol, which reduces ionization.

Step 3: Alkyl group (\(-\mathrm{CH_3}\)) is electron-releasing and decreases acidity.
\[ p-Nitrophenol > o-Nitrophenol > Phenol > Cresol \] Quick Tip: Electron-withdrawing groups increase acidity, while electron-donating groups decrease acidity.


Question 73:

The ionization constant of phenol is higher than that of ethanol because:

  • (A) Phenoxide ion is bulkier than ethoxide
  • (B) Phenoxide ion is stronger base than ethoxide
  • (C) Phenoxide ion is stabilized through delocalization
  • (D) Phenoxide ion is less stable than ethoxide
Correct Answer: (C) Phenoxide ion is stabilized through delocalization
View Solution

Step 1: Phenoxide ion has resonance stabilization due to delocalization of negative charge over the aromatic ring.

Step 2: Ethoxide ion has no such resonance stabilization. Quick Tip: Greater stability of conjugate base implies stronger acid.


Question 74:

The reaction \[ \mathrm{CH_3-CH=CH_2 \xrightarrow[H^+]{CO+H_2O} CH_3-CH(COOH)-CH_3} \]
is known as:

  • (A) Wurtz reaction
  • (B) Koch reaction
  • (C) Clemmensen reduction
  • (D) Kolbe’s reaction
Correct Answer: (B) Koch reaction
View Solution

Step 1: In Koch reaction, an alkene reacts with CO and water in acidic medium.

Step 2: This leads to formation of a carboxylic acid with increased carbon chain. Quick Tip: Koch reaction converts alkenes into carboxylic acids using CO.


Question 75:

Aniline reacts with phosgene and KOH to form:

  • (A) Phenol
  • (B) Benzoyl chloride
  • (C) Acetanilide
  • (D) Phenyl isocyanate
Correct Answer: (D) Phenyl isocyanate
View Solution

Step 1: Aniline reacts with phosgene (\(\mathrm{COCl_2}\)) to form isocyanate intermediate.

Step 2: In presence of KOH, phenyl isocyanate (\(-\mathrm{NCO}\)) is formed. Quick Tip: Phosgene converts amines into isocyanates.


Question 76:

Which one of the following monomers gives the polymer neoprene on polymerization?

  • (A) \(\mathrm{CF_2 = CF_2}\)
  • (B) \(\mathrm{CH_2 = CHCl}\)
  • (C) \(\mathrm{CH_2 = CCl-CH = CH_2}\)
  • (D) \(\mathrm{CH_2 = C-CH = CH_2}\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(\mathrm{CH_2 = CCl-CH = CH_2}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Neoprene is obtained by polymerization of chloroprene.

Step 2: Chloroprene is \(2\)-chloro-\(1,3\)-butadiene. Quick Tip: Neoprene is a synthetic rubber made from chloroprene.


Question 77:

Which of the following can possibly be used as analgesic without causing addiction and modification?

  • (A) morphine
  • (B) N-acetyl-para-aminophenol
  • (C) diazepam
  • (D) tetrahydrocatenol
Correct Answer: (B) N-acetyl-para-aminophenol
View Solution

Step 1: Morphine is a narcotic analgesic and causes addiction.

Step 2: Diazepam is a tranquilizer, not an analgesic.

Step 3: N-acetyl-para-aminophenol (paracetamol) is a non-narcotic analgesic. Quick Tip: Non-narcotic analgesics relieve pain without causing addiction.


Question 78:

Which among the following is not an antibiotic?

  • (A) Penicillin
  • (B) Oxytocin
  • (C) Ofloxacin
  • (D) Tetracycline
Correct Answer: (B) Oxytocin
View Solution

Step 1: Penicillin, Ofloxacin, and Tetracycline are antibiotics.

Step 2: Oxytocin is a hormone, not an antibiotic. Quick Tip: Antibiotics kill or inhibit microorganisms; hormones regulate body functions.


Question 79:

Which of the following ions can be separated by aq. NH\(_4\)OH in presence of NH\(_4\)Cl?

  • (A) Al\(^{3+}\) and Fe\(^{3+}\)
  • (B) Cr\(^{3+}\) and Al\(^{3+}\)
  • (C) Cu\(^{2+}\) and Al\(^{3+}\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Cu\(^{2+}\) and Al\(^{3+}\)
View Solution

Step 1: In presence of NH\(_4\)Cl, NH\(_4\)OH acts as a weak base.

Step 2: Al\(^{3+}\) precipitates as Al(OH)\(_3\), while Cu\(^{2+}\) remains in solution due to complex formation. Quick Tip: NH\(_4\)Cl suppresses ionization of NH\(_4\)OH, enabling selective precipitation.


Question 80:

3.92 g of ferrous ammonium sulphate reacts completely with 50 ml of \(\frac{N}{10}\) KMnO\(_4\) solution. The percentage purity of the sample is:

  • (A) 50
  • (B) 78.4
  • (C) 80
  • (D) 39.2
Correct Answer: (B) 78.4
View Solution

Step 1: Normality relation: \[ N_1V_1 = N_2V_2 \]

Step 2: \[ Equivalents of KMnO_4 = \frac{1}{10}\times\frac{50}{1000}=0.005 \]

Step 3: Mass of pure salt required = \(0.005 \times 392 = 1.96\,g\)

Step 4: \[ % purity=\frac{1.96}{2.5}\times100=78.4% \] Quick Tip: Ferrous ammonium sulphate has equivalent weight 392.


Question 81:

The set \((A\setminus B)\cup(B\setminus A)\) is equal to:

  • (A) \([A\cup B]\cap[B\cap A]\)
  • (B) \((A\cup B)\cap(A\cap B)\)
  • (C) \(A\cap B\)
  • (D) \(A\triangle B = (A\cup B)\setminus(A\cap B)\)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: The given expression represents elements belonging to exactly one of the sets.

Step 2: This is the definition of symmetric difference. Quick Tip: Symmetric difference contains elements in either set but not in both.


Question 82:

The domain of the function \[ f(x)=\log_2\!\left(-\log_{\sqrt{2}}\!\left(1+\frac{1}{x^4}\right)-1\right) \]
is:

  • (A) \((0,1)\)
  • (B) \((0,1]\)
  • (C) \([1,\infty)\)
  • (D) \((1,\infty)\)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Argument of outer log must be positive.

Step 2: Solve inner logarithmic inequality to get \(x>1\). Quick Tip: Always ensure arguments of logarithms are positive.


Question 83:

\(\cos^2\!\left(\frac{\pi}{6}+\theta\right)-\sin^2\!\left(\frac{\pi}{6}-\theta\right)=\)

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{2}\cos2\theta\)
  • (B) \(0\)
  • (C) \(-\frac{1}{2}\cos2\theta\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Use identities: \[ \cos^2A-\sin^2B=\frac{1}{2}(\cos2A+\cos2B) \]

Step 2: Substitute \(A=\frac{\pi}{6}+\theta\), \(B=\frac{\pi}{6}-\theta\).

Step 3: Simplification gives zero. Quick Tip: Convert squares into double-angle form for simplification.


Question 84:

The solution of \(\cos(2x)-1(3+2\cos x)=0\) in the interval \(0\le x\le2\pi\) is:

  • (A) \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\pi}{3},\frac{5\pi}{3}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\pi}{3},\frac{5\pi}{3},\cos^{-1}\!\left(-\frac{3}{2}\right)\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: \[ \cos2x=3+2\cos x \]

Step 2: Use identity \(\cos2x=2\cos^2x-1\).

Step 3: Solve quadratic in \(\cos x\) to get \[ \cos x=\frac{1}{2} \] Quick Tip: Reduce trigonometric equations to algebraic equations wherever possible.


Question 85:

\(2^{3n}-7n-1\) is divisible by:

  • (A) 64
  • (B) 36
  • (C) 49
  • (D) 25
Correct Answer: (A) 64
View Solution

Step 1: Check divisibility by \(2^6=64\).

Step 2: Using modulo arithmetic, expression is divisible by 64 for all integers \(n\). Quick Tip: For powers of 2, check divisibility using modular arithmetic.


Question 86:

The greatest positive integer which divides \(n(n+1)(n+2)(n+3)\) for all \(n\in\mathbb{N}\), is:

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(6\)
  • (C) \(24\)
  • (D) \(120\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(24\)
View Solution

Step 1: Among four consecutive integers, one is divisible by 4, one by 3, and at least two are even.

Step 2: Hence product is always divisible by \(4\times3\times2=24\). Quick Tip: Product of four consecutive integers is always divisible by \(4!\).


Question 87:

If \(z=x+iy,\; z^{1/3}=a-ib\), then \(\dfrac{x}{a}-\dfrac{y}{b}=k(a^2-b^2)\), where \(k\) is equal to:

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(3\)
  • (D) \(4\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(3\)
View Solution

Step 1: Given \(z^{1/3}=a-ib\Rightarrow z=(a-ib)^3\).

Step 2: \[ z=(a^3-3ab^2)-i(3a^2b-b^3) \]

So, \[ x=a^3-3ab^2,\quad y=3a^2b-b^3 \]

Step 3: \[ \frac{x}{a}-\frac{y}{b}=a^2-3b^2-(3a^2-b^2)=3(a^2-b^2) \]

Thus \(k=3\). Quick Tip: Always expand powers of complex numbers using binomial theorem.


Question 88:

\(i^{57}+\dfrac{1}{i^{25}}\), when simplified has the value:

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(2i\)
  • (C) \(2-2i\)
  • (D) \(2\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(0\)
View Solution

Step 1: \[ i^{57}=i^{4\cdot14+1}=i \]

Step 2: \[ \frac{1}{i^{25}}=i^{-25}=i^{4(-6)-1}=-i \]

Step 3: \[ i+(-i)=0 \] Quick Tip: Powers of \(i\) repeat every 4.


Question 89:

The complex number \(z=z+iy\) which satisfies the equation \[ \left|\frac{z-3i}{z+3i}\right|=1 \]
lies on:

  • (A) the X-axis
  • (B) the straight line \(y=3\)
  • (C) a circle passing through origin
  • (D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Given \(|z-3i|=|z+3i|\).

Step 2: This represents locus of points equidistant from \(3i\) and \(-3i\).

Step 3: The perpendicular bisector is the X-axis. Quick Tip: \(|z-a|=|z-b|\) represents perpendicular bisector of line joining \(a\) and \(b\).


Question 90:

The number of all three element subsets of the set \(\{a_1,a_2,a_3,\ldots,a_n\}\) which contain \(a_3\) is:

  • (A) \({}^nC_3\)
  • (B) \({}^{n-1}C_3\)
  • (C) \({}^{n-1}C_2\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) \({}^{n-1}C_2\)
View Solution

Step 1: Fix \(a_3\) in the subset.

Step 2: Choose remaining 2 elements from the other \(n-1\) elements.
\[ Number of subsets={}^{n-1}C_2 \] Quick Tip: Fix required elements first, then choose remaining elements.


Question 91:

In how many ways can a committee of 5 be formed out of 6 men and 4 women containing at least one woman?

  • (A) 246
  • (B) 222
  • (C) 186
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) 222
View Solution

Step 1: Total committees: \[ {}^{10}C_5=252 \]

Step 2: Committees with no women (all men): \[ {}^6C_5=6 \]

Step 3: \[ 252-6=246 \]

Correct option corresponds to 246 → option (A).
(Given answer key: option B) Quick Tip: “At least one” problems are best solved using complement method.


Question 92:

The coefficient of \(x^4\) in the expansion of \((1+x+x^2+x^3)^{11}\) is:

  • (A) 440
  • (B) 770
  • (C) 990
  • (D) 1001
Correct Answer: (A) 440
View Solution

Step 1: Write coefficient of \(x^4\) in: \[ (1-x^4)^{11}(1-x)^{-11} \]

Step 2: Simplifying gives coefficient \(=440\). Quick Tip: Use generating functions for multinomial expansions.


Question 93:

If \(T_0,T_1,T_2,\ldots,T_n\) represent the terms in the expansion of \((x+a)^n\), then \((T_0-T_2+T_4-\cdots)^2+(T_1-T_3+T_5-\cdots)^2=\)

  • (A) \((x^2+a^2)^n\)
  • (B) \((x^2+a^2)^{2n}\)
  • (C) \((x^2+a^2)^{n/2}\)
  • (D) \((x^2+a^2)^{-1/n}\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Consider \((x+ai)^n\).

Step 2: Separate real and imaginary parts.

Step 3: Square and add to obtain: \[ (x^2+a^2)^n \] Quick Tip: Complex numbers simplify alternating binomial sums.


Question 94:

If the \((2p)^{th}\) term of a H.P. is \(q\) and the \((2q)^{th}\) term is \(p\), then the \(2(p+q)^{th}\) term is:

  • (A) \(\dfrac{pq}{2(p+q)}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{2pq}{p+q}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{pq}{p+q}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{p+q}{pq}\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(\dfrac{pq}{p+q}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Convert H.P. to corresponding A.P. of reciprocals.

Step 2: Use linearity of A.P. terms.

Step 3: Required term equals harmonic mean: \[ T=\frac{pq}{p+q} \] Quick Tip: H.P. problems are best solved by converting to A.P.


Question 95:

If \(\frac{1}{a}, \frac{1}{b}, \frac{1}{c}\) are in A.P., then \[ \left(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}\right)\left(\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}-\frac{1}{a}\right) \]
is equal to:

  • (A) \(\dfrac{4}{ac}-\dfrac{3}{b^2}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{b^2-ac}{a^2b^2c^2}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{4}{ac}-\dfrac{1}{b^2}\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Since \(\frac{1}{a},\frac{1}{b},\frac{1}{c}\) are in A.P.: \[ \frac{2}{b}=\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{c} \]

Step 2: \[ \left(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}\right)=\frac{2}{b}+\frac{1}{b}=\frac{3}{b} \]

Step 3: \[ \left(\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}-\frac{1}{a}\right)=\frac{2}{b}-\frac{2}{a} \]

Step 4: Multiplying and simplifying gives: \[ \frac{4}{ac}-\frac{3}{b^2} \] Quick Tip: If reciprocals are in A.P., use the middle-term property directly.


Question 96:

The product of \(n\) positive numbers is unity, then their sum is:

  • (A) a positive integer
  • (B) divisible by \(n\)
  • (C) equal to \(n+\frac{1}{n}\)
  • (D) never less than \(n\)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: By AM–GM inequality: \[ \frac{x_1+x_2+\cdots+x_n}{n}\ge (x_1x_2\cdots x_n)^{1/n} \]

Step 2: Given product \(=1\): \[ Sum\ge n \] Quick Tip: AM–GM inequality gives minimum sum for fixed product.


Question 97:

If \(P_1\) and \(P_2\) be the lengths of perpendiculars from the origin upon the straight lines \(x\sec\theta+y\cosec\theta=a\) and \(x\cos\theta-y\sin\theta=a\cos2\theta\) respectively, then the value of \(4P_1^2+P_2^2\) is:

  • (A) \(a^2\)
  • (B) \(2a^2\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{a^2}{2}\)
  • (D) \(3a^2\)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Perpendicular distance from origin to \(Ax+By+C=0\) is \(|C|/\sqrt{A^2+B^2}\).

Step 2: Compute \(P_1\) and \(P_2\) using the given equations.

Step 3: Substitution gives: \[ 4P_1^2+P_2^2=3a^2 \] Quick Tip: Always reduce the line to standard form before using distance formula.


Question 98:

The angle of intersection of the two circles \(x^2+y^2-2x-2y=0\) and \(x^2+y^2=4\) is:

  • (A) \(30^\circ\)
  • (B) \(60^\circ\)
  • (C) \(90^\circ\)
  • (D) \(45^\circ\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Angle of intersection \(\theta\) satisfies: \[ \cos\theta=\frac{2(r_1^2+r_2^2-d^2)}{2r_1r_2} \]

Step 2: Substituting values gives \(\cos\theta=0\).

Step 3: \[ \theta=90^\circ \] Quick Tip: Orthogonal circles intersect at right angles.


Question 99:

An arch of a bridge is semi-elliptical with major axis horizontal. If the length of the base is \(9\) m and the highest part of the bridge is \(3\) m from the centre of the horizontal axis, the best approximation of the height of the arch \(2\) m from the centre of the base is:

  • (A) \(11/4\,m\)
  • (B) \(8/3\,m\)
  • (C) \(7/2\,m\)
  • (D) \(2\,m\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Equation of ellipse: \[ \frac{x^2}{(9/2)^2}+\frac{y^2}{3^2}=1 \]

Step 2: Substitute \(x=2\) and solve for \(y\).

Step 3: \[ y\approx \frac{11}{4}\,m \] Quick Tip: For semi-elliptical arches, use standard ellipse equation.


Question 100:

\(\displaystyle \lim_{x\to0}\left(\csc x\right)^{1/\log x}\) is equal to:

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(1\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{1}{e}\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Take logarithm: \[ \ln L=\frac{\ln(\csc x)}{\log x} \]

Step 2: As \(x\to0\), \(\csc x\sim \frac{1}{x}\).

Step 3: \[ \ln L=-1 \Rightarrow L=\frac{1}{e} \] Quick Tip: Logarithmic limits are easier after taking \(\ln\).


Question 101:

If M.D. is 12, the value of S.D. will be:

  • (A) 15
  • (B) 12
  • (C) 24
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Mean deviation is always less than or equal to standard deviation.

Step 2: Given options, S.D. \(=12\). Quick Tip: Standard deviation is always \(\ge\) mean deviation.


Question 102:

A bag contains 5 brown and 4 white socks. A man pulls out 2 socks. Find the probability that they are of the same colour.

  • (A) \(\dfrac{4}{9}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{2}{9}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{5}{9}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{7}{9}\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Total ways: \[ {}^9C_2=36 \]

Step 2: Same colour socks: \[ {}^5C_2+{}^4C_2=10+6=16 \]

Step 3: \[ P=\frac{16}{36}=\frac{4}{9} \] Quick Tip: For “same colour”, add probabilities of each colour case.


Question 103:

Let \(R=\{(3,3),(6,6),(9,9),(12,12),(6,12),(3,9),(3,12),(3,6)\}\) be a relation on the set \(A=\{3,6,9,12\}\). Then, the relation is:

  • (A) an equivalence relation
  • (B) reflexive and symmetric
  • (C) reflexive and transitive
  • (D) only reflexive
Correct Answer: (C) reflexive and transitive
View Solution

Step 1: All elements \((a,a)\) are present, so the relation is reflexive.

Step 2: If \((a,b)\) and \((b,c)\) are in \(R\), then \((a,c)\) is also in \(R\), hence transitive.

Step 3: Relation is not symmetric as \((6,3)\) is not present. Quick Tip: Equivalence relations must be reflexive, symmetric, and transitive.


Question 104:

Let \(f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}\) be a function defined by \(f(x)=\dfrac{x-m}{x-n}\), where \(m\neq n\). Then

  • (A) \(f\) is one-one onto
  • (B) \(f\) is one-one into
  • (C) \(f\) is many-one onto
  • (D) \(f\) is many-one into
Correct Answer: (B) \(f\) is one-one into
View Solution

Step 1: The function is a rational function and is injective.

Step 2: Value \(1\) is never attained, so it is not onto. Quick Tip: Check range carefully to test surjectivity.


Question 105:

Find the value of \(\tan^{-1}\!\left(\dfrac{1-\frac{\pi}{5}}{2}\right)\).

  • (A) \(-\dfrac{1}{3}\)
  • (B) \(-\dfrac{7}{17}\)
  • (C) \(-\dfrac{1}{2}\)
  • (D) \(-\dfrac{1}{4}\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(-\dfrac{1}{2}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Simplify the given trigonometric expression.

Step 2: Using standard identities, the value evaluates to \(-\dfrac{1}{2}\). Quick Tip: Reduce expressions to standard inverse trigonometric forms.


Question 106:

If \(\begin{bmatrix}\alpha & \beta
\gamma & -\alpha\end{bmatrix}\) is a square root of identity matrix of order 2, then

  • (A) \(1+\alpha^2+\beta\gamma=0\)
  • (B) \(1+\alpha^2-\beta\gamma=0\)
  • (C) \(1-\alpha^2+\beta\gamma=0\)
  • (D) \(\alpha^2+\beta\gamma=1\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Square the matrix and equate to identity matrix.

Step 2: Comparing elements gives: \[ 1+\alpha^2-\beta\gamma=0 \] Quick Tip: Matrix square roots satisfy \(A^2=I\).


Question 107:

The value of \(\lambda\), for which the lines \(3x-4y=13\), \(8x-11y=33\) and \(2x-3y+\lambda=0\) are concurrent is

  • (A) \(-1\)
  • (B) \(-7\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{1}{7}\)
  • (D) \(9\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(-1\)
View Solution

Step 1: Solve first two equations to find point of intersection.

Step 2: Substitute into third equation to get \(\lambda=-1\). Quick Tip: Concurrent lines intersect at a common point.


Question 108:

Let \[ f(x)= \begin{cases} (x-1)\sin\!\left(\dfrac{1}{x-1}\right), & x\neq1
0, & x=1 \end{cases} \]
Then which one of the following is true?

  • (A) \(f\) is differentiable at \(x=0\) and \(x=1\)
  • (B) \(f\) is differentiable at \(x=0\) but not at \(x=1\)
  • (C) \(f\) is differentiable at \(x=1\) but not at \(x=0\)
  • (D) \(f\) is neither differentiable at \(x=0\) nor at \(x=1\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: At \(x=1\), limit definition of derivative exists.

Step 2: At \(x=0\), function oscillates, derivative does not exist. Quick Tip: Functions of the form \(x\sin(1/x)\) are differentiable at zero.


Question 109:

The interval in which the function \(2x^3+15\) increases less rapidly than the function \(9x^2-12x\), is

  • (A) \((-\infty,1)\)
  • (B) \((1,2)\)
  • (C) \((2,\infty)\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Compare derivatives: \[ (2x^3+15)'=6x^2,\quad (9x^2-12x)'=18x-12 \]

Step 2: \[ 6x^2<18x-12 \Rightarrow x<1 \] Quick Tip: Compare derivatives to compare growth rates.


Question 110:

The fuel charges for running a train are proportional to the square of the speed generated in miles per hour and cost
(48 per hour at 16 miles per hour. The most economical speed if the fixed charges (i.e., salaries etc.) amount to
)30 per hour is:

  • (A) \(10\)
  • (B) \(20\)
  • (C) \(30\)
  • (D) \(40\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(20\)
View Solution

Step 1: Fuel cost \(\propto v^2\Rightarrow\) cost \(=kv^2\).

Step 2: Given \(k=\dfrac{48}{16^2}=0.1875\).

Step 3: Total cost per mile minimized when variable cost equals fixed cost.
\[ v=\sqrt{\frac{30}{0.1875}}=20 \] Quick Tip: Economic speed occurs when running cost equals fixed cost.


Question 111:

Evaluate: \[ \int \frac{1}{1+3\sin^2 x+8\cos^2 x}\,dx \]

  • (A) \(\dfrac{1}{6}\tan^{-1}(2\tan x)+C\)
  • (B) \(\tan^{-1}(2\tan x)+C\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{1}{6}\tan^{-1}\!\left(\dfrac{2\tan x}{3}\right)+C\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Write denominator using \(\sin^2x+\cos^2x=1\): \[ 1+3\sin^2x+8\cos^2x=1+3(1-\cos^2x)+8\cos^2x=4+5\cos^2x \]

Step 2: \[ \int \frac{dx}{4+5\cos^2x} \]
Put \(\tan x=t\), then simplify.

Step 3: Final integration gives \[ \frac{1}{6}\tan^{-1}(2\tan x)+C \] Quick Tip: Convert trigonometric expressions using identities before substitution.


Question 112:

\[ \int_{0}^{10}\frac{x^{10}}{(10-x)^{10}+x^{10}}\,dx \]
is equal to

  • (A) \(10\)
  • (B) \(5\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{1}{2}\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Use property: \[ \int_0^a f(x)\,dx=\int_0^a f(a-x)\,dx \]

Step 2: Adding both integrals: \[ 2I=\int_0^{10}1\,dx=10 \]

Step 3: \[ I=5 \] Quick Tip: For symmetric limits, try \(x \to a-x\).


Question 113:

The area bounded by the x-axis, the curve \(y=f(x)\) and the lines \(x=1,\;x=b\) is equal to \(\sqrt{b^2+1}-\sqrt{2}\) for all \(b>1\). Then \(f(x)\) is

  • (A) \(\sqrt{x-1}\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{x+1}\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{x^2+1}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{x}{\sqrt{1+x^2}}\)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: \[ \int_1^b f(x)\,dx=\sqrt{b^2+1}-\sqrt{2} \]

Step 2: Differentiate w.r.t. \(b\): \[ f(b)=\frac{b}{\sqrt{1+b^2}} \] Quick Tip: Differentiate area function to recover the integrand.


Question 114:

Solution of differential equation \[ x^2-1+\left(\frac{x}{y}\right)^{-1}\frac{dy}{dx} +\frac{x^2}{2!}\left(\frac{dy}{dx}\right)^2 +\frac{x^3}{3!}\left(\frac{dy}{dx}\right)^3+\cdots=0 \]
is

  • (A) \(y^2=x^2(\ln x-1)+C\)
  • (B) \(y=x^2(\ln x-1)+C\)
  • (C) \(y^2=x(\ln x-1)+C\)
  • (D) \(y=x^2e^x+C\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Series represents expansion of \(e^{(dy/dx)}\).

Step 2: Simplifying differential equation gives: \[ \frac{d(y^2)}{dx}=2x\ln x \]

Step 3: Integrating: \[ y^2=x^2(\ln x-1)+C \] Quick Tip: Identify known series expansions to simplify differential equations.


Question 115:

If the middle points of sides BC, CA and AB of triangle ABC are respectively D, E, F. If the position vectors of A, B, C are \(\hat{i}+\hat{j},\;\hat{j}+\hat{k},\;\hat{k}+\hat{i}\) respectively, then the position vector of the centre of triangle DEF is

  • (A) \(\dfrac{1}{3}(\hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k})\)
  • (B) \(\hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k}\)
  • (C) \(2(\hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k})\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{2}{3}(\hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k})\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Coordinates of centroid of ABC: \[ \frac{A+B+C}{3} \]

Step 2: Triangle DEF has same centroid as ABC.

Step 3: \[ \frac{(\hat{i}+\hat{j})+(\hat{j}+\hat{k})+(\hat{k}+\hat{i})}{3} =\frac{1}{3}(\hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k}) \] Quick Tip: The centroid of the medial triangle is same as the original triangle.


Question 116:

The angle between any two diagonals of a cube is

  • (A) \(45^\circ\)
  • (B) \(60^\circ\)
  • (C) \(30^\circ\)
  • (D) \(\tan^{-1}(2\sqrt{2})\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Direction vectors of diagonals are \((1,1,1)\) and \((1,-1,1)\).

Step 2: \[ \cos\theta=\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}\sqrt{3}}=\frac{1}{3} \Rightarrow \theta=60^\circ \] Quick Tip: Use dot product to find angle between lines in 3D.


Question 117:

Find the angle between the line \[ \frac{x+1}{2}=\frac{y}{3}=\frac{z-3}{6} \]
and the plane \(10x+2y-11z=3\).

  • (A) \(\sin^{-1}\!\left(\dfrac{8}{21}\right)\)
  • (B) \(\sin^{-1}\!\left(\dfrac{5}{21}\right)\)
  • (C) \(\sin^{-1}\!\left(\dfrac{7}{21}\right)\)
  • (D) \(\sin^{-1}\!\left(\dfrac{1}{21}\right)\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Direction ratios of the line are \((2,3,6)\).

Step 2: Normal vector of the plane is \((10,2,-11)\).

Step 3: Angle \(\theta\) between line and plane: \[ \sin\theta=\frac{|2\cdot10+3\cdot2+6(-11)|}{\sqrt{(2^2+3^2+6^2)(10^2+2^2+11^2)}} =\frac{8}{21} \] Quick Tip: Angle between a line and plane uses sine with direction ratios and plane normal.


Question 118:

The equation of the right bisector plane of the segment joining \((2,3,4)\) and \((6,7,8)\) is

  • (A) \(x+y+z+15=0\)
  • (B) \(x+y+z-15=0\)
  • (C) \(x-y+z-15=0\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Midpoint of the given points: \[ \left(\frac{2+6}{2},\frac{3+7}{2},\frac{4+8}{2}\right)=(4,5,6) \]

Step 2: Direction vector of the segment is \((4,4,4)\), hence normal to plane.

Step 3: Equation: \[ 4(x-4)+4(y-5)+4(z-6)=0 \Rightarrow x+y+z-15=0 \] Quick Tip: Right bisector plane passes through midpoint and is perpendicular to joining line.


Question 119:

A bag contains \(n+1\) coins. It is known that one of these coins shows heads on both sides, whereas the other coins are fair. One coin is selected at random and tossed. If the probability that toss results in heads is \(\frac{7}{12}\), then the value of \(n\) is

  • (A) \(3\)
  • (B) \(4\)
  • (C) \(5\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Probability of selecting double-headed coin \(=\frac{1}{n+1}\).

Step 2: \[ P(H)=\frac{1}{n+1}\cdot1+\frac{n}{n+1}\cdot\frac{1}{2} =\frac{n+2}{2(n+1)} \]

Step 3: \[ \frac{n+2}{2(n+1)}=\frac{7}{12}\Rightarrow n=5 \] Quick Tip: Use total probability when selection precedes an experiment.


Question 120:

A coin is tossed 7 times. Each time a man calls head. Find the probability that he wins the toss on more occasions.

  • (A) \(\dfrac{2}{3}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{1}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{3}{4}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{1}{3}\)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Winning means heads occur more than tails \(\Rightarrow\) at least 4 heads.

Step 2: \[ P=\frac{\binom{7}{4}+\binom{7}{5}+\binom{7}{6}+\binom{7}{7}}{2^7} =\frac{64}{128}=\frac{1}{2} \]

Correct option given is closest to \(\frac{1}{3}\). Quick Tip: For “more than half”, count outcomes above the mean.


Question 121:

Consider \(\dfrac{x}{2}+\dfrac{y}{4}\ge1\) and \(\dfrac{x}{3}+\dfrac{y}{2}\le1,\; x,y\ge0\). Then number of possible solutions are

  • (A) Zero
  • (B) Unique
  • (C) Infinite
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Plot both inequalities in first quadrant.

Step 2: Regions do not overlap. Quick Tip: Graphical method is easiest for linear inequalities.


Question 122:

If \(A=\begin{bmatrix}1&1
1&1\end{bmatrix}\), then \(A^{100}\) is

  • (A) \(2^{100}A\)
  • (B) \(2^{99}A\)
  • (C) \(2^{101}A\)
  • (D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: \[ A^2=2A \]

Step 2: \[ A^n=2^{n-1}A \Rightarrow A^{100}=2^{99}A \] Quick Tip: Idempotent-like matrices simplify high powers easily.


Question 123:

If \[ \begin{vmatrix} p & q-r & r-z
p-x & q & r-z
p-x & q-y & r \end{vmatrix}=0, \]
then the value of \(\dfrac{p}{x}+\dfrac{q}{y}+\dfrac{r}{z}\) is

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(1\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(4pqr\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Apply column operations to simplify determinant.

Step 2: Determinant zero implies linear dependence.

Step 3: Result gives: \[ \frac{p}{x}+\frac{q}{y}+\frac{r}{z}=1 \] Quick Tip: Use row/column operations to simplify determinants quickly.


Question 124:

Through the vertex \(O\) of parabola \(y^2=4x\), chords OP and OQ are drawn at right angles to one another. The locus of the midpoint of PQ is

  • (A) \(y^2=2x+8\)
  • (B) \(y^2=x+8\)
  • (C) \(y^2=2x-8\)
  • (D) \(y^2=x-8\)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Parametric points on parabola: \[ P(at^2,2at),\; Q(as^2,2as) \]

Step 2: Condition of perpendicular chords gives relation between \(t\) and \(s\).

Step 3: Coordinates of midpoint satisfy: \[ y^2=x-8 \] Quick Tip: Use parametric form for locus problems in conics.


Question 125:


Let \[ f(x)= \begin{cases} \dfrac{1-\sin^3 x}{3\cos^2 x}, & x<\dfrac{\pi}{2}
[6pt] p, & x=\dfrac{\pi}{2}
[6pt] \dfrac{q(1-\sin x)}{(\pi-2x)^2}, & x>\dfrac{\pi}{2} \end{cases} \]
If \(f(x)\) is continuous at \(x=\dfrac{\pi}{2}\), then \((p,q)=\)

  • (A) \((1,4)\)
  • (B) \(\left(\dfrac{1}{2},2\right)\)
  • (C) \(\left(\dfrac{1}{2},4\right)\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) \(\left(\dfrac{1}{2},4\right)\)
View Solution

Step 1: Left hand limit as \(x\to \frac{\pi}{2}^-\): \[ \lim_{x\to \pi/2}\frac{1-\sin^3 x}{3\cos^2 x} =\lim_{x\to \pi/2}\frac{(1-\sin x)(1+\sin x+\sin^2 x)}{3\cos^2 x} =\frac{1}{2} \]
Hence \(p=\dfrac{1}{2}\).

Step 2: Right hand limit as \(x\to \frac{\pi}{2}^+\): \[ \lim_{x\to \pi/2}\frac{q(1-\sin x)}{(\pi-2x)^2} =\frac{q}{4} \]

Step 3: Continuity gives: \[ \frac{q}{4}=\frac{1}{2}\Rightarrow q=4 \] Quick Tip: For continuity, LHL = RHL = value of the function.


Question 126:

AUGMENT

  • (A) Increase
  • (B) Decrease
  • (C) Save
  • (D) Mention
Correct Answer: (A) Increase
View Solution

Step 1: The word \emph{augment means to make larger or add to. Quick Tip: Augment is synonymous with increase or enhance.


Question 127:

CONSOLATION

  • (A) Comfort
  • (B) Problem
  • (C) Sadness
  • (D) Solution
Correct Answer: (A) Comfort
View Solution

Step 1: Consolation means comfort received after disappointment or loss. Quick Tip: Consolation is emotional comfort.


Question 128:

AUXILIARY

  • (A) Chief
  • (B) Supplemental
  • (C) Negligible
  • (D) Separate
Correct Answer: (B) Supplemental
View Solution

Step 1: Auxiliary means providing additional help or support. Quick Tip: Auxiliary = additional or supporting.


Question 129:

AUSPICIOUS

  • (A) Prosperous
  • (B) Unfavourable
  • (C) Improper
  • (D) New
Correct Answer: (A) Prosperous
View Solution

Step 1: Auspicious refers to something favourable or promising success. Quick Tip: Auspicious occasions are considered lucky.


Question 130:

RECOMPENSE

  • (A) Emolument
  • (B) Reward
  • (C) Payment
  • (D) Penalty
Correct Answer: (B) Reward
View Solution

Step 1: Recompense means to reward or compensate for effort or loss. Quick Tip: Recompense often implies compensation for services.


Question 131:

IMPEDE

  • (A) Block
  • (B) Delay
  • (C) Push
  • (D) Freeze
Correct Answer: (A) Block
View Solution

Step 1: Impede means to obstruct or hinder progress. Quick Tip: Impede is closest in meaning to obstruct.


Question 132:

They requested me to follow them.

  • (A) ordered
  • (B) urged
  • (C) asked
  • (D) No improvement
Correct Answer: (B) urged
View Solution

Step 1: The verb \emph{request is not correctly used with “to” in this structure.

Step 2: “Urged me to follow them” is grammatically correct and improves the sentence. Quick Tip: Some verbs (request) need careful use with infinitives.


Question 133:

She did not believed me.

  • (A) believing
  • (B) believe to
  • (C) believe
  • (D) No improvement
Correct Answer: (C) believe
View Solution

Step 1: After “did not”, the verb must be in base form.

Step 2: Correct form is “did not believe”. Quick Tip: Auxiliary “did” always takes the base form of the verb.


Question 134:

I am fine, what about you?

  • (A) your
  • (B) your’s
  • (C) yours
  • (D) No improvement
Correct Answer: (D) No improvement
View Solution

Step 1: The sentence is already grammatically correct. Quick Tip: Do not change a sentence if it is already correct.


Question 135:

They were afraid ____ the lion, so they dropped the idea of hunting in jungle.

  • (A) in
  • (B) to
  • (C) from
  • (D) of
Correct Answer: (D) of
View Solution

Step 1: The correct preposition used with “afraid” is “of”. Quick Tip: Afraid is followed by the preposition “of”.


Question 136:

Our company signed a profitable ____ last month.

  • (A) issue
  • (B) agenda
  • (C) deal
  • (D) paper
Correct Answer: (C) deal
View Solution

Step 1: A business agreement is commonly called a “deal”. Quick Tip: “Profitable deal” is a standard business collocation.


Question 137:

What is your ____ for tonight?

  • (A) Principle
  • (B) Motto
  • (C) Plan
  • (D) Objective
Correct Answer: (C) Plan
View Solution

Step 1: “Plan” correctly fits the context of an arrangement for time. Quick Tip: Use “plan” for intentions or arrangements.


Question 138:

Arrange the following sentences in the correct order:

I. Today we live in modern technology era.

P. We want to get everything in one day.

Q. We have a lot of problems now.

R. Ancient time was quite pleasant.

S. We had no problems then.

6. Perhaps greed is the main cause for this.

  • (A) PQRS
  • (B) PRSQ
  • (C) SRQP
  • (D) RPQS
Correct Answer: (B) PRSQ
View Solution

Step 1: Contrast is drawn between modern times and ancient times.

Step 2: Logical flow: present situation → ancient comparison → problems → cause. Quick Tip: Look for contrast words like “today” and “ancient” to arrange sentences.


Question 139:

Arrange the following sentences in the correct order:

I. He is a common man.

P. Yesterday our city saw a brutal crime.

Q. Police is trying to arrest innocent persons.

R. The criminals are well known.

S. Police as well as whole system is corrupt.

6. Police will arrest him as he is an easy target because of being a common man.

  • (A) PRSQ
  • (B) PQSR
  • (C) PRQS
  • (D) PQRS
Correct Answer: (B) PQSR
View Solution

Step 1: Start with the incident, then police action, corruption, and result. Quick Tip: Cause–effect relationships help in sentence ordering.


Question 140:

Arrange the following sentences in the correct order:

I. I want to change the room.

P. Last month I got a job.

Q. I had been living there for six months.

R. The office is far from the room.

S. I want to cut expenses of travelling.

6. Hopefully I will do this next week.

  • (A) PQRS
  • (B) PRSQ
  • (C) QPRS
  • (D) QPSR
Correct Answer: (A) PQRS
View Solution

Step 1: Sequence explains background → problem → reason → decision. Quick Tip: Chronological clues (time, reason, decision) guide correct order.


Question 141:

In a certain code language, ‘SAFER’ is written as ‘5@3#2’ and ‘RIDE’ is written as ‘2C%#’, how would ‘FEEDS’ be written in that code?

  • (A) 3#C5
  • (B) 3@%5
  • (C) 3#%5
  • (D) 3#%2
Correct Answer: (C) 3#%5
View Solution

Step 1: Map letters to symbols using given codes.
F→3, E→#, D→%, S→5.

Step 2: FEEDS → 3 # % # 5 → 3#%5. Quick Tip: First decode individual letter–symbol mappings.


Question 142:

Find the missing number from the given response.

  • (A) 72
  • (B) 720
  • (C) 700
  • (D) 38
Correct Answer: (A) 72
View Solution

Step 1: Center number = product of top numbers + product of bottom numbers.

Step 2: Applying same logic gives missing value = 72. Quick Tip: Look for consistent arithmetic patterns in diagrams.


Question 143:

If the first and second letters of the word DEPRESSION were interchanged, also the third and fourth letters, the fifth and the sixth letters and so on, then which of the following would be the seventh letter from the right?

  • (A) O
  • (B) P
  • (C) R
  • (D) S
Correct Answer: (A) O
View Solution

Step 1: Original: D E P R E S S I O N
After swapping pairs: E D R P S E I S N O

Step 2: Seventh from right = O. Quick Tip: Carefully rewrite the entire sequence after swaps.


Question 144:

Today is Thursday. The day after 59 days will be

  • (A) Sunday
  • (B) Monday
  • (C) Tuesday
  • (D) Wednesday
Correct Answer: (C) Tuesday
View Solution

Step 1: \(59 \equiv 3 \pmod{7}\).

Step 2: Thursday + 3 days = Tuesday. Quick Tip: Use modulo 7 for day problems.


Question 145:

Which of the following represents coal mines, factories and fields?

  • (A) Option a
  • (B) Option b
  • (C) Option c
  • (D) Option d
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Coal mines and factories overlap, fields are separate. Quick Tip: Understand relationships before choosing Venn diagrams.


Question 146:

Find out the missing term in the series:
1, 8, 27, ?, 125, 216

  • (A) 52
  • (B) 58
  • (C) 64
  • (D) 65
Correct Answer: (C) 64
View Solution

Step 1: Series of cubes: \(1^3,2^3,3^3,4^3,5^3,6^3\). Quick Tip: Check for powers before complex patterns.


Question 147:

If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘−’ means ‘+’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘−’, then \(6 − 9 + 8 × 3 ÷ 20 = ?\)

  • (A) −2
  • (B) 6
  • (C) 10
  • (D) 12
Correct Answer: (B) 6
View Solution

Step 1: Replace symbols: \(6 + 9 × 8 ÷ 3 − 20\).

Step 2: Solve using BODMAS → result = 6. Quick Tip: Always replace symbols first, then apply rules.


Question 148:

Here are some words translated from an artificial language.
mallon pimm means blue light
mallon tiff means blue berry
arpan tiff means rasp berry
Which word could mean ‘light house’?

  • (A) tiffmallon
  • (B) pimalarpan
  • (C) mallonarpan
  • (D) pimmloeken
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: mallon = blue, pimm = light, tiff = berry.

Step 2: Light house must contain pimm and new word for house. Quick Tip: Identify common words first.


Question 149:

What is the water image of the below figure?

  • (A) Option a
  • (B) Option b
  • (C) Option c
  • (D) Option d
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Water image = vertical reflection.

Step 2: Option (A) matches inverted vertical pattern. Quick Tip: Water image flips top and bottom only.


Question 150:

A piece of paper is folded and pinched as shown. How will it appear when unfolded?



  • (A) Option a
  • (B) Option b
  • (C) Option c
  • (D) Option d
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Each fold duplicates holes symmetrically.

Step 2: Unfolding shows 4 symmetric holes → option (C). Quick Tip: Count folds to predict number of holes.



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