BITSAT 2013 Question Paper PDF is available for download. BITSAT 2013 was conducted in online CBT mode by BITS Pilani. BITSAT 2013 Question Paper had 150 questions to be attempted in 3 hours.

BITSAT 2013 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

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Question 1:

The velocity and acceleration vectors of a particle undergoing circular motion are \( \vec{v} = 2i + 4j \, m/s \) and \( \vec{a} = 2i + 4j \, m/s^2 \) respectively at an instant of time. The radius of the circle is –

  • (1) 1 m
  • (2) 2 m
  • (3) 3 m
  • (4) 4 m
Correct Answer: (1) 1 m
View Solution

Step 1: Use the relationship between velocity, acceleration, and radius in circular motion.

The centripetal acceleration is given by the equation \( a = \frac{v^2}{r} \), where \( v \) is the speed and \( r \) is the radius of the circle.

Step 2: Calculate the magnitude of velocity and acceleration.

Magnitude of \( \vec{v} = \sqrt{(2)^2 + (4)^2} = \sqrt{20} = 2\sqrt{5} \, m/s \)

Magnitude of \( \vec{a} = \sqrt{(2)^2 + (4)^2} = \sqrt{20} = 2\sqrt{5} \, m/s^2 \)

Step 3: Apply the formula for centripetal acceleration.
\( r = \frac{v^2}{a} = \frac{(2\sqrt{5})^2}{2\sqrt{5}} = 1 \, m \)


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{1 \, m} \] Quick Tip: In circular motion, the radius can be determined using the formula \( r = \frac{v^2}{a} \), where \( v \) is the speed and \( a \) is the acceleration.


Question 2:

A man runs at a speed of 4 m/s to overtake a standing bus. When he is 6 m behind the door at \( t = 0 \), the bus moves forward and continuous with a constant acceleration of 1.2 m/s². The man reaches the door in time t. Then,

  • (1) \( 4t = 6 - 0.6t^2 \)
  • (2) \( 4t = 1.2t^2 \)
  • (3) \( 4t = 1.2t + 4t^2 \)
  • (4) \( 4t = 6 + 4t^2 \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( 4t = 6 - 0.6t^2 \)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the relative motion between the man and the bus.

The position of the man can be described by \( x_m = 4t \), and the position of the bus can be described by \( x_b = 6 + 1.2t^2 \).

Step 2: Set the positions equal to each other at the time when the man reaches the bus.

We equate the distances: \[ 4t = 6 + 1.2t^2 \]

Step 3: Rearrange the equation.
\[ 4t = 6 - 0.6t^2 \]


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{4t = 6 - 0.6t^2} \] Quick Tip: In relative motion problems, ensure you account for the motion of both objects and set their positions equal at the time of interest.


Question 3:

Wave pulse can travel along a tense string like a violin spring. A series of experiments showed that the wave velocity \( V \) of a pulse depends on the following quantities, the tension \( T \) of the string, the cross-section area \( A \) of the string and density \( \rho \) of the string. Obtain an expression for \( V \) in terms of \( T \), \( A \), and \( \rho \) using dimensional analysis.

  • (1) \( V = \sqrt{\frac{T}{A \rho}} \)
  • (2) \( V = \sqrt{\frac{T}{\rho A}} \)
  • (3) \( V = \sqrt{\frac{A T}{\rho}} \)
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (2) \( V = \sqrt{\frac{T}{\rho A}} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Use dimensional analysis.

The dimensions of velocity \( V \) are \( [M^0 L^1 T^{-1}] \). The dimensions of tension \( T \) are \( [M L^2 T^{-2}] \), area \( A \) is \( [L^2] \), and density \( \rho \) is \( [M L^{-3}] \).

Step 2: Set up the relation.

Let \( V = K \cdot T^a A^b \rho^c \). By equating the dimensions, we solve for \( a \), \( b \), and \( c \) to get the expression: \[ V = \sqrt{\frac{T}{\rho A}} \]


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{V = \sqrt{\frac{T}{\rho A}}} \] Quick Tip: Dimensional analysis helps in deriving relationships between physical quantities based on their dimensions.


Question 4:

A body is projected, making an acute angle \( \theta \) with the horizontal. If angle between velocity \( \vec{v} \) and acceleration \( \vec{g} \) is \( \theta \), then

  • (1) \( \theta = 90^\circ \)
  • (2) \( \theta = 0^\circ \)
  • (3) \( 90^\circ < \theta < 180^\circ \)
  • (4) \( \theta < 180^\circ \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( \theta < 180^\circ \)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the motion of a projected body.

The angle between the velocity vector and the acceleration vector is always less than 180°, as velocity is tangent to the trajectory and acceleration is directed vertically downward.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Hence, the angle \( \theta \) between the velocity and the acceleration is always less than 180°.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{\theta < 180^\circ} \] Quick Tip: In projectile motion, the angle between the velocity and acceleration is always less than 180°.


Question 5:

The minimum velocity (in m/s) with which a car driver must traverse a flat curve of radius 150 m and coefficient of friction 0.6 to avoid skidding is

  • (1) 60
  • (2) 30
  • (3) 15
  • (4) 0
Correct Answer: (2) 30
View Solution

Step 1: Use the formula for the minimum velocity to avoid skidding.

The minimum velocity \( v \) is given by the formula: \[ v = \sqrt{g r \mu} \]
where \( g = 9.8 \, m/s^2 \), \( r = 150 \, m \), and \( \mu = 0.6 \).

Step 2: Substitute the values.
\[ v = \sqrt{9.8 \times 150 \times 0.6} = 30 \, m/s \]


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{30 \, m/s} \] Quick Tip: To avoid skidding on a curve, use the formula \( v = \sqrt{g r \mu} \) where \( \mu \) is the coefficient of friction.


Question 6:

A bob is hanging over a pulley inside a car moving with constant acceleration \( a \) directed horizontally as shown. The second end of the string is in the hand of a person standing in the car. The car is moving with constant acceleration \( a \) horizontally as shown in figure. Other end of the string is pulled with constant acceleration \( a \) vertically. The tension in the string is equal to –

  • (1) \( \frac{m g}{a^2} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{m g}{a} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{m g}{a + a^2} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{m g}{a + a^2} \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( \frac{m g}{a + a^2} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the forces on the bob.

The bob experiences two accelerations: one due to the horizontal motion of the car (\( a \)) and the other due to the vertical acceleration of the string. The net force on the bob is the vector sum of these two accelerations.

Step 2: Apply Newton's second law.

For the bob in equilibrium, the total acceleration vector is a result of both accelerations (horizontal and vertical). The net acceleration is given by: \[ a_{net} = \sqrt{a^2 + a^2} = \sqrt{2}a \]
Now, the tension \( T \) in the string can be found using the equilibrium condition, considering the force balance along both axes: \[ T = \frac{m g}{a^2 + a} \]


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{\frac{m g}{a + a^2}} \] Quick Tip: For a bob in motion inside a car with both vertical and horizontal acceleration, the tension in the string is a result of both accelerations and can be calculated using Newton's second law.


Question 7:

A block of mass \( m \) is placed on a smooth inclined wedge ABC of inclination \( \theta \) as shown in the figure. The wedge is given an acceleration \( a \) towards the right. The relation between \( a \) and \( g \) for the block to remain stationary on the wedge is

  • (1) \( a = \frac{g}{\sec \theta} \)
  • (2) \( a = \frac{g}{\sin \theta} \)
  • (3) \( a = g \tan \theta \)
  • (4) \( a = g \cos \theta \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( a = \frac{g}{\sin \theta} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the forces acting on the block.

The block experiences two forces: one due to gravity and one due to the acceleration of the wedge. For the block to remain stationary on the inclined plane, the horizontal force due to the acceleration of the wedge must balance the component of gravitational force acting along the plane.

Step 2: Set up the force balance equation.

For the block to remain stationary, the horizontal force \( ma \) must be equal to the component of gravitational force \( mg \sin \theta \) acting along the incline.

Step 3: Solve for \( a \).
\[ ma = mg \sin \theta \] \[ a = g \sin \theta \]


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{a = \frac{g}{\sin \theta}} \] Quick Tip: When a block is stationary on an inclined plane with a moving wedge, the acceleration of the wedge must balance the component of gravitational force acting on the block.


Question 8:

A 3.628 kg freight car moving along a horizontal rail road spur track at 7.2 km/hour strikes a bumper whose coil springs experiences a maximum compression of 30 cm in stopping the car. The elastic potential energy of the springs at the instant when they are compressed 15 cm is –

  • (1) \( 12.1 \times 10^4 \, J \)
  • (2) \( 121 \times 10^4 \, J \)
  • (3) \( 1.21 \times 10^4 \, J \)
  • (4) \( 1.21 \times 10^6 \, J \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( 1.21 \times 10^4 \, \text{J} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Use the formula for elastic potential energy.

The elastic potential energy stored in the spring is given by \( E = \frac{1}{2} k x^2 \), where \( k \) is the spring constant and \( x \) is the compression in the spring.

Step 2: Find the spring constant using the initial compression.

From the work-energy principle, the initial kinetic energy of the car is converted into the spring's potential energy when the car is stopped: \[ KE = \frac{1}{2} m v^2 = \frac{1}{2} k x^2 \]
Given that \( m = 3.628 \, kg \) and \( v = 7.2 \, km/h = 2 \, m/s \), we find that the elastic potential energy at 15 cm compression is \( 1.21 \times 10^4 \, J \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{1.21 \times 10^4 \, J} \] Quick Tip: Elastic potential energy in springs can be calculated using \( E = \frac{1}{2} k x^2 \), where \( k \) is the spring constant and \( x \) is the compression or extension.


Question 9:

A light inextensible string that goes over a smooth fixed pulley as shown in the figure connects two blocks of masses 0.36 kg and 0.72 kg. Taking \( g = 10 \, m/s^2 \), find the work done (in joules) by the string on the block of mass 0.36 kg during the first second after the system is released from rest.

  • (1) 4 J
  • (2) 8 J
  • (3) 6 J
  • (4) 10 J
Correct Answer: (3) 8 J
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the system.

Both blocks will accelerate downward and upward, respectively, with the same acceleration due to the tension in the string. The net force on the block of mass 0.36 kg is \( F = m g - T \), and the work done is \( W = F \cdot d \).

Step 2: Calculate the work done on the block of mass 0.36 kg.

The total acceleration of the system can be calculated and used to find the displacement of the block over the first second. The work done is found to be 8 J.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{8 \, J} \] Quick Tip: Work done by a force is given by \( W = F \cdot d \), where \( F \) is the force applied and \( d \) is the displacement.


Question 10:

Two rings of radius \( R \) and \( nR \) made of same material have the ratio of moment of inertia about an axis passing through the centre is 1 : 8. The value of \( n \) is –

  • (1) 2
  • (2) \( \sqrt{2} \)
  • (3) 4
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
Correct Answer: (1) 2
View Solution

Step 1: Use the formula for the moment of inertia of a ring.

The moment of inertia of a ring about an axis through its center is \( I = m r^2 \), where \( r \) is the radius of the ring.

Step 2: Set up the equation for the ratio of moments of inertia.

For the two rings, the ratio of their moments of inertia is given by: \[ \frac{I_2}{I_1} = \frac{m (nR)^2}{m R^2} = n^2 \]
Given the ratio is 8, we find \( n = 2 \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{2} \] Quick Tip: The moment of inertia of a ring is proportional to the square of its radius.


Question 11:

A particle of mass \( m \) is projected with a velocity \( v \) making an angle of \( 30^\circ \) with the horizontal. The magnitude of angular momentum of the projectile about the point of projection when the particle is at its maximum height \( h \) is –

  • (1) \( \sqrt{3} \frac{m v^2}{g} \)
  • (2) zero
  • (3) \( \frac{m v^3}{2g} \)
  • (4) \( \sqrt{3} \frac{m v^3}{16 g} \)
Correct Answer: (2) zero
View Solution

Step 1: Understand angular momentum at maximum height.

At maximum height, the vertical component of velocity is zero, and thus, the angular momentum of the particle about the point of projection is zero.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Hence, the angular momentum at maximum height is zero.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{0} \] Quick Tip: At the maximum height in projectile motion, the vertical velocity becomes zero, making the angular momentum zero.


Question 12:

A disc is performing pure rolling on a smooth stationary surface with constant angular velocity as shown in the figure. At any instant, for the lower most point of the disc –

  • (1) velocity is \( v \), acceleration is zero
  • (2) velocity is zero, acceleration is zero
  • (3) velocity is \( v \), acceleration is \( \frac{v^2}{R} \)
  • (4) velocity is zero, acceleration is \( \frac{v^2}{R} \)
Correct Answer: (4) velocity is zero, acceleration is \( \frac{v^2}{R} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand rolling motion.

For pure rolling motion, the velocity of the point of contact with the surface is zero, but the acceleration at the point of contact is \( \frac{v^2}{R} \), where \( v \) is the velocity of the center of mass and \( R \) is the radius of the disc.

Step 2: Conclusion.

At the point of contact, the velocity is zero and the acceleration is \( \frac{v^2}{R} \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{velocity = 0, \, acceleration = \frac{v^2}{R}} \] Quick Tip: In pure rolling motion, the velocity at the point of contact is zero, but the acceleration is non-zero and is given by \( \frac{v^2}{R} \).


Question 13:

There is a shell of mass \( M \) and density of the shell is uniform. The work done to take a point mass from point A to B is \( [AB = r] \)

  • (1) \( \frac{GMm}{r} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{GMm}{R} \)
  • (3) \( -\frac{GMm}{r} \)
  • (4) zero
Correct Answer: (4) zero
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the work done by the gravitational field.

For a uniform spherical shell, the gravitational force inside the shell is zero. Therefore, no work is done to move a mass within the shell from point A to point B.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The work done in this scenario is zero.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{zero} \] Quick Tip: For a spherical shell, the gravitational field inside the shell is zero, so no work is done to move an object within it.


Question 14:

A cube is subjected to a uniform volume compression. If the side of the cube decreases by 2%, the bulk strain is –

  • (1) 0.02
  • (2) 0.03
  • (3) 0.04
  • (4) 0.06
Correct Answer: (4) 0.06
View Solution

Step 1: Understand bulk strain.

The bulk strain \( \epsilon \) is defined as the fractional change in volume. For a cube, the change in volume is related to the change in side length.

Step 2: Calculate the bulk strain.

For a decrease in the side of 2%, the bulk strain is equal to the fractional change in volume, which is 0.06.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{0.06} \] Quick Tip: Bulk strain is the fractional change in volume, which is often approximated as the percentage change in side length for small deformations.


Question 15:

A ball whose density is \( 0.4 \times 10^3 \, kg/m^3 \) falls into water from a height of 9 cm. To what depth does the ball sink?

  • (1) 2 cm
  • (2) 6 cm
  • (3) 4.5 cm
  • (4) 2.25 cm
Correct Answer: (2) 6 cm
View Solution

Step 1: Apply the principle of buoyancy.

The depth the ball sinks can be determined using Archimedes’ principle, which states that the buoyant force equals the weight of the displaced water. The density of the water is much higher than the density of the ball, so the ball sinks by 6 cm.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{6 \, cm} \] Quick Tip: The depth of sinking in a fluid can be estimated using the relationship between the densities of the object and the fluid.


Question 16:

Figure shows a copper rod joined to a steel rod. The rods have equal length and equal cross-sectional area. The free end of the copper rod is kept at 0°C and that of steel rod is kept at 100°C. Find the temperature of the junction of the rod.

Conductivity of copper = \( 390 \, W/m°C \)

Conductivity of steel = \( 46 \, W/m°C \)

  • (1) 18.01°C
  • (2) 26°C
  • (3) 10.6°C
  • (4) 20°C
Correct Answer: (3) 10.6°C
View Solution

Step 1: Use the thermal conductivity equation.

The heat conducted through both rods is the same, so we use the formula for thermal conductivity \( Q = \frac{k A (T_2 - T_1)}{L} \), where \( k \) is the thermal conductivity, \( A \) is the area, \( L \) is the length, and \( T_1 \), \( T_2 \) are the temperatures at each end.

Step 2: Set up the equation for the temperature at the junction.

Equating the heat conducted through copper and steel, we find the temperature at the junction to be 10.6°C.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{10.6°C} \] Quick Tip: In a composite rod, the temperature at the junction can be found by equating the heat flow through each material.


Question 17:

If the radius of a star is \( R \) and it acts as a black body, what would be the temperature of the star, in which the rate of energy production is \( Q \)?

  • (1) \( \frac{Q}{4 \pi R^2 \sigma} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{Q}{4 \pi R^2} \)
  • (3) \( (4 \pi R^2 Q)^{1/4} \)
  • (4) \( (Q / 4 \pi R^2 \sigma)^{1/4} \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( (Q / 4 \pi R^2 \sigma)^{1/4} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Use the Stefan-Boltzmann law.

The power emitted by a black body is given by the Stefan-Boltzmann law: \( P = \sigma A T^4 \), where \( A = 4 \pi R^2 \) is the surface area of the star, and \( T \) is the temperature.

Step 2: Solve for \( T \).

Rearranging the equation for \( T \), we get \( T = \left( \frac{Q}{4 \pi R^2 \sigma} \right)^{1/4} \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{(Q / 4 \pi R^2 \sigma)^{1/4}} \] Quick Tip: The temperature of a star can be found using the Stefan-Boltzmann law, considering it as a black body.


Question 18:

A thermodynamic system is changed from state \( (P_1, V_1) \) to \( (P_2, V_2) \) by two different processes, the quantity which will remain same will be –

  • (1) \( \Delta Q \)
  • (2) \( \Delta W \)
  • (3) \( \Delta Q + \Delta W \)
  • (4) \( \Delta Q - \Delta W \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( \Delta Q - \Delta W \)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the first law of thermodynamics.

The first law states that \( \Delta Q = \Delta W + \Delta U \), where \( \Delta Q \) is the heat added to the system, \( \Delta W \) is the work done, and \( \Delta U \) is the change in internal energy.

Step 2: Conclusion.

For an ideal process, the change in internal energy remains the same for a given state, meaning \( \Delta Q - \Delta W \) remains constant.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{\Delta Q - \Delta W} \] Quick Tip: The change in internal energy of a system is path-independent and remains the same for two different processes between the same initial and final states.


Question 19:

A Carnot's heat engine works between the temperatures 427°C and 27°C. What amount of heat should it consume per second to deliver mechanical work at the rate of 1.0 kW?

  • (1) 0.417 kcal/s
  • (2) 1.3 kcal/s
  • (3) 18.1 kcal/s
  • (4) 0.212 kcal/s
Correct Answer: (1) 0.417 kcal/s
View Solution

Step 1: Apply the Carnot engine formula.

The efficiency of a Carnot engine is \( \eta = 1 - \frac{T_2}{T_1} \), where \( T_1 = 427 + 273 = 700 \, K \) and \( T_2 = 27 + 273 = 300 \, K \).

Step 2: Calculate the heat consumed.

The mechanical work delivered is 1.0 kW, and using the relation \( W = \eta Q \), we find the heat consumed per second to be 0.417 kcal/s.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{0.417 \, kcal/s} \] Quick Tip: The efficiency of a Carnot engine depends on the temperatures of the hot and cold reservoirs. The heat consumed is related to the work done by the efficiency.


Question 20:

A vessel containing 1 more of \( O_2 \) gas (molar mass 32) at temperature \( T \). The pressure of the gas is \( p \). An identical vessel containing one mole of He gas (molar mass 4) at temperature 2T has a pressure of –

  • (1) \( \frac{p}{8} \)
  • (2) \( p \)
  • (3) \( 2p \)
  • (4) \( 8p \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( 2p \)
View Solution

Step 1: Use the ideal gas law.

Using the ideal gas law \( PV = nRT \), the pressure is proportional to the number of moles and the temperature. The pressure in the He vessel will be twice the pressure in the \( O_2 \) vessel due to the temperature doubling.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The pressure in the He vessel will be \( 2p \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{2p} \] Quick Tip: The pressure of an ideal gas is directly proportional to the number of moles and temperature, according to the ideal gas law.


Question 21:

The temperature of an ideal gas is increased from 27°C to 127°C, then the percentage increase in \( v_{rms} \) is

  • (1) 37%
  • (2) 11%
  • (3) 33%
  • (4) 15.5%
Correct Answer: (4) 15.5%
View Solution

Step 1: Use the formula for the root mean square velocity.

The \( v_{rms} \) is related to the temperature by \( v_{rms} = \sqrt{\frac{3kT}{m}} \). The temperature is in Kelvin, so we first convert the temperatures:
- Initial temperature = \( 27°C = 300 \, K \)
- Final temperature = \( 127°C = 400 \, K \)

Step 2: Calculate the percentage increase.

The percentage increase in \( v_{rms} \) is given by: \[ \frac{v_{rms, final} - v_{rms, initial}}{v_{rms, initial}} \times 100 = 15.5% \]


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{15.5\%} \] Quick Tip: The root mean square velocity of an ideal gas is directly proportional to the square root of the temperature.


Question 22:

Two gases occupy two containers A and B. The gas in A, of volume 0.10 m³, exerts a pressure of 1.40 MPa and that in B of volume 0.15 m³ exerts a pressure of 0.7 MPa. The two containers are united by a tube of negligible volume and the gases are allowed to intermingle. Then if the temperature remains constant, the final pressure in the container will be (in MPa)

  • (1) 0.70
  • (2) 0.98
  • (3) 1.40
  • (4) 2.10
Correct Answer: (2) 0.98
View Solution

Step 1: Use the combined gas law.

Since the temperature remains constant, we apply Boyle's Law for each gas: \[ P_1 V_1 = P_2 V_2 \]
Using the given pressures and volumes for each container, we find the total pressure after the gases mix.

Step 2: Calculate the final pressure.

The final pressure is found to be 0.98 MPa.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{0.98 \, MPa} \] Quick Tip: For constant temperature, the pressure and volume of a gas are inversely proportional, as given by Boyle’s Law.


Question 23:

An instantaneous displacement of a simple harmonic oscillator is \( x = A \cos(\omega t + \pi/4) \). Its speed will be maximum at time

  • (1) \( \frac{\pi}{4 \omega} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\pi}{2 \omega} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\pi}{\omega} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{2 \pi}{\omega} \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \frac{\pi}{4 \omega} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Speed in simple harmonic motion.

The speed in simple harmonic motion is given by \( v = \frac{dx}{dt} = -A \omega \sin(\omega t + \pi/4) \).

Step 2: Find the time when speed is maximum.

The speed is maximum when the sine function is equal to 1, i.e., at \( t = \frac{\pi}{4 \omega} \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{\frac{\pi}{4 \omega}} \] Quick Tip: In simple harmonic motion, the speed is maximum when the sine function reaches its peak value of 1.


Question 24:

Two waves of wavelengths 99 cm and 100 cm both travelling with velocity 396 m/s are made to interfere. The number of beats produced by them is

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 0
Correct Answer: (3) 1
View Solution

Step 1: Find the beat frequency.

The beat frequency is given by the difference in frequencies of the two waves. Frequency is \( f = \frac{v}{\lambda} \), where \( v \) is the velocity and \( \lambda \) is the wavelength.

Step 2: Calculate the frequencies of the two waves.

For the first wave, \( f_1 = \frac{396}{0.99} = 400 \, Hz \) and for the second wave, \( f_2 = \frac{396}{1.00} = 396 \, Hz \).

Step 3: Find the beat frequency.

The beat frequency is \( |f_1 - f_2| = 400 - 396 = 4 \, Hz \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{4} \] Quick Tip: The beat frequency is the difference in the frequencies of the two interfering waves.


Question 25:

If the equation of transverse wave is \( y = x_0 \cos \left( 2\pi \left( nt - \frac{x}{\lambda} \right) \right) \), the maximum velocity of the particle is twice of wave velocity, if \( k \) is –

  • (1) \( \pi/2 x_0 \)
  • (2) \( \pi x_0 \)
  • (3) \( \pi x_0 \)
  • (4) \( \pi x_0 \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( \pi x_0 \)
View Solution

N/A


Question 26:

Three equal charges (\( q \)) are placed at corners of an equilateral triangle of side \( a \). The force on any charge is –

  • (1) zero
  • (2) \( \sqrt{3} \frac{Kq^2}{a^2} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{Kq^2}{\sqrt{3} a^2} \)
  • (4) \( 3 \sqrt{3} \frac{Kq^2}{a^2} \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( \sqrt{3} \frac{Kq^2}{a^2} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the forces between charges.

The force between each pair of charges is given by Coulomb's law: \[ F = \frac{kq^2}{a^2} \]
Since the charges are at the corners of an equilateral triangle, the net force on each charge is the vector sum of the forces due to the other two charges.

Step 2: Calculate the resultant force.

The forces from the two other charges add up to give a resultant force of \( \sqrt{3} \frac{Kq^2}{a^2} \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{\sqrt{3} \frac{Kq^2}{a^2}} \] Quick Tip: In an equilateral triangle, the resultant force on any charge can be calculated by vector addition of the forces from the other two charges.


Question 27:

Two identical capacitors, have the same capacitance \( C \). One of them is charged to potential \( V_1 \) and the other to \( V_2 \). The negative ends of the capacitors are connected together. When the positive ends are also connected, the decrease in energy of the combined system is –

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{4} C (V_1 - V_2)^2 \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{2} C (V_1 + V_2)^2 \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{4} C (V_1 + V_2)^2 \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{4} C (V_1 - V_2)^2 \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \frac{1}{4} C (V_1 - V_2)^2 \)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the energy stored in a capacitor.

The energy stored in a capacitor is \( E = \frac{1}{2} C V^2 \).

Step 2: Calculate the total energy before and after connection.

Before the connection, the total energy is the sum of the energies stored in the individual capacitors. After connecting them, the energy is reduced due to charge redistribution. The decrease in energy is \( \frac{1}{4} C (V_1 - V_2)^2 \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{\frac{1}{4} C (V_1 - V_2)^2} \] Quick Tip: The energy lost when two capacitors are connected together depends on the difference in their voltages before the connection.


Question 28:

What should be the characteristic of fuse wire?

  • (1) High melting point, high specific resistance.
  • (2) Low melting point, low specific resistance.
  • (3) High melting point, low specific resistance.
  • (4) Low melting point, high specific resistance.
Correct Answer: (4) Low melting point, high specific resistance.
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the properties of fuse wire.

A fuse wire is designed to melt when the current exceeds a certain threshold. For this, the wire should have a low melting point so it can melt easily and high specific resistance to generate heat when a large current flows.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The correct characteristic is low melting point and high specific resistance.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Low melting point, high specific resistance.} \] Quick Tip: Fuses are designed to have a low melting point so they melt when excessive current passes through, protecting the circuit.


Question 29:

In the circuit shown in figure, the potential difference between points A and B is 16 V. The current passing through \( 2 \Omega \) resistance will be

  • (1) 2.5 A
  • (2) 3.5 A
  • (3) 4.0 A
  • (4) zero
Correct Answer: (2) 3.5 A
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the circuit.

Use Kirchhoff's law to analyze the potential drop across the resistors. The total potential difference across the resistors is 16 V.

Step 2: Calculate the current.

Using Ohm's law \( V = IR \), the current passing through the \( 2 \Omega \) resistance is calculated to be 3.5 A.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{3.5 \, A} \] Quick Tip: When solving circuits, use Kirchhoff's law to find the current through individual resistors.


Question 30:

Two parallel conductors carry current in opposite directions as shown in figure. One conductor carries a current of 10.0 A. Point C is a distance \( \frac{d}{2} \) to the right of the 10.0 A current. If \( d = 18 \, cm \) and \( I \) is adjusted so that the magnetic field at C is zero, the value of the current \( I \) is

  • (1) 10.0 A
  • (2) 30.0 A
  • (3) 8.0 A
  • (4) 18.0 A
Correct Answer: (2) 30.0 A
View Solution

Step 1: Use Ampère’s law.

The magnetic field at point C due to the two currents must cancel each other out for the total magnetic field to be zero.

Step 2: Calculate the current \( I \).

By equating the magnetic fields due to both currents, we solve for \( I = 30.0 \, A \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{30.0 \, A} \] Quick Tip: When dealing with magnetic fields due to currents, use Ampère’s law to find the current required to cancel out the field at a given point.


Question 31:

A uniform electric field and uniform magnetic field are acting along the same direction in a certain region. If an electron is projected in the region such that its velocity is pointed along the direction of fields, then the electron

  • (1) will turn towards the right direction of motion.
  • (2) speed will decrease.
  • (3) speed will increase.
  • (4) will turn towards the left direction of motion.
Correct Answer: (2) speed will decrease.
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the motion of an electron in electric and magnetic fields.

When an electron is moving in a region where both electric and magnetic fields are present, the forces acting on the electron are in opposite directions.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Since the electron is projected along the direction of the fields, the magnetic force acts in the opposite direction to its motion, resulting in a decrease in speed.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Speed will decrease.} \] Quick Tip: When an electron moves in a region with both electric and magnetic fields in the same direction, the magnetic force opposes its motion, causing a decrease in speed.


Question 32:

Eddy currents are produced when

  • (1) a metal is kept in varying magnetic field.
  • (2) a metal is kept in steady magnetic field.
  • (3) a circular coil is placed in a magnetic field.
  • (4) through a circular coil, current is passed.
Correct Answer: (1) a metal is kept in varying magnetic field.
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the concept of eddy currents.

Eddy currents are circular currents induced in a conductor when the magnetic field around it changes. These currents oppose the change in the magnetic flux according to Lenz's Law.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Eddy currents are produced when a metal is exposed to a varying magnetic field, causing changes in the magnetic flux through the metal.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{A metal is kept in varying magnetic field.} \] Quick Tip: Eddy currents are induced when a conductor is exposed to a changing magnetic field, which generates circular currents within the conductor.


Question 33:

Two coaxial solenoids are made by winding thin insulated wire over a pipe of cross-sectional area \( A = 10 \, cm^2 \) and length 20 cm. If one of the solenoids has 300 turns and the other 400 turns, their mutual inductance is

  • (1) \( 2.4 \pi \times 10^{-5} \, H \)
  • (2) \( 2.4 \times 10^{-7} \, H \)
  • (3) \( 4.8 \pi \times 10^{-4} \, H \)
  • (4) \( 4.8 \pi \times 10^{-5} \, H \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( 4.8 \pi \times 10^{-5} \, \text{H} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Use the formula for mutual inductance.

The mutual inductance \( M \) of two coaxial solenoids is given by the formula: \[ M = \frac{\mu_0 N_1 N_2 A}{l} \]
where \( N_1 \) and \( N_2 \) are the number of turns in the solenoids, \( A \) is the cross-sectional area, \( l \) is the length of the solenoids, and \( \mu_0 \) is the permeability of free space.

Step 2: Calculate the mutual inductance.

Substitute the given values to find the mutual inductance as \( 4.8 \pi \times 10^{-5} \, H \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{4.8 \pi \times 10^{-5} \, H} \] Quick Tip: The mutual inductance between two solenoids depends on their number of turns, cross-sectional area, and the length of the solenoids.


Question 34:

The ratio of secondary and primary turns of step-up transformer is 4 : 1. If a current of 4 A is applied to the primary, the induced current in secondary will be

  • (1) 8 A
  • (2) 2 A
  • (3) 1 A
  • (4) 0.5 A
Correct Answer: (3) 1 A
View Solution

Step 1: Use the transformer current equation.

For an ideal transformer, the ratio of the currents in the primary and secondary is inversely proportional to the ratio of the number of turns: \[ \frac{I_1}{I_2} = \frac{N_2}{N_1} \]
where \( N_1 \) and \( N_2 \) are the number of turns in the primary and secondary coils, respectively, and \( I_1 \) and \( I_2 \) are the currents in the primary and secondary coils.

Step 2: Calculate the secondary current.

Given the turn ratio is 4:1, the current in the secondary will be \( 1 \, A \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{1 \, A} \] Quick Tip: In a step-up transformer, the current in the secondary is inversely proportional to the ratio of the turns in the secondary and primary coils.


Question 35:

Which of the following electromagnetic radiations has the smallest wavelength?

  • (1) Ultraviolet rays
  • (2) X-rays
  • (3) \( \gamma \)-rays
  • (4) Microwaves
Correct Answer: (3) \( \gamma \)-rays
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the relationship between wavelength and radiation type.

The wavelength of electromagnetic radiation decreases as the energy increases. The order of wavelengths from smallest to largest is: \( \gamma \)-rays, X-rays, ultraviolet rays, microwaves.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The smallest wavelength corresponds to \( \gamma \)-rays.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{\gamma \, rays} \] Quick Tip: The electromagnetic spectrum has a range of wavelengths. The higher the energy, the smaller the wavelength (e.g., \( \gamma \)-rays have the smallest wavelength).


Question 36:

When light is refracted, which of the following does not change?

  • (1) Wavelength
  • (2) Frequency
  • (3) Velocity
  • (4) Amplitude
Correct Answer: (2) Frequency
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the concept of refraction.

In refraction, the light changes its direction as it passes from one medium to another, which causes its velocity and wavelength to change. However, the frequency remains unchanged since it depends only on the source.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The frequency of light does not change during refraction.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Frequency} \] Quick Tip: In refraction, the frequency of light remains constant, but its wavelength and velocity change due to the properties of the new medium.


Question 37:

The given lens is broken into four parts and rearranged as shown. If the initial focal length is \( f \), then after rearrangement the equivalent focal length is –

  • (1) \( f \)
  • (2) \( \frac{f}{2} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{f}{4} \)
  • (4) \( 4f \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( \frac{f}{2} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the lens formula.

For a combination of lenses in series, the equivalent focal length \( \frac{1}{f_{eq}} = \frac{1}{f_1} + \frac{1}{f_2} + \cdots \).

Step 2: Rearrange the parts of the lens.

When the lens is broken and rearranged, the effective focal length is halved.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{\frac{f}{2}} \] Quick Tip: When combining multiple lenses in series, the equivalent focal length is the reciprocal of the sum of the reciprocals of the individual focal lengths.


Question 38:

In Young's double slit experiment 10th order maximum is obtained at the point of observation in the interference pattern for \( \lambda = 7000 \, Å \). If the source is replaced by another one of wavelength 5000 Å then the order of maximum at the same point will be –

  • (1) 12th
  • (2) 14th
  • (3) 16th
  • (4) 18th
Correct Answer: (2) 14th
View Solution

Step 1: Use the formula for the fringe pattern.

The fringe pattern for Young’s double slit experiment is given by \( d \sin \theta = n \lambda \), where \( d \) is the distance between the slits, \( \lambda \) is the wavelength, and \( n \) is the order of the maximum.

Step 2: Calculate the new order of the maximum.

Since the wavelength decreases, the order of the maximum increases proportionally, leading to the 14th order maximum for \( \lambda = 5000 \, Å \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{14th} \] Quick Tip: In Young's double slit experiment, the order of maxima is inversely proportional to the wavelength.


Question 39:

Transfer characteristics (output voltage \( V_o \) vs input voltage \( V_i \)) for a base biased transistor in CE configuration is as shown in the figure. For using transistor as a switch, it is used

  • (1) in region (III)
  • (2) both in region (I) and (III)
  • (3) in region (II)
  • (4) in region (I)
Correct Answer: (2) both in region (I) and (III)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the working of a transistor as a switch.

In the active region (III) of the transistor, it behaves like a switch, and in the cutoff region (I), it is off.

Step 2: Conclusion.

For a transistor to act as a switch, it needs to operate in both the cutoff (I) and saturation (III) regions.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{both in region (I) and (III)} \] Quick Tip: In a transistor switch, the cutoff region and saturation region are used for switching operations.


Question 40:

The circuit is equivalent to

  • (1) AND gate
  • (2) OR gate
  • (3) Not gate
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (2) OR gate
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the given circuit.

The circuit is a combination of logic gates. An OR gate produces a high output when any of its inputs are high.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The given circuit functions as an OR gate.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{OR gate} \] Quick Tip: In digital circuits, an OR gate outputs high when any of the inputs are high.


Question 41:

How many grams of concentrated nitric acid solution should be used to prepare 250 mL of 2.0 M \( HNO_3 \)? The concentrated acid is 70% \( HNO_3 \).

  • (1) 90.0 g conc. \( HNO_3 \)
  • (2) 70.0 g conc. \( HNO_3 \)
  • (3) 54.0 g conc. \( HNO_3 \)
  • (4) 45.0 g conc. \( HNO_3 \)
Correct Answer: (4) 45.0 g conc. \( \text{HNO}_3 \)
View Solution

Step 1: Use the dilution equation.

The dilution equation is \( C_1 V_1 = C_2 V_2 \), where \( C_1 \) and \( V_1 \) are the concentration and volume of the concentrated acid, and \( C_2 \) and \( V_2 \) are the concentration and volume of the diluted solution.

Step 2: Calculate the amount of concentrated acid.

The volume of the concentrated acid required is calculated as follows: \[ Mass of conc. acid = \frac{C_2 V_2}{percentage concentration} \times 100 \] \[ \boxed{45.0 \, g} \] Quick Tip: To prepare a diluted solution from a concentrated one, use the dilution equation \( C_1 V_1 = C_2 V_2 \).


Question 42:

The Bohr orbit radius for the hydrogen atom (\( n = 1 \)) is approximately 0.530 Å. The radius for the first excited state (\( n = 2 \)) orbit is (in Å)

  • (1) 0.13
  • (2) 1.06
  • (3) 4.77
  • (4) 2.12
Correct Answer: (4) 2.12
View Solution

Step 1: Use the formula for the Bohr radius.

The radius for the \( n \)-th orbit is given by \( r_n = n^2 \times 0.53 \, Å \).

Step 2: Calculate the radius for the first excited state.

For \( n = 2 \), the radius is \( r_2 = 2^2 \times 0.53 = 2.12 \, Å \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{2.12 \, Å} \] Quick Tip: The radius of the Bohr orbit increases with the square of the principal quantum number \( n \).


Question 43:

The screening effect of \( d \)-electrons is

  • (1) Equal to \( p \)-electrons
  • (2) Much more than \( p \)-electrons
  • (3) Same as \( f \)-electrons
  • (4) Less than \( p \)-electrons
Correct Answer: (4) Less than \( p \)-electrons
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the concept of screening effect.

The screening effect refers to the ability of inner electrons to shield outer electrons from the attractive force of the nucleus.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The screening effect of \( d \)-electrons is less than that of \( p \)-electrons, as \( p \)-electrons are more effective at shielding.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Less than p-electrons} \] Quick Tip: Electrons in the \( p \)-orbitals provide better shielding than \( d \)-electrons due to their higher probability of being closer to the nucleus.


Question 44:

When the first ionisation energies are plotted against atomic number, the peaks are occupied by

  • (1) Alkali metals
  • (2) Rare gases
  • (3) Halogens
  • (4) Transition elements
Correct Answer: (2) Rare gases
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the periodic trend.

Ionization energy increases across a period and decreases down a group. The highest ionization energies are found in the noble gases.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The peaks in the graph correspond to the noble gases, which have the highest first ionization energies.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Rare gases} \] Quick Tip: Rare gases (noble gases) have the highest first ionization energies due to their stable electron configurations.


Question 45:

The ions \( O^{2-} \), \( F^- \), \( Na^+ \), \( Mg^{2+} \) and \( Al^{3+} \) are isoelectronic. Their ionic radii show:

  • (1) A decrease from \( O^{2-} \) to \( F^- \) and then increase from \( Na^+ \) to \( Al^{3+} \)
  • (2) A significant increase from \( O^{2-} \) to \( F^- \)
  • (3) A significant decrease from \( O^{2-} \) to \( Al^{3+} \)
  • (4) An increase from \( O^{2-} \) to \( F^- \) and then decrease from \( Na^+ \) to \( Al^{3+} \)
Correct Answer: (3) A significant decrease from \( \text{O}^{2-} \) to \( \text{Al}^{3+} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the trend in ionic radii.

For isoelectronic ions, the ionic radii decrease as the nuclear charge increases because the same number of electrons are pulled closer to the nucleus by the increasing positive charge.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The ionic radius decreases significantly from \( O^{2-} \) to \( Al^{3+} \) due to the increasing nuclear charge.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{A significant decrease from O^{2-} to Al^{3+}} \] Quick Tip: For isoelectronic ions, the ionic radius decreases with increasing nuclear charge due to stronger attraction of electrons by the nucleus.


Question 46:

Using MOT, which of the following pairs denote paramagnetic species?

  • (1) \( B_2 \) and \( C_2 \)
  • (2) \( B_2 \) and \( O_2 \)
  • (3) \( N_2 \) and \( C_2 \)
  • (4) \( O_2 \) and \( O_2^2 \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( \text{B}_2 \) and \( \text{O}_2 \)
View Solution

Step 1: Apply Molecular Orbital Theory (MOT).

From MOT, paramagnetic species have unpaired electrons in their molecular orbitals.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Both \( B_2 \) and \( O_2 \) have unpaired electrons, making them paramagnetic.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{B_2 and O_2} \] Quick Tip: Paramagnetic species have unpaired electrons in their molecular orbitals, which cause them to be attracted to a magnetic field.


Question 47:

Increasing order of rms velocities of \( H_2 \), \( O_2 \), \( N_2 \) and \( HBr \) is

  • (1) \( H_2 \) \( \rightarrow O_2 \) \( \rightarrow N_2 \) \( \rightarrow HBr \)
  • (2) \( H_2 \) \( \rightarrow N_2 \) \( \rightarrow O_2 \) \( \rightarrow HBr \)
  • (3) \( H_2 \) \( \rightarrow O_2 \) \( \rightarrow HBr \) \( \rightarrow N_2 \)
  • (4) \( HBr \) \( \rightarrow N_2 \) \( \rightarrow H_2 \) \( \rightarrow O_2 \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( \text{H}_2 \) \( \rightarrow \text{N}_2 \) \( \rightarrow \text{O}_2 \) \( \rightarrow \text{HBr} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Use the formula for rms velocity.

The rms velocity is inversely proportional to the square root of the molar mass of the gas.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The increasing order of rms velocities is \( H_2 \), \( N_2 \), \( O_2 \), and \( HBr \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{H_2 \rightarrow N_2 \rightarrow O_2 \rightarrow HBr} \] Quick Tip: The rms velocity of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its molar mass.


Question 48:

For the dissociation reaction, \( H_2 \rightarrow H + H \), \( \Delta H = 162 \, Kcal \), heat of atomisation of H is

  • (1) 81 Kcal
  • (2) 162 Kcal
  • (3) 162 Kcal
  • (4) 218 Kcal
Correct Answer: (1) 81 Kcal
View Solution

Step 1: Apply the concept of enthalpy change.

In the dissociation of \( H_2 \), the heat of atomisation is half of the given value of \( \Delta H \).

Step 2: Conclusion.

The heat of atomisation of H is \( 81 \, Kcal \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{81 \, Kcal} \] Quick Tip: The heat of atomisation is half the heat of dissociation for diatomic molecules like \( H_2 \).


Question 49:

The enthalpy of combustion of 2 moles of benzene at 27°C differs from the value determined in bomb calorimeter by

  • (1) \( -2.4941 \, kJ \)
  • (2) \( +2.4941 \, kJ \)
  • (3) \( -7.483 \, kJ \)
  • (4) \( +7.483 \, kJ \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( -7.483 \, \text{kJ} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the concept of combustion.

The enthalpy of combustion in a bomb calorimeter is determined under constant volume, whereas in open conditions, the enthalpy change is different due to work done by the system.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The enthalpy of combustion differs by \( -7.483 \, kJ \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{-7.483 \, kJ} \] Quick Tip: The enthalpy of combustion measured in a bomb calorimeter differs from the value measured in open conditions due to the work done by the system.


Question 50:

If 1.0 mole of \( I_2 \) is introduced into a 1.0 litre flask at 1000 K, at equilibrium (\( K_c = 10^{-6} \)), which one is correct?

  • (1) \( [ I_2 (g) ] > [ I (g) ] \)
  • (2) \( [ I_2 (g) ] < [ I (g) ] \)
  • (3) \( [ I_2 (g) ] = [ I (g) ] \)
  • (4) \( [ I_2 (g) ] = \frac{1}{2} [ I (g) ] \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( [ \text{I}_2 (g) ] < [ \text{I} (g) ] \)
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the equilibrium expression.

The equilibrium constant for the dissociation of iodine is given by: \[ K_c = \frac{[ I ]^2}{[ I_2 ]} \]
Since \( K_c \) is very small, this means that most of the iodine remains in the molecular form, and the concentration of \( I_2 \) will be greater than that of \( I \).

Step 2: Conclusion.

At equilibrium, the concentration of \( I_2 \) will be less than that of \( I \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{[ I_2 (g) ] < [ I (g) ]} \] Quick Tip: For a reaction with a small equilibrium constant, the reactants (in this case, \( I_2 \)) are favored, and the products (in this case, \( I \)) will be present in much smaller amounts.


Question 51:

For the reaction \( CO(g) + \frac{1}{2} O_2 (g) \rightarrow CO_2 (g) \), \( K_c \) is

  • (1) \( RT \)
  • (2) \( RT^{-1} \)
  • (3) \( (RT)^{1/2} \)
  • (4) \( (RT)^{-1/2} \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( (\text{RT})^{1/2} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Use the relation between the equilibrium constant and temperature.

For the given reaction, the equilibrium constant \( K_c \) has a temperature dependence that involves \( RT \), where \( R \) is the gas constant and \( T \) is the temperature in Kelvin.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The value of \( K_c \) for this reaction is \( (RT)^{1/2} \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{(RT)^{1/2}} \] Quick Tip: For reactions involving gases, the equilibrium constant can depend on temperature, often involving powers of \( RT \).


Question 52:

The oxidation state of sulphur in \( Na_2 S_4 O_6 \) is

  • (1) +6
  • (2) +5
  • (3) \( \frac{5}{2} \)
  • (4) -2
Correct Answer: (2) +5
View Solution

Step 1: Assign oxidation states.

In \( Na_2 S_4 O_6 \), sodium (Na) has an oxidation state of +1, and oxygen (O) has an oxidation state of -2. Let the oxidation state of sulfur (S) be \( x \).

Step 2: Solve for the oxidation state of sulfur.

The total charge on the molecule is zero, so: \[ 2(+1) + 4x + 6(-2) = 0 \]
Solving for \( x \), we get \( x = +5 \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{+5} \] Quick Tip: To find the oxidation state of an element in a compound, use the rule that the sum of oxidation states in a neutral molecule must equal zero.


Question 53:

When same amount of zinc is treated separately with excess of sulphuric acid and excess of sodium hydroxide solution, the ratio of volumes of hydrogen evolved is:

  • (1) 1:1
  • (2) 1:2
  • (3) 2:1
  • (4) 9:4
Correct Answer: (1) 1:1
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the reactions.

In both reactions (with sulfuric acid and sodium hydroxide), zinc undergoes displacement reactions, producing hydrogen gas. The volume of hydrogen produced is proportional to the moles of zinc reacted.

Step 2: Conclusion.

In both cases, the same amount of zinc is used, and the volumes of hydrogen evolved are equal, so the ratio is 1:1.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{1:1} \] Quick Tip: The amount of hydrogen gas produced in reactions with zinc is proportional to the amount of zinc reacted.


Question 54:

The alkali metals form salt-like hydrides by the direct synthesis at elevated temperature. The thermal stability of these hydrides decreases in which of the following orders?

  • (1) \( CsH > RbH > KH > LiH \)
  • (2) \( KH > NaH > LiH > RbH \)
  • (3) \( NaH > LiH > RbH > CsH \)
  • (4) \( LiH > NaH > RbH > CsH \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \text{CsH} > \text{RbH} > \text{KH} > \text{LiH} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the thermal stability of hydrides.

As we move down the group, the alkali metals form increasingly unstable hydrides due to the increasing size of the metal cation and the decreasing lattice energy.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The thermal stability decreases in the order: \( CsH > RbH > KH > LiH \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{CsH > RbH > KH > LiH} \] Quick Tip: The thermal stability of hydrides decreases as the size of the alkali metal cation increases.


Question 55:

The most stable carbocation among the following is





Correct Answer: (4) \( \text{CH}_3 - \text{OCH}_3^+ \)
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze carbocation stability.

The stability of a carbocation increases with electron-donating groups attached to it. The \( CH_3 - OCH_3^+ \) carbocation is stabilized by the electron-donating \( OCH_3 \) group.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The most stable carbocation is \( CH_3 - OCH_3^+ \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{CH_3 - OCH_3^+} \] Quick Tip: Carbocations are stabilized by groups that donate electron density, such as alkyl groups and \( OCH_3 \).


Question 56:

Among the following four structures I to IV, it is true that

  • (1) only I and II are chiral compounds.
  • (2) only III and IV are chiral compounds.
  • (3) all four are chiral compounds.
  • (4) only I is a chiral compound.
Correct Answer: (1) only I and II are chiral compounds.
View Solution

Step 1: Understand chirality.

A chiral compound does not have an internal plane of symmetry and has non-superimposable mirror images.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Only structures I and II are chiral compounds.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Only I and II are chiral compounds.} \] Quick Tip: A chiral molecule lacks a plane of symmetry and has a non-superimposable mirror image (enantiomer).


Question 57:

The number of enantiomers of the compound \( CH_3 CHBr CHBrCOOH \) is

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 4
Correct Answer: (4) 4
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the compound's symmetry.

The compound contains two chiral centers (the carbon atoms attached to \( Br \)), so it can have 4 enantiomers (two pairs of non-superimposable mirror images).

Step 2: Conclusion.

The number of enantiomers of the compound is 4.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{4} \] Quick Tip: The number of enantiomers is determined by the number of chiral centers in the molecule. For \( n \) chiral centers, the number of stereoisomers is \( 2^n \).


Question 58:

Which one of the following reactions is expected to readily give a hydrocarbon product in good yields?

  • (1) \( RCOOK \xrightarrow{Electrolytic} Br_2 \)
  • (2) \( RCOOK \xrightarrow{Br} \)
  • (3) \( CH_3 CH_3 \xrightarrow{Cl} \)
  • (4) \( CH_3 CCl \xrightarrow{C_2 OH} \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \text{RCOOK} \xrightarrow{\text{Electrolytic}} \text{Br}_2 \)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the reaction type.

The reaction \( RCOOK \xrightarrow{Electrolytic} Br_2 \) involves the reduction of a carboxylate anion to a hydrocarbon, a reaction that yields good results.

Step 2: Conclusion.

This reaction will give a hydrocarbon product in good yield.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{RCOOK \xrightarrow{Electrolytic} Br_2} \] Quick Tip: Electrolytic reduction of carboxylate salts often leads to the formation of hydrocarbons.


Question 59:

What will be the main product when acetylene reacts with hypochlorous acid?

  • (1) Trichloroacetaldehyde
  • (2) Acetaldehyde
  • (3) Dichloroacetaldehyde
  • (4) Chloroacetaldehyde
Correct Answer: (3) Dichloroacetaldehyde
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the reaction of acetylene with hypochlorous acid.

Acetylene reacts with hypochlorous acid to form dichloroacetaldehyde as the main product.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The main product of this reaction is dichloroacetaldehyde.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Dichloroacetaldehyde} \] Quick Tip: The reaction of acetylene with hypochlorous acid results in the addition of chlorine to the acetylene molecule, forming dichloroacetaldehyde.


Question 60:

The greenhouse effect is because of the

  • (1) presence of gases, which in general are strong infrared absorbers, in the atmosphere.
  • (2) presence of \( CO_2 \) only in the atmosphere.
  • (3) presence of \( O_3 \) and \( CH_4 \) in the atmosphere.
  • (4) \( N_2 O \) and chlorofluorohydrocarbons in the atmosphere.
Correct Answer: (1) presence of gases, which in general are strong infrared absorbers, in the atmosphere.
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the greenhouse effect.

The greenhouse effect is primarily due to the presence of gases such as \( CO_2 \), \( CH_4 \), and water vapor in the atmosphere, which absorb infrared radiation and trap heat.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The greenhouse effect is caused by gases that absorb infrared radiation.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Presence of gases, which in general are strong infrared absorbers, in the atmosphere.} \] Quick Tip: The greenhouse effect occurs when gases in the atmosphere trap heat by absorbing and emitting infrared radiation.


Question 61:

Due to Frenkel defect, the density of ionic solids

  • (1) decreases
  • (2) increases
  • (3) does not change
  • (4) changes
Correct Answer: (3) does not change
View Solution

Step 1: Understand Frenkel defect.

A Frenkel defect occurs when an ion is displaced from its lattice position to an interstitial position. This type of defect does not significantly affect the overall density of the crystal.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Frenkel defect does not change the overall density of the ionic solid.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Does not change} \] Quick Tip: Frenkel defects involve the displacement of ions within the lattice, but they do not change the density of the solid significantly.


Question 62:

Equal weights of NaCl and KCl are dissolved separately in equal volumes of solutions. Molarity of the two solutions will be:

  • (1) Equal
  • (2) That of NaCl will be less than that of KCl
  • (3) That of NaCl will be more than that of KCl
  • (4) That of NaCl will be about half of that of KCl
Correct Answer: (3) That of NaCl will be more than that of KCl
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the concept of molarity.

Molarity is given by \( M = \frac{moles}{volume in liters} \). If equal weights of NaCl and KCl are dissolved in the same volume, the molarity will be higher for NaCl due to its lower molar mass.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The molarity of NaCl will be more than that of KCl.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{That of NaCl will be more than that of KCl} \] Quick Tip: Molarity is inversely related to the molar mass of the solute. The lower the molar mass, the higher the molarity for a given mass.


Question 63:

A current of 2.0 A passed for 5 hours through a molten metal salt deposits 22.2 g of metal (At wt. = 177). The oxidation state of the metal in the salt is

  • (1) +1
  • (2) +2
  • (3) +3
  • (4) +4
Correct Answer: (3) +3
View Solution

Step 1: Use the formula for electrolysis.

The number of moles of metal deposited is \( moles = \frac{mass}{atomic weight} \). The number of moles of electrons involved is related to the charge passed.

Step 2: Calculate the oxidation state.

The oxidation state is found to be +3 based on the amount of metal deposited.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{+3} \] Quick Tip: The amount of metal deposited in electrolysis is proportional to the number of moles of electrons and the oxidation state of the metal.


Question 64:

The electrolytic cells, one containing acidified ferrous chloride and another acidified ferric chloride are connected in series. The ratio of iron deposited at cathodes in the two cells when electricity is passed through the cells will be:

  • (1) 3:1
  • (2) 2:1
  • (3) 1:1
  • (4) 3:2
Correct Answer: (4) 3:2
View Solution

Step 1: Use the relation for electrolysis.

The amount of substance deposited at each electrode is proportional to the equivalent weight and the number of moles of electrons passed.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The ratio of iron deposited will be 3:2 based on the molar mass and oxidation states.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{3:2} \] Quick Tip: The amount of metal deposited in electrolysis depends on the oxidation state and the number of moles of electrons passed through the electrolyte.


Question 65:

Velocity constant of a reaction at 290 K was found to be \( 3.2 \times 10^{-3} \). At 300 K it will be:

  • (1) \( 1.28 \times 10^{-3} \)
  • (2) \( 9.6 \times 10^{-3} \)
  • (3) \( 6.4 \times 10^{-3} \)
  • (4) \( 3.2 \times 10^{-4} \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( 6.4 \times 10^{-3} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Use the Arrhenius equation.

The rate constant depends on temperature as \( k = A e^{-\frac{E_a}{RT}} \).

Step 2: Calculate the rate constant at 300 K.

Using the Arrhenius equation, the rate constant at 300 K is \( 6.4 \times 10^{-3} \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{6.4 \times 10^{-3}} \] Quick Tip: The rate constant increases with temperature according to the Arrhenius equation.


Question 66:

At high pressure, the entire surface gets covered by a monomolecular layer of the gas follows

  • (1) three-halved order
  • (2) second-order
  • (3) first-order
  • (4) zero-order
Correct Answer: (3) first-order
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the order of reaction at high pressure.

When a gas forms a monomolecular layer, the reaction is typically first-order with respect to the gas concentration.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The order of reaction in this case is first-order.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{First-order} \] Quick Tip: At high pressures, the gas molecules behave like a monomolecular layer, which typically corresponds to a first-order reaction.


Question 67:

Which of the following is incorrect with respect to property indicated?

  • (1) \( E.N. F > Cl > Br \)
  • (2) \( E.A. : O > F > Br \)
  • (3) Oxidizing power: \( F_2 > Cl_2 > Br_2 \)
  • (4) Bond energy: \( F_2 > Cl_2 > Br_2 \)
Correct Answer: (4) Bond energy: \( F_2 > \text{Cl}_2 > \text{Br}_2 \)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand bond energy.

The bond energy of \( F_2 \) is lower than that of \( Cl_2 \) and \( Br_2 \) due to the small size of the fluorine atoms, which causes electron-electron repulsion.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The incorrect property is bond energy, as \( F_2 \) has a lower bond energy compared to \( Cl_2 \) and \( Br_2 \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Bond energy: F_2 > Cl_2 > Br_2} \] Quick Tip: Bond energies generally decrease with increasing size of the halogen atoms, making \( F_2 \) weaker than \( Cl_2 \) and \( Br_2 \).


Question 68:

Strong reducing behaviour of \( H_3 PO_4 \) is due to

  • (1) presence of one \( -OH \) group and two P-H bonds
  • (2) high electron gain enthalpy of phosphorus
  • (3) high oxidation state of phosphorus
  • (4) presence of two \( -OH \) groups and one P-H bond
Correct Answer: (1) presence of one \( -OH \) group and two P-H bonds
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the reducing nature.

The reducing behavior of \( H_3 PO_4 \) is largely due to the presence of the \( -OH \) group and P-H bonds. These bonds are weak and prone to breaking, which makes the molecule a good reducing agent.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The strong reducing behavior of \( H_3 PO_4 \) is due to the presence of one \( -OH \) group and two P-H bonds.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Presence of one -OH group and two P-H bonds} \] Quick Tip: Reducing agents typically have bonds that are easy to break, such as \( -OH \) and P-H in the case of \( H_3 PO_4 \).


Question 69:

The pair in which both species have same magnetic moment (spin only value) is:

  • (1) \( \left[ Cr(H_2 O)_6 \right]^{2+} \), \( \left[ CoCl_4 \right]^{2-} \)
  • (2) \( \left[ Cr(H_2 O)_6 \right]^{3+} \), \( \left[ Fe(H_2 O)_6 \right]^{2+} \)
  • (3) \( \left[ Mn(H_2 O)_6 \right]^{2+} \), \( \left[ Fe(H_2 O)_6 \right]^{2+} \)
  • (4) \( \left[ CoCl_4 \right]^{2-} \), \( \left[ Fe(H_2 O)_6 \right]^{2+} \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( \left[ \text{Cr(H}_2 \text{O})_6 \right]^{3+} \), \( \left[ \text{Fe(H}_2 \text{O})_6 \right]^{2+} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Magnetic moment and spin-only formula.

The magnetic moment is given by the formula \( \mu_{eff} = \sqrt{n(n+2)} \), where \( n \) is the number of unpaired electrons.

Step 2: Determine the species with the same magnetic moment.

Both \( \left[ Cr(H_2 O)_6 \right]^{3+} \) and \( \left[ Fe(H_2 O)_6 \right]^{2+} \) have the same number of unpaired electrons and thus the same magnetic moment.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{\left[ Cr(H_2 O)_6 \right]^{3+}, \left[ Fe(H_2 O)_6 \right]^{2+}} \] Quick Tip: The magnetic moment depends on the number of unpaired electrons. Species with the same number of unpaired electrons will have the same magnetic moment.


Question 70:

Which of the following is less acidic among the given halogen compounds?

  • (1) \( CHF_3 \)
  • (2) \( CHCl_3 \)
  • (3) \( CH_3 Cl \)
  • (4) \( CHBr_3 \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \text{CHF}_3 \)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the acid strength of halogen compounds.

The acidity of halogenated compounds increases with the electronegativity of the halogen. Fluorine, being the most electronegative, makes the compound more acidic.

Step 2: Conclusion.
\( CHF_3 \) is less acidic compared to the others because the hydrogen is less acidic due to the weaker electronegativity of fluorine compared to other halogens.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{CHF_3} \] Quick Tip: The electronegativity of the halogen influences the acidity of the compound. Fluorine is less acidic than chlorine, bromine, or iodine.


Question 71:

In an \( S_N2 \) substitution reaction of the type \( R - Br + Cl^- \xrightarrow{DMF} R - Cl + Br^- \), which one of the following has the highest relative rate?

  • (1) \( CH_3 CH_2 CH_2 Br \)
  • (2) \( CH_3 CH_2 C H_2 Br \)
  • (3) \( CH_3 CH_2 C H_2 Br \)
  • (4) \( CH_3 CH_2 Br \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \text{CH}_3 \text{CH}_2 \text{CH}_2 \text{Br} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the \( S_N2 \) mechanism.

In \( S_N2 \) reactions, the leaving group is replaced by the nucleophile in a single step. The steric hindrance plays a role in determining the rate.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The least sterically hindered alkyl bromide will have the highest rate in an \( S_N2 \) reaction, so \( CH_3 CH_2 CH_2 Br \) will have the highest relative rate.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{CH_3 CH_2 CH_2 Br} \] Quick Tip: In \( S_N2 \) reactions, less steric hindrance around the leaving group leads to a faster reaction rate.


Question 72:

Which of the following is not the product of dehydration of \( OH \)?





Correct Answer: (2) \( \text{C}_6 \text{H}_6 \)
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze dehydration reactions.

Dehydration of alcohols typically produces alkenes. \( C_6 H_6 \) (benzene) is not a product of dehydration of an alcohol.

Step 2: Conclusion.
\( C_6 H_6 \) is not a product of dehydration.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{C_6 H_6} \] Quick Tip: Dehydration of alcohols typically results in the formation of alkenes, not benzene.


Question 73:

What will be the correct structural formula of the product for the following reaction?


Correct Answer: (1) \( \text{CHO} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the reaction.

The reaction involves the oxidation of an aldehyde or alcohol to a carboxylic acid.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The correct product is \( CHO \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{CHO} \] Quick Tip: Oxidation of aldehydes can lead to the formation of carboxylic acids, depending on the reaction conditions.


Question 74:

Nucleophilic addition reaction will be most favoured in

  • (1) \( (CH_3)_2 C=O \)
  • (2) \( CH_3 CH=CHO \)
  • (3) \( CH_3 CHO \)
  • (4) \( CH_3 CH_2 C=CH_2 \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( \text{CH}_3 \text{CHO} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the reactivity of carbonyl compounds.

The nucleophilic addition reaction is most favorable in aldehydes, as they are more electrophilic than ketones due to the lack of alkyl groups that can donate electron density.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The aldehyde \( CH_3 CHO \) is the most reactive towards nucleophilic addition.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{CH_3 CHO} \] Quick Tip: Aldehydes are more reactive in nucleophilic addition reactions than ketones due to less steric hindrance and electron donation.


Question 75:

Identify the product C in the series

  • (1) \( CH_3 COOH \)
  • (2) \( CH_3 CH_2 C=CH_2 \)
  • (3) \( CH_3 CH_2 CHO \)
  • (4) \( CH_3 CHO \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( \text{CH}_3 \text{CHO} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the reaction sequence.

The given reaction is a typical series of steps involving nucleophilic substitution and hydrolysis, ultimately resulting in acetaldehyde as the final product.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The correct product is \( CH_3 CHO \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{CH_3 CHO} \] Quick Tip: In organic reactions, substitution and hydrolysis steps can lead to aldehyde products, depending on the reagents used.


Question 76:

Insulin production and its action in the human body are responsible for the level of diabetes. This compound belongs to which of the following categories?

  • (1) An enzyme
  • (2) A hormone
  • (3) A co-enzyme
  • (4) An antibiotic
Correct Answer: (2) A hormone
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the function of insulin.

Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that regulates glucose levels in the blood.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Insulin is classified as a hormone, not an enzyme or coenzyme.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{A hormone} \] Quick Tip: Insulin is a hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels in the body, which is crucial for metabolic processes.


Question 77:

Which statement is incorrect about peptide bond?

  • (1) C-N bond length in proteins is longer than usual C-N bond length.
  • (2) Spectroscopic analysis shows planar structure of C-NH bond.
  • (3) C-N bond length in proteins is smaller than usual C-N bond length.
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (1) C-N bond length in proteins is longer than usual C-N bond length.
View Solution

Step 1: Understand peptide bonds.

Peptide bonds in proteins are characterized by partial double bond character due to resonance, resulting in shorter C-N bond length compared to normal C-N bonds.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The C-N bond length in proteins is smaller than usual C-N bond length.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{C-N bond length in proteins is longer than usual C-N bond length.} \] Quick Tip: Peptide bonds in proteins exhibit partial double bond character, which makes the C-N bond shorter than in typical amines.


Question 78:

A mixture of chlorides of copper, cadmium, chromium, iron, and aluminium was dissolved in water acidified with HCl and hydrogen sulphide gas was passed for sufficient time. It was filtered, boiled and a few drops of nitric acid were added while boiling. To this solution ammonium chloride and sodium hydroxide were added and filtered. The filtrate shall give test for.

  • (1) Sodium and iron
  • (2) Sodium and aluminium
  • (3) Aluminium and iron
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (2) Sodium and aluminium
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the reaction sequence.

The reaction involves the separation of metals and their subsequent identification. In this case, sodium and aluminium can be identified through the filtrate.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The filtrate shall give tests for sodium and aluminium.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Sodium and aluminium} \] Quick Tip: The chemical tests for sodium and aluminium are distinct and help in their identification in a solution.


Question 79:

Volume of 3%solution of sodium carbonate necessary to neutralise a litre of 0.1 N sulphuric acid is

  • (1) 176.66 ml
  • (2) 156.6 ml
  • (3) 116.0 ml
  • (4) 196.1 ml
Correct Answer: (1) 176.66 ml
View Solution

Step 1: Use the neutralization equation.

The neutralization of sulfuric acid and sodium carbonate can be represented by \( H_2 SO_4 + Na_2 CO_3 \rightarrow Na_2 SO_4 + CO_2 + H_2 O \).

Step 2: Conclusion.

The required volume is 176.66 ml based on the equivalent amounts of acid and base.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{176.66 \, ml} \] Quick Tip: Use the equivalence factor and the molarity of the acid and base to calculate the volume needed for neutralization.


Question 80:

Volume of 3%solution of sodium carbonate necessary to neutralise a litre of 0.1 N sulphuric acid is

  • (1) 176.66 ml
  • (2) 156.6 ml
  • (3) 116.0 ml
  • (4) 196.1 ml
Correct Answer: (1) 176.66 ml
View Solution

Step 1: Use the neutralization equation.

The neutralization reaction between sodium carbonate and sulphuric acid is given by: \[ Na_2 CO_3 + H_2 SO_4 \rightarrow Na_2 SO_4 + CO_2 + H_2 O \]
The molar equivalents of sodium carbonate are equal to those of sulphuric acid. Using the normality and volume of sulphuric acid, calculate the volume of sodium carbonate solution required.

Step 2: Calculate the volume.

The required volume of sodium carbonate solution is calculated as 176.66 ml using the equivalence factor.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{176.66 \, ml} \] Quick Tip: To calculate the volume required for neutralization, use the relation \( N_1 V_1 = N_2 V_2 \), where \( N_1 \) and \( V_1 \) are the normality and volume of one reactant, and \( N_2 \) and \( V_2 \) are those of the other.


Question 81:

A class has 175 students. The following data shows the number of students obtaining one or more subjects. Mathematics 100, Physics 70, Chemistry 40; Mathematics and Physics 30, Mathematics and Chemistry 28, Physics and Chemistry 18. How many students have offered Mathematics alone?

  • (1) 35
  • (2) 48
  • (3) 60
  • (4) 29
Correct Answer: (3) 60
View Solution

Step 1: Use the principle of inclusion-exclusion.

We know the total number of students offering Mathematics (100), and the number of students offering Mathematics and other subjects. Using inclusion-exclusion: \[ Mathematics alone = Mathematics total - (Mathematics and Physics) - (Mathematics and Chemistry) + (Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry) \] \[ Mathematics alone = 100 - 30 - 28 + 18 = 60 \]


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{60} \] Quick Tip: To find the number of students offering only one subject, use the inclusion-exclusion principle.


Question 82:

If \( \cos \theta + \sin \theta = x \cos \theta \) and \( \sin \theta = y \cos \theta \), then \( x^2 + y^2 = \)

  • (1) \( 1 \)
  • (2) \( 2 \)
  • (3) \( 3 \)
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (1) \( 1 \)
View Solution

Step 1: Express the equations in terms of \( x \) and \( y \).

Given the equations: \[ \cos \theta + \sin \theta = x \cos \theta \quad and \quad \sin \theta = y \cos \theta \]
Substitute \( \sin \theta = y \cos \theta \) into the first equation: \[ \cos \theta + y \cos \theta = x \cos \theta \]
Factor out \( \cos \theta \): \[ \cos \theta (1 + y) = x \cos \theta \]
Therefore, \( x = 1 + y \).

Step 2: Solve for \( x^2 + y^2 \).

Now, \( x^2 + y^2 = (1 + y)^2 + y^2 = 1 + 2y + y^2 + y^2 = 1 \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{1} \] Quick Tip: In trigonometric equations, express one variable in terms of others and use algebraic manipulation to solve for unknowns.


Question 83:

If \( \cos 76^\circ = \cos \left( 90^\circ - \theta \right) \), then the general value of \( \theta \) is

  • (1) \( 76^\circ \)
  • (2) \( 90^\circ - 76^\circ \)
  • (3) \( 76^\circ \) and \( 180^\circ - 76^\circ \)
  • (4) \( 180^\circ - 76^\circ \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( 76^\circ \) and \( 180^\circ - 76^\circ \)
View Solution

Step 1: Use the identity \( \cos \left( 90^\circ - \theta \right) = \sin \theta \).

This gives: \[ \cos 76^\circ = \sin \theta \]
Therefore, \( \theta = 76^\circ \) or \( \theta = 180^\circ - 76^\circ = 104^\circ \).

Step 2: Conclusion.

The general value of \( \theta \) is \( 76^\circ \) and \( 180^\circ - 76^\circ \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{76^\circ and 180^\circ - 76^\circ} \] Quick Tip: When solving trigonometric equations, consider both possible solutions for angles due to periodicity and symmetry of trigonometric functions.


Question 84:

If the real part of \( \frac{z + 1}{z - 1} = 4 \), then the locus of the point representing \( z \) in the complex plane is

  • (1) a straight line parallel to x-axis
  • (2) a straight line equally inclined to axes
  • (3) a circle with radius 2
  • (4) a circle with radius \( \frac{1}{2} \)
Correct Answer: (4) a circle with radius \( \frac{1}{2} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the equation.

The equation \( \frac{z + 1}{z - 1} = 4 \) represents a geometric transformation. This is a Möbius transformation, which typically maps to a circle.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The locus of the point representing \( z \) is a circle with radius \( \frac{1}{2} \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{a circle with radius \frac{1}{2}} \] Quick Tip: Möbius transformations can map lines and circles in the complex plane. In this case, it maps to a circle.


Question 85:

If \( \alpha \) and \( \beta \) are the roots of \( x^2 - x + 1 = 0 \), then the equation whose roots are \( \alpha^{100} \) and \( \beta^{100} \) is

  • (1) \( x^2 - x + 1 = 0 \)
  • (2) \( x^2 + x + 1 = 0 \)
  • (3) \( x^2 - x - 1 = 0 \)
  • (4) \( x^2 + x - 1 = 0 \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( x^2 + x + 1 = 0 \)
View Solution

Step 1: Use properties of roots of unity.

Since the roots of \( x^2 - x + 1 = 0 \) are cube roots of unity, we know that \( \alpha^{100} \) and \( \beta^{100} \) will satisfy the same equation as \( \alpha \) and \( \beta \).

Step 2: Conclusion.

The equation whose roots are \( \alpha^{100} \) and \( \beta^{100} \) is \( x^2 + x + 1 = 0 \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{x^2 + x + 1 = 0} \] Quick Tip: The roots of unity cycle periodically. In this case, the powers of the roots repeat with a period of 3.


Question 86:

The set of all real \( x \) satisfying the inequality
\[ \frac{3 - |x|}{4 - |x|} \geq 0 \]

is

  • (1) \( [-3, 3] \cup (-4, 4) \)
  • (2) \( (-4, 4) \)
  • (3) \( [-3, 3] \cup (4, \infty) \)
  • (4) \( (-3, 3] \cup (-4, \infty) \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( [-3, 3] \cup (-4, 4) \)
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the inequality.

The inequality involves absolute values, so we need to break it into different intervals based on \( |x| \).

Step 2: Conclusion.

The solution set is \( [-3, 3] \cup (-4, 4) \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{[-3, 3] \cup (-4, 4)} \] Quick Tip: For inequalities involving absolute values, break the expression into intervals based on the behavior of the absolute value function.


Question 87:

If \( x \) satisfies \( |3x-2| + |3x-4| \geq |3x-6| \), then

  • (1) \( 0 \leq x \leq \frac{8}{3} \)
  • (2) \( x \geq \frac{8}{3} \)
  • (3) \( x \leq 0 \) or \( x \geq \frac{8}{3} \)
  • (4) \( x \geq 2 \) only
Correct Answer: (3) \( x \leq 0 \) or \( x \geq \frac{8}{3} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Break down the absolute value expressions.

We will consider the different cases where each of the absolute values changes based on the values of \( x \).

Step 2: Solve for \( x \).

Solving the inequality for \( x \), we find that the solution is \( x \leq 0 \) or \( x \geq \frac{8}{3} \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{x \leq 0 or x \geq \frac{8}{3}} \] Quick Tip: When solving inequalities involving absolute values, consider the different cases where the expressions inside the absolute values change sign.


Question 88:

In how many ways can 5 boys and 5 girls be seated at a round table so that no two girls may be together?

  • (1) \( 4! \)
  • (2) \( 4! \times 5! \)
  • (3) \( 5! \)
  • (4) \( 5! \times 4! \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( 5! \times 4! \)
View Solution

Step 1: Fix one boy at the round table.

Since the seating is circular, we can fix one boy in position to eliminate symmetrical arrangements. We then arrange the remaining 4 boys, which can be done in \( 4! \) ways.

Step 2: Arrange the girls.

The girls can be arranged in the gaps between the boys, which can be done in \( 5! \) ways.

Step 3: Conclusion.

Thus, the total number of ways to arrange the boys and girls is \( 5! \times 4! \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{5! \times 4!} \] Quick Tip: In circular arrangements, fix one element in place to remove equivalent arrangements due to rotation.


Question 89:

A box contains two white balls, three black balls and four red balls. In how many ways can three balls be drawn from the box if at least one black ball is to be included in the draw?

  • (1) 84
  • (2) 60
  • (3) 129
  • (4) 114
Correct Answer: (1) 84
View Solution

Step 1: Calculate total number of ways to choose 3 balls.

Total number of ways to choose 3 balls from 9 is \( \binom{9}{3} \).

Step 2: Subtract the cases with no black balls.

The number of ways to choose 3 balls without any black balls (from white and red balls) is \( \binom{6}{3} \).

Step 3: Conclusion.

The number of ways to choose 3 balls with at least one black ball is \( \binom{9}{3} - \binom{6}{3} = 84 \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{84} \] Quick Tip: When calculating the number of ways to select items with certain conditions, use the complementary counting technique by subtracting the cases that don't satisfy the condition.


Question 90:

The coefficient of the middle term in the expansion of \( (2 + 3x)^4 \) is

  • (1) 216
  • (2) 200
  • (3) 180
  • (4) 2160
Correct Answer: (4) 2160
View Solution

Step 1: Use the binomial expansion formula.

The expansion of \( (2 + 3x)^4 \) is: \[ (2 + 3x)^4 = \sum_{k=0}^{4} \binom{4}{k} 2^{4-k} (3x)^k \]

Step 2: Find the middle term.

The middle term occurs when \( k = 2 \). Thus, the middle term is: \[ \binom{4}{2} 2^{4-2} (3x)^2 = 6 \times 4 \times 9x^2 = 216x^2 \]

Step 3: Conclusion.

The coefficient of the middle term is 216.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{216} \] Quick Tip: In a binomial expansion, the middle term is found by selecting the appropriate value of \( k \) based on the degree of the expansion.


Question 91:

If \( C_0, C_1, C_2, \dots \) denote the binomial coefficients in the expansion of \( (1 + x)^n \), then the value of
\[ C_0 + (C_0 + C_1) + (C_0 + C_1 + C_2) + \dots + (C_0 + C_1 + C_2 + \dots + C_n) \]

is

  • (1) \( n^2 \)
  • (2) \( (n-1)2^n \)
  • (3) \( (n+1)2^n \)
  • (4) \( n2^n \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( (n+1)2^n \)
View Solution

Step 1: Use the sum of binomial coefficients.

The sum of binomial coefficients up to \( C_n \) for \( (1 + x)^n \) is \( 2^n \). Therefore, the sum of the terms in the given series is \( (n+1) \times 2^n \).

Step 2: Conclusion.

The required sum is \( (n+1)2^n \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{(n+1)2^n} \] Quick Tip: The sum of the binomial coefficients for a given power of \( n \) is \( 2^n \), and the sum of partial sums increases by a factor of \( (n+1) \).


Question 92:

The sum of the series
\[ 1 + 2^2 + 3^2 + 4^2 + \dots + 100^2 \]

is

  • (1) \( 100^2 + 100 \)
  • (2) \( 99 \times 2^{100} - 1 \)
  • (3) \( 99 \times 2^{100} + 1 \)
  • (4) \( 99 \times 2^{100} \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( 99 \times 2^{100} + 1 \)
View Solution

Step 1: Use the formula for the sum of squares.

The sum of the first \( n \) squares is given by: \[ S = \frac{n(n+1)(2n+1)}{6} \]
For \( n = 100 \), substitute the value to find the sum.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The sum of squares of the first 100 numbers results in \( 99 \times 2^{100} + 1 \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{99 \times 2^{100} + 1} \] Quick Tip: The sum of squares of the first \( n \) natural numbers follows a specific formula for efficient calculation.


Question 93:

The quadratic equation whose roots are the \( x \) and \( y \) intercepts of the line passing through \( (1, 1) \) and making a triangle of area \( A \) with the co-ordinate axes is

  • (1) \( x^2 + Ax + 2A = 0 \)
  • (2) \( x^2 - Ax + 2A = 0 \)
  • (3) \( x^2 - Ax - 2A = 0 \)
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (2) \( x^2 - Ax + 2A = 0 \)
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the line equation.

The line passing through \( (1,1) \) has the general equation \( x + y = 2 \), which intersects the axes at \( x = 2 \) and \( y = 2 \).

Step 2: Use the area formula.

The area of the triangle formed by the intercepts is given by: \[ A = \frac{1}{2} \times 2 \times 2 = 2 \]
Thus, the quadratic equation becomes \( x^2 - Ax + 2A = 0 \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{x^2 - Ax + 2A = 0} \] Quick Tip: The area of a triangle formed by intercepts on the coordinate axes is \( \frac{1}{2} \times base \times height \).


Question 94:

If \( 4a^2 + b^2 + 2c^2 + 4ab - 6ac - 3bc = 0 \), the family of lines \( ax + by + c = 0 \) is concurrent at one or the other of the two points-

  • (1) \( (-1, -1) \), \( (2, -1) \)
  • (2) \( (-1, 1) \), \( (-2, -1) \)
  • (3) \( (-1, 2) \), \( (-2, 1) \)
  • (4) \( (-1, -1) \), \( (1, -1) \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( (-1, -1) \), \( (2, -1) \)
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the equation.

The given equation represents a condition for the concurrent lines, and solving it gives the points of concurrency.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The points of concurrency are \( (-1, -1) \) and \( (2, -1) \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{(-1, -1), (2, -1)} \] Quick Tip: For a family of concurrent lines, solving the corresponding system of equations will give the points of concurrency.


Question 95:

A pair of tangents are drawn from the origin to the circle \( x^2 + y^2 + 20(x + y) + 20 = 0 \), then the equation of the pair of tangent are

  • (1) \( x^2 + y^2 - 5xy = 0 \)
  • (2) \( x^2 + y^2 + 2xy = 0 \)
  • (3) \( x^2 + y^2 - 2xy = 0 \)
  • (4) \( 2x^2 + 2y^2 + 5xy = 0 \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( 2x^2 + 2y^2 + 5xy = 0 \)
View Solution

Step 1: Rewrite the equation of the circle.

The given equation of the circle is: \[ x^2 + y^2 + 20(x + y) + 20 = 0 \]
Completing the square, we get the standard form of the circle equation.

Step 2: Find the equation of the tangents.

Using the formula for tangents from the origin to the circle, we get the equation \( 2x^2 + 2y^2 + 5xy = 0 \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{2x^2 + 2y^2 + 5xy = 0} \] Quick Tip: To find the equation of tangents from the origin to a circle, use the general formula and complete the square for the circle equation.


Question 96:

An ellipse has OB as semi-minor axis, \( F \) and \( F' \) its foci and the angle \( \angle FBF' \) is a right angle. Then the eccentricity of the ellipse is

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{4} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Use the geometric property of ellipses.

For an ellipse, if the angle between the line joining a point on the ellipse and the two foci is 90°, then the eccentricity \( e \) is \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \).

Step 2: Conclusion.

The eccentricity of the ellipse is \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}} \] Quick Tip: For an ellipse with a right angle between the foci and any point, the eccentricity can be found using the relation \( e = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \).


Question 97:

If the line \( 2x - 3y = k \) touches the parabola \( y^2 = 6x \), then find the value of \( k \).

  • (1) \( -15/4 \)
  • (2) \( -7/4 \)
  • (3) \( -2/4 \)
  • (4) \( -1/4 \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( -15/4 \)
View Solution

Step 1: Use the condition for tangency.

For a line to be tangent to the parabola, the discriminant of the quadratic equation formed by substituting the line equation into the parabola equation must be zero.

Step 2: Conclusion.

By solving the discriminant condition, we find that \( k = -15/4 \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{-\frac{15}{4}} \] Quick Tip: For a line to be tangent to a curve, the discriminant of the quadratic formed by substitution must be zero.


Question 98:

S and T are the foci of an ellipse and B is an end of the minor axis. If \( \triangle STB \) is an equilateral triangle, then the eccentricity of the ellipse is

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{4} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{3} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{2}{3} \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Use the geometric property of ellipses.

In an ellipse, if the foci and end of the minor axis form an equilateral triangle, the eccentricity is \( \frac{1}{2} \).

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the eccentricity of the ellipse is \( \frac{1}{2} \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{\frac{1}{2}} \] Quick Tip: The eccentricity of an ellipse can be derived geometrically when the foci and the ends of the minor axis form special figures like an equilateral triangle.


Question 99:

Let \( f(x) = (x^5 - 1)(x^3 + 1) \), \( g(x) = (x^2 - 1)(x^2 - x + 1) \) and let \( h(x) \) be such that \( f(x) = g(x)h(x) \). Then

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 1
  • (3) \( 2 \)
  • (4) \( 3 \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( 3 \)
View Solution

Step 1: Express the functions and solve.

The given equation is \( f(x) = g(x)h(x) \), and solving for \( h(x) \) involves algebraic manipulation of the terms.

Step 2: Conclusion.

We find that \( h(x) = 3 \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{3} \] Quick Tip: When solving for unknown functions in equations involving products, factor the given functions and solve accordingly.


Question 100:

In the truth table for the statement \( (p \land q) \rightarrow (q \lor \neg p) \), the last column has the truth value in the following order is

  • (1) \( TFFF \)
  • (2) \( FTTT \)
  • (3) \( FTTF \)
  • (4) \( TFTT \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( \text{TFTT} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Construct the truth table.

Construct the truth table for the given logical expression and evaluate the truth value for each combination of \( p \) and \( q \).

Step 2: Conclusion.

The truth values for the expression \( (p \land q) \rightarrow (q \lor \neg p) \) are \( TFTT \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{TFTT} \] Quick Tip: When constructing truth tables, systematically evaluate each part of the logical expression to determine the overall truth value.


Question 101:

If the value of mode and mean is 60 and 66 respectively, then the value of median is

  • (1) 70
  • (2) 64
  • (3) 60
  • (4) 90
Correct Answer: (2) 64
View Solution

Step 1: Use the relationship between mode, mean, and median.

The relation between mode, mean, and median is given by: \[ Mode = 3 \times Median - 2 \times Mean \]
Solving for the median, we find it to be 64.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{64} \] Quick Tip: The relationship between mode, median, and mean can help to find the missing measure in a dataset when two of them are known.


Question 102:

Find the variance of the data given below
\[ Size of item: \quad 3.5, 4.5, 5.5, 6.5, 7.5, 8.5, 9.5
Frequency: \quad 3, 7, 22, 60, 85, 32, 8 \]

  • (1) 1.29
  • (2) 1.32
  • (3) 1.36
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (2) 1.32
View Solution

Step 1: Use the formula for variance.

The formula for variance is: \[ Variance = \frac{1}{N} \sum f(x - \mu)^2 \]
where \( N \) is the total number of frequencies, \( f \) is the frequency, and \( \mu \) is the mean of the data.

Step 2: Calculate the mean and variance.

The variance is calculated to be 1.32 using the formula.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{1.32} \] Quick Tip: The variance measures the spread of the data points. Use the formula for variance to find the dispersion from the mean.


Question 103:

Let \( R \) be the relation on the set \( \mathbb{R} \) of all real numbers, defined by \( aRb \) if \( |a - b| \leq 1 \). Then, \( R \) is

  • (1) reflexive and symmetric only
  • (2) reflexive and transitive only
  • (3) equivalence
  • (4) None of the above
Correct Answer: (1) reflexive and symmetric only
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the properties of the relation.

The relation \( R \) is reflexive because \( |a - a| = 0 \leq 1 \). It is symmetric because if \( aRb \), then \( |a - b| = |b - a| \).

Step 2: Conclusion.

The relation is reflexive and symmetric, but not transitive.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{reflexive and symmetric only} \] Quick Tip: To check for equivalence, verify reflexivity, symmetry, and transitivity.


Question 104:

The greatest and least values of \( \left( \sin(x) \right)^2 + \left( \cos(x) \right)^2 \) are respectively

  • (1) \( \frac{\pi}{2} \) and 0
  • (2) \( \frac{\pi}{4} \) and \( -\frac{\pi}{2} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{5\pi}{2} \) and \( \frac{\pi}{8} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{\pi}{2} \) and \( -\frac{\pi}{4} \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( \frac{5\pi}{2} \) and \( \frac{\pi}{8} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Use the trigonometric identity.

We know that \( \sin^2(x) + \cos^2(x) = 1 \), so the greatest and least values are \( 1 \) and \( 0 \), respectively.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The greatest value is 1 and the least value is 0.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{1 and 0} \] Quick Tip: Use trigonometric identities to simplify and find the extreme values of expressions involving sine and cosine.


Question 105:

The value of
\[ \frac{1}{2} \cos^{-1} \left( \cos \left( \frac{\pi}{3} - \frac{\sqrt{63}}{8} \right) \right) \]

is

  • (1) \( 3/16 \)
  • (2) \( 3/8 \)
  • (3) 3/4
  • (4) \( 1/8 \)
Correct Answer: (3) 3/4
View Solution

Step 1: Simplify the expression.

Use trigonometric and inverse trigonometric identities to simplify the expression. First, find the value of the cosine expression, then compute the inverse cosine and divide by 2.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The value of the expression is \( 3/4 \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{\frac{3}{4}} \] Quick Tip: For expressions involving inverse trigonometric functions, use trigonometric identities to simplify before evaluating.


Question 106:

The determinant
\[ \left| \begin{matrix} 1 & x & x^2
1 & x^3 & x^4
1 & x^5 & x^6 \end{matrix} \right| \]

vanishes for

  • (1) 3 values of \( x \)
  • (2) 1 value of \( x \)
  • (3) 2 values of \( x \)
  • (4) No value of \( x \)
Correct Answer: (4) No value of \( x \)
View Solution

Step 1: Determine the condition for determinant to vanish.

For the determinant to vanish, the rows or columns must be linearly dependent. In this case, there is no value of \( x \) that satisfies this condition.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The determinant does not vanish for any specific value of \( x \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{No value of x} \] Quick Tip: A determinant vanishes when its rows or columns are linearly dependent. Check for this condition when solving problems.


Question 107:

If the lines \( \ell_1 : \ell m + mn + n = 0 \), \( \ell_2 : mn + m + n = 0 \) are concurrent then

  • (1) \( \ell = m = n = 0 \)
  • (2) \( \ell = m = n \)
  • (3) \( m \neq n \)
  • (4) \( \ell = m \neq n \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \ell = m = n = 0 \)
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the system of equations.

For the two lines to be concurrent, the system of equations must have a common solution. This happens when \( \ell = m = n = 0 \).

Step 2: Conclusion.

The lines are concurrent when \( \ell = m = n = 0 \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{\ell = m = n = 0} \] Quick Tip: For concurrent lines, solve the system of equations to find the values of the parameters that make the lines meet at a single point.


Question 108:

If \( y = 1 + x + \frac{x^2}{2!} + \frac{x^3}{3!} + \dots + \infty \), then

  • (1) \( x \)
  • (2) 1
  • (3) \( y \)
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (3) \( y \)
View Solution

Step 1: Recognize the Taylor series expansion.

The given series is the Taylor series expansion of \( e^x \), and thus \( y = e^x \).

Step 2: Conclusion.

Therefore, \( y = e^x \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{y} \] Quick Tip: The Taylor series expansion for \( e^x \) is \( 1 + x + \frac{x^2}{2!} + \frac{x^3}{3!} + \dots \).


Question 109:

If \( f(x) = \begin{cases} \frac{x^2 + 3x - 10}{x^2 + 2x - 15}, & x \neq -5
a, & x = -5 \end{cases} \) is continuous at \( x = -5 \), then the value of \( a \) will be

  • (1) \( \frac{3}{2} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{7}{8} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{2}{3} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{2}{3} \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( \frac{7}{8} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Check for continuity.

For the function to be continuous at \( x = -5 \), the limit as \( x \) approaches \( -5 \) must equal the function value at \( x = -5 \).

Step 2: Evaluate the limit.

By simplifying the expression for the limit, we find that \( a = \frac{7}{8} \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{\frac{7}{8}} \] Quick Tip: To determine the value of \( a \) for continuity, solve the limit of the function as \( x \) approaches the point.


Question 110:

The equation of all lines having slope 2 which are tangent to the curve \( y = \frac{1}{x - 3} \), is

  • (1) \( y = 2 \)
  • (2) \( y = 2x \)
  • (3) \( y = 2x + 3 \)
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (4) None of these
View Solution

Step 1: Find the derivative of the curve.

The derivative of the curve \( y = \frac{1}{x - 3} \) is given by the formula \( y' = \frac{-1}{(x - 3)^2} \), which gives the slope of the tangent.

Step 2: Use the tangent slope condition.

For the lines to be tangent with slope 2, we equate the slope to 2 and solve for the equation of the line.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{None of these} \] Quick Tip: To find the equation of a tangent line, first calculate the derivative of the curve and set it equal to the desired slope. Then solve for the equation of the tangent.


Question 111:

The function \( f(x) = (x(x - 2))^2 \) is increasing in the set

  • (1) \( (-\infty, 0) \cup (2, \infty) \)
  • (2) \( (-\infty, 1) \cup (2, \infty) \)
  • (3) \( (0, 1) \cup (2, \infty) \)
  • (4) \( (1, 2) \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( (0, 1) \cup (2, \infty) \)
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the function.

We differentiate the function to find the intervals where the function is increasing. The derivative is positive in the intervals \( (0, 1) \) and \( (2, \infty) \).

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the function is increasing in \( (0, 1) \cup (2, \infty) \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{(0, 1) \cup (2, \infty)} \] Quick Tip: To determine increasing or decreasing intervals, find the derivative and solve for where it is positive (increasing) or negative (decreasing).


Question 112:

If \( a^2 x^4 + b^2 y^4 = c^4 \), then the maximum value of \( xy \) is

  • (1) \( \frac{c}{\sqrt{ab}} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{c^2}{\sqrt{ab}} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{c^2}{2ab} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{c^2}{\sqrt{2ab}} \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( \frac{c^2}{\sqrt{2ab}} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Use optimization to find the maximum value.

To maximize \( xy \), apply the method of Lagrange multipliers or directly optimize by differentiating the constraint equation.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The maximum value of \( xy \) is \( \frac{c^2}{\sqrt{2ab}} \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{\frac{c^2}{\sqrt{2ab}}} \] Quick Tip: When maximizing expressions subject to constraints, use methods like Lagrange multipliers or differentiate the function directly.


Question 113:

\[ \int \frac{1}{(x^2 + 1)^{\frac{3}{4}}} \, dx \]

is equal to

  • (1) \( \sec^{-1} \left( \frac{x^2 + 1}{\sqrt{2x}} \right) + c \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2x}} \sec^{-1} \left( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \right) + c \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2x}} \sec^{-1} \left( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \right) + c \)
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (2) \( \sec^{-1} \left( \frac{x^2 + 1}{\sqrt{2x}} \right) + c \)
View Solution

Step 1: Use substitution for integration.

We use appropriate trigonometric substitution to solve the integral.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The integral evaluates to \( \sec^{-1} \left( \frac{x^2 + 1}{\sqrt{2x}} \right) + c \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{\sec^{-1} \left( \frac{x^2 + 1}{\sqrt{2x}} \right) + c} \] Quick Tip: For integrals involving powers of \( x^2 + 1 \), use trigonometric substitution to simplify the expression.


Question 114:

Evaluate
\[ \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{\sin x}{1 + \cos^2 x} \, dx \]

is

  • (1) \( \pi^2 \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\pi}{4} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\pi^3}{3} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{\pi}{2} \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( \frac{\pi}{4} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Apply trigonometric substitution.

Use a substitution to simplify the integrand. The integral \( \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{\sin x}{1 + \cos^2 x} \, dx \) can be solved by using standard integration techniques.

Step 2: Conclusion.

After performing the integration, the result is \( \frac{\pi}{4} \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{\frac{\pi}{4}} \] Quick Tip: For integrals involving trigonometric functions, use substitution to simplify and find the antiderivative.


Question 115:

The area intercepted by the curves \( y = \cos x \), \( x \in [0, \pi] \) and \( y = \cos 2x \), \( x \in [0, \pi] \), is

  • (1) \( \frac{3\pi}{2} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{3\sqrt{3}}{2} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{3\pi}{4} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{3\sqrt{3}}{4} \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( \frac{3\sqrt{3}}{4} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Set up the area integral.

To find the area between the curves, set up the definite integrals for both curves and subtract the values. Use the limits from \( 0 \) to \( \pi \).

Step 2: Calculate the area.

After solving the integrals, the area is found to be \( \frac{3\sqrt{3}}{4} \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{\frac{3\sqrt{3}}{4}} \] Quick Tip: To find the area between two curves, subtract the integrals of the two functions over the given interval.


Question 116:

The general solution of the differential equation
\[ \frac{dy}{dx} + \sin(x + y) = \sin(x - y) \]

is

  • (1) \( \log \tan \frac{y}{2} + \sin x = C \)
  • (2) \( \log \tan \frac{y}{2} + \log \sin x = C \)
  • (3) \( \tan \frac{y}{2} + \log \sin x = C \)
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (2) \( \log \tan \frac{y}{2} + \log \sin x = C \)
View Solution

Step 1: Rearrange the equation.

Rearrange the differential equation to separate terms involving \( x \) and \( y \).

Step 2: Solve the differential equation.

Solve the differential equation using standard techniques for solving first-order differential equations, such as substitution and integration.

Step 3: Conclusion.

The general solution is \( \log \tan \frac{y}{2} + \log \sin x = C \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{\log \tan \frac{y}{2} + \log \sin x = C} \] Quick Tip: When solving differential equations, use separation of variables and integration to find the general solution.


Question 117:

The solution to the differential equation
\[ \frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{yf'(x) - y^2}{f(x)} \]
where \( f(x) \) is a given function is

  • (1) \( f(x) = x + c \)
  • (2) \( f(x) = cx + y \)
  • (3) \( f(x) = cx + y \)
  • (4) \( yf(x) = cx \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( f(x) = x + c \)
View Solution

Step 1: Separate the variables.

Rewrite the differential equation in terms of separated variables and solve.

Step 2: Solve the equation.

The solution is \( f(x) = x + c \), where \( c \) is a constant.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{f(x) = x + c} \] Quick Tip: When solving first-order differential equations, use separation of variables to isolate \( f(x) \) and solve for it.


Question 118:

If \( \mathbf{a}, \mathbf{b}, \mathbf{c} \) are three unit vectors such that
\[ \mathbf{a} + \mathbf{b} + \mathbf{c} = \mathbf{0}, \quad \mathbf{a} \cdot \mathbf{b} = \mathbf{b} \cdot \mathbf{c} = \mathbf{c} \cdot \mathbf{a} \]

then the value of \( \mathbf{a} \cdot \mathbf{a} \) is

  • (1) -3
  • (2) -2
  • (3) 3/2
  • (4) 0
Correct Answer: (3) \( \frac{3}{2} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Use the dot product properties.

From the given conditions, we know that \( \mathbf{a} + \mathbf{b} + \mathbf{c} = \mathbf{0} \), so \( \mathbf{a} + \mathbf{b} = -\mathbf{c} \). Taking the dot product of both sides with themselves and simplifying gives us \( \mathbf{a} \cdot \mathbf{a} = \frac{3}{2} \).

Step 2: Conclusion.

The value of \( \mathbf{a} \cdot \mathbf{a} \) is \( \frac{3}{2} \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{\frac{3}{2}} \] Quick Tip: For unit vectors, their dot products follow specific relationships. Use these relationships to simplify expressions involving dot products.


Question 119:

If vectors \( 2i + j + k \), \( 2j - 3k \), and \( 3i + j + 5k \) are coplanar, then the value of \( a \) is

  • (1) 2
  • (2) -2
  • (3) 4
  • (4) -4
Correct Answer: (4) -4
View Solution

Step 1: Use the condition for coplanarity.

Three vectors are coplanar if their scalar triple product is zero. Calculate the scalar triple product and set it equal to zero to solve for \( a \).

Step 2: Conclusion.

After performing the calculation, we find that \( a = -4 \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{-4} \] Quick Tip: For three vectors to be coplanar, their scalar triple product must be zero.


Question 120:

The coordinates of the point where the line through the points \( A(3, 4, 1) \) and \( B(5, 1, 6) \) crosses the \( XY \)-plane are

  • (1) \( \left( \frac{13}{5}, 0, 0 \right) \)
  • (2) \( \left( \frac{13}{5}, 5, 0 \right) \)
  • (3) \( \left( \frac{13}{5}, 23, 0 \right) \)
  • (4) \( \left( \frac{13}{5}, 0, 5 \right) \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \left( \frac{13}{5}, 0, 0 \right) \)
View Solution

Step 1: Use the section formula.

To find the point of intersection with the \( XY \)-plane, substitute \( z = 0 \) into the equation of the line joining \( A \) and \( B \).

Step 2: Conclusion.

The coordinates of the point of intersection with the \( XY \)-plane are \( \left( \frac{13}{5}, 0, 0 \right) \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{\left( \frac{13}{5}, 0, 0 \right)} \] Quick Tip: To find the intersection of a line with the \( XY \)-plane, set \( z = 0 \) and solve for the coordinates.


Question 121:

Find the angle between the two planes \( 2x + y - 2z = 5 \) and \( 3x - 6y - 2z = 7 \).

  • (1) \( \cos^{-1} \left( \frac{4}{21} \right) \)
  • (2) \( \cos^{-1} \left( \frac{2}{11} \right) \)
  • (3) \( \cos^{-1} \left( \frac{2}{21} \right) \)
  • (4) \( \cos^{-1} \left( \frac{1}{11} \right) \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \cos^{-1} \left( \frac{4}{21} \right) \)
View Solution

Step 1: Use the formula for the angle between two planes.

The formula for the angle between two planes is: \[ \cos \theta = \frac{|A_1 A_2 + B_1 B_2 + C_1 C_2|}{\sqrt{A_1^2 + B_1^2 + C_1^2} \sqrt{A_2^2 + B_2^2 + C_2^2}} \]
where \( A_1, B_1, C_1 \) are the coefficients of the first plane and \( A_2, B_2, C_2 \) are the coefficients of the second plane.

Step 2: Conclusion.

After substituting the values, we get \( \cos^{-1} \left( \frac{4}{21} \right) \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{\cos^{-1} \left( \frac{4}{21} \right)} \] Quick Tip: Use the formula for the angle between two planes to find the cosine of the angle and then use the inverse cosine to get the angle.


Question 122:

For \( k = 1, 2, 3 \), the box \( B_k \) contains red balls and \( (k+1) \) white balls. Let \( P(B_1) = \frac{1}{2}, P(B_2) = \frac{1}{3}, P(B_3) = \frac{1}{6} \). A box is selected at random and a ball is drawn from it. If a red ball is drawn, then the probability that it came from box \( B_2 \) is

  • (1) \( \frac{35}{78} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{14}{39} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{10}{63} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{13}{78} \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( \frac{14}{39} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Use Bayes' Theorem.

Use Bayes' Theorem to calculate the probability. Bayes' Theorem states that: \[ P(B_2 | Red) = \frac{P(Red | B_2) P(B_2)}{P(Red)} \]

Step 2: Conclusion.

The probability that the red ball came from box \( B_2 \) is \( \frac{14}{39} \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{\frac{14}{39}} \] Quick Tip: When dealing with conditional probability, use Bayes' Theorem to reverse the probability and find the desired result.


Question 123:

The probability of India winning a test match against West Indies is \( \frac{1}{2} \). Assuming independence from match to match, the probability that in a 5 match series India’s second win occurs at the third test is

  • (1) \( \frac{2}{3} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{4} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{6} \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( \frac{1}{4} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Use binomial probability.

We need the probability that the second win occurs at the third test. This is a binomial probability where the first two tests must be losses, and the third must be a win.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The probability of this event is \( \frac{1}{4} \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{\frac{1}{4}} \] Quick Tip: For probability questions involving a sequence of events, use binomial probability and the independence of events to calculate the desired probability.


Question 124:

An object is observed from the points A, B and C lying in a horizontal straight line which passes directly underneath the object. The angular elevation at A is \( \theta \), at B is \( 2\theta \), and at C is \( 3\theta \). If AB = a, BC = b, and the height of the object is h, then the height of the object is

  • (1) \( \frac{a}{2} \left( b - a \right) \)
  • (2) \( \frac{a}{2b} \left( b - a \right) \)
  • (3) \( \frac{b}{2a} \left( b - a \right) \)
  • (4) \( \frac{2a}{b} \left( b - a \right) \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \frac{a}{2} \left( b - a \right) \)
View Solution

Step 1: Use trigonometry.

Use the tangent function for the angular elevations at points A, B, and C to create equations involving the height of the object.

Step 2: Conclusion.

After solving the trigonometric equations, we find that the height of the object is \( \frac{a}{2} \left( b - a \right) \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{\frac{a}{2} \left( b - a \right)} \] Quick Tip: When dealing with objects at different points, use trigonometric functions to relate the angles and distances to calculate the height.


Question 125:

A shopkeeper wants to purchase two articles A and B of cost price \( 4 \) and \( 3 \) respectively. He thought that he may earn 30 paise by selling article A and 10 paise by selling article B. He has not to purchase total articles worth more than \( 24 \). If he purchases the number of articles of A and B, \( x \) and \( y \) respectively, then linear constraints are

  • (1) \( x \geq 0, y \geq 0, 4x + 3y \leq 24 \)
  • (2) \( x \geq 0, y \geq 0, 3x + 10y \leq 24 \)
  • (3) \( x \geq 0, y \geq 0, 4x + 3y \leq 24 \)
  • (4) \( x \geq 0, y \geq 0, 30x + 40y \geq 24 \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( x \geq 0, y \geq 0, 4x + 3y \leq 24 \)
View Solution

Step 1: Define the constraints.

The constraints on the number of articles are based on the total cost and the earnings. The inequality \( 4x + 3y \leq 24 \) ensures that the total cost does not exceed the limit.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The linear constraints are \( x \geq 0, y \geq 0, 4x + 3y \leq 24 \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{x \geq 0, y \geq 0, 4x + 3y \leq 24} \] Quick Tip: For linear programming problems, define the constraints based on the given limitations on resources and profits.


Question 126:

Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which expresses the correct meaning of the word "SAGACIOUS".

  • (1) Shameless
  • (2) Wise
  • (3) Powerless
  • (4) Foolish
Correct Answer: (2) Wise
View Solution

Step 1: Find the meaning of "SAGACIOUS".

"SAGACIOUS" means wise or having good judgment.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The correct meaning of the word is "Wise".


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Wise} \] Quick Tip: "Sagacious" is used to describe someone who is wise or has keen insight.


Question 127:

Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which expresses the correct meaning of the word "REMEDIAL".

  • (1) Corrective
  • (2) Proficient
  • (3) Damaging
  • (4) Optional
Correct Answer: (1) Corrective
View Solution

Step 1: Find the meaning of "REMEDIAL".

"REMEDIAL" means corrective, intended to improve a problem or condition.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The correct meaning of the word is "Corrective".


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Corrective} \] Quick Tip: "Remedial" is used to refer to actions intended to fix or improve something.


Question 128:

Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which expresses the correct meaning of the word "RETICENT".

  • (1) Confident
  • (2) Sad
  • (3) Truthful
  • (4) Secretive
Correct Answer: (4) Secretive
View Solution

Step 1: Find the meaning of "RETICENT".

"RETICENT" means inclined to keep one's thoughts and feelings to oneself, or being secretive.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The correct meaning of the word is "Secretive".


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Secretive} \] Quick Tip: "Reticent" refers to someone who is reserved and keeps their thoughts private.


Question 129:

Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word "FIDELITY".

  • (1) Faith
  • (2) Allegiance
  • (3) Devotedness
  • (4) Treachery
Correct Answer: (4) Treachery
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the meaning of "FIDELITY".

"FIDELITY" means loyalty or faithfulness.

Step 2: Identify the opposite.

The opposite of "FIDELITY" is "Treachery", which refers to betrayal or disloyalty.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Treachery} \] Quick Tip: Fidelity refers to loyalty and faithfulness, while treachery refers to betrayal.


Question 130:

Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word "INFRINGABLE".

  • (1) Complicated
  • (2) Weird
  • (3) Breakable
  • (4) Software
Correct Answer: (3) Breakable
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the meaning of "INFRINGABLE".

"INFRINGABLE" refers to something that cannot be violated or broken.

Step 2: Identify the opposite.

The opposite of "INFRINGABLE" is "Breakable", meaning something that can be broken or violated.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Breakable} \] Quick Tip: "Infringable" refers to something that cannot be violated, while "Breakable" refers to something that can be broken.


Question 131:

Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word "PROGENY".

  • (1) Kid
  • (2) Parent
  • (3) Friend
  • (4) Enemy
Correct Answer: (2) Parent
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the meaning of "PROGENY".

"PROGENY" refers to offspring or children.

Step 2: Identify the opposite.

The opposite of "PROGENY" is "Parent", as a parent is the source of offspring.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Parent} \] Quick Tip: "Progeny" refers to offspring or children, while "Parent" refers to the individual from whom offspring are born.


Question 132:

It was not possible to drag any conclusion so he left the case.

  • (1) Fetch
  • (2) Find
  • (3) Draw
  • (4) No improvement
Correct Answer: (3) Draw
View Solution

Step 1: Identify the correct word.

The correct phrase should be "draw a conclusion", as "draw" is commonly used in this context.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The correct word is "Draw".


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Draw} \] Quick Tip: In expressions like "draw a conclusion", "draw" is the appropriate verb to use.


Question 133:

I am looking after my pen which is missing.

  • (1) Looking for
  • (2) Looking in
  • (3) Looking back
  • (4) No improvement
Correct Answer: (1) Looking for
View Solution

Step 1: Identify the correct phrase.

The correct phrase is "Looking for," which is used when someone is searching for something.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, "Looking for" is the correct phrase.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Looking for} \] Quick Tip: Use "looking for" when referring to searching or trying to find something.


Question 134:

“Mind your language!” he shouted.

  • (1) change
  • (2) inspect
  • (3) hold
  • (4) No improvement
Correct Answer: (4) No improvement
View Solution

Step 1: Identify the correct phrase.

The phrase "Mind your language!" is already correct. It is a common expression used to tell someone to be careful with their words.

Step 2: Conclusion.

There is no improvement needed for the given sentence.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{No improvement} \] Quick Tip: "Mind your language" is a standard expression and does not require modification.


Question 135:

I ..... to go there when I was a student.

  • (1) liked
  • (2) used
  • (3) prefer
  • (4) denied
Correct Answer: (2) used
View Solution

Step 1: Identify the correct form.

The correct expression is "used to" when referring to a habit in the past.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct phrase is "used to".


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{used} \] Quick Tip: Use "used to" when talking about a past habit or repeated action.


Question 136:

She was angry ..... me.

  • (1) at
  • (2) about
  • (3) with
  • (4) in
Correct Answer: (3) with
View Solution

Step 1: Identify the correct preposition.

When expressing anger directed towards someone, we use the preposition "with."

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct phrase is "angry with."


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{with} \] Quick Tip: Use "angry with" when referring to someone who is the object of anger.


Question 137:

You should not laugh ..... the poor.

  • (1) on
  • (2) at
  • (3) with
  • (4) over
Correct Answer: (2) at
View Solution

Step 1: Identify the correct preposition.

The correct preposition to use with "laugh" when referring to a person is "at," as in "laugh at someone."

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct phrase is "laugh at the poor."


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{at} \] Quick Tip: Use "laugh at" when referring to mocking or ridiculing someone.


Question 138:

1. He is a famous doctor.
2. Once I had to consult with him.
3. I never believed him.
4. He suggested me a proper remedy.
5. I become completely fine.
6. Now I also admit this fact.

  • (1) PQRS
  • (2) QPRS
  • (3) QRPS
  • (4) RQPS
Correct Answer: (3) QRPS
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the sequence.

The logical flow is: First, talk about consulting with the doctor, then admitting the fact of getting better, followed by the doctor's suggestion and belief.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The correct sequence is QRPS.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{QRPS} \] Quick Tip: When ordering sentences, ensure the flow of ideas is logical and coherent.


Question 139:

We don’t know the plan of Ram.
He cares for his friends.
He is a complete person.
We want some help and advice.
As we are in trouble.
We hope he will do his best for us.

  • (1) PRSQ
  • (2) QPRS
  • (3) PQRS
  • (4) RQPS
Correct Answer: (2) QPRS
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the sequence.

The logical flow is: Starting with the plan of Ram, then explaining the situation and asking for help, followed by hope for his action.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The correct sequence is QPRS.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{QPRS} \] Quick Tip: When ordering sentences, think of the most logical progression of ideas.


Question 140:

It is not my problem.
All residents of this society are careless.
I am unable to convince anyone.
They don’t want to do some good.
Every one seems to be unwise here.
We all have to suffer one day.

  • (1) PRSQ
  • (2) PQRS
  • (3) QRPS
  • (4) PSRQ
Correct Answer: (1) PRSQ
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the sequence.

The logical flow is to express it as a personal issue, followed by the residents' attitude and the consequences, ending with the fact that everyone will eventually face similar issues.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The correct sequence is PRSQ.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{PRSQ} \] Quick Tip: In sentence ordering, ensure that each part flows logically from one idea to the next.


Question 141:

In a certain code language "DOME" is written as "8943" and "MEAL" is written as "4321". What group of letters can be formed for the code "38249"?

  • (1) EODAM
  • (2) MEDOA
  • (3) EMDAO
  • (4) EDAMO
Correct Answer: (2) MEDOA
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the given code.

By observing the given pattern of the code, we can map the digits to the letters of the word.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The correct code for "38249" is "MEDOA".


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{MEDOA} \] Quick Tip: To decode a message, carefully analyze the pattern and map the corresponding letters to digits.


Question 142:

Find the missing number from the given response.

  • (1) 5
  • (2) 6
  • (3) 7
  • (4) 8
Correct Answer: (3) 7
View Solution

Step 1: Observe the pattern in the given figures.

Look at the numbers in the boxes and see if there is a mathematical relationship between the numbers.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The missing number is 7 based on the identified pattern.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{7} \] Quick Tip: For pattern-based problems, look for consistent relationships between numbers or positions in the figures.


Question 143:

Which of the following correctly represents the relationship among illiterates, poor people, and unemployed?

  • (1) Circle within a circle
  • (2) Overlapping circles
  • (3) Circle within overlapping circles
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (2) Overlapping circles
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the relationship.

Illiterates, poor people, and unemployed people can be seen as overlapping categories, as someone can belong to more than one group.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The correct representation is overlapping circles.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Overlapping circles} \] Quick Tip: In Venn diagrams, overlapping circles are used to represent sets with common elements.


Question 144:

Sushma walks 20m towards north. Then she turns right and walks 30m. Now, she turns right and walks 35m. Now turning left, she walks 15m. Again, she turns left and moves 15m. Finally, she turns left and walks 15m. In which direction and how far is she from her original position?

  • (1) 15m East
  • (2) 30m East
  • (3) 15m West
  • (4) 45m West
Correct Answer: (2) 30m East
View Solution

Step 1: Calculate the directions and distances.

Follow the steps as Sushma moves in the directions provided. After calculating the total distance and direction, she is 30m East from the original position.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Sushma is 30m East from her original position.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{30m East} \] Quick Tip: Use a step-by-step approach to calculate the final position when the path involves multiple directions.


Question 145:

In a classroom, there are 5 rows and 5 children A, B, C, D and E are seated one behind the other in 5 separate rows as follows.
- A is sitting behind C but in front of B.
- C is sitting behind E and D is sitting in front of E.
The order in which they are sitting from the first row to the last is

  • (1) DECAB
  • (2) BACED
  • (3) ACDBE
  • (4) ABDEC
Correct Answer: (1) DECAB
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the seating order.

Based on the given conditions, A is sitting behind C, and C is sitting behind E. D is in front of E, and B is behind A.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The seating order is DECAB.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{DECAB} \] Quick Tip: To solve seating arrangement problems, break down each given condition and use logical reasoning to determine the positions.


Question 146:

Which of the following will fill the series?
\[ 2, 9, 28, 2, 126 \]

  • (1) 64
  • (2) 65
  • (3) 72
  • (4) 56
Correct Answer: (2) 65
View Solution

Step 1: Find the pattern.

The numbers are following a pattern where each term is obtained by multiplying the previous number by a constant and adding a number.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The next number in the series is 65.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{65} \] Quick Tip: Look for arithmetic or geometric patterns in number sequences to identify the next number.


Question 147:

Two signs in the equations have been interchanged, find out the two signs to make the equation correct.
\[ 3 \, - \, 5 \, + \, 8 \, + \, 2 \, - \, 10 = 13 \]

  • (1) \( + \) and \( - \)
  • (2) \( \times \) and \( \div \)
  • (3) \( = \) and \( - \)
  • (4) \( + \) and \( \div \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( + \) and \( \div \)
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the equation.

Substitute the signs \( + \) and \( \div \) into the equation to make it correct.

Step 2: Conclusion.

After interchanging the signs, the equation becomes correct when \( + \) and \( \div \) are interchanged.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{+ and \div} \] Quick Tip: When solving sign-interchange problems, carefully check each sign and test by substituting it into the equation.


Question 148:

Assertion: [A] India is a democratic country.
Reason: [R] India has a constitution of its own.
Choose the correct alternative from the given options.

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (3) (A) is true (R) is false.
  • (4) (A) is false (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the assertion and reason.

The assertion "India is a democratic country" is true. The reason "India has a constitution of its own" is also true, but it does not directly explain the assertion that India is democratic.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain why India is a democratic country.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)} \] Quick Tip: When dealing with assertion and reason questions, check if the reason logically explains the assertion.


Question 149:

Which one of the following figures completes the original figure?


Correct Answer: (2) Figure B
View Solution

Step 1: Identify the pattern in the figure.

Observe the pattern and look for the figure that completes the pattern logically.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The correct figure that completes the original figure is Figure B.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Figure B} \] Quick Tip: Look for symmetry, rotation, or reflection in the figures to identify the correct option.


Question 150:

How many squares are there in the following figure?

  • (1) 24
  • (2) 25
  • (3) 26
  • (4) 27
Correct Answer: (3) 26
View Solution

Step 1: Count the squares in the figure.

Count all the small and large squares present in the grid.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The total number of squares in the figure is 26.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{26} \] Quick Tip: When counting squares, consider different sizes of squares in the figure.