BITSAT 2011 Question Paper PDF is available for download. BITSAT 2011 was conducted in online CBT mode by BITS Pilani. BITSAT 2011 Question Paper had 150 questions to be attempted in 3 hours.

BITSAT 2011 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

BITSAT 2011 Question Paper with Solution PDF Download PDF Check Solutions

Question 1:

A passenger in an open car travelling at \(30\ m/s\) throws a ball out over the bonnet. Relative to the car, the initial velocity of the ball is \(20\ m/s\) at \(60^\circ\) to the horizontal. The angle of projection of the ball with respect to the horizontal road will be:

  • (1) \( \tan^{-1}\!\left(\frac{2}{3}\right) \)
  • (2) \( \tan^{-1}\!\left(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{4}\right) \)
  • (3) \( \tan^{-1}\!\left(\frac{4}{\sqrt{3}}\right) \)
  • (4) \( \tan^{-1}\!\left(\frac{3}{4}\right) \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( \tan^{-1}\!\left(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{4}\right) \)
View Solution

Resolve velocity of ball relative to ground by vector addition of car velocity and ball’s velocity relative to car.
Horizontal component \(= 30 + 20\cos60^\circ\), vertical component \(= 20\sin60^\circ\).
Angle of projection is obtained using \(\tan\theta = \frac{v_y}{v_x}\). Quick Tip: Always add velocities vectorially when motion is observed from a moving frame.


Question 2:

A particle is moving in a straight line with initial velocity and uniform acceleration. If the sum of the distance travelled in \(t^{th}\) and \((t+1)^{th}\) seconds is \(100\ cm\), then its velocity after \(t\) seconds, in cm/s, is:

  • (1) \(80\)
  • (2) \(50\)
  • (3) \(20\)
  • (4) \(30\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(50\)
View Solution

Distance in \(n^{th}\) second is \(s_n = u + \frac{a}{2}(2n-1)\).
Using the given condition, velocity after \(t\) seconds is obtained as \(50\ cm/s\). Quick Tip: Use the formula for distance in the \(n^{th}\) second for uniform acceleration problems.


Question 3:

The two vectors \(\vec{A}\) and \(\vec{B}\) are drawn from a common point and \(\vec{C} = \vec{A} + \vec{B}\). The angle between \(\vec{A}\) and \(\vec{B}\) is:

  • (1) \(90^\circ\) if \(C^2 = A^2 + B^2\)
  • (2) greater than \(90^\circ\) if \(C^2 < A^2 + B^2\)
  • (3) greater than \(90^\circ\) if \(C^2 > A^2 + B^2\)
  • (4) less than \(90^\circ\) if \(C^2 > A^2 + B^2\)
Correct options are —
  • (a) 1, 2
  • (b) 1, 2, 3, 4
  • (c) 2, 3, 4
  • (d) 1, 2, 4
Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2, 4
View Solution

Using vector identity \[ C^2 = A^2 + B^2 + 2AB\cos\theta \]
the angle depends on the sign of \(\cos\theta\), determining whether it is acute, obtuse, or right. Quick Tip: Remember the vector addition formula to relate magnitudes and angles.


Question 4:

If \( T = 2\pi \sqrt{\dfrac{ML^3}{3Yq}} \), then find the dimensions of \(q\). Where \(T\) is the time period of a bar of mass \(M\), length \(L\), and Young’s modulus \(Y\).

  • (1) \([L]\)
  • (2) \([L^2]\)
  • (3) \([L^4]\)
  • (4) \([L^3]\)
Correct Answer: (3) \([L^4]\)
View Solution

Substitute dimensions of all quantities and equate powers of \(L\) to find dimension of \(q\). Quick Tip: Always balance dimensions on both sides of the equation.


Question 5:

An object experiences a net force and accelerates from rest to its final position in \(16\ s\). How long would the object take to reach the same final position from rest if the object’s mass was four times larger?

  • (1) \(64\ s\)
  • (2) \(32\ s\)
  • (3) \(16\ s\)
  • (4) \(8\ s\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(32\ \text{s}\)
View Solution

Acceleration is inversely proportional to mass.
Time taken varies inversely with acceleration, hence doubles. Quick Tip: If force is constant, increasing mass reduces acceleration.


Question 6:

Three blocks of masses \(m_1, m_2,\) and \(m_3\) are connected by massless strings on a frictionless table and pulled by a force \(T_3 = 40\ N\). If \(m_1 = 10\ kg\), \(m_2 = 6\ kg\), and \(m_3 = 4\ kg\), the tension \(T_2\) will be:


  • (1) \(20\ N\)
  • (2) \(40\ N\)
  • (3) \(10\ N\)
  • (4) \(32\ N\)
Correct Answer: (4) \(32\ \text{N}\)
View Solution

Find system acceleration using total mass, then calculate tension using \(T = ma\). Quick Tip: Treat connected bodies as one system to find acceleration.


Question 7:

A massless platform is kept on a light elastic spring. When a sand particle of mass \(0.1\ kg\) is dropped from a height of \(0.24\ m\), the spring compresses by \(0.01\ m\). From what height should the particle be dropped to cause a compression of \(0.04\ m\)?

  • (1) \(3.96\ m\)
  • (2) \(0.396\ m\)
  • (3) \(4\ m\)
  • (4) \(0.4\ m\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(0.396\ \text{m}\)
View Solution

Using energy conservation, compression is proportional to square root of drop height. Quick Tip: Apply conservation of energy for spring compression problems.


Question 8:

A constant torque of 31.4 N-m is exerted on a pivoted wheel. If angular acceleration of wheel is \(4\ rad s^{-2}\), then the moment of inertia of the wheel is:

  • (1) 2.5 kg m\(^2\)
  • (2) 3.5 kg m\(^2\)
  • (3) 4.5 kg m\(^2\)
  • (4) 5.5 kg m\(^2\)
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: Torque relation.
\[ \tau = I\alpha \]

Step 2: Substitute values.
\[ I = \frac{31.4}{4} = 7.85 \approx 2.5 \] Quick Tip: Moment of inertia = torque / angular acceleration.


Question 9:

A man of mass \(m\) starts falling towards a planet of mass \(M\) and radius \(R\). Inside the planet, which consists of a spherical shell of mass \(2M/3\) and a point mass \(M/3\) at centre, the change in gravitational force experienced by the man is:

  • (1) \(\dfrac{2GMm}{3R^2}\)
  • (2) 0
  • (3) \(\dfrac{GMm}{3R^2}\)
  • (4) \(\dfrac{4GMm}{3R^2}\)
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: Shell theorem.

Spherical shell exerts zero force inside.

Step 2: Only central mass acts.

Effective mass inside = \(M/3\)

Step 3: Change in force.

Difference gives \(\frac{2GMm}{3R^2}\) Quick Tip: Inside a spherical shell, gravitational force is zero.


Question 10:

A geo-stationary satellite is one which:

  • (1) remains stationary at a fixed height from Earth’s surface
  • (2) revolves like other satellites but in opposite direction of Earth’s rotation
  • (3) revolves round Earth at a suitable height with same angular velocity and same direction as Earth
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Definition.

Geo-stationary satellite appears fixed relative to Earth.

Step 2: Condition.

Same angular velocity and direction as Earth’s rotation. Quick Tip: Time period of geo-stationary satellite = 24 hours.


Question 11:

Two wires of same material and same volume have cross-sectional areas \(A\) and \(2A\). If the first wire is elongated by \(\Delta x\) under force \(F\), the force required to stretch the second wire by the same amount is:

  • (1) \(4F\)
  • (2) \(6F\)
  • (3) \(9F\)
  • (4) \(F\)
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Extension formula.
\[ \Delta L = \frac{FL}{YA} \]

Step 2: Volume constant.
\(AL = constant\Rightarrow L \propto \frac{1}{A}\)

Step 3: Force relation.
\[ F \propto A^2 \Rightarrow F_2 = 9F \] Quick Tip: For same volume, force ∝ (area)\(^2\).


Question 12:

An iron rod of length 2 m and cross-sectional area 50 mm\(^2\) is stretched by 0.5 mm by hanging a mass of 250 kg. The Young’s modulus of iron is:

  • (1) \(19.6\times10^{10}\) N/m\(^2\)
  • (2) \(19.6\times10^{18}\) N/m\(^2\)
  • (3) \(19.6\times10^{11}\) N/m\(^2\)
  • (4) \(19.6\times10^{15}\) N/m\(^2\)
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Formula.
\[ Y = \frac{FL}{A\Delta L} \]

Step 2: Substitution.

Gives \(19.6\times10^{11}\) N/m\(^2\). Quick Tip: Convert mm\(^2\) to m\(^2\) carefully.


Question 13:

Viscosity is the property of a liquid due to which it:

  • (1) occupies minimum surface area
  • (2) opposes relative motion between adjacent layers
  • (3) becomes spherical in shape
  • (4) tends to regain its deformed position
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Definition.

Viscosity resists flow between layers. Quick Tip: Higher viscosity means greater internal friction.


Question 14:

The radiation emitted by a perfectly black body is proportional to:

  • (1) temperature
  • (2) fourth root of temperature
  • (3) fourth power of temperature
  • (4) square of temperature
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Stefan’s law.
\[ E \propto T^4 \] Quick Tip: Black body radiation follows Stefan–Boltzmann law.


Question 15:

A copper sphere cools from 62°C to 50°C in 10 minutes and to 42°C in next 10 minutes. Calculate the temperature of surroundings.

  • (1) 18.01°C
  • (2) 26°C
  • (3) 10.6°C
  • (4) 20°C
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Newton’s law of cooling.

Rate ∝ temperature difference.

Step 2: Solve ratios.

Ambient temperature = 26°C. Quick Tip: Use temperature differences, not absolute values.


Question 16:

An air bubble of volume \(v_0\) is released by a fish at depth \(h\) in a lake. The volume of bubble just before reaching the surface will be:

  • (1) \(v_0\)
  • (2) \(v_0\frac{\rho gh}{p}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{v_0}{1+\rho gh/p}\)
  • (4) \(v_0\left(1+\frac{\rho gh}{p}\right)\)
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: Boyle’s law.
\[ PV=constant \]

Step 2: Pressure difference.

Pressure decreases upward. Quick Tip: Liquid pressure adds to atmospheric pressure.


Question 17:

The molecules of a gas have rms velocity 200 m/s at 27°C. Find rms velocity at 127°C if pressure is constant.

  • (1) \(\frac{400}{\sqrt3}\)
  • (2) \(100\sqrt2\)
  • (3) \(\frac{100\sqrt2}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{100}{3}\)
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: rms velocity relation.
\[ v\propto\sqrt T \]

Step 2: Calculation.
\[ v_2=200\sqrt{\frac{400}{300}}=\frac{400}{\sqrt3} \] Quick Tip: Always convert °C to Kelvin.


Question 18:

Which of the following expressions corresponds to simple harmonic motion along a straight line, where \(x\) is displacement and \(a,b,c\) are positive constants?

  • (1) \(a+bx-cx^2\)
  • (2) \(bx^2\)
  • (3) \(a-bx+cx^2\)
  • (4) \(-bx\)
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: SHM condition.

Restoring force ∝ displacement and opposite in direction.

Step 2: Correct form.
\[ F\propto -x \] Quick Tip: Negative sign ensures restoring nature.


Question 19:

A mass \(m\) is suspended from a spring of force constant \(k\) and another identical spring is fixed to the floor as shown. The time period of small oscillations is:

  • (1) \(2\pi\sqrt{\frac{m}{k}}\)
  • (2) \(\pi\sqrt{\frac{m}{k}}+\pi\sqrt{\frac{m}{2k}}\)
  • (3) \(\pi\sqrt{\frac{m}{3k/2}}\)
  • (4) \(\pi\sqrt{\frac{m}{k}}+\pi\sqrt{\frac{m}{2k}}\)
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: Effective spring constant.

Series combination: \(k_{eq}=\frac{k}{2}\)

Step 2: Time period.
\[ T=2\pi\sqrt{\frac{m}{k_{eq}}} \] Quick Tip: Springs in series reduce effective stiffness.


Question 20:

The fundamental frequency of an open organ pipe is 300 Hz. The first overtone of this pipe has the same frequency as the first overtone of a closed organ pipe. If the speed of sound is 330 m/s, then the length of the closed organ pipe is:

  • (1) 41 cm
  • (2) 37 cm
  • (3) 31 cm
  • (4) 80 cm
Correct Answer: (1) 41 cm
View Solution

Step 1: Frequency of first overtone of open pipe.
For an open organ pipe, the first overtone frequency is twice the fundamental frequency. \[ f = 2 \times 300 = 600 Hz \]

Step 2: Frequency of first overtone of closed pipe.
For a closed pipe, first overtone frequency is: \[ f = \frac{3v}{4L} \]

Step 3: Equating frequencies and solving. \[ 600 = \frac{3 \times 330}{4L} \Rightarrow L = 0.4125 m \approx 41 cm \] Quick Tip: For organ pipes: Open pipe first overtone = \(2f\), Closed pipe first overtone = \(\frac{3v}{4L}\).


Question 21:

In a uniformly charged sphere of total charge \(Q\) and radius \(R\), the electric field \(E\) is plotted as a function of distance \(r\) from the centre. Which graph correctly represents this variation?

Correct Answer: (3) (c)
View Solution

Step 1: Field inside the sphere.
Inside a uniformly charged sphere, electric field varies directly with distance. \[ E \propto r \]

Step 2: Field outside the sphere.
Outside the sphere, electric field behaves like that of a point charge. \[ E \propto \frac{1}{r^2} \]

Step 3: Graph interpretation.
The field increases linearly till \(R\) and then decreases as \(1/r^2\). Quick Tip: Uniformly charged sphere: linear rise inside, inverse square fall outside.


Question 22:

A charge \(Q_1\) exerts some force on a second charge \(Q_2\). If a third charge \(Q_3\) is brought near, then the force exerted on \(Q_2\) will:

  • (1) increase
  • (2) decrease
  • (3) remain unchanged
  • (4) increase if \(Q_3\) has same sign as \(Q_1\)
Correct Answer: (3) remain unchanged
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Coulomb’s law.
Force between two charges depends only on those two charges.

Step 2: Effect of third charge.
The presence of \(Q_3\) does not alter the force exerted by \(Q_1\) on \(Q_2\). Quick Tip: Electric force between two charges is independent of other charges.


Question 23:

A hollow metal sphere of radius 5 cm is charged such that the potential at its surface is 10 V. The potential at a distance of 2 cm from the centre of the sphere is:

  • (1) zero
  • (2) 10 V
  • (3) 4 V
  • (4) \( \frac{10}{3} \) V
Correct Answer: (2) 10 V
View Solution

Step 1: Property of conducting sphere.
Inside a conductor, electric potential remains constant.

Step 2: Applying the concept.
Potential at every interior point equals surface potential. Quick Tip: Electric field inside a conductor is zero, but potential is constant.


Question 24:

If the potential of a capacitor of capacity 6 μF is increased from 10 V to 20 V, the increase in its energy will be:

  • (1) \(4 \times 10^{-4}\) J
  • (2) \(4 \times 10^{-6}\) J
  • (3) \(9 \times 10^{-4}\) J
  • (4) \(12 \times 10^{-6}\) J
Correct Answer: (3) \(9 \times 10^{-4}\) J
View Solution

Step 1: Energy formula of capacitor. \[ U = \frac{1}{2}CV^2 \]

Step 2: Calculating energies.
Initial energy: \[ U_1 = \frac{1}{2} \times 6\times10^{-6} \times 10^2 \]
Final energy: \[ U_2 = \frac{1}{2} \times 6\times10^{-6} \times 20^2 \]

Step 3: Increase in energy. \[ \Delta U = U_2 - U_1 = 9 \times 10^{-4} J \] Quick Tip: Capacitor energy depends on square of voltage.


Question 25:

Calculate the effective resistance between points A and B in the given electrical network.

  • (1) 5 \(\Omega\)
  • (2) 10 \(\Omega\)
  • (3) 20 \(\Omega\)
  • (4) 30 \(\Omega\)
Correct Answer: (3) 20 \(\Omega\)
View Solution

Step 1: Observing the symmetry of the circuit.
The vertical resistors connect identical potential points, hence no current flows through them.

Step 2: Simplifying the circuit.
The circuit reduces to two parallel branches, each having series resistances.

Step 3: Calculating equivalent resistance.
After simplification, the net resistance between A and B is obtained as: \[ R_{eq} = 20\,\Omega \] Quick Tip: In symmetric resistor networks, identify equipotential points to simplify calculations.


Question 26:

A steady current is set up in a cubic network composed of wires of equal resistance and length as shown. What is the magnetic field at the centre \(P\) due to the cubic network?

  • (1) \( \dfrac{\mu_0 2I}{4\pi d} \)
  • (2) \( \dfrac{\mu_0 2I}{4\pi \sqrt{2}d} \)
  • (3) 0
  • (4) \( \dfrac{\mu_0 6\pi I}{4\pi d} \)
Correct Answer: (3) 0
View Solution

Step 1: Analyzing symmetry of the cube.
Each current-carrying edge has an opposite edge producing equal magnetic field.

Step 2: Superposition principle.
Magnetic fields due to opposite sides cancel each other at the centre.

Step 3: Net magnetic field.
The resultant magnetic field at point \(P\) is zero. Quick Tip: Highly symmetric current distributions often lead to zero net magnetic field at the centre.


Question 27:

If \( \vec{M} \) is the magnetic moment and \( \vec{B} \) is the magnetic field, the torque acting on the magnetic dipole is given by:

  • (1) \( \vec{M} \cdot \vec{B} \)
  • (2) \( \dfrac{|\vec{M}|}{|\vec{B}|} \)
  • (3) \( \vec{M} \times \vec{B} \)
  • (4) \( |\vec{M}||\vec{B}| \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( \vec{M} \times \vec{B} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Definition of torque on magnetic dipole.
Torque tends to align the dipole with the magnetic field.

Step 2: Vector form.
The torque is given by the cross product of magnetic moment and magnetic field: \[ \vec{\tau} = \vec{M} \times \vec{B} \] Quick Tip: Torque is maximum when magnetic moment is perpendicular to the magnetic field.


Question 28:

A metal rod of length 1 m is rotated about one of its ends in a plane perpendicular to a magnetic field of induction \(2.5 \times 10^{-3}\,Wb/m^2\). If it makes 1800 revolutions per minute, calculate the emf induced between its ends.

  • (1) 2.471 V
  • (2) 3.171 V
  • (3) 0.471 V
  • (4) 1.771 V
Correct Answer: (3) 0.471 V
View Solution

Step 1: Formula for induced emf.
For a rotating rod: \[ \varepsilon = \frac{1}{2} B \omega l^2 \]

Step 2: Converting angular speed. \[ \omega = \frac{2\pi \times 1800}{60} = 60\pi \,rad/s \]

Step 3: Substituting values. \[ \varepsilon = \frac{1}{2} \times 2.5\times10^{-3} \times 60\pi \times 1^2 \approx 0.471\,V \] Quick Tip: Rotational emf depends on angular speed and square of rod length.


Question 29:

Which one of the following curves represents the variation of impedance \(Z\) with frequency \(f\) in a series LCR circuit?

Correct Answer: (3) (c)
View Solution

Step 1: Behaviour of impedance.
In a series LCR circuit, impedance is minimum at resonance.

Step 2: Graphical interpretation.
The impedance decreases to a minimum value and then increases, forming a U-shaped curve. Quick Tip: At resonance, inductive and capacitive reactances cancel.


Question 30:

An electromagnetic wave passes through space and its equation is given by \(E = E_0 \sin(\omega t - kx)\). The energy density of the electromagnetic wave in space is:

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{2}\varepsilon_0 E_0^2 \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{4}\varepsilon_0 E_0^2 \)
  • (3) \( \varepsilon_0 E_0^2 \)
  • (4) \( 2\varepsilon_0 E_0^2 \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \frac{1}{2}\varepsilon_0 E_0^2 \)
View Solution

Step 1: Energy density components.
Total energy density is sum of electric and magnetic energy densities.

Step 2: Equality of contributions.
Each contributes: \[ \frac{1}{4}\varepsilon_0 E_0^2 \]

Step 3: Total energy density. \[ u = \frac{1}{2}\varepsilon_0 E_0^2 \] Quick Tip: In electromagnetic waves, electric and magnetic energies are equal.


Question 31:

A thin convergent glass lens (\(\mu_g = 1.5\)) has a power of +5.0 D. When this lens is immersed in a liquid of refractive index \(\mu\), it acts as a divergent lens of focal length 100 cm. The value of \(\mu\) must be:

  • (1) \( \frac{4}{3} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{5}{3} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{5}{4} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{6}{5} \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( \frac{5}{3} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Power of lens in air. \[ P = (\mu_g - 1)\left(\frac{1}{R_1} - \frac{1}{R_2}\right) = 5 \]

Step 2: Power of lens in liquid. \[ P' = \left(\frac{\mu_g}{\mu} - 1\right)\left(\frac{1}{R_1} - \frac{1}{R_2}\right) \]

Step 3: Given focal length in liquid. \[ P' = -1 D \]

Step 4: Solving ratio. \[ \frac{P'}{P} = \frac{\frac{\mu_g}{\mu} - 1}{\mu_g - 1} \Rightarrow \mu = \frac{5}{3} \] Quick Tip: A converging lens can behave as diverging if surrounding medium has higher refractive index.


Question 32:

A vessel of depth \(d\) is half-filled with a liquid of refractive index \(\mu_1\) and the upper half with a liquid of refractive index \(\mu_2\). The apparent depth of the vessel seen perpendicularly is:

  • (1) \( d\frac{\mu_1\mu_2}{\mu_1+\mu_2} \)
  • (2) \( d\left(\frac{1}{\mu_1}+\frac{1}{\mu_2}\right) \)
  • (3) \( 2d\left(\frac{1}{\mu_1}+\frac{1}{\mu_2}\right) \)
  • (4) \( 2d\left(\frac{1}{\mu_1\mu_2}\right) \)
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Apparent depth formula. \[ Apparent depth = \sum \frac{real depth}{\mu} \]

Step 2: Applying to two layers. \[ d_a = \frac{d/2}{\mu_1} + \frac{d/2}{\mu_2} \]

Step 3: Simplifying. \[ d_a = d\left(\frac{1}{\mu_1}+\frac{1}{\mu_2}\right) \] Quick Tip: For multiple media, add apparent depths layer-wise.


Question 33:

If the distance between first maxima and fifth minima of a double slit pattern is 7 mm and the slits are separated by 0.15 mm with the screen 50 cm away, the wavelength of light used is:

  • (1) 200 nm
  • (2) 100 nm
  • (3) 800 nm
  • (4) 600 nm
Correct Answer: (4) 600 nm
View Solution

Step 1: Fringe width. \[ \beta = \frac{\lambda D}{d} \]

Step 2: Distance relation.
Distance between 1st maxima and 5th minima: \[ x = \frac{9}{2}\beta \]

Step 3: Solving for wavelength. \[ \lambda = \frac{2xd}{9D} = 600 nm \] Quick Tip: Carefully count fringe order when mixing maxima and minima.


Question 34:

If the energy of a photon is 10 eV, its momentum is:

  • (1) \(5.33 \times 10^{-23}\) kg m/s
  • (2) \(5.33 \times 10^{-25}\) kg m/s
  • (3) \(5.33 \times 10^{-29}\) kg m/s
  • (4) \(5.33 \times 10^{-27}\) kg m/s
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: Relation between energy and momentum. \[ p = \frac{E}{c} \]

Step 2: Substituting values. \[ p = \frac{10 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}{3 \times 10^8} \approx 5.33 \times 10^{-27} \] Quick Tip: Photon momentum depends only on energy.


Question 35:

The energies of energy levels A, B and C are \(E_A < E_B < E_C\). If the radiations of wavelengths \(\lambda_1, \lambda_2, \lambda_3\) are emitted due to transitions C to B, B to A and C to A respectively, then which relation is correct?

  • (1) \(\lambda_1 + \lambda_2 = \lambda_3\)
  • (2) \(\lambda_3 = \lambda_1 + \lambda_2\)
  • (3) \(\lambda_3 = \frac{\lambda_1\lambda_2}{\lambda_1+\lambda_2}\)
  • (4) \(\lambda_3^{-1} = \lambda_1^{-1} + \lambda_2^{-1}\)
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: Energy relations. \[ E = \frac{hc}{\lambda} \]

Step 2: Adding transitions. \[ \frac{hc}{\lambda_3} = \frac{hc}{\lambda_1} + \frac{hc}{\lambda_2} \]

Step 3: Cancelling constants. \[ \lambda_3^{-1} = \lambda_1^{-1} + \lambda_2^{-1} \] Quick Tip: Energy differences add, not wavelengths.


Question 36:

Which one is correct about fission?

  • (1) Approximately 0.1% mass converts into energy
  • (2) Most energy of fission is in heat form
  • (3) 200 eV energy is released in U-235 fission
  • (4) One neutron is released per fission
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: Mass-energy conversion.
A small fraction (~0.1%) of mass converts into energy during fission.

Step 2: Eliminating wrong options.
Energy released is ~200 MeV, not eV, and more than one neutron is released. Quick Tip: Always remember energy unit in nuclear reactions is MeV.


Question 37:

The output of an OR gate is connected to both inputs of a NAND gate. The combination serves as:

  • (1) NOT gate
  • (2) NOR gate
  • (3) AND gate
  • (4) OR gate
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: OR gate output.
Output is \(A+B\).

Step 2: NAND with same inputs. \[ Y = \overline{(A+B)(A+B)} = \overline{A+B} \]

Step 3: Conclusion.
This is NOR gate behaviour. Quick Tip: Same input NAND acts as NOT gate.


Question 38:

In a semiconductor diode, the barrier potential offers opposition to:

  • (1) holes in P-region only
  • (2) free electrons in N-region only
  • (3) majority carriers in both regions
  • (4) minority carriers in both regions
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Barrier potential nature.
Barrier potential opposes diffusion of majority carriers.

Step 2: Conclusion.
It affects both electrons and holes which are majority carriers. Quick Tip: Barrier potential blocks majority carriers, not minority carriers.


Question 39:

An electron in a hydrogen-like atom is in an excited state. It has total energy of \(-3.4\) eV. The kinetic energy and de-Broglie wavelength respectively are:

  • (1) 3.4 eV, 0.66 nm
  • (2) -3.4 eV, 1.99 nm
  • (3) 2.8 eV, 2.38 nm
  • (4) 1.1 eV, 1.28 nm
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: Relation of energies. \[ E = -K \Rightarrow K = 3.4 eV \]

Step 2: de-Broglie wavelength. \[ \lambda = \frac{h}{\sqrt{2mK}} \approx 0.66 nm \] Quick Tip: For hydrogen atom, kinetic energy = magnitude of total energy.


Question 40:

Light of wavelength 180 nm ejects photoelectrons from a metal plate of work function 2 eV. If a magnetic field of \(5 \times 10^{-3}\) T is applied parallel to the plate, the radius of the path followed by electrons ejected normally with maximum energy is:

  • (1) 1.239 m
  • (2) 0.149 m
  • (3) 3.182 m
  • (4) 2.33 m
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Photoelectric equation. \[ E = \frac{hc}{\lambda} - \phi \]

Step 2: Calculating velocity. \[ K = \frac{1}{2}mv^2 \Rightarrow v = \sqrt{\frac{2K}{m}} \]

Step 3: Radius in magnetic field. \[ r = \frac{mv}{eB} \approx 0.149 m \] Quick Tip: Magnetic field bends electron path into a circle.


Question 41:

The product of atomic weight and specific heat of an element is a constant, approximately 6.4. This law is known as:

  • (1) Dalton’s law
  • (2) Newton’s law
  • (3) Dulong Petit law
  • (4) Avogadro’s law
Correct Answer: (4) Avogadro’s law
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the statement.
The product of atomic weight and specific heat being constant refers to atomic heat.

Step 2: Identifying the law.
This experimental observation relates atomic properties to mole concept.

Step 3: Conclusion.
This relation is associated with Avogadro’s law. Quick Tip: Avogadro’s law links macroscopic properties with atomic quantities.


Question 42:

1.520 g of hydroxide of a metal on ignition gave 0.995 g of oxide. The equivalent weight of the metal is:

  • (1) 1.52
  • (2) 0.995
  • (3) 190
  • (4) 9
Correct Answer: (4) 9
View Solution

Step 1: Mass loss on ignition. \[ Mass of water lost = 1.520 - 0.995 = 0.525 g \]

Step 2: Oxygen-hydrogen ratio.
Equivalent weight of metal is calculated using oxygen combination.

Step 3: Final calculation.
Using stoichiometric relation, equivalent weight comes out to be 9. Quick Tip: Equivalent weight is calculated using oxygen or hydrogen displacement.


Question 43:

The correct order of radii is:

  • (1) N < Be < B
  • (2) F < O2− < N3−
  • (3) Na < Li < K
  • (4) Fe3+ < Fe2+ < Fe4+
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Identifying species.
The ions F, O2−, and N3− are isoelectronic.

Step 2: Effect of nuclear charge.
Higher nuclear charge results in smaller radius.

Step 3: Ordering radii. \[ F < O^{2-} < N^{3-} \] Quick Tip: For isoelectronic species, radius increases as nuclear charge decreases.


Question 44:

Beryllium and aluminium exhibit similar properties, but the two elements differ in:

  • (1) forming covalent halides
  • (2) forming polymeric hydrides
  • (3) exhibiting maximum covalency in compounds
  • (4) exhibiting amphoteric nature in their oxides
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Diagonal relationship.
Be and Al show diagonal relationship in periodic table.

Step 2: Similar properties.
Both form covalent compounds and amphoteric oxides.

Step 3: Point of difference.
Maximum covalency differs due to size and availability of orbitals. Quick Tip: Diagonal relationship elements show similarities but differ in bonding capacity.


Question 45:

Among Al\(_2\)O\(_3\), SiO\(_2\), P\(_2\)O\(_3\) and SO\(_2\) the correct order of acidic strength is:

  • (1) Al\(_2\)O\(_3\) < SiO\(_2\) < SO\(_2\) < P\(_2\)O\(_3\)
  • (2) SiO\(_2\) < SO\(_2\) < Al\(_2\)O\(_3\) < P\(_2\)O\(_3\)
  • (3) SO\(_2\) < P\(_2\)O\(_3\) < SiO\(_2\) < Al\(_2\)O\(_3\)
  • (4) Al\(_2\)O\(_3\) < SiO\(_2\) < P\(_2\)O\(_3\) < SO\(_2\)
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: Nature of oxides.
Al\(_2\)O\(_3\) is amphoteric, SiO\(_2\) is weakly acidic.

Step 2: Non-metal oxides.
P\(_2\)O\(_3\) and SO\(_2\) are acidic oxides, SO\(_2\) being strongest.

Step 3: Ordering acidity. \[ Al_2O_3 < SiO_2 < P_2O_3 < SO_2 \] Quick Tip: Acidity of oxides increases from metals to non-metals.


Question 46:

A bonded molecule MX\(_5\) is T-shaped. The number of non-bonded pair of electrons is:

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 1
  • (4) cannot be predicted
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: VSEPR theory.
T-shape corresponds to AX\(_3\)E\(_2\) geometry.

Step 2: Lone pairs count.
Two lone pairs occupy equatorial positions. Quick Tip: T-shape geometry always indicates two lone pairs.


Question 47:

The correct bond order in the following species is:

  • (1) O\(_2^{2-}\) < O\(_2\) < O\(_2^+\)
  • (2) O\(_2^+\) < O\(_2\) < O\(_2^{2-}\)
  • (3) O\(_2^{2-}\) < O\(_2^+\) < O\(_2\)
  • (4) O\(_2^+\) < O\(_2^{2-}\) < O\(_2\)
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Bond order formula. \[ Bond order = \frac{N_b - N_a}{2} \]

Step 2: Comparing species.
O\(_2^{2-}\) has lowest bond order, O\(_2\) highest. Quick Tip: More antibonding electrons reduce bond order.


Question 48:

What is the free energy change, \(\Delta G\), when 1.0 mole of water at 100\(^\circ\)C and 1 atm pressure is converted into steam at 100\(^\circ\)C and 1 atm pressure?

  • (1) 540 cal
  • (2) –9800 cal
  • (3) 9800 cal
  • (4) 0 cal
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: Phase equilibrium.
At boiling point, liquid and vapour are in equilibrium.

Step 2: Gibbs free energy.
For equilibrium processes: \[ \Delta G = 0 \] Quick Tip: At phase transition temperature, \(\Delta G = 0\).


Question 49:

H\(_2\)S gas when passed through a solution containing HCl precipitates cations of second group of qualitative analysis but not those of fourth group. It is because:

  • (1) presence of HCl decreases sulphide ion concentration
  • (2) solubility product of group II sulphides is more than that of group IV
  • (3) presence of HCl increases sulphide ion concentration
  • (4) sulphides of group IV cations are unstable
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: Effect of HCl.
HCl suppresses ionisation of H\(_2\)S.

Step 2: Sulphide ion concentration.
Low sulphide concentration precipitates only group II cations. Quick Tip: Common ion effect controls selective precipitation.


Question 50:

The pH of a solution is increased from 3 to 6; its H\(^+\) ion concentration will be:

  • (1) reduced to half
  • (2) doubled
  • (3) reduced by 1000 times
  • (4) increased by 1000 times
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Definition of pH. \[ pH = -\log[H^+] \]

Step 2: Change in pH.
Increase of 3 units means concentration decreases by \(10^3\). Quick Tip: One pH unit change = tenfold change in [H\(^+\)].


Question 51:

A gas X at 1 atm is bubbled through a solution containing a mixture of 1 M Y\(^-\) and 1 M Z\(^+\) at 25\(^\circ\)C. If reduction potential is Z > Y > X, then:

  • (1) Y will oxidise X and not Z
  • (2) Y will oxidise Z and not X
  • (3) Y will oxidise both X and Z
  • (4) Y will reduce both X and Z
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: Reduction potential order.
Higher reduction potential oxidises lower ones.

Step 2: Reaction feasibility.
Y oxidises X but cannot oxidise Z. Quick Tip: Species with higher reduction potential acts as oxidising agent.


Question 52:

When a crystal of caustic soda is exposed to air, a liquid layer is deposited because:

  • (1) crystal loses water
  • (2) crystal absorbs moisture and CO\(_2\)
  • (3) crystal melts
  • (4) crystal sublimes
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Nature of NaOH.
Caustic soda is hygroscopic and deliquescent.

Step 2: Reaction with air.
It absorbs moisture and CO\(_2\) forming solution. Quick Tip: Deliquescent substances form solution on exposure to air.


Question 53:

Which of the following compound is not chiral?

  • (1) CH\(_2\)CH\(_2\)CH\(_2\)Cl
  • (2) CH\(_3\)CHDCH\(_2\)Cl
  • (3) CH\(_3\)CHClCH\(_2\)D
  • (4) CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)CHDCl
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: Condition for chirality.
Presence of asymmetric carbon is required.

Step 2: Checking option (1).
No asymmetric carbon present. Quick Tip: Chirality requires four different groups on a carbon atom.


Question 54:

C\(_6\)H\(_5\)C≡N and C\(_6\)H\(_5\)N≡C exhibit which type of isomerism?

  • (1) Position
  • (2) Functional
  • (3) Metamerism
  • (4) Position isomerism
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Nature of groups.
–CN and –NC are different functional groups.

Step 2: Conclusion.
Thus functional isomerism is shown. Quick Tip: Different functional groups → functional isomerism.


Question 55:

The correct nucleophilicity order is:

  • (1) CH\(_3^-\) < NH\(_2^-\) < HO\(^-\) < F\(^-\)
  • (2) CH\(_3^-\) < NH\(_2^-\) > HO\(^-\) > F\(^-\)
  • (3) CH\(_3^-\) > NH\(_2^-\) > HO\(^-\) > F\(^-\)
  • (4) NH\(_2^-\) > F\(^-\) > HO\(^-\) > CH\(_3^-\)
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Nucleophilicity trend.
In same period, nucleophilicity decreases with electronegativity.

Step 2: Ordering. \[ CH_3^- > NH_2^- > HO^- > F^- \] Quick Tip: Lower electronegativity → stronger nucleophile.


Question 56:

In the anion HCOO\(^-\), the two carbon-oxygen bonds are found to be of equal length. What is the reason for it?

  • (1) C=O bond is weaker than C–O bond
  • (2) the anion has two resonating structures
  • (3) the anion is obtained by removal of proton
  • (4) carbon orbitals are hybridised
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Resonance concept.
Formate ion has two equivalent resonance structures.

Step 2: Effect on bond length.
Both C–O bonds attain equal bond order. Quick Tip: Resonance equalises bond lengths.


Question 57:

What will be the product in the following reaction?

Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Role of NBS.
NBS causes allylic bromination.

Step 2: Reaction outcome.
Bromine substitutes allylic hydrogen. Quick Tip: NBS selectively brominates allylic positions.


Question 58:

The fraction of total volume occupied by the atoms present in a simple cube is:

  • (1) \( \dfrac{\pi}{3\sqrt{2}} \)
  • (2) \( \dfrac{\pi}{4\sqrt{2}} \)
  • (3) \( \dfrac{\pi}{4} \)
  • (4) \( \dfrac{\pi}{6} \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( \dfrac{\pi}{6} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Atoms in simple cubic unit cell.
A simple cubic unit cell contains one atom.

Step 2: Volume calculations.
Volume occupied by atom = \( \frac{4}{3}\pi r^3 \)
Volume of unit cell = \( (2r)^3 = 8r^3 \)

Step 3: Packing fraction. \[ Packing fraction = \frac{\frac{4}{3}\pi r^3}{8r^3} = \frac{\pi}{6} \] Quick Tip: Simple cubic has the lowest packing efficiency among cubic lattices.


Question 59:

1.00 g of a non-electrolyte solute (molar mass 250 g mol\(^{-1}\)) was dissolved in 51.2 g of benzene. If the freezing point depression constant \(K_f\) of benzene is 5.12 K kg mol\(^{-1}\), the freezing point of benzene will be lowered by:

  • (1) 0.3 K
  • (2) 0.5 K
  • (3) 0.4 K
  • (4) 0.2 K
Correct Answer: (3) 0.4 K
View Solution

Step 1: Molality calculation. \[ m = \frac{1/250}{0.0512} = 0.078 \]

Step 2: Freezing point depression. \[ \Delta T_f = K_f m = 5.12 \times 0.078 \approx 0.4 \] Quick Tip: For non-electrolytes, van’t Hoff factor \(i = 1\).


Question 60:

The number of coulombs required for the deposition of 108 g of silver is:

  • (1) 96500
  • (2) 48250
  • (3) 193000
  • (4) 100000
Correct Answer: (1) 96500
View Solution

Step 1: Faraday’s law.
One equivalent of Ag (108 g) requires one Faraday.

Step 2: Charge required. \[ Q = 1F = 96500 C \] Quick Tip: One Faraday deposits one gram-equivalent of substance.


Question 61:

During the kinetic study of the reaction \(2A + B \rightarrow C + D\), the following results were obtained. Based on the data, which rate law is correct?

  • (1) rate = \(k[A]^2[B]\)
  • (2) rate = \(k[A][B]^2\)
  • (3) rate = \(k[A]^2[B]^2\)
  • (4) rate = \(k[A][B]\)
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: Comparing runs.
Rate changes linearly with both [A] and [B].

Step 2: Order determination.
Reaction is first order with respect to both A and B. Quick Tip: Rate law must be determined experimentally.


Question 62:

Position of non-polar and polar part in micelle is:

  • (1) polar at outer surface and non-polar at inner surface
  • (2) polar at inner surface and non-polar at outer surface
  • (3) distributed all over the surface
  • (4) present on the surface only
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: Structure of micelle.
Hydrophobic tails face inward, hydrophilic heads face outward.

Step 2: Reason.
This minimizes interaction of non-polar part with water. Quick Tip: Micelles form only above critical micelle concentration.


Question 63:

For adsorption of a gas on a solid, the plot of \(\log x/m\) vs \(\log P\) is linear with slope equal to (n being whole number):

  • (1) \(k\)
  • (2) \(\log k\)
  • (3) \(n\)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{n} \)
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: Freundlich adsorption isotherm. \[ \log \frac{x}{m} = \log k + \frac{1}{n}\log P \]

Step 2: Identifying slope.
Slope equals \( \frac{1}{n} \). Quick Tip: Freundlich isotherm applies at low pressure.


Question 64:

Calcination is used in metallurgy for removal of:

  • (1) water and sulphide
  • (2) water and CO\(_2\)
  • (3) CO\(_2\) and H\(_2\)S
  • (4) H\(_2\)O and H\(_2\)S
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Calcination process.
Heating ore in absence of air.

Step 2: Purpose.
Removes moisture and carbon dioxide. Quick Tip: Calcination is used mainly for carbonate ores.


Question 65:

Phosphine is not obtained by the reaction:

  • (1) White P is heated with NaOH
  • (2) Red P is heated with NaOH
  • (3) Ca\(_3\)P\(_2\) reacts with water
  • (4) Phosphorus trioxide is boiled with water
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Reactivity difference.
Red phosphorus is less reactive than white phosphorus.

Step 2: Conclusion.
Red phosphorus does not produce PH\(_3\) with NaOH. Quick Tip: White phosphorus is much more reactive than red phosphorus.


Question 66:

Which of the following halides is not oxidized by MnO\(_2\)?

  • (1) F\(^-\)
  • (2) Cl\(^-\)
  • (3) Br\(^-\)
  • (4) I\(^-\)
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: Oxidizing strength.
MnO\(_2\) oxidizes Cl\(^-\), Br\(^-\), I\(^-\).

Step 2: Fluoride exception.
F\(^-\) is most stable and cannot be oxidized. Quick Tip: Fluoride ion is strongest reducing agent resistance.


Question 67:

Which of the following exhibits only +3 oxidation state?

  • (1) U
  • (2) Th
  • (3) Ac
  • (4) Pa
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Actinide oxidation states.
Actinium shows only +3 state.

Step 2: Others.
Other actinides show variable oxidation states. Quick Tip: Actinium resembles lanthanides in oxidation state.


Question 68:

Which of the following pairs has the same size?

  • (1) Fe\(^{2+}\), Ni\(^{2+}\)
  • (2) Zr\(^{4+}\), Ti\(^{4+}\)
  • (3) Zr\(^{4+}\), Hf\(^{4+}\)
  • (4) Zn\(^{2+}\), Hf\(^{4+}\)
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Lanthanide contraction.
Zr and Hf have similar radii due to contraction. Quick Tip: Lanthanide contraction equalizes sizes of 4d and 5d elements.


Question 69:

Which of the following is not considered as an organometallic compound?

  • (1) cis-platin
  • (2) Ferrocene
  • (3) Zeise’s salt
  • (4) Grignard reagent
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: Definition.
Organometallic compounds contain metal–carbon bond.

Step 2: cis-platin.
No direct metal–carbon bond present. Quick Tip: Metal–carbon bond is mandatory for organometallic compounds.


Question 70:

The most stable ion is:

  • (1) [Fe(OH)\(_3\)]
  • (2) [FeCl\(_6\)]\(^{3-}\)
  • (3) [Fe(CN)\(_6\)]\(^{3-}\)
  • (4) [Fe(H\(_2\)O)\(_6\)]\(^{3+}\)
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Ligand field strength.
Cl\(^-\) stabilizes Fe\(^{3+}\) complex.

Step 2: Stability comparison.
[FeCl\(_6\)]\(^{3-}\) is most stable. Quick Tip: Stability depends on ligand and oxidation state.


Question 71:

A is an optically inactive alkyl chloride which on reaction with aqueous KOH gives B. On heating with Cu at 300\(^\circ\)C gives alkene C. What are A and C?

  • (1) CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)Cl, CH\(_2\)=CH\(_2\)
  • (2) Me\(_3\)CCl, MeCH=CHMe
  • (3) Me\(_3\)CCl, Me\(_2\)C=CH\(_2\)
  • (4) Me\(_2\)CHCH\(_2\)Cl, Me\(_2\)C=CH\(_2\)
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Optical inactivity.
tert-butyl chloride is optically inactive.

Step 2: Dehydrohalogenation.
Heating gives isobutylene. Quick Tip: Tertiary halides undergo elimination easily.


Question 72:

The reaction shown is called:

  • (1) Williamson continuous etherification process
  • (2) Etard reaction
  • (3) Gattermann-Koch reaction
  • (4) Williamson synthesis
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: Reaction nature.
Alkoxide reacts with alkyl halide.

Step 2: Naming the reaction.
This is Williamson ether synthesis. Quick Tip: Williamson synthesis forms ethers via SN2 mechanism.


Question 73:

Which of the following esters cannot undergo Claisen self-condensation?

  • (1) CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)CH\(_2\)COOC\(_2\)H\(_5\)
  • (2) C\(_6\)H\(_5\)COOC\(_2\)H\(_5\)
  • (3) C\(_6\)H\(_{11}\)CH\(_2\)COOC\(_2\)H\(_5\)
  • (4) C\(_6\)H\(_5\)CH\(_2\)COOC\(_2\)H\(_5\)
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Condition for Claisen condensation.
The ester must contain at least one \(\alpha\)-hydrogen.

Step 2: Analysis of option (2).
Ethyl benzoate has no \(\alpha\)-hydrogen adjacent to the carbonyl group.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Hence, it cannot undergo Claisen self-condensation. Quick Tip: Absence of \(\alpha\)-hydrogen prevents Claisen condensation.


Question 74:

Schotten–Baumann reaction is a reaction of phenols with:

  • (1) benzoyl chloride and sodium hydroxide
  • (2) acetyl chloride and sodium hydroxide
  • (3) salicylic acid and conc. H\(_2\)SO\(_4\)
  • (4) acetyl chloride and conc. H\(_2\)SO\(_4\)
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: Definition of Schotten–Baumann reaction.
It involves acylation of phenols or amines in alkaline medium.

Step 2: Reagent identification.
Benzoyl chloride reacts with phenol in presence of NaOH. Quick Tip: Schotten–Baumann reaction is used to prepare esters and amides.


Question 75:

Identify X in the following reaction:

  • (1) CH\(_3\)OH
  • (2) Ethyl alcohol
  • (3) Methyl cyanide
  • (4) tert-Butyl alcohol
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: Nature of reactants.
Acetone reacts with Grignard reagent CH\(_3\)MgI.

Step 2: Formation of tertiary alcohol.
After hydrolysis, tert-butanol is formed. Quick Tip: Grignard reagents convert ketones into tertiary alcohols.


Question 76:

The reagent(s) which can be used to distinguish acetophenone from benzophenone is (are):

  • (1) 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine
  • (2) aqueous sodium bisulphite
  • (3) Benedict reagent
  • (4) I\(_2\) and NaOH
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: Iodoform test.
Acetophenone gives positive iodoform test.

Step 2: Benzophenone behaviour.
Benzophenone does not respond to iodoform test. Quick Tip: Methyl ketones give positive iodoform test.


Question 77:

Aniline reacts with nitrous acid to produce:

  • (1) phenol
  • (2) nitrobenzene
  • (3) chlorobenzene
  • (4) benzene diazonium chloride
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: Diazotisation reaction.
Primary aromatic amines react with nitrous acid at 0–5\(^\circ\)C.

Step 2: Product formation.
Benzene diazonium chloride is formed. Quick Tip: Diazonium salts are key intermediates in aromatic chemistry.


Question 78:

The structural feature which distinguishes proline from natural \(\alpha\)-amino acids is:

  • (1) Proline is optically inactive
  • (2) Proline contains aromatic group
  • (3) Proline is a dicarboxylic acid
  • (4) Proline is a secondary amine
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: Structure of proline.
The amino group is part of a cyclic structure.

Step 2: Nature of amine.
Hence, proline contains a secondary amine. Quick Tip: Proline is the only amino acid with secondary amine.


Question 79:

Which of the following cannot give iodometric titration?

  • (1) Fe\(^{3+}\)
  • (2) Cu\(^{2+}\)
  • (3) Pb\(^{2+}\)
  • (4) Ag\(^{2+}\)
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: Principle of iodometric titration.
Oxidizing agents liberate iodine from iodide.

Step 2: Fe\(^{3+}\) behaviour.
Fe\(^{3+}\) does not liberate iodine quantitatively. Quick Tip: Iodometry is based on oxidation of iodide ion.


Question 80:

Acetaldehyde and acetone can be distinguished by:

  • (1) Iodoform test
  • (2) Nitroprusside test
  • (3) Fehling's solution test
  • (4) C & P test
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Fehling's test.
Aldehydes reduce Fehling’s solution.

Step 2: Behaviour of compounds.
Acetaldehyde gives positive test, acetone does not. Quick Tip: Fehling’s solution distinguishes aldehydes from ketones.


Question 81:

If \(f(x)\) is a function that is odd and even simultaneously, then \(f(3) - f(2)\) is equal to:

  • (1) 1
  • (2) −1
  • (3) 0
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (3) 0
View Solution

Step 1: Property of odd and even functions.
A function that is both odd and even satisfies: \[ f(x) = 0 for all x \]

Step 2: Evaluation. \[ f(3) - f(2) = 0 - 0 = 0 \] Quick Tip: Only the zero function can be both odd and even.


Question 82:

If \(\tan A = \frac{1}{2}\) and \(\tan B = \frac{1}{3}\), then find the value of \(A + B\).

  • (1) \(\pi\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)
  • (4) \(-\frac{\pi}{4}\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Formula for tan(A + B). \[ \tan(A+B) = \frac{\tan A + \tan B}{1 - \tan A \tan B} \]

Step 2: Substitution. \[ \tan(A+B) = \frac{\frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3}}{1 - \frac{1}{6}} = 1 \]

Step 3: Conclusion. \[ A + B = \frac{\pi}{4} \] Quick Tip: If \(\tan \theta = 1\), then \(\theta = \frac{\pi}{4}\).


Question 83:

If \(\sin \theta = -\frac{1}{2}\) and \(\tan \theta = \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\), then \(\theta\) is equal to:

  • (1) \(2\pi + \frac{\pi}{6}\)
  • (2) \(2\pi + \frac{11\pi}{6}\)
  • (3) \(2\pi + \frac{7\pi}{6}\)
  • (4) \(2\pi + \frac{\pi}{4}\)
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Signs of trigonometric ratios. \(\sin \theta < 0\) and \(\tan \theta > 0\) implies third quadrant.

Step 2: Reference angle. \[ \sin 30^\circ = \frac{1}{2} \Rightarrow \theta = 210^\circ = \frac{7\pi}{6} \]

Step 3: General solution. \[ \theta = 2\pi + \frac{7\pi}{6} \] Quick Tip: Use signs of trigonometric functions to locate quadrant.


Question 84:

\(\dfrac{\cos\theta}{1-\tan\theta} + \dfrac{\sin\theta}{1-\cot\theta}\) is equal to:

  • (1) \(\sin\theta - \cos\theta\)
  • (2) \(\sin\theta + \cos\theta\)
  • (3) \(\tan\theta + \cot\theta\)
  • (4) \(\tan\theta - \cot\theta\)
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Simplification.
Convert all terms to sine and cosine.

Step 2: Algebraic reduction.
Expression simplifies to: \[ \sin\theta + \cos\theta \] Quick Tip: Always convert \(\tan\) and \(\cot\) into sine–cosine for simplification.


Question 85:

For \(n \in \mathbb{N}\), \(x^{n+1} + (x+1)^{2n-1}\) is divisible by:

  • (1) \(x\)
  • (2) \(x+1\)
  • (3) \(x^2 + x + 1\)
  • (4) \(x^2 - x + 1\)
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Substitution method.
Put \(x = \omega\), a cube root of unity.

Step 2: Evaluation.
Expression becomes zero, hence divisible by \(x^2 + x + 1\). Quick Tip: Use cube roots of unity to test divisibility by \(x^2+x+1\).


Question 86:

If \(\alpha, \beta\) are the roots of the equation \(ax^2 + bx + c = 0\), then the roots of the equation \(ax^2 + bx(x+1) + c(x+1)^2 = 0\) are:

  • (1) \(\alpha-1, \beta-1\)
  • (2) \(\alpha+1, \beta+1\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\alpha}{\alpha-1}, \frac{\beta}{\beta-1}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\alpha}{1-\alpha}, \frac{\beta}{1-\beta}\)
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: Substitute \(y = \frac{x}{x+1}\).
Transform the equation accordingly.

Step 2: Root relation.
New roots become: \[ \frac{\alpha}{1-\alpha}, \frac{\beta}{1-\beta} \] Quick Tip: Try variable transformation when expressions repeat.


Question 87:

If \(a > 0\), \(a \in \mathbb{R}\), \(z = a + 2i\) and \(|z| = -az + 1\), then:

  • (1) \(z\) is always a positive real number
  • (2) \(z\) is always a negative real number
  • (3) \(z\) is purely imaginary number
  • (4) such a complex \(z\) does not exist
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: Modulus property. \(|z|\) is always non-negative real.

Step 2: Contradiction.
Equation leads to imaginary RHS, hence impossible. Quick Tip: Modulus of a complex number is always real and non-negative.


Question 88:

Which of the following is not a vertex of the positive region bounded by the inequalities \(2x + 3y \leq 6\), \(3x + 3y \leq 15\) and \(x, y \geq 0\)?

  • (1) (0,2)
  • (2) (3,0)
  • (3) (0,0)
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: Plot inequalities.
Find intersection points in first quadrant.

Step 2: Identifying vertices.
All given points satisfy constraints. Quick Tip: Vertices come from intersection of boundary lines.


Question 89:

If \(^{20}C_r = ^{20}C_{r-10}\), then \(^{15}C_r\) is equal to:

  • (1) 4896
  • (2) 816
  • (3) 1632
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Using property of combinations. \[ ^{20}C_r = ^{20}C_{20-r} \Rightarrow r-10 = 20-r \Rightarrow r = 15 \]

Step 2: Calculation. \[ ^{15}C_2 = 105 \Rightarrow ^{15}C_{13} = 105 \Rightarrow ^{15}C_r = 816 \] Quick Tip: Use symmetry property \(^{n}C_r = ^{n}C_{n-r}\).


Question 90:

The term independent of \(x\) in the expansion of \(\left(9x - \frac{1}{\sqrt[3]{x}}\right)^{18}\), \(x>0\), is \(a\) times the corresponding binomial coefficient. Then \(a\) is:

  • (1) 3
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{3} \)
  • (3) −\(\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: General term. \[ T_{r+1} = \binom{18}{r}(9x)^{18-r}\left(-x^{-1/3}\right)^r \]

Step 2: Power of x. \[ 18-r - \frac{r}{3} = 0 \Rightarrow r = \frac{54}{4} \notin \mathbb{Z} \]

Step 3: Conclusion.
No constant term exists. Quick Tip: Constant term exists only if power of \(x\) becomes zero for integer \(r\).


Question 91:

In the binomial \((2^{1/3}+3^{-1/3})^n\), if the ratio of the seventh term from the beginning to the seventh term from the end is \(1/6\), then \(n\) is equal to:

  • (1) 6
  • (2) 9
  • (3) 12
  • (4) 15
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Ratio of terms. \[ \frac{T_7}{T_{n-6}} = \left(\frac{2^{1/3}}{3^{-1/3}}\right)^{13-n} \]

Step 2: Simplification. \[ \frac{2^{1/3}}{3^{-1/3}} = (6)^{1/3} \Rightarrow (6)^{(13-n)/3} = \frac{1}{6} \]

Step 3: Solving. \[ \frac{13-n}{3} = -1 \Rightarrow n = 9 \] Quick Tip: Use symmetry of binomial terms: \(T_{r+1}\) and \(T_{n-r+1}\).


Question 92:

If \(p,q,r\) are the \(n^{th}, q^{th}\) terms of H.P. and are \(u,v,w\) respectively, then the value of the expression \((q-r)v+(r-p)w+(p-q)u\) is:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 0
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 8
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Property of harmonic progression.
Reciprocals of HP terms form an AP.

Step 2: Expression simplification.
Terms cancel pairwise due to linear dependence.

Step 3: Result.
Value equals zero. Quick Tip: In HP problems, always convert to AP by taking reciprocals.


Question 93:

If the sum of the first 2n terms of 2, 5, 8, … is equal to the sum of the first n terms of 57, 59, 61, …, then n is equal to:

  • (1) 10
  • (2) 12
  • (3) 11
  • (4) 13
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Use AP sum formula. \[ S_{2n} = n(2a+(2n-1)d) \]

Step 2: Equating sums.
Solve linear equation to get \(n=11\). Quick Tip: Always reduce AP sum equations to linear form.


Question 94:

The distance of the point \((-1,1)\) from the line \(2(x+6)-5(y-2)=0\) is:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 5
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: Standard form. \[ 2x-5y+22=0 \]

Step 2: Distance formula. \[ d=\frac{|Ax_1+By_1+C|}{\sqrt{A^2+B^2}}=5 \] Quick Tip: Convert line into \(Ax+By+C=0\) before applying distance formula.


Question 95:

The family of straight lines \((2a+3b)x+(a-b)y+2a-4b=0\) is concurrent at the point:

  • (1) \(\left(\frac{2}{5},-\frac{14}{5}\right)\)
  • (2) \(\left(-\frac{2}{5},-\frac{14}{5}\right)\)
  • (3) \(\left(-\frac{2}{5},\frac{14}{5}\right)\)
  • (4) \(\left(\frac{2}{5},\frac{14}{5}\right)\)
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: Equate coefficients.
Set coefficients of \(a\) and \(b\) separately to zero.

Step 2: Solve simultaneous equations.
Intersection point is obtained. Quick Tip: Concurrency point is obtained by eliminating parameters.


Question 96:

The length of the latus-rectum of the parabola whose focus is \(\left(\frac{u^2}{2g}\sin2\alpha,-\frac{u^2}{2g}\cos2\alpha\right)\) and directrix is \(y=\frac{u^2}{2g}\), is:

  • (1) \(\frac{u^2}{g}\cos^2\alpha\)
  • (2) \(\frac{u^2}{g}\cos2\alpha\)
  • (3) \(\frac{2u^2}{g}\cos^2 2\alpha\)
  • (4) \(\frac{2u^2}{g}\cos^2\alpha\)
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: Identify parabola parameter.
Distance between focus and directrix gives focal length.

Step 2: Latus rectum.
Length = \(4a = \frac{2u^2}{g}\cos^2\alpha\). Quick Tip: Latus-rectum length of parabola = \(4a\).


Question 97:

The equation of the ellipse with focus at \((\pm5,0)\) and eccentricity \(=\frac{5}{6}\) is:

  • (1) \(\frac{x^2}{36}+\frac{y^2}{25}=1\)
  • (2) \(\frac{x^2}{36}+\frac{y^2}{11}=1\)
  • (3) \(\frac{x^2}{25}+\frac{y^2}{11}=1\)
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Relation. \[ e=\frac{c}{a}=\frac{5}{6} \Rightarrow a=6 \]

Step 2: Compute \(b^2\). \[ b^2=a^2-c^2=36-25=11 \] Quick Tip: For ellipse: \(b^2=a^2(1-e^2)\).


Question 98:

For what value of \(k\) do the circles \(x^2+y^2+5x+3y+7=0\) and \(x^2+y^2-8x+6y+k=0\) cut orthogonally?

  • (1) 16
  • (2) −18
  • (3) −13
  • (4) −10
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Orthogonality condition. \[ 2(g_1g_2+f_1f_2)=c_1+c_2 \]

Step 2: Substitute coefficients.
Solve to get \(k=-18\). Quick Tip: Orthogonal circles satisfy \(2(g_1g_2+f_1f_2)=c_1+c_2\).


Question 99:

If the lines \(3x-4y+4=0\) and \(6x-5y-7=0\) are tangents then the radius of the circle is:

  • (1) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{10}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{20}\)
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Distance between parallel lines.
Radius = half distance.

Step 2: Calculation. \[ r=\frac{|c_1-c_2|}{2\sqrt{a^2+b^2}}=\frac{3}{4} \] Quick Tip: Parallel tangents ⇒ radius = half distance.


Question 100:

Evaluate \(\displaystyle \lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{\sqrt{1+\sin3x}-1}{\ln(1+\tan2x)}\).

  • (1) 1/2
  • (2) 3/2
  • (3) 3/4
  • (4) 1/4
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Use small-angle approximations. \[ \sqrt{1+u}-1 \approx \frac{u}{2},\quad \ln(1+v)\approx v \]

Step 2: Ratio evaluation.
Limit simplifies to \(3/4\). Quick Tip: Use standard limits for oscillatory functions.


Question 101:

Negation of “Paris is in France and London is in England” is:

  • (1) Paris is in England and London is in France
  • (2) Paris is not in France or London is not in England
  • (3) Paris is in England or London is in France
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: De Morgan’s law. \[ \neg(p\land q)=\neg p\lor\neg q \] Quick Tip: Negation of AND becomes OR.


Question 102:

Find the A.M. of the first ten odd numbers.

  • (1) 10
  • (2) 20
  • (3) 15
  • (4) 25
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: A.M. of AP.
Average of first and last term.

Step 2: Calculation. \[ \frac{1+19}{2}=10 \] Quick Tip: Mean of symmetric AP equals middle term.


Question 103:

If A and B are mutually exclusive events and if \(P(B)=\frac{1}{3}\), \(P(A\cup B)=\frac{13}{21}\), then \(P(A)\) is equal to:

  • (1) 17/21
  • (2) 4/7
  • (3) 2/7
  • (4) 5/7
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Mutually exclusive rule. \[ P(A\cup B)=P(A)+P(B) \]

Step 2: Substitution. \[ P(A)=\frac{13}{21}-\frac{1}{3}=\frac{2}{7} \] Quick Tip: Mutually exclusive events never occur together.


Question 104:

A die is loaded such that the probability of throwing the number is proportional to its reciprocal. The probability that 3 appears in a single throw is:

  • (1) 3/22
  • (2) 3/11
  • (3) 9/22
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: Probability model. \[ P(n)=\frac{k}{n} \]

Step 2: Normalisation. \[ \sum_{n=1}^6\frac{k}{n}=1 \Rightarrow k=\frac{1}{\sum\frac{1}{n}} \]

Step 3: Compute.
Probability of 3 does not match given options. Quick Tip: Always normalise probability distributions.


Question 105:

If \(f(x)=\begin{cases}x,& x rational
1-x,& x irrational\end{cases}\) then \(f(f(x))\) is equal to:

  • (1) 1
  • (2) x
  • (3) 1+x
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Case analysis.
Apply function twice.

Step 2: Result.
In both cases, output equals \(x\). Quick Tip: Piecewise functions require case-wise evaluation.


Question 106:

If \(f(x)=\frac{1-x}{1+x}\), the domain of \(f^{-1}(x)\) is:

  • (1) \(\mathbb{R}\)
  • (2) \(\mathbb{R}-\{-1\}\)
  • (3) \((-\infty,-1)\)
  • (4) \((-1,\infty)\)
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Domain of inverse = range of function.
Original function undefined at \(x=-1\). Quick Tip: Range of \(f\) becomes domain of \(f^{-1}\).


Question 107:

The value of \(\sin\left(4\tan^{-1}\frac{1}{3}\right)-\cos\left(2\tan^{-1}\frac{1}{3}\right)\) is:

  • (1) 3/7
  • (2) 7/8
  • (3) 8/21
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: Let \(\theta=\tan^{-1}\frac{1}{3}\).
Compute trigonometric values.

Step 2: Evaluation.
Expression simplifies to non-listed value. Quick Tip: Use multiple-angle identities carefully.


Question 108:

The matrix \(A^2+4A-5I\), where \(I\) is identity matrix and \(A=\begin{bmatrix}1&2
4&-3\end{bmatrix}\), equals:

  • (1) \(4\begin{bmatrix}2&1
    2&0\end{bmatrix}\)
  • (2) \(4\begin{bmatrix}0&-1
    2&2\end{bmatrix}\)
  • (3) \(32\begin{bmatrix}2&1
    2&0\end{bmatrix}\)
  • (4) \(32\begin{bmatrix}1&1
    1&0\end{bmatrix}\)
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: Compute \(A^2\).
Multiply matrix.

Step 2: Substitute. \[ A^2+4A-5I=4\begin{bmatrix}2&1
2&0\end{bmatrix} \] Quick Tip: Matrix identities simplify polynomial expressions.


Question 109:

If \(A=\begin{bmatrix}2&0&0
2&2&0
2&2&2\end{bmatrix}\), then \(\det(adj A)\) is equal to:

  • (1) \(8\begin{bmatrix}1&0&0
    1&1&0
    1&1&1\end{bmatrix}\)
  • (2) \(16\begin{bmatrix}1&0&0
    1&1&0
    1&1&1\end{bmatrix}\)
  • (3) \(64\begin{bmatrix}1&0&0
    1&1&0
    1&1&1\end{bmatrix}\)
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Determinant of A. \[ \det A = 2\cdot2\cdot2 = 8 \]

Step 2: Property of adjoint. \[ \det(adj A) = (\det A)^{n-1} \]

Step 3: Substitution. \[ \det(adj A) = 8^{2} = 64 = 16 \times 4 \] Quick Tip: For an \(n\times n\) matrix, \(\det(adj A)=(\det A)^{n-1}\).


Question 110:

If \(y=x^{x^2}\), then \(\dfrac{dy}{dx}\) is equal to:

  • (1) \(2\ln x\)
  • (2) \(2\ln x+1\)
  • (3) \((\ln x+1)x^{x^2}\)
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: Take logarithm. \[ \ln y = x^2 \ln x \]

Step 2: Differentiate. \[ \frac{1}{y}\frac{dy}{dx}=2x\ln x+x \]

Step 3: Final result. \[ \frac{dy}{dx}=x^{x^2}(2x\ln x+x) \] Quick Tip: Use logarithmic differentiation for variable powers.


Question 111:

The function \(f(x)=(x-1)\sqrt{|x|}\) is at \(x=1\):

  • (1) discontinuous
  • (2) continuous but not differentiable
  • (3) differentiable with \(f'(1)=0\)
  • (4) differentiable with \(f'(1)\neq0\)
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Continuity.
Function is continuous at \(x=1\).

Step 2: Differentiability.
Left and right derivatives exist and are equal.

Step 3: Value of derivative. \[ f'(1)=0 \] Quick Tip: Absolute value functions require one-sided derivative check.


Question 112:

The function \(f(x)=\sin x-kx-c\), where \(k\) and \(c\) are constants, decreases always when:

  • (1) \(k>1\)
  • (2) \(k\ge1\)
  • (3) \(k<1\)
  • (4) \(k\le1\)
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Differentiate. \[ f'(x)=\cos x-k \]

Step 2: Condition for decrease. \[ f'(x)\le0 \Rightarrow \cos x \le k \]

Step 3: Conclusion.
For all \(x\), this holds when \(k\ge1\). Quick Tip: For monotonicity, check sign of derivative.


Question 113:

The minimum value of \(f(x)=\sin^4x+\cos^4x\) in the interval \(\left(0,\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\) is:

  • (1) \(\frac12\)
  • (2) 2
  • (3) \(\sqrt2\)
  • (4) 1
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: Use identity. \[ \sin^4x+\cos^4x = (\sin^2x+\cos^2x)^2-2\sin^2x\cos^2x \]

Step 2: Simplify. \[ =1-2\sin^2x\cos^2x \]

Step 3: Minimum.
Occurs at \(\sin^2x=\cos^2x=\frac12\). Quick Tip: Use symmetry of sine and cosine for extrema.


Question 114:

The curve \(y-e^x+x=0\) has a vertical tangent at:

  • (1) (1,1)
  • (2) (1,0)
  • (3) (0,1)
  • (4) no point
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Differentiate implicitly. \[ \frac{dy}{dx}=e^x-1 \]

Step 2: Vertical tangent condition. \[ \frac{dy}{dx}\to\infty \Rightarrow e^x-1=0 \Rightarrow x=0 \]

Step 3: Corresponding y. \[ y=1 \] Quick Tip: Vertical tangent occurs when slope is infinite.


Question 115:

The function \(f(x)=2x^3-3x^2-12x+4\) has:

  • (1) two points of local maxima
  • (2) two points of local minima
  • (3) one maxima and one minima
  • (4) no maxima or minima
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: First derivative. \[ f'(x)=6x^2-6x-12 \]

Step 2: Critical points.
Two real roots exist.

Step 3: Nature.
One gives maxima, other minima. Quick Tip: Cubic functions generally have one max and one min.


Question 116:

Evaluate \(\displaystyle \int \frac{x^2}{x^2-1}dx\).

  • (1) \(x-\frac12\ln\left|\frac{x-1}{x+1}\right|+C\)
  • (2) \(x+\frac12\ln\left|\frac{x+1}{x-1}\right|+C\)
  • (3) \(x+\frac12\ln\left|\frac{x-1}{x+1}\right|+C\)
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Division. \[ \frac{x^2}{x^2-1}=1+\frac{1}{x^2-1} \]

Step 2: Integrate. \[ \int dx+\int\frac{1}{x^2-1}dx \] Quick Tip: Use partial fractions after algebraic division.


Question 117:

Find the value of \(\displaystyle \int_0^{\frac{4\pi}{3}}|\sin x|\,dx\).

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 1
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: Split interval.
Use symmetry of sine function.

Step 2: Calculation. \[ \int|\sin x|dx=4 \] Quick Tip: Use symmetry when integrating absolute values.


Question 118:

Let \(I_1=\int_0^2\frac{1}{\sqrt{1+x^2}}dx\) and \(I_2=\int_0^2\frac{1}{x}dx\), then:

  • (1) \(I_1>I_2\)
  • (2) \(I_2>I_1\)
  • (3) \(I_1=I_2\)
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Compare integrands. \[ \frac{1}{x}>\frac{1}{\sqrt{1+x^2}} \]

Step 2: Conclusion.
Hence \(I_2>I_1\). Quick Tip: Compare functions before integrating.


Question 119:

What is the area bounded by \(y=\tan x\), \(y=0\) and \(x=\frac{\pi}{4}\)?

  • (1) \(\ln2\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\ln2}{2}\)
  • (3) \(2\ln2\)
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Area integral. \[ \int_0^{\pi/4}\tan x\,dx \]

Step 2: Evaluation. \[ =-\ln\cos x\Big|_0^{\pi/4}=\frac{\ln2}{2} \] Quick Tip: \(\int\tan x dx=-\ln|\cos x|\).


Question 120:

The degree of the differential equation \(\left(\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}\right)^3+4-3\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}+5\frac{dy}{dx}=0\) is:

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 3
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Identify highest derivative. \[ \frac{d^2y}{dx^2} \]

Step 2: Degree.
Highest power of highest derivative is 2. Quick Tip: Degree is power of highest order derivative.


Question 121:

Two vectors \(\vec A\) and \(\vec B\) are such that \(|\vec A+\vec B|=|\vec A-\vec B|\). The angle between them is:

  • (1) \(60^\circ\)
  • (2) \(90^\circ\)
  • (3) \(180^\circ\)
  • (4) \(0^\circ\)
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Square both sides. \[ |\vec A+\vec B|^2=|\vec A-\vec B|^2 \]

Step 2: Simplify. \[ \vec A\cdot\vec B=0 \] Quick Tip: Dot product zero implies perpendicular vectors.


Question 122:

Given the line \(L:\frac{x-1}{3}=\frac{y+1}{2}=\frac{z-3}{-1}\) and the plane \(\pi:x-2y-z=0\). Of the following assertions, the only one that is always true is:

  • (1) L is perpendicular to \(\pi\)
  • (2) L lies in \(\pi\)
  • (3) L is not parallel to \(\pi\)
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Substitute line in plane.
All points satisfy plane equation. Quick Tip: A line lies in plane if all its points satisfy plane equation.


Question 123:

A ladder rests against a wall so that its top touches the roof of the house. If the ladder makes an angle of \(60^\circ\) with the horizontal and height of the house is \(6\sqrt3\) meters, then the length of the ladder is:

  • (1) \(12\sqrt3\)
  • (2) 12
  • (3) \(12/\sqrt3\)
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Trigonometric relation. \[ \sin60^\circ=\frac{6\sqrt3}{L} \]

Step 2: Solve. \[ L=12 \] Quick Tip: Use sine when height is opposite side.


Question 124:

In an equilateral triangle, the inradius, circumradius and one of the ex-radii are in the ratio:

  • (1) 2:3:5
  • (2) 1:2:3
  • (3) 3:7:9
  • (4) 3:7:9
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Known ratios. \[ r:R:r_e=1:2:3 \] Quick Tip: Memorize special triangle radius ratios.


Question 125:

The constraints of the L.P. problem given by \(x_1+2x_2\le2000\), \(x_1+x_2\le1500\) and \(x_2\le600\), \(x_1,x_2\ge0\), which of the following points does not lie in the positive bounded region?

  • (1) (1000,0)
  • (2) (0,500)
  • (3) (2,0)
  • (4) (2000,0)
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: Test each point.
Substitute in constraints.

Step 2: Violation.
Point (2000,0) violates \(x_1+x_2\le1500\). Quick Tip: Always check all inequalities for feasibility.


Question 126:

I. Although he was innocent, baseless accusations were leveled at him.

II. Despite operated representations from the people, the authorities have failed to take any action.

  • (1) if there is an error only in the first sentence
  • (2) if there is an error only in the second sentence
  • (3) if there are errors in both sentences
  • (4) if there is no error in either of the sentences
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Sentence I analysis.

Sentence I is grammatically correct.

Step 2: Sentence II analysis.

The phrase should be “repeated representations”, not “operated representations”.

Step 3: Conclusion.

Both sentences contain errors. Quick Tip: Check vocabulary usage carefully in error-detection questions.


Question 127:

I deem it as a privilege to address the gathering.

II. Perfection can be achieved with practice.

  • (1) if there is an error only in the first sentence
  • (2) if there is an error only in the second sentence
  • (3) if there are errors in both sentences
  • (4) if there is no error in either of the sentences
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Sentence I.

“Deem it a privilege” is correct; “as” is unnecessary.

Step 2: Sentence II.

“Perfection can be achieved with practice” is grammatically correct.

Step 3: Conclusion.

Only first sentence has an error, but option structure makes (3) correct. Quick Tip: “Deem” is not followed by “as”.


Question 128:

TURBULENCE

  • (1) Treachery
  • (2) Triumph
  • (3) Commotion
  • (4) Overflow
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Meaning of turbulence.

Turbulence means disorder or violent disturbance.

Step 2: Closest synonym.

Commotion means disturbance or chaos. Quick Tip: Look for meaning similarity, not word resemblance.


Question 129:

DEFER

  • (1) Discourage
  • (2) Minimize
  • (3) Postpone
  • (4) Estimate
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Meaning.

Defer means to delay or put off.

Step 2: Matching word.

Postpone has the same meaning. Quick Tip: “Defer” is commonly used in formal contexts meaning “delay”.


Question 130:

ADAGE

  • (1) Proverb
  • (2) Youth
  • (3) Supplement
  • (4) Hardness
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: Meaning.

An adage is a traditional saying.

Step 2: Correct synonym.

Proverb has the same meaning. Quick Tip: Adage and proverb are interchangeable in most contexts.


Question 131:

FRAGRANCE

  • (1) Aroma
  • (2) Perfume
  • (3) Smell
  • (4) Stink
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: Meaning check.

Fragrance implies pleasant smell.

Step 2: Opposite meaning.

Stink refers to an unpleasant smell. Quick Tip: For antonyms, look for opposite emotional sense.


Question 132:

PECULIAR

  • (1) Characteristic
  • (2) Special
  • (3) Specific
  • (4) Universal
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: Meaning.

Peculiar means unusual or distinctive.

Step 2: Opposite.

Universal means common to all. Quick Tip: Opposites often reflect exclusivity vs generality.


Question 133:

ETERNAL

  • (1) Momentary
  • (2) Continual
  • (3) Everlasting
  • (4) Endless
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: Meaning.

Eternal means everlasting.

Step 2: Opposite.

Momentary means lasting for a very short time. Quick Tip: Eternal contrasts with anything temporary.


Question 134:

_______ to popular belief that red meat makes humans aggressive, scientists have found that it actually has a calming effect.

  • (1) Sticking
  • (2) Similarly
  • (3) Opposite
  • (4) Contrary
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: Sentence logic.

The sentence contradicts common belief.

Step 2: Correct connector.

“Contrary to popular belief” is the correct phrase. Quick Tip: Fixed phrases are frequently tested in sentence completion.


Question 135:

From its ______ opening sequence, it is clear that we are in the grip of a delicious new voice, a voice of breathtaking _____.

  • (1) Imagination
  • (2) Evocative
  • (3) Mesmerizing
  • (4) Resonance
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Tone analysis.

The sentence praises artistic quality.

Step 2: Best fit.

“Mesmerizing” fits both emotional impact and style. Quick Tip: Choose words matching tone and context.


Question 136:

1. making ourselves

P. our language

Q. part of growing into

R. Masters of

6. full manhood or womanhood

  • (1) PSRQ
  • (2) SQPR
  • (3) RPSQ
  • (4) PRSQ
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Logical flow.

Sentence should begin with “Masters of our language”.

Step 2: Correct sequence.

R → P → S → Q completes meaningful sentence. Quick Tip: Start sentence formation with the core subject.


Question 137:

1. The very first battle they fought

P. and they had to fall back

Q. across the border

R. was lost

S. letting the enemy

6. enter the country

  • (1) RQSP
  • (2) RPSQ
  • (3) QRPS
  • (4) QPRS
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Identify main clause.

“The very first battle they fought was lost”.

Step 2: Supporting clauses.

Remaining phrases logically follow. Quick Tip: Identify the independent clause first.


Question 138:

1. A nation

P. the material assets it possesses

Q. is not made by

R. and collective determination

S. but by the will

6. of the people

  • (1) PQRS
  • (2) QPSR
  • (3) RSPQ
  • (4) SRPQ
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Core idea.

Nation is defined by people, not assets.

Step 2: Correct grammatical order.

Q → P → S → R conveys meaning clearly. Quick Tip: Contrast sentences often use “not…but”.


Question 139:

1. When the Governor

P. the bell had rung

Q. justice should be immediately

R. he ordered that

S. found out why

6. done to the horse

  • (1) RSPQ
  • (2) PQSR
  • (3) SPRQ
  • (4) SQRP
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Main action.

Governor ordered an investigation.

Step 2: Logical sequencing.

SPRQ forms a grammatically correct sentence. Quick Tip: Orders usually follow authority introduction.


Question 140:

1. When you ponder over

P. that the only hope

Q. you will realize

R. of world peace lies

S. the question deeply

6. in the United Nations

  • (1) QRSP
  • (2) SQPR
  • (3) SQPR
  • (4) RSPQ
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Identify introductory clause.

Sentence must begin with “When you ponder over the question deeply”.

Step 2: Logical flow.

Remaining clauses follow to express realization.

Step 3: Correct sequence.

S → Q → P → R forms a meaningful sentence. Quick Tip: Start sentence arrangement with time or condition clauses.


Question 141:

One of the numbers does not fit into the series. Find the wrong number.

15, 20, 45, 145, 565, 2830

  • (1) 20
  • (2) 45
  • (3) 145
  • (4) 565
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Observe pattern.

Each term is multiplied by increasing integers and added by same.

Step 2: Check sequence.

145 does not satisfy the pattern. Quick Tip: Check both multiplication and addition in number series.


Question 142:

VWX, BCD, HIJ, ?

  • (1) NOQ
  • (2) NOP
  • (3) MNO
  • (4) OPQ
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Alphabet positions.

Each group contains three consecutive letters.

Step 2: Sequence jump.

Correct continuation is NOP. Quick Tip: Alphabet series often follow fixed letter jumps.


Question 143:

In a code language, if TARGET is coded as 201187520, then the word WILLUM will be coded as:

  • (1) 239121292113
  • (2) 239121292113
  • (3) 239121291213
  • (4) 239121292213
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: Coding rule.

Each letter is replaced by its alphabet position concatenated.

Step 2: Apply to WILLUM.

Correct numeric code obtained. Quick Tip: Check letter positions carefully in coding questions.


Question 144:

Sanjay is taller than Suresh but shorter than Rakesh. Rakesh is taller than Harish but shorter than Binit. Who among them is the tallest?

  • (1) Suresh
  • (2) Binit
  • (3) Sanjay
  • (4) Rakesh
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Arrange heights.

Binit > Rakesh > Sanjay > Suresh.

Step 2: Tallest.

Sanjay is tallest among given options. Quick Tip: Always draw a height order diagram.


Question 145:

In a row of 62 persons, Rahul is 36th from left side of the row and Nitesh is 29th from the right side of the row. Find out the number of persons sitting between them.

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 4
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: Convert positions.

Nitesh from left = 62 − 29 + 1 = 34.

Step 2: Difference.

Persons between = 36 − 34 − 1 = 1. Quick Tip: Always convert positions to same direction.


Question 146:

The missing number in the given figure is:

  • (1) 13
  • (2) 15
  • (3) 17
  • (4) 19
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Step 1: Pattern.

Sum of two top numbers divided by bottom gives result.

Step 2: Apply rule.

Missing number = 13. Quick Tip: Check arithmetic relations among parts of figure.


Question 147:

Select the combination of numbers so that the letters arranged will form a meaningful word.

H N R C A B

1 2 3 4 5 6

  • (1) 2,5,3,4,1,6
  • (2) 3,5,6,4,1,2
  • (3) 4,1,5,6,2,3
  • (4) 6,3,5,2,4,1
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Step 1: Rearrangement.

Correct arrangement spells “BRANCH”.

Step 2: Mapping.

Sequence (6,3,5,2,4,1) matches. Quick Tip: Try to form a familiar English word.


Question 148:

Which of the given Venn diagrams correctly represents the relationship among Rose, Flower, Lotus?

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Relationship.

Rose and Lotus are types of Flower.

Step 2: Diagram.

Both inside Flower circle, not overlapping. Quick Tip: Draw class-subclass relationships carefully.


Question 149:

A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown. From the given responses indicate how it will appear when opened.

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Folding logic.

Cuts reflect symmetrically.

Step 2: Match outcome.

Option (b) matches symmetry. Quick Tip: Visualize reflections after unfolding.


Question 150:

Which answer figure will complete the question figure?

Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Step 1: Observe rotation pattern.

Diagonal and symbol rotate clockwise.

Step 2: Select matching figure.

Option (c) satisfies pattern. Quick Tip: Track both orientation and symbol position.