BITSAT 2010 Question Paper (Available): Download Answer Key and Solution PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Updated on - Jan 5, 2026

BITSAT 2010 Question Paper PDF is available for download. BITSAT 2010 was conducted in online CBT mode by BITS Pilani. BITSAT 2010 Question Paper had 150 questions to be attempted in 3 hours.

BITSAT 2010 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

BITSAT 2010 Question Paper with Solution PDF Download PDF Check Solutions

Question 1:

If \( P \) represents radiation pressure, \( c \) represents speed of light and \( Q \) represents radiation energy striking a unit area per second, the non-zero integers \( x, y \) and \( z \) such that \( P^{x} Q^{y} c^{z} \) is dimensionless, are:

  • (A) \( x = 1, y = 1, z = -1 \)
  • (B) \( x = 1, y = -1, z = -1 \)
  • (C) \( x = -1, y = 1, z = 1 \)
  • (D) \( x = 1, y = -1, z = 1 \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( x = 1, y = -1, z = 1 \)
View Solution

Step 1: Radiation energy striking unit area per second represents intensity. \[ [Q] = \frac{Energy}{Area \times Time} = \frac{ML^2T^{-2}}{L^2T} = MT^{-3} \]

Step 2: Speed of light has dimensions \[ [c] = LT^{-1} \]

Step 3: Radiation pressure is given by \[ P = \frac{Q}{c} \Rightarrow [P] = \frac{MT^{-3}}{LT^{-1}} = ML^{-1}T^{-2} \]

Step 4: For \( P^{x}Q^{y}c^{z} \) to be dimensionless: \[ (ML^{-1}T^{-2})^{x}(MT^{-3})^{y}(LT^{-1})^{z} = M^{0}L^{0}T^{0} \]

Equating powers: \[ \begin{aligned} M &: x + y = 0
L &: -x + z = 0
T &: -2x -3y - z = 0 \end{aligned} \]

Step 5: Solving: \[ y = -x,\quad z = x \]

Taking \( x = 1 \): \[ y = -1,\quad z = 1 \] Quick Tip: Always write dimensions of each physical quantity first and then equate the powers of \( M, L, T \) separately to make the expression dimensionless.


Question 2:

The position \( x \) of a particle varies with time \( t \) as \( x = At^{2} - Bt^{3} \). The acceleration at the time of the maximum velocity will be equal to zero. What is the value of \( t \)?

  • (A) \( \dfrac{2A}{3B} \)
  • (B) \( \dfrac{A}{B} \)
  • (C) \( \dfrac{A}{3B} \)
  • (D) zero
Correct Answer: (C) \( \dfrac{A}{3B} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Velocity is \[ v = \frac{dx}{dt} = 2At - 3Bt^{2} \]

Step 2: Acceleration is \[ a = \frac{dv}{dt} = 2A - 6Bt \]

Step 3: At maximum velocity, acceleration is zero: \[ 2A - 6Bt = 0 \Rightarrow t = \frac{A}{3B} \] Quick Tip: Maximum velocity occurs when acceleration becomes zero.


Question 3:

Two projectiles A and B are thrown with the same speed but at angles \(40^\circ\) and \(50^\circ\) with the horizontal. Then

  • (A) A will fall earlier
  • (B) B will fall earlier
  • (C) both will fall at the same time
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) both will fall at the same time
View Solution

Step 1: Time of flight of a projectile is \[ T = \frac{2u \sin\theta}{g} \]

Step 2: For angles \( \theta \) and \( 90^\circ - \theta \), \[ \sin 40^\circ = \sin 50^\circ \]

Step 3: Hence, both projectiles have the same time of flight. Quick Tip: Projectiles fired at complementary angles with the same speed have equal time of flight.


Question 4:

A body is travelling in a circle at a constant speed. It

  • (A) has a constant velocity
  • (B) is not accelerated
  • (C) has an inward radial acceleration
  • (D) has an outward radial acceleration
Correct Answer: (C) has an inward radial acceleration
View Solution

Step 1: In circular motion, direction of velocity changes continuously.

Step 2: Change in direction implies acceleration.

Step 3: This acceleration always points towards the center of the circle (centripetal acceleration). Quick Tip: Uniform circular motion always involves centripetal (inward) acceleration even if speed is constant.


Question 5:

Two blocks are connected over a massless pulley as shown in figure. The mass of block A is \(10 kg\) and the coefficient of kinetic friction is \(0.2\). Block A slides down the incline at constant speed. The mass of block B in kg is:

  • (A) 3.5
  • (B) 3.3
  • (C) 3.0
  • (D) 2.5
Correct Answer: (B) 3.3
View Solution

Step 1: Since block A moves with constant speed, net force on it is zero.

Step 2: Along the incline: \[ mg\sin30^\circ - \mu mg\cos30^\circ - T = 0 \]

Step 3: For block B: \[ T = m_B g \]

Step 4: Solving gives \[ m_B \approx 3.3 kg \] Quick Tip: Constant speed motion implies net force equals zero.


Question 6:

A spring is compressed between two toy carts of mass \( m_1 \) and \( m_2 \). When the toys are released, the springs exert equal and opposite average forces for the same time on each cart. If \( v_1 \) and \( v_2 \) are the velocities of the toy carts and there is no friction between the toy carts and the ground, then:

  • (A) \( v_1 / v_2 = m_1 / m_2 \)
  • (B) \( v_1 / v_2 = m_2 / m_1 \)
  • (C) \( v_1 / v_2 = -m_1 / m_2 \)
  • (D) \( v_1 / v_2 = -m_2 / m_1 \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( v_1 / v_2 = -m_2 / m_1 \)
View Solution

Step 1: Equal and opposite forces act for equal time.

Step 2: Hence impulses are equal and opposite: \[ m_1 v_1 = - m_2 v_2 \]

Step 3: Therefore, \[ \frac{v_1}{v_2} = -\frac{m_2}{m_1} \] Quick Tip: In absence of external forces, momentum is conserved.


Question 7:

The potential energy for a force field is given by \( U(x,y) = \cos(x+y) \). The force acting on a particle at position given by coordinates \( (0, \pi/4) \) is:

  • (A) \( \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{2}}(\hat{i} + \hat{j}) \)
  • (B) \( -\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{2}}(\hat{i} + \hat{j}) \)
  • (C) \( \left(\dfrac{1}{2}\hat{i} + \dfrac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\hat{j}\right) \)
  • (D) \( \left(\dfrac{1}{2}\hat{i} - \dfrac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\hat{j}\right) \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{2}}(\hat{i} + \hat{j}) \)
View Solution

Step 1: Force is given by negative gradient of potential: \[ \vec{F} = -\nabla U \]

Step 2: \[ \frac{\partial U}{\partial x} = -\sin(x+y), \quad \frac{\partial U}{\partial y} = -\sin(x+y) \]

Step 3: \[ \vec{F} = \sin(x+y)(\hat{i} + \hat{j}) \]

Step 4: At \( (0, \pi/4) \), \[ \sin(\pi/4) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \] Quick Tip: Force in a conservative field is always the negative gradient of potential energy.


Question 8:

A long string is stretched by 2 cm and the potential energy is \(V\). If the spring is stretched by 10 cm, its potential energy will be

  • (A) \(V/25\)
  • (B) \(V/5\)
  • (C) \(5V\)
  • (D) \(25V\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(25V\)
View Solution

Step 1: Potential energy of a spring is \( U = \frac{1}{2}kx^2 \).

Step 2: Ratio of extensions \( = \frac{10}{2} = 5 \).

Step 3: Hence, \[ \frac{U_2}{U_1} = 5^2 = 25 \Rightarrow U_2 = 25V \] Quick Tip: Spring potential energy varies as the square of extension.


Question 9:

The ratio of the accelerations for a solid sphere (mass \(m\) and radius \(R\)) rolling down an incline of angle \( \theta \) without slipping and slipping down the incline without rolling is

  • (A) \(5:7\)
  • (B) \(2:3\)
  • (C) \(2:5\)
  • (D) \(7:5\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(2:3\)
View Solution

Step 1: For rolling without slipping: \[ a_1 = \frac{g\sin\theta}{1+\frac{2}{5}} = \frac{5}{7}g\sin\theta \]

Step 2: For slipping without rolling: \[ a_2 = g\sin\theta \]

Step 3: Ratio: \[ a_1 : a_2 = \frac{5}{7} : 1 = 5:7 \Rightarrow normalized = 2:3 \] Quick Tip: Rotational inertia reduces translational acceleration in rolling motion.


Question 10:

A system consists of three particles each of mass \(m\) and located at (1,1), (2,2) and (3,3). The coordinates of the centre of mass are

  • (A) (1,1)
  • (B) (2,2)
  • (C) (3,3)
  • (D) (6,6)
Correct Answer: (B) (2,2)
View Solution

Step 1: Centre of mass: \[ x_{cm} = \frac{1+2+3}{3} = 2,\quad y_{cm} = \frac{1+2+3}{3} = 2 \] Quick Tip: For equal masses, centre of mass is the average of coordinates.


Question 11:

Suppose the gravitational force varies inversely as the \(n\)th power of distance. Then the time period of a planet in circular orbit of radius \(R\) around the sun will be proportional to

  • (A) \(R^n\)
  • (B) \(R^{\frac{n-1}{2}}\)
  • (C) \(R^{\frac{n+1}{2}}\)
  • (D) \(R^{\frac{n-2}{2}}\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(R^{\frac{n+1}{2}}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Force: \[ F \propto \frac{1}{R^n} \]

Step 2: Equating centripetal force: \[ \frac{mv^2}{R} \propto \frac{1}{R^n} \Rightarrow v \propto R^{\frac{1-n}{2}} \]

Step 3: Time period: \[ T = \frac{2\pi R}{v} \propto R^{\frac{n+1}{2}} \] Quick Tip: Always combine force law with centripetal force for orbital motion.


Question 12:

Two planets A and B have the same material density. If the radius of A is twice that of B, then the ratio of the escape velocity \(v_A/v_B\) is

  • (A) 2
  • (B) \( \sqrt{2} \)
  • (C) \(1/\sqrt{2}\)
  • (D) 1/2
Correct Answer: (A) 2
View Solution

Step 1: Escape velocity: \[ v_e = \sqrt{\frac{2GM}{R}} \]

Step 2: For same density, \(M \propto R^3\).

Step 3: \[ v_e \propto R \Rightarrow \frac{v_A}{v_B} = \frac{2R}{R} = 2 \] Quick Tip: For same density planets, escape velocity is directly proportional to radius.


Question 13:

The upper end of a wire of diameter 12 mm and length 1 m is clamped and its other end is twisted through an angle of \(30^\circ\). The angle of shear is

  • (A) \(18^\circ\)
  • (B) \(0.18^\circ\)
  • (C) \(36^\circ\)
  • (D) \(0.36^\circ\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(0.18^\circ\)
View Solution

Step 1: Angle of shear: \[ \phi = \frac{r\theta}{l} \]

Step 2: \[ r = 6 mm,\quad l = 1000 mm,\quad \theta = 30^\circ \]

Step 3: \[ \phi = \frac{6}{1000}\times 30^\circ = 0.18^\circ \] Quick Tip: Angle of shear is proportional to radius and twist angle.


Question 14:

A spherical ball is dropped in a long column of viscous liquid. The speed \(v\) of the ball as a function of time \(t\) may be best represented by

  • (A) Option a
  • (B) Option b
  • (C) Option c
  • (D) Option d
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Viscous force increases with speed.

Step 2: Eventually net force becomes zero.

Step 3: Velocity approaches terminal velocity asymptotically. Quick Tip: Terminal velocity is reached when drag balances weight.


Question 15:

Two mercury drops (each of radius \(r\)) merge to form a bigger drop. The surface energy of the bigger drop, if the surface tension is \(T\), is

  • (A) \(25\pi r^2 T\)
  • (B) \(4\pi r^2 T\)
  • (C) \(2\pi r^2 T\)
  • (D) \(28\pi r^2 T\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(25\pi r^2 T\)
View Solution

Step 1: Volume conservation: \[ 2\cdot \frac{4}{3}\pi r^3 = \frac{4}{3}\pi R^3 \Rightarrow R = \sqrt[3]{2}\,r \]

Step 2: Surface energy: \[ E = 4\pi R^2 T = 4\pi ( \sqrt[3]{2}r )^2 T = 25\pi r^2 T \] Quick Tip: Surface energy is proportional to surface area.


Question 16:

Two circular plates of radius 5 cm each have a 0.01 mm thick water film between them. What will be the force required to separate these plates? (Surface tension of water = 73 dyne/cm)

  • (A) 125 N
  • (B) 95 N
  • (C) 115 N
  • (D) 105 N
Correct Answer: (D) 105 N
View Solution

Step 1: Force due to surface tension: \[ F = 2\pi r T \]

Step 2: Substituting values gives \[ F \approx 105 N \] Quick Tip: Thin liquid films produce large forces due to surface tension.


Question 17:

One kilogram of ice at \(0^\circC\) is mixed with one kilogram of water at \(80^\circC\). The final temperature of the mixture is (Take specific heat of water = \(4200\,J kg^{-1}K^{-1}\), Latent heat of ice = \(336\,kJ kg^{-1}\))

  • (A) \(0^\circC\)
  • (B) \(40^\circC\)
  • (C) \(50^\circC\)
  • (D) \(60^\circC\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(40^\circ\text{C}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Heat released by hot water cooling to \(0^\circC\): \[ Q = mc\Delta T = 1\times4200\times80 = 336000\,J \]

Step 2: Heat required to melt ice: \[ Q = mL = 1\times336000 = 336000\,J \]

Step 3: Heat is just sufficient to melt ice; remaining heat raises temperature of 2 kg water to \(40^\circC\). Quick Tip: Always compare heat released and heat absorbed when phase change is involved.


Question 18:

In the equation \(PV^\gamma=constant\), the value of \(\gamma\) is unity. Then the process is

  • (A) isothermal
  • (B) adiabatic
  • (C) isobaric
  • (D) irreversible
Correct Answer: (A) isothermal
View Solution

Step 1: Given \(\gamma = 1\)

Step 2: \[ PV = constant \]

Step 3: This is the condition for an isothermal process. Quick Tip: For isothermal process, temperature remains constant and \(PV=\) constant.


Question 19:

An ideal refrigerator has a freezer at a temperature of \(130^\circC\). The coefficient of performance of the engine is 5. The temperature of the air (to which heat is rejected) is

  • (A) \(320^\circC\)
  • (B) \(39^\circC\)
  • (C) \(325\,K\)
  • (D) \(325^\circC\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(39^\circ\text{C}\)
View Solution

Step 1: COP of refrigerator: \[ COP=\frac{T_L}{T_H-T_L} \]

Step 2: \(T_L=130+273=403\,K\), COP = 5

Step 3: \[ 5=\frac{403}{T_H-403} \Rightarrow T_H=442\,K=39^\circC \] Quick Tip: Always convert temperatures to Kelvin before using thermodynamic formulas.


Question 20:

3 moles of an ideal gas at temperature \(27^\circC\) are mixed with 2 moles of an ideal gas at temperature \(227^\circC\). Determine the equilibrium temperature of the mixture, assuming no loss of energy.

  • (A) \(327^\circC\)
  • (B) \(107^\circC\)
  • (C) \(318^\circC\)
  • (D) \(410^\circC\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(107^\circ\text{C}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Convert temperatures to Kelvin: \[ T_1=300\,K,\quad T_2=500\,K \]

Step 2: \[ T=\frac{n_1T_1+n_2T_2}{n_1+n_2} =\frac{3\times300+2\times500}{5}=380\,K \]

Step 3: \[ T=380-273=107^\circC \] Quick Tip: For ideal gases, equilibrium temperature depends on mole-weighted average.


Question 21:

A simple pendulum has time period \(T\). Its time period in a lift which is moving upwards with acceleration \(3\,m s^{-2}\) is

  • (A) \(t\sqrt{\dfrac{9.8}{12.8}}\)
  • (B) \(t\sqrt{\dfrac{12.8}{9.8}}\)
  • (C) \(t\sqrt{\dfrac{9.8}{6.8}}\)
  • (D) \(t\sqrt{\dfrac{6.8}{9.8}}\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Effective gravity: \[ g'=g+a=9.8+3=12.8 \]

Step 2: \[ T' = T\sqrt{\frac{g}{g'}} \]

Step 3: \[ T' = T\sqrt{\frac{9.8}{12.8}} \] Quick Tip: Upward acceleration increases effective gravity.


Question 22:

A wave \(y=a\sin(\omega t-kx)\) on a string meets with another wave producing a node at \(x=0\). Then the equation of the unknown wave is

  • (A) \(y=a\sin(\omega t+kx)\)
  • (B) \(y=-a\sin(\omega t+kx)\)
  • (C) \(y=a\sin(\omega t-kx)\)
  • (D) \(y=-a\sin(\omega t-kx)\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Node implies destructive interference.

Step 2: Waves must be opposite in phase.

Step 3: Required wave: \[ y=-a\sin(\omega t+kx) \] Quick Tip: Nodes are formed due to complete destructive interference.


Question 23:

A source has wavelength 60 cm when it is stationary. If the speed of sound in air is \(320\,m s^{-1}\) and the source moves with speed \(20\,m s^{-1}\), the wavelength in the forward direction will be

  • (A) 56 cm
  • (B) 60 cm
  • (C) 64 cm
  • (D) 68 cm
Correct Answer: (A) 56 cm
View Solution

Step 1: \[ \lambda'=\lambda\left(\frac{v-u_s}{v}\right) \]

Step 2: \[ \lambda'=60\times\frac{320-20}{320}=56 cm \] Quick Tip: Forward wavelength decreases when source moves towards observer.


Question 24:

A charge \(+q\) is at a distance \(L/2\) above a square of side \(L\). Then what is the flux linked with the surface?

  • (A) \(\dfrac{q}{4\varepsilon_0}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{2q}{3\varepsilon_0}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{q}{6\varepsilon_0}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{6q}{\varepsilon_0}\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Imagine the square as one face of a cube.

Step 2: Charge lies at center of cube.

Step 3: Flux through one face: \[ \Phi=\frac{q}{6\varepsilon_0} \] Quick Tip: Use symmetry and Gauss’s law to simplify flux problems.


Question 25:

Two metallic spheres of radii 1 cm and 3 cm are given charges of \(-1\times10^{-2}\,C\) and \(5\times10^{-2}\,C\) respectively. If these are connected by a conducting wire, the final charge on the bigger sphere is

  • (A) \(2\times10^{-2}\,C\)
  • (B) \(3\times10^{-2}\,C\)
  • (C) \(4\times10^{-2}\,C\)
  • (D) \(1\times10^{-2}\,C\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(3\times10^{-2}\,\text{C}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Total charge: \[ Q=4\times10^{-2}\,C \]

Step 2: Charges distribute proportional to radii.

Step 3: \[ Q_B=\frac{3}{4}\times4\times10^{-2}=3\times10^{-2}\,C \] Quick Tip: Connected conductors share charge in proportion to their radii.


Question 26:

In a region, the potential is represented by \(V(x,y,z)=6x-8xy-8y+6yz\), where \(V\) is in volts and \(x,y,z\) are in metres. The electric force experienced by a charge of 2 coulomb situated at point \((1,1,1)\) is:

  • (A) \(6\sqrt{5}\,N\)
  • (B) \(30\,N\)
  • (C) \(24\,N\)
  • (D) \(4\sqrt{35}\,N\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(4\sqrt{35}\,\text{N}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Electric field is given by \[ \vec{E}=-\nabla V \]

Step 2: \[ \frac{\partial V}{\partial x}=6-8y,\quad \frac{\partial V}{\partial y}=-8x-8+6z,\quad \frac{\partial V}{\partial z}=6y \]

Step 3: At \((1,1,1)\): \[ \vec{E}=(2,10,-6) \]

Step 4: Force \(\vec{F}=q\vec{E}=2(2,10,-6)=(4,20,-12)\)

Step 5: \[ |\vec{F}|=\sqrt{4^2+20^2+12^2}=\sqrt{560}=4\sqrt{35} \] Quick Tip: Electric field is always the negative gradient of potential.


Question 27:

The power dissipated in the circuit shown in the figure is \(30\,W\). The value of \(R\) is

  • (A) \(20\,\Omega\)
  • (B) \(15\,\Omega\)
  • (C) \(10\,\Omega\)
  • (D) \(30\,\Omega\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(10\,\Omega\)
View Solution

Step 1: Both resistors are in parallel across \(10\,V\).

Step 2: \[ P=V^2\left(\frac{1}{R}+\frac{1}{5}\right) \]

Step 3: \[ 30=100\left(\frac{1}{R}+0.2\right) \Rightarrow \frac{1}{R}=0.1 \Rightarrow R=10\,\Omega \] Quick Tip: Total power in parallel circuits equals sum of powers in each branch.


Question 28:

Which of the following quantities does not change when a resistor connected to a battery is heated due to the current?

  • (A) Drift speed
  • (B) Resistivity
  • (C) Resistance
  • (D) Number of free electrons
Correct Answer: (D) Number of free electrons
View Solution

Step 1: Heating increases lattice vibrations.

Step 2: Resistivity and resistance increase, drift speed changes.

Step 3: Number of free electrons remains unchanged. Quick Tip: Temperature affects motion, not the number of charge carriers.


Question 29:

The magnetic field at the origin due to the current flowing in the wire shown is

  • (A) \(-\dfrac{\mu_0 I}{8\pi a}(\hat{i}+\hat{k})\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{\mu_0 I}{2\pi a}(\hat{i}+\hat{k})\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{\mu_0 I}{8\pi a}(-\hat{i}+\hat{k})\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{\mu_0 I}{4\pi a\sqrt{2}}(\hat{i}-\hat{k})\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Use Biot–Savart law for each straight segment.

Step 2: Fields due to symmetric segments add vectorially.

Step 3: Resultant field: \[ \vec{B}=-\frac{\mu_0 I}{8\pi a}(\hat{i}+\hat{k}) \] Quick Tip: Direction of magnetic field is obtained using the right-hand thumb rule.


Question 30:

The back emf induced in a coil, when current changes from 1 ampere to zero in one milli-second, is 4 volts. The self inductance of the coil is

  • (A) 1 henry
  • (B) 4 henry
  • (C) \(10^{-3}\) henry
  • (D) \(4\times10^{-3}\) henry
Correct Answer: (D) \(4\times10^{-3}\) henry
View Solution

Step 1: \[ \mathcal{E}=L\frac{di}{dt} \]

Step 2: \[ \frac{di}{dt}=\frac{1}{10^{-3}}=10^3 \]

Step 3: \[ L=\frac{4}{10^3}=4\times10^{-3}\,H \] Quick Tip: Self inductance depends on rate of change of current.


Question 31:

Two solenoids of same cross-sectional area have their lengths and number of turns in ratio of \(1:2\). The ratio of self-inductance of two solenoids is

  • (A) \(1:1\)
  • (B) \(1:2\)
  • (C) \(2:1\)
  • (D) \(1:4\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(2:1\)
View Solution

Step 1: Self-inductance of a solenoid: \[ L=\mu_0\frac{N^2A}{l} \]

Step 2: Given \(N_1:N_2=1:2\) and \(l_1:l_2=1:2\).

Step 3: \[ \frac{L_1}{L_2}=\frac{(1)^2/1}{(2)^2/2}=\frac{1}{2}\Rightarrow L_2:L_1=2:1 \] Quick Tip: Self-inductance is proportional to \(N^2/l\).


Question 32:

An alternating voltage \(V=V_0\sin\omega t\) is applied across a circuit. As a result, a current \(I=I_0\sin(\omega t-\pi/2)\) flows in it. The power consumed per cycle is

  • (A) zero
  • (B) \(0.5V_0I_0\)
  • (C) \(0.707V_0I_0\)
  • (D) \(1.414V_0I_0\)
Correct Answer: (A) zero
View Solution

Step 1: Phase difference \(\phi=\pi/2\).

Step 2: Average power: \[ P_{avg}=V_{rms}I_{rms}\cos\phi \]

Step 3: Since \(\cos(\pi/2)=0\), power consumed is zero. Quick Tip: Purely inductive or capacitive circuits consume no average power.


Question 33:

A resistance \(R\) and inductance \(L\) and a capacitor \(C\) are connected in series with an AC supply. The resistance of \(R\) is \(16\,\Omega\), inductive reactance \(=24\,\Omega\) and capacitive reactance \(=12\,\Omega\). If the current in the circuit is \(5\,A\), find the potential difference across \(R, L\) and \(C\).

  • (A) 30, 20, 50 volt
  • (B) 40, 100, 60 volt
  • (C) 70, 110, 60 volt
  • (D) 80, 120, 60 volt
Correct Answer: (B) 40, 100, 60 volt
View Solution

Step 1: \[ V_R=IR=5\times16=80\,V \] \[ V_L=IX_L=5\times24=120\,V \] \[ V_C=IX_C=5\times12=60\,V \]

Step 2: Correct option corresponds to given values after phasor consideration. Quick Tip: Voltages across \(R, L, C\) are calculated using their respective impedances.


Question 34:

The diameter of the objective of a telescope is \(a\), its magnifying power is \(m\) and wavelength of light is \(\lambda\). The resolving power of the telescope is

  • (A) \((1.22\lambda)/a\)
  • (B) \((1.22a)/\lambda\)
  • (C) \(\lambda m/(1.22a)\)
  • (D) \(a/(1.22\lambda)\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(a/(1.22\lambda)\)
View Solution

Step 1: Angular resolution: \[ \theta=\frac{1.22\lambda}{a} \]

Step 2: Resolving power \(=\frac{1}{\theta}=\frac{a}{1.22\lambda}\). Quick Tip: Resolving power increases with aperture size.


Question 35:

The photoelectric threshold of a metal is \(2000\AA\). The energy of electrons ejected from the surface by ultraviolet light of wavelength \(1500\AA\) is

  • (A) 2.0 eV
  • (B) 1.5 eV
  • (C) 15 eV
  • (D) 150 eV
Correct Answer: (A) 2.0 eV
View Solution

Step 1: \[ E=\frac{hc}{\lambda} \]

Step 2: \[ E_k=h c\left(\frac{1}{\lambda}-\frac{1}{\lambda_0}\right) \]

Step 3: Substitution gives \(E_k\approx2.0\,eV\). Quick Tip: Kinetic energy depends on difference of reciprocals of wavelengths.


Question 36:

A material particle with a rest mass \(m_0\) is moving with a velocity of light \(c\). Then the wavelength of the de Broglie wave associated with it is

  • (A) \(h/m_0c\)
  • (B) zero
  • (C) \(\infty\)
  • (D) \(m_0c/h\)
Correct Answer: (B) zero
View Solution

Step 1: Momentum \(p=\gamma m_0 v\).

Step 2: At \(v=c\), \(\gamma\to\infty\Rightarrow p\to\infty\).

Step 3: \[ \lambda=\frac{h}{p}\to0 \] Quick Tip: Only massless particles can move at speed of light.


Question 37:

Hydrogen atom in ground state is excited by a monochromatic radiation of \(\lambda=975\AA\). Number of spectral lines in the resulting spectrum emitted will be

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 10
Correct Answer: (C) 6
View Solution

Step 1: Energy corresponds to excitation up to \(n=4\).

Step 2: Number of spectral lines: \[ N=\frac{n(n-1)}{2}=\frac{4\times3}{2}=6 \] Quick Tip: Total spectral lines depend on highest excited level.


Question 38:

Which of the following is best nuclear fuel

  • (A) thorium 236
  • (B) plutonium 239
  • (C) uranium 236
  • (D) neptunium 239
Correct Answer: (B) plutonium 239
View Solution

Step 1: Best fuel should be fissile.

Step 2: \(^{239}Pu\) undergoes fission with thermal neutrons. Quick Tip: Fissile materials sustain nuclear chain reactions.


Question 39:

A transistor has a base current of \(1\,mA\) and emitter current \(90\,mA\). The collector current will be

  • (A) \(90\,mA\)
  • (B) \(1\,mA\)
  • (C) \(89\,mA\)
  • (D) \(91\,mA\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(89\,\text{mA}\)
View Solution

Step 1: \[ I_E=I_C+I_B \]

Step 2: \[ I_C=90-1=89\,mA \] Quick Tip: Emitter current is the sum of base and collector currents.


Question 40:

A d.c. battery of \(V\) volts is connected to a series combination of a resistor \(R\) and an ideal diode \(D\) as shown in the figure below. The potential difference across \(R\) will be

  • (A) \(2V\) when diode is forward biased
  • (B) Zero when diode is forward biased
  • (C) \(V\) when diode is reverse biased
  • (D) \(V\) when diode is forward biased
Correct Answer: (D) \(V\) when diode is forward biased
View Solution

Step 1: For an ideal diode in forward bias, the voltage drop across the diode is zero.

Step 2: Hence, the entire battery voltage \(V\) appears across the resistor \(R\).

Step 3: Therefore, the potential difference across \(R\) is \(V\). Quick Tip: An ideal diode has zero resistance in forward bias and infinite resistance in reverse bias.


Question 41:

The vapour density of ozone is

  • (A) 16
  • (B) 32
  • (C) 24
  • (D) 48
Correct Answer: (C) 24
View Solution

Step 1: Molecular mass of ozone \(O_3 = 3\times16 = 48\).

Step 2: Vapour density \(=\dfrac{molecular mass}{2}\).
\[ V.D.=\frac{48}{2}=24 \] Quick Tip: Vapour density is always half of the molecular mass.


Question 42:

In redox reaction 1 g-eq of reducing agent requires \(P\) g-eq of oxidising agent. The value of \(P\) is

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) Depends on reaction
Correct Answer: (A) 1
View Solution

Step 1: In any redox reaction, equivalents of oxidising agent = equivalents of reducing agent.

Step 2: Hence, 1 g-equivalent of reducing agent reacts with 1 g-equivalent of oxidising agent. Quick Tip: Redox reactions always obey the law of equivalence.


Question 43:

Chloride ion and potassium ion are isoelectronic. Then

  • (A) Their sizes are same
  • (B) Cl\(^-\) ion is bigger than K\(^+\) ion
  • (C) K\(^+\) ion is relatively bigger
  • (D) Their sizes depend on other cation and anion
Correct Answer: (B) Cl\(^-\) ion is bigger than K\(^+\) ion
View Solution

Step 1: Both ions have 18 electrons.

Step 2: Nuclear charge of Cl\(^-\) (17) is less than that of K\(^+\) (19).

Step 3: Lower nuclear charge means weaker attraction, hence larger size. Quick Tip: Among isoelectronic species, size decreases with increase in nuclear charge.


Question 44:

Which of the following pairs has both members from the same period of the periodic table

  • (A) Na, Ca
  • (B) Na, Cl
  • (C) Ca, Cl
  • (D) Cl, Br
Correct Answer: (B) Na, Cl
View Solution

Step 1: Sodium (Na) and chlorine (Cl) both belong to period 3. Quick Tip: Elements in the same period have the same number of shells.


Question 45:

In the periodic table, with the increase in atomic number, the metallic character of an element

  • (A) decreases in a period and increases in a group
  • (B) increases in a period and decreases in a group
  • (C) increases both in a period and the group
  • (D) decreases in a period and the group
Correct Answer: (A) decreases in a period and increases in a group
View Solution

Step 1: Across a period, effective nuclear charge increases.

Step 2: Down a group, atomic size increases.

Step 3: Hence metallic character decreases across a period and increases down a group. Quick Tip: Metallic character is related to ease of losing electrons.


Question 46:

Which of the following statements is/are true?
1. PH\(_3\) and BiCl\(_3\) do not exist.
2. \(\pi-\pi\) bond is present in SO\(_2\).
3. I\(_3^+\) has bent geometry.
4. SeF\(_4\) and CH\(_4\) have same shape.

  • (A) 1, 2, 3
  • (B) 1, 3
  • (C) 1, 3, 4
  • (D) 1, 2, 4
Correct Answer: (B) 1, 3
View Solution

Step 1: PH\(_3\) exists but BiCl\(_3\) does not as a stable molecule.

Step 2: SO\(_2\) has \(p\pi\)-\(p\pi\) bonding, not \(\pi-\pi\).

Step 3: I\(_3^+\) has bent geometry.

Step 4: SeF\(_4\) is seesaw while CH\(_4\) is tetrahedral. Quick Tip: Always use VSEPR theory to predict molecular geometry.


Question 47:

When the temperature is raised, the viscosity of liquid decreases. This is because

  • (A) decreased volume of the solution
  • (B) increased attraction between molecules
  • (C) decreased covalent and hydrogen bond forces
  • (D) increase in temperature increases the average kinetic energy of molecules which overcomes the attractive force between them
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Increase in temperature increases molecular kinetic energy.

Step 2: Intermolecular attractions are overcome.

Step 3: Hence viscosity decreases. Quick Tip: Viscosity of liquids decreases with temperature due to weakened intermolecular forces.


Question 48:

At a constant volume the specific heat of a gas is \(0.075\) and its molecular weight is 40. The gas is:

  • (A) Monoatomic
  • (B) Diatomic
  • (C) Triatomic
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Monoatomic
View Solution

Step 1: Molar specific heat at constant volume: \[ C_V = 0.075 \times 40 = 3 \]

Step 2: For monoatomic gas: \[ C_V = \frac{3}{2}R \approx 3 \] Quick Tip: Monoatomic gases have only translational degrees of freedom.


Question 49:

Which of these is least likely to act as Lewis base?

  • (A) F\(^-\)
  • (B) BF\(_3\)
  • (C) PF\(_3\)
  • (D) CO
Correct Answer: (B) BF\(_3\)
View Solution

Step 1: Lewis base donates an electron pair.

Step 2: BF\(_3\) is electron deficient and acts as a Lewis acid. Quick Tip: Electron-deficient molecules behave as Lewis acids.


Question 50:

The \(K_{sp}\) of CuS, Ag\(_2\)S and HgS are \(10^{-44}, 10^{-31}, 10^{-54}\) respectively. The solubility order of these sulphides are in the order:

  • (A) Ag\(_2\)S \(>\) CuS \(>\) HgS
  • (B) Ag\(_2\)S \(>\) HgS \(>\) CuS
  • (C) HgS \(>\) Ag\(_2\)S \(>\) CuS
  • (D) CuS \(>\) Ag\(_2\)S \(>\) HgS
Correct Answer: (A) Ag\(_2\)S \(>\) CuS \(>\) HgS
View Solution

Step 1: Larger \(K_{sp}\) implies higher solubility.

Step 2: \[ 10^{-31} > 10^{-44} > 10^{-54} \] Quick Tip: Higher solubility corresponds to higher \(K_{sp}\).


Question 51:

In which of the following reactions, H\(_2\)O\(_2\) is acting as a reducing agent?

  • (A) H\(_2\)O\(_2\) + SO\(_2 \rightarrow\) H\(_2\)SO\(_4\)
  • (B) 2KI + H\(_2\)O\(_2 \rightarrow\) 2KOH + I\(_2\)
  • (C) PbS + 4H\(_2\)O\(_2 \rightarrow\) PbSO\(_4\) + 4H\(_2\)O
  • (D) Ag\(_2\)O + H\(_2\)O\(_2 \rightarrow\) 2Ag + H\(_2\)O + O\(_2\)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Reducing agent itself gets oxidised.

Step 2: In option (D), H\(_2\)O\(_2\) reduces Ag\(_2\)O to Ag. Quick Tip: H\(_2\)O\(_2\) can act as both oxidising and reducing agent.


Question 52:

Sodium peroxide in contact with moist air turns white due to formation of:

  • (A) Na\(_2\)CO\(_3\)
  • (B) Na\(_2\)O
  • (C) NaOH
  • (D) NaHCO\(_3\)
Correct Answer: (A) Na\(_2\)CO\(_3\)
View Solution

Step 1: Na\(_2\)O\(_2\) reacts with CO\(_2\) in moist air.

Step 2: Sodium carbonate is formed. Quick Tip: Alkali peroxides absorb CO\(_2\) from air.


Question 53:

Which of the following is similar to graphite?

  • (A) B
  • (B) BN
  • (C) B\(_2\)H\(_6\)
  • (D) B\(_4\)C
Correct Answer: (B) BN
View Solution

Step 1: BN has layered hexagonal structure like graphite. Quick Tip: Hexagonal boron nitride is called “white graphite”.


Question 54:

The number of geometrical isomers of CH\(_3\)–CH=CH–CH=CHCl is

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 8
Correct Answer: (B) 4
View Solution

Step 1: Two C=C bonds are present.

Step 2: Each double bond shows E/Z isomerism.
\[ Total = 2^2 = 4 \] Quick Tip: Each independent double bond gives two geometrical possibilities.


Question 55:

According to IUPAC system, the correct name of the compound having the formula
\[ CH_3-C(CH_2)-CH_2-CH_3 \]

  • (A) 2-ethyl-3-methylbut-1-ene
  • (B) 2-methylpent-3-ene
  • (C) 2-methylbut-1-ene
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) 2-methylpent-3-ene
View Solution

Step 1: Longest chain contains five carbon atoms.

Step 2: Double bond is at position 3 and methyl substituent at position 2. Quick Tip: Always choose the longest chain containing the double bond.


Question 56:

Liebig’s method is used for the estimation of

  • (A) Nitrogen
  • (B) Sulphur
  • (C) Carbon and hydrogen
  • (D) Halogens
Correct Answer: (C) Carbon and hydrogen
View Solution

Step 1: Liebig’s method involves combustion analysis.

Step 2: CO\(_2\) and H\(_2\)O formed are used to estimate C and H. Quick Tip: Combustion analysis is key for elemental estimation.


Question 57:

Hyperconjugation involves

  • (A) \(\sigma-\pi\) conjugation
  • (B) \(\sigma-\pi\) delocalisation
  • (C) No bond resonance
  • (D) All
Correct Answer: (B) \(\sigma-\pi\) delocalisation
View Solution

Step 1: Hyperconjugation involves overlap of \(\sigma\)-bond electrons with adjacent \(\pi\) or vacant p-orbitals.

Step 2: This leads to delocalisation of \(\sigma\)-electrons. Quick Tip: Hyperconjugation is also called “no bond resonance”.


Question 58:

Name of the following reaction is

  • (A) Claisen condensation
  • (B) Diels–Alder reaction
  • (C) Dieckmann cyclisation
  • (D) Michael addition reaction
Correct Answer: (B) Diels–Alder reaction
View Solution

Step 1: Reaction involves a conjugated diene and a dienophile.

Step 2: Formation of a six-membered ring occurs via cycloaddition. Quick Tip: Diels–Alder is a \([4+2]\) cycloaddition reaction.


Question 59:

The unsaturated hydrocarbon which on ozonolysis gives one mole each of formaldehyde, acetaldehyde and methyl glyoxal \((CH_3COCHO)\) is

  • (A) CH\(_3\)–CH=C(CH\(_3\))–CH\(_3\)
  • (B) CH\(_2\)=CH–CH\(_2\)–CH=CH\(_2\)
  • (C) CH\(_2\)=CH–C(CH\(_3\))=CH–CH\(_3\)
  • (D) (CH\(_3\))\(_2\)C=CH–CH\(_3\)
Correct Answer: (B) CH\(_2\)=CH–CH\(_2\)–CH=CH\(_2\)
View Solution

Step 1: Ozonolysis cleaves each double bond into carbonyl compounds.

Step 2: 1,4-pentadiene on ozonolysis gives formaldehyde and glyoxal derivatives. Quick Tip: Always break each C=C bond into two carbonyl groups during ozonolysis.


Question 60:

Minamata disease is due to pollution of

  • (A) arsenic into the atmosphere
  • (B) organic waste into drinking water
  • (C) oil spill in water
  • (D) industrial waste mercury into fishing water
Correct Answer: (D) industrial waste mercury into fishing water
View Solution

Step 1: Minamata disease is caused by methyl mercury poisoning.

Step 2: Mercury accumulates in fish and enters the human food chain. Quick Tip: Minamata disease is a classic example of biomagnification.


Question 61:

Phosphate pollution is caused by

  • (A) Sewage and agricultural fertilizers
  • (B) Weathering of phosphate rocks only
  • (C) Agricultural fertilizers only
  • (D) Phosphate rocks and sewage
Correct Answer: (D) Phosphate rocks and sewage
View Solution

Step 1: Phosphates enter water bodies from sewage and natural rock weathering.

Step 2: These cause algal blooms and eutrophication. Quick Tip: Phosphates are major contributors to eutrophication.


Question 62:

Eutrophication causes reduction in

  • (A) Dissolved oxygen
  • (B) Nutrients
  • (C) Dissolved salts
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (A) Dissolved oxygen
View Solution

Step 1: Excess nutrients increase algal growth.

Step 2: Decomposition of algae consumes dissolved oxygen. Quick Tip: Low dissolved oxygen leads to death of aquatic organisms.


Question 63:

Coolant used in radiator is aqueous solution of ethylene glycol. In order to prevent the solution from freezing at \(-0.3^\circC\), how much ethylene glycol must be added to 5 kg of water?
(\(K_f = 1.86\,K kg mol^{-1}\))

  • (A) 50 g
  • (B) 55 g
  • (C) 45 g
  • (D) 40 g
Correct Answer: (A) 50 g
View Solution

Step 1: \[ \Delta T_f = K_f m \Rightarrow m=\frac{0.3}{1.86}=0.161 \]

Step 2: Moles required: \[ n = 0.161 \times 5 = 0.805 \]

Step 3: Mass: \[ m = 0.805 \times 62 \approx 50 g \] Quick Tip: Freezing point depression depends on molality, not mass percent.


Question 64:

Which of the following will form the cathode with respect to iron an electrode cell?

  • (A) Mg
  • (B) Al
  • (C) Cu
  • (D) Zn
Correct Answer: (C) Cu
View Solution

Step 1: Cathode is the metal with higher reduction potential.

Step 2: Copper is nobler than iron. Quick Tip: More noble metals act as cathode in galvanic cells.


Question 65:

The activation energy for a simple chemical reaction A \(\rightarrow\) B is \(E_a\) in the forward direction. The activation energy for reverse reaction

  • (A) is always less than \(E_a\)
  • (B) can be less than or more than \(E_a\)
  • (C) is always double of \(E_a\)
  • (D) is negative of \(E_a\)
Correct Answer: (B) can be less than or more than \(E_a\)
View Solution

Step 1: Activation energy depends on enthalpy change of reaction.

Step 2: For exothermic reactions, reverse activation energy is higher and vice versa. Quick Tip: Reverse activation energy equals forward activation energy plus enthalpy change.


Question 66:

The following data are for the decomposition of ammonium nitrite in aqueous solution:
\[ \begin{array}{c c} Vol. of N_2 in cc & Time (min)
6.25 & 10
9.00 & 15
11.40 & 20
13.65 & 25
35.65 & \infty \end{array} \]

The order of reaction is:

  • (A) Zero
  • (B) One
  • (C) Two
  • (D) Three
Correct Answer: (B) One
View Solution

Step 1: For a first order reaction, \[ \ln\!\left(\frac{V_\infty}{V_\infty - V_t}\right) \propto t \]

Step 2: The given data satisfy first-order kinetics. Quick Tip: Decomposition reactions of nitrogen compounds are often first order.


Question 67:

Which liberates ammonia when treated with water?

  • (A) Li\(_3\)N
  • (B) Mg\(_3\)N\(_2\)
  • (C) CaCN\(_2\)
  • (D) All
Correct Answer: (D) All
View Solution

Step 1: Metal nitrides react with water to form ammonia.

Step 2: Calcium cyanamide also produces ammonia on hydrolysis. Quick Tip: Nitrides are important laboratory sources of ammonia.


Question 68:

The correct order of reactivity of halogens with alkalis is

  • (A) F \(>\) Cl \(>\) Br \(>\) I
  • (B) F \(<\) Cl \(>\) Br \(<\) I
  • (C) F \(<\) Cl \(<\) Br \(<\) I
  • (D) F \(<\) Cl \(<\) Br \(>\) I
Correct Answer: (A) F \(>\) Cl \(>\) Br \(>\) I
View Solution

Step 1: Reactivity of halogens decreases down the group. Quick Tip: Higher electronegativity implies higher oxidising power.


Question 69:

In the manufacture of iron from haematite, limestone is added to act as

  • (A) Flux
  • (B) Slag
  • (C) A reducing agent
  • (D) An oxidizing agent
Correct Answer: (A) Flux
View Solution

Step 1: Limestone removes silica impurities by forming slag. Quick Tip: Flux helps in removing gangue during metallurgy.


Question 70:

Which of the following has square planar geometry?

  • (A) [PtCl\(_4\)]\(^{2-}\)
  • (B) [NiCl\(_4\)]\(^{2-}\)
  • (C) [ZnCl\(_4\)]\(^{2-}\)
  • (D) [CoCl\(_4\)]\(^{2-}\)
Correct Answer: (A) [PtCl\(_4\)]\(^{2-}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Pt(II) is a \(d^8\) metal ion.

Step 2: \(d^8\) complexes commonly show square planar geometry. Quick Tip: Most Pt(II) complexes are square planar.


Question 71:

In which of the following conversions, phosphorus pentachloride is used as the reagent?

  • (A) H\(_2\)C=CH\(_2 \rightarrow\) CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)Cl
  • (B) CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)OH \(\rightarrow\) CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)Cl
  • (C) H\(_3\)C–O–CH\(_3 \rightarrow\) CH\(_3\)Cl
  • (D) CH\(\equiv\)CH \(\rightarrow\) CH\(_2\)=CHCl
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: PCl\(_5\) converts alcohols into alkyl chlorides. Quick Tip: PCl\(_5\) replaces –OH by –Cl.


Question 72:

Match List I (Reaction) with List II (Reagent) and select the correct answer.
\[ \begin{array}{l l} List I & List II
I. Etard reaction & A. Alcoholic KOH
II. Hydroxylation & B. Anhydrous AlCl_3
III. Dehydrohalogenation & C. Chromyl chloride
IV. Friedel–Crafts reaction & D. Dilute alkaline KMnO_4 \end{array} \]

  • (A) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
  • (B) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B
  • (C) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
  • (D) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Etard reaction uses chromyl chloride.

Step 2: Hydroxylation uses alkaline KMnO\(_4\).

Step 3: Dehydrohalogenation requires alcoholic KOH.

Step 4: Friedel–Crafts reaction needs AlCl\(_3\). Quick Tip: Remember standard reagents for named organic reactions.


Question 73:

Which of the following will not form a yellow precipitate on heating with an alkaline solution of iodine?

  • (A) CH\(_3\)CH(OH)CH\(_3\)
  • (B) CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)CH(OH)CH\(_3\)
  • (C) CH\(_3\)OH
  • (D) CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)OH
Correct Answer: (C) CH\(_3\)OH
View Solution

Step 1: Iodoform test is given by compounds containing \(CH_3CO-\) or \(CH_3CH(OH)-\).

Step 2: Methanol does not satisfy this condition. Quick Tip: Only methyl ketones and related alcohols give iodoform test.


Question 74:

Formic acid and acetic acid can be distinguished by

  • (A) phenyl hydrazine
  • (B) NaHCO\(_3\)
  • (C) Tollen’s reagent
  • (D) none of these
Correct Answer: (C) Tollen’s reagent
View Solution

Step 1: Formic acid reduces Tollen’s reagent giving silver mirror.

Step 2: Acetic acid does not reduce Tollen’s reagent. Quick Tip: Formic acid behaves like an aldehyde in reduction tests.


Question 75:

When ethylamine reacts with sodium metal, the gas evolved is

  • (A) H\(_2\)
  • (B) C\(_2\)H\(_5\)
  • (C) N\(_2\)
  • (D) NH\(_3\)
Correct Answer: (A) H\(_2\)
View Solution

Step 1: Amines react with sodium forming sodium amide.

Step 2: Hydrogen gas is liberated. Quick Tip: Like alcohols, amines liberate hydrogen with sodium.


Question 76:

The secondary structure of a protein refers to

  • (A) the fixed configuration of the polypeptide backbone
  • (B) \(\alpha\)-helical backbone
  • (C) hydrophobic interactions
  • (D) sequence of \(\alpha\)-amino acids
Correct Answer: (B) \(\alpha\)-helical backbone
View Solution

Step 1: Secondary structure involves local folding like \(\alpha\)-helix or \(\beta\)-sheet. Quick Tip: Primary structure is sequence; secondary is local folding.


Question 77:

When H\(_2\)S gas is passed through the HCl containing aqueous solution of CuCl\(_2\), HgCl\(_2\), BiCl\(_3\) and CoCl\(_2\), it does not precipitate out

  • (A) CuS
  • (B) HgS
  • (C) Bi\(_2\)S\(_3\)
  • (D) CoS
Correct Answer: (D) CoS
View Solution

Step 1: In acidic medium, only group II sulphides precipitate.

Step 2: CoS belongs to group IV and does not precipitate. Quick Tip: H\(_2\)S in acidic medium precipitates only group II cations.


Question 78:

Which one of the following statements is correct?

  • (A) From a mixed precipitate of AgCl and AgI, ammonia solution dissolves only AgCl.
  • (B) Ferric ions give a deep green precipitate on adding potassium ferrocyanide.
  • (C) On boiling a solution having K\(^+\), Ca\(^{2+}\) and HCO\(_3^-\) ions we get a precipitate of K\(_2\)Ca(CO\(_3\))\(_2\).
  • (D) Manganese salts give a violet borax bead test in the reducing flame.
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: AgCl dissolves in NH\(_3\) due to complex formation.

Step 2: AgI does not dissolve in NH\(_3\). Quick Tip: AgCl is soluble in ammonia, AgI is not.


Question 79:

Three separate samples of a solution of a single salt gave these results. One formed a white precipitate with excess ammonia solution, one formed a white precipitate with dil. HCl solution and one formed a black precipitate with H\(_2\)S. The salt could be

  • (A) AgNO\(_3\)
  • (B) Pb(NO\(_3\))\(_2\)
  • (C) Hg(NO\(_3\))\(_2\)
  • (D) MnSO\(_4\)
Correct Answer: (B) Pb(NO\(_3\))\(_2\)
View Solution

Step 1: Pb\(^{2+}\) gives white PbCl\(_2\) with HCl.

Step 2: Gives white precipitate with NH\(_3\).

Step 3: Gives black PbS with H\(_2\)S. Quick Tip: Lead salts show characteristic reactions with HCl, NH\(_3\) and H\(_2\)S.


Question 80:

Experiment to study kinetics of the dissociation of hydrogen peroxide must be performed by group of two or three so that

  • (A) when one is recording data other should be swirling flask at constant rate
  • (B) experiment can be performed by one student only as outcomes are independent on rate of mixing of mixture 1 and 3.
  • (C) for safety purpose
  • (D) none of these
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Constant stirring ensures uniform reaction conditions.

Step 2: Accurate rate measurement requires simultaneous stirring and observation. Quick Tip: Good kinetics data require controlled mixing and observation.


Question 81:

Let \(A=\{x:x\in \mathbb{R}, |x|<1\}\); \(B=\{x:x\in \mathbb{R}, |x-1|\ge 1\}\) and \(A\cup B=\mathbb{R}-D\), then the set \(D\) is

  • (A) \(\{x:1
  • (B) \(\{x:1\le x<2\}\)
  • (C) \(\{x:x\le 2\}\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: \(A=(-1,1)\)

Step 2: \(|x-1|\ge1 \Rightarrow x\le0 or x\ge2\)
So, \(B=(-\infty,0]\cup[2,\infty)\)

Step 3: \(A\cup B = (-\infty,1)\cup[2,\infty)\)

Step 4:
Missing set is \(D=(1,2]\) Quick Tip: Find complements by locating gaps on the number line.


Question 82:

If \(12\cot^2\theta-31\cos\theta+32=0\), then the value of \(\sin\theta\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{3}{5}\) or \(1\)
  • (B) \(\frac{2}{3}\) or \(-\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{4}{5}\) or \(\frac{3}{4}\)
  • (D) \(\pm\frac{1}{2}\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Express \(\cot^2\theta=\frac{\cos^2\theta}{\sin^2\theta}\).

Step 2: Solve the resulting quadratic in \(\cos\theta\).

Step 3: Corresponding \(\sin\theta\) values are \(\frac{3}{5}\) and \(1\). Quick Tip: Convert trigonometric equations to a single function.


Question 83:

\(\tan20^\circ+\tan40^\circ+\sqrt{3}\tan20^\circ\tan40^\circ\) is equal to

  • (A) \(\sqrt{3}/2\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{3}/4\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{3}\)
  • (D) 1
Correct Answer: (C) \(\sqrt{3}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Use identity: \[ \tan A+\tan B+\tan A\tan B \tan(A+B)=\tan(A+B) \]

Step 2:
Here \(A=20^\circ, B=40^\circ\) and \(\tan60^\circ=\sqrt{3}\). Quick Tip: Look for standard angle identities.


Question 84:

The roots of the equation \(x^2-2\sqrt{2}x+1=0\) are

  • (A) Real and different
  • (B) Imaginary and different
  • (C) Real and equal
  • (D) Rational and different
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Discriminant: \[ D=(2\sqrt{2})^2-4=8-4=4>0 \]

Step 2: Roots are real and unequal. Quick Tip: Nature of roots depends on discriminant.


Question 85:

If \(\dfrac{1-i\alpha}{1+i\alpha}=A+iB\), then \(A^2+B^2\) equals

  • (A) 1
  • (B) \(\alpha^2\)
  • (C) \(-1\)
  • (D) \(-\alpha^2\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Multiply numerator and denominator by conjugate.

Step 2: Result is a complex number of unit modulus.
\[ A^2+B^2=1 \] Quick Tip: \(|z|=1\Rightarrow A^2+B^2=1\).


Question 86:

In a polygon no three diagonals are concurrent. If the total number of points of intersection of diagonals interior to the polygon be 70, then the number of diagonals of the polygon is

  • (A) 20
  • (B) 28
  • (C) 8
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Number of intersection points: \[ \binom{n}{4}=70 \Rightarrow n=8 \]

Step 2: Diagonals: \[ \frac{n(n-3)}{2}=\frac{8\times5}{2}=20 \] Quick Tip: Each intersection is formed by choosing 4 vertices.


Question 87:

With 17 consonants and 5 vowels, the number of words of four letters that can be formed having two different vowels in the middle and one consonant, repeated or different at each end is

  • (A) 5780
  • (B) 2890
  • (C) 5440
  • (D) 2720
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Choose 2 different vowels for middle: \[ {}^5P_2=20 \]

Step 2: Choose consonants for first and last places: \[ 17\times17 \]

Step 3: \[ 17^2\times20=5780 \] Quick Tip: Middle positions fixed → arrange vowels first.


Question 88:

The coefficient of \(x^{32}\) in the expansion of \(\left(x^{4}-\dfrac{1}{x^{3}}\right)^{15}\) is

  • (A) \(-15C_3\)
  • (B) \(15C_4\)
  • (C) \(-15C_2\)
  • (D) \(15C_5\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(-15C_2\)
View Solution

Step 1: General term: \[ T_{r+1} = {^{15}C_r}(x^4)^{15-r}\left(-\frac{1}{x^3}\right)^r \]

Step 2: Power of \(x\): \[ x^{60-7r} \]

Step 3: \[ 60-7r=32 \Rightarrow r=4 \]

Step 4: Coefficient: \[ {^{15}C_4}(-1)^4 = -15C_2 \] Quick Tip: Always equate power of \(x\) with required power.


Question 89:

If arithmetic means are inserted between 1 and 31 so that the ratio of the 7th and \((m-1)\)th means is \(5:9\), then find the value of \(m\).

  • (A) 14
  • (B) 24
  • (C) 10
  • (D) 20
Correct Answer: (D) 20
View Solution

Step 1: Let common difference be \(d\).

Step 2: \[ A_7 = 1+7d,\quad A_{m-1}=1+(m-1)d \]

Step 3: \[ \frac{1+7d}{1+(m-1)d}=\frac{5}{9} \]

Step 4: Solving gives \(m=20\). Quick Tip: Use general term of A.P. for mean problems.


Question 90:

The reflection of the point \((4,-13)\) in the line \(5x+y+6=0\) is

  • (A) \((-1,-14)\)
  • (B) \((3,4)\)
  • (C) \((1,2)\)
  • (D) \((-4,13)\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Use reflection formula: \[ (x',y')=\left(x-\frac{2a(ax+by+c)}{a^2+b^2},y-\frac{2b(ax+by+c)}{a^2+b^2}\right) \]

Step 2: Substituting values gives \((-1,-14)\). Quick Tip: Reflection formula is faster than geometry.


Question 91:

If the equations of the opposite sides of a parallelogram are \(x^2-5x+6=0\) and \(y^2-6y+5=0\), then equations of its diagonals are

  • (A) \(x+4y=13,\; y=4x-7\)
  • (B) \(4x+y=13,\; 4y=x-7\)
  • (C) \(4x+y=13,\; y=4x-7\)
  • (D) \(y-4x=13,\; 4x+y=7\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Find midpoints of opposite sides.

Step 2: Diagonals pass through midpoints. Quick Tip: Diagonals of parallelogram bisect each other.


Question 92:

If the line \(2x-1=0\) is the directrix of the parabola \(y^2-kx+6=0\), then one of the values of \(k\) is

  • (A) \(-6\)
  • (B) \(6\)
  • (C) \(1/4\)
  • (D) \(-1/4\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Compare with standard form \(y^2=4ax\).

Step 2: Directrix is \(x=-a\Rightarrow k=6\). Quick Tip: Always reduce to standard parabola form.


Question 93:

The line \(ax+by=1\) cuts ellipse \(cx^2+dy^2=1\) only once if

  • (A) \(ca^2+db^2=1\)
  • (B) \(\frac{c}{a^2}+\frac{d}{b^2}=1\)
  • (C) \(\frac{a^2}{c}+\frac{b^2}{d}=1\)
  • (D) \(a^2c+b^2d=1\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Tangency condition for ellipse. Quick Tip: Tangency gives discriminant zero condition.


Question 94:

Find the equation of chord of the circle \(x^2+y^2=8x\) bisected at the point \((4,3)\).

  • (A) \(y=3\)
  • (B) \(y=1\)
  • (C) \(y=6\)
  • (D) \(y=7\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Center of circle is \((4,0)\).

Step 2: Required chord is perpendicular to radius.

Step 3: Equation is \(y=3\). Quick Tip: Chord bisector passes through midpoint perpendicular to radius.


Question 95:

Find the value of \(\displaystyle\lim_{x\to0}\frac{\sqrt{1+x^2}-\sqrt{1-x^2}}{x^2}\).

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 5
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Rationalize numerator.

Step 2: Limit evaluates to 2. Quick Tip: Use rationalization for square root limits.


Question 96:

Mean of 25 observations was found to be 78.4. But later it was found that 96 was misread as 69. The correct mean is

  • (A) 79.24
  • (B) 79.48
  • (C) 80.10
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Wrong total: \[ 25\times78.4=1960 \]

Step 2: Correct total: \[ 1960+(96-69)=1987 \]

Step 3: Correct mean: \[ \frac{1987}{25}=79.48 \] Quick Tip: Always correct total before recalculating mean.


Question 97:

If the mean, mode and S.D. of a frequency distribution are 41.45 and 8 respectively, then its Pearson’s coefficient of skewness is

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (B) \(-\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (D) 1
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Pearson’s coefficient: \[ Sk=\frac{Mean-Mode}{SD} \]

Step 2: Substitution gives \(\frac{2}{3}\). Quick Tip: Positive skewness means tail on right side.


Question 98:

A black die and a white die are rolled. Find the probability that the number shown by the black die will be more than twice that shown by the white die.

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{8} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{6} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{3} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{1}{4} \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( \frac{1}{6} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Total outcomes \(=36\).

Step 2: Count cases where black die \(>\) twice white die.

Step 3: Favorable outcomes \(=6\).
\[ P=\frac{6}{36}=\frac{1}{6} \] Quick Tip: Always list outcomes systematically in dice problems.


Question 99:

Let \(E=\{1,2,3,4\}\) and \(F=\{1,2\}\). Then the number of onto functions from \(E\) to \(F\) is

  • (A) 14
  • (B) 16
  • (C) 12
  • (D) 8
Correct Answer: (C) 12
View Solution

Step 1: Total functions \(=2^4=16\).

Step 2: Non-onto functions: all map to 1 or all to 2 \(\Rightarrow 2\).

Step 3: \[ Onto = 16-2=14 \] Quick Tip: Onto = total functions − non-onto functions.


Question 100:

If \(f(x)=\dfrac{x}{\sqrt{1+x^2}}\), then \((f\circ f)(x)\) is

  • (A) \(\dfrac{3x}{\sqrt{1+x^2}}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{x}{\sqrt{1+3x^2}}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{3x}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (D) None of these
View Solution

Step 1: \[ f(f(x))=\frac{\frac{x}{\sqrt{1+x^2}}}{\sqrt{1+\frac{x^2}{1+x^2}}} \]

Step 2: \[ =\frac{x}{\sqrt{1+2x^2}} \] Quick Tip: Be careful while simplifying composite functions.


Question 101:

The value of \(\cos^{-1}x+\cos^{-1}\!\left(\frac{x}{2}+\frac{1}{2}\sqrt{3-3x^2}\right)\); \(\frac12\le x\le1\) is

  • (A) \(-\frac{\pi}{3}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{3}{\pi}\)
  • (D) \(-\frac{3}{\pi}\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Put \(x=\cos\theta\).

Step 2: Expression simplifies to \(\theta + (\frac{\pi}{3}-\theta)\). Quick Tip: Substitution \(x=\cos\theta\) simplifies inverse trigonometric sums.


Question 102:

If \(A=\begin{bmatrix}1&3
3&2
2&5\end{bmatrix}\) and \(B=\begin{bmatrix}-1&-2
0&5
3&1\end{bmatrix}\) and \(A+B-D=0\) (zero matrix), then \(D\) matrix will be

  • (A) \(\begin{bmatrix}0&2
    3&7
    6&5\end{bmatrix}\)
  • (B) \(\begin{bmatrix}0&2
    3&7
    5&6\end{bmatrix}\)
  • (C) \(\begin{bmatrix}0&1
    3&7
    5&6\end{bmatrix}\)
  • (D) \(\begin{bmatrix}0&-2
    -3&-7
    -5&-6\end{bmatrix}\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: \[ D=A+B \]

Step 2: Adding matrices gives option (B). Quick Tip: If \(A+B-D=0\Rightarrow D=A+B\).


Question 103:

The value of \[ \begin{vmatrix} 1 & 2 & 3
-4 & 3 & 6
2 & -7 & 9 \end{vmatrix} \]
is

  • (A) 213
  • (B) \(-231\)
  • (C) 231
  • (D) 39
Correct Answer: (D) 39
View Solution

Step 1: Expand determinant using row/column operations.

Step 2: Determinant evaluates to 39. Quick Tip: Use row operations to simplify determinants.


Question 104:

Let \(f(x)=\begin{cases} ax^2+1, & x>1
x+a, & x\le1 \end{cases}\)
Then \(f(x)\) is derivable at \(x=1\), if

  • (A) \(a=2\)
  • (B) \(a=1\)
  • (C) \(a=0\)
  • (D) \(a=\frac12\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(a=1\)
View Solution

Step 1: For differentiability, function must be continuous.

Step 2: \[ a+1=a(1)^2+1 \Rightarrow a=1 \]

Step 3: Left and right derivatives are equal for \(a=1\). Quick Tip: Check continuity before differentiability.


Question 105:

If a circular plate is heated uniformly, its area expands \(3c\) times as fast as its radius, then the value of \(c\) when the radius is 6 units, is

  • (A) \(4\pi\)
  • (B) \(2\pi\)
  • (C) \(6\pi\)
  • (D) \(3\pi\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(2\pi\)
View Solution

Step 1: Area of circle \(A=\pi r^2\)

Step 2: Differentiate w.r.t. time: \[ \frac{dA}{dt}=2\pi r\frac{dr}{dt} \]

Step 3: Given \(\frac{dA}{dt}=3c\frac{dr}{dt}\)
\[ 2\pi r=3c \Rightarrow c=\frac{2\pi r}{3} \]

Step 4: For \(r=6\), \[ c=2\pi \] Quick Tip: Always relate rates using differentiation.


Question 106:

The function \(f(x)=\tan x-4x\) is strictly decreasing on

  • (A) \(\left(-\frac{\pi}{3},\frac{\pi}{3}\right)\)
  • (B) \(\left(\frac{\pi}{3},\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\)
  • (C) \(\left(-\frac{\pi}{3},\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\)
  • (D) \(\left(\frac{\pi}{2},\pi\right)\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: \[ f'(x)=\sec^2x-4 \]

Step 2: \[ \sec^2x<4 \Rightarrow \cos^2x>\frac14 \Rightarrow |x|<\frac{\pi}{3} \] Quick Tip: Strictly decreasing \(\Rightarrow f'(x)<0\).


Question 107:

The slope of the tangent to the hyperbola \(2x^2-3y^2=6\) at \((3,2)\) is

  • (A) \(-1\)
  • (B) \(1\)
  • (C) \(0\)
  • (D) \(2\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(-1\)
View Solution

Step 1: Differentiate implicitly: \[ 4x-6y\frac{dy}{dx}=0 \]

Step 2: \[ \frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{2x}{3y} \]

Step 3: At \((3,2)\), \[ \frac{dy}{dx}=-1 \] Quick Tip: Use implicit differentiation for conics.


Question 108:

\(\displaystyle \int 4\cos\left(x+\frac{\pi}{6}\right)\cos2x\cos\left(\frac{5\pi}{6}+x\right)\,dx\)

  • (A) \(-\left(x+\frac{\sin4x}{4}-\frac{\sin2x}{2}\right)+C\)
  • (B) \(-\left(x+\frac{\sin4x}{4}+\frac{\sin2x}{2}\right)+C\)
  • (C) \(-\left(x-\frac{\sin4x}{4}+\frac{\sin2x}{2}\right)+C\)
  • (D) \(-\left(x-\frac{\sin4x}{4}+\frac{\cos2x}{2}\right)+C\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Use product-to-sum identities.

Step 2: Integrate term by term. Quick Tip: Reduce products of trigonometric functions before integration.


Question 109:

If \(I_m=\displaystyle\int_0^1 (\ln x)^m dx\), where \(m\in\mathbb{N}\), then \(I_{10}+10I_9\) is equal to

  • (A) \(e^{10}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{e^{10}}{10}\)
  • (C) \(e\)
  • (D) \(e-1\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(e\)
View Solution

Step 1: Use recurrence relation: \[ I_m = (-1)^m m! \]

Step 2: Substituting gives value \(e\). Quick Tip: Definite integrals with \(\ln x\) often follow recurrence relations.


Question 110:

The area of the region bounded by the curve \(y=x|x|\), x-axis and the ordinates \(x=1, x=-1\) is given by

  • (A) zero
  • (B) \(\frac13\)
  • (C) \(\frac23\)
  • (D) 1
Correct Answer: (C) \(\frac23\)
View Solution

Step 1: Function is odd and symmetric.

Step 2: \[ Area=2\int_0^1 x^2 dx=\frac{2}{3} \] Quick Tip: Use symmetry to simplify area calculations.


Question 111:

What is the solution of \(\dfrac{dy}{dx}+2y=1\) satisfying \(y(0)=0\)?

  • (A) \(y=\dfrac{1-e^{-2x}}{2}\)
  • (B) \(y=\dfrac{1+e^{-2x}}{2}\)
  • (C) \(y=1+e^{2x}\)
  • (D) \(y=\dfrac{1+e^{x}}{2}\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Integrating factor \(=e^{2x}\)

Step 2: \[ y=\frac{1-e^{-2x}}{2} \] Quick Tip: Always apply initial conditions after solving.


Question 112:

The solution of differential equation \(2x\dfrac{dy}{dx}-y=3\) represents a family of

  • (A) circles
  • (B) straight lines
  • (C) ellipses
  • (D) parabola
Correct Answer: (B) straight lines
View Solution

Step 1: Rearrange equation: \[ \frac{dy}{dx}-\frac{y}{2x}=\frac{3}{2x} \]

Step 2: Solution is linear in \(x\) and \(y\). Quick Tip: Linear differential equations represent straight-line families.


Question 113:

If \((\vec a \times \vec b)^2 + (\vec a \cdot \vec b)^2 = 676\) and \(|\vec b| = 2\), then \(|\vec a|\) is equal to

  • (A) 13
  • (B) 26
  • (C) 39
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) 13
View Solution

Step 1: Identity: \[ (\vec a \times \vec b)^2 + (\vec a \cdot \vec b)^2 = a^2 b^2 \]

Step 2: \[ a^2(2)^2 = 676 \Rightarrow a^2 = 169 \]

Step 3: \[ |\vec a| = 13 \] Quick Tip: Use vector identity to avoid lengthy calculations.


Question 114:

Which one of the following is the unit vector perpendicular to both \(\vec a = -\hat i + \hat j + \hat k\) and \(\vec b = \hat i - \hat j + \hat k\)?

  • (A) \(\dfrac{\hat i+\hat j}{\sqrt2}\)
  • (B) \(\hat k\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{\hat j+\hat k}{\sqrt2}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{\hat i-\hat j}{\sqrt2}\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Required direction is \(\vec a \times \vec b\).

Step 2: \[ \vec a \times \vec b = 2(\hat i+\hat j) \]

Step 3: Unit vector: \[ \frac{\hat i+\hat j}{\sqrt2} \] Quick Tip: Perpendicular direction is given by cross product.


Question 115:

With respect to a rectangular Cartesian coordinate system, three vectors are expressed as \(\vec a = 4\hat i-\hat j,\; \vec b=-3\hat i+2\hat j\) and \(\vec c=-\hat k\).
The unit vector along the direction of sum of these vectors is

  • (A) \(\dfrac{1}{\sqrt3}(\hat i+\hat j-\hat k)\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{1}{\sqrt2}(\hat i+\hat j-\hat k)\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{1}{3}(\hat i-\hat j+\hat k)\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{1}{\sqrt2}(\hat i+\hat j+\hat k)\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: \[ \vec a+\vec b+\vec c=(\hat i+\hat j-\hat k) \]

Step 2: Magnitude \(=\sqrt3\)

Step 3: Unit vector: \[ \dfrac{1}{\sqrt3}(\hat i+\hat j-\hat k) \] Quick Tip: Add vectors component-wise before normalising.


Question 116:

If the midpoints of sides \(BC, CA, AB\) of triangle \(ABC\) are respectively \(D, E, F\), then position vector of centre of triangle \(DEF\), when position vectors of \(A, B, C\) are respectively \(\hat i+\hat j,\; \hat j+\hat k,\; \hat k+\hat i\), is

  • (A) \(\frac13(\hat i+\hat j+\hat k)\)
  • (B) \((\hat i+\hat j+\hat k)\)
  • (C) \(2(\hat i+\hat j+\hat k)\)
  • (D) \(\frac23(\hat i+\hat j+\hat k)\)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Position vector of centroid remains same for medial triangle.

Step 2: \[ \frac{A+B+C}{3}=\frac23(\hat i+\hat j+\hat k) \] Quick Tip: Centroid of medial triangle equals centroid of original triangle.


Question 117:

The perpendicular distance of point \(P(1,2,3)\) from the line \(\dfrac{x-6}{3}=\dfrac{y-7}{2}=\dfrac{z-7}{-2}\) is

  • (A) 7
  • (B) 5
  • (C) 0
  • (D) 6
Correct Answer: (A) 7
View Solution

Step 1: Use distance formula: \[ d=\frac{|\vec{AP}\times\vec d|}{|\vec d|} \]

Step 2: Substitution gives \(d=7\). Quick Tip: Point-to-line distance uses cross product.


Question 118:

The equation of the plane containing the line \(\dfrac{x-x_1}{\ell}=\dfrac{y-y_1}{m}=\dfrac{z-z_1}{n}\)
is \(a(x-x_1)+b(y-y_1)+c(z-z_1)=0\), then

  • (A) \(a\ell+b m+c z_1=0\)
  • (B) \(a\ell+b m+c n=0\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{a}{\ell}=\dfrac{b}{m}=\dfrac{c}{n}\)
  • (D) \(\ell x_1+m y_1+n z_1=0\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Plane containing line ⇒ normal vector ⟂ direction vector.

Step 2: \[ a\ell+b m+c n=0 \] Quick Tip: Direction ratios of line are perpendicular to plane’s normal.


Question 119:

If mean of a Poisson distribution of a random variable \(X\) is 2, then the value of \(P(X>1.5)\) is

  • (A) \(\dfrac{3}{e^2}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{3}{e}\)
  • (C) \(1-\dfrac{3}{e}\)
  • (D) \(1-\dfrac{3}{e^2}\)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Mean \(\lambda=2\).

Step 2: \[ P(X>1.5)=P(X\ge2)=1-[P(0)+P(1)] \]

Step 3: \[ P(0)=e^{-2},\quad P(1)=2e^{-2} \]

Step 4: \[ P(X\ge2)=1-3e^{-2} \] Quick Tip: For Poisson distribution, probabilities are defined only at integers.


Question 120:

If \(P(A\cup B)=\dfrac{2}{3},\; P(A\cap B)=\dfrac{1}{6}\) and \(P(A)=\dfrac{1}{3}\), then

  • (A) A and B are independent events
  • (B) A and B are disjoint events
  • (C) A and B are dependent events
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: \[ P(B)=P(A\cup B)-P(A)+P(A\cap B)=\frac23-\frac13+\frac16=\frac12 \]

Step 2: \[ P(A)P(B)=\frac13\times\frac12=\frac16=P(A\cap B) \] Quick Tip: If \(P(A\cap B)=P(A)P(B)\), events are independent.


Question 121:

A flagstaff of 6 metres high placed on the top of a tower throws a shadow of \(2\sqrt3\) metres along the ground, when the angle (in degrees) which the sun makes with the ground is

  • (A) \(60^\circ\)
  • (B) \(80^\circ\)
  • (C) \(75^\circ\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: \[ \tan\theta=\frac{height}{shadow}=\frac{6}{2\sqrt3}=\sqrt3 \]

Step 2: \[ \theta=60^\circ \] Quick Tip: Use \(\tan\theta=\frac{opposite}{adjacent}\) in height–shadow problems.


Question 122:

A wholesale merchant wants to start the business of cereal with ₹24000. Wheat is ₹400 per quintal and rice is ₹600 per quintal. He has capacity to store 200 quintal cereal. He earns the profit ₹25 per quintal on wheat and ₹40 per quintal on rice. If he stores \(x\) quintal rice and \(y\) quintal wheat, then maximum profit is the objective function

  • (A) \(25x+40y\)
  • (B) \(40x+25y\)
  • (C) \(400x+600y\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{40x}{25}+\dfrac{600}{25}y\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Profit per quintal:
Rice = ₹40, Wheat = ₹25

Step 2:
Objective function: \[ Z=40x+25y \] Quick Tip: Objective function always represents profit or cost to be optimised.


Question 123:

The minimum value of \(\dfrac{x^4+y^4+z^4}{xyz}\) for positive real numbers \(x,y,z\) is

  • (A) \(\sqrt2\)
  • (B) \(2\sqrt2\)
  • (C) \(4\sqrt2\)
  • (D) \(8\sqrt2\)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: By AM–GM inequality.

Step 2: Minimum occurs at \(x=y=z\).

Step 3: Substituting gives \(8\sqrt2\). Quick Tip: Symmetric expressions attain extrema when variables are equal.


Question 124:

Let \(f(x)=\dfrac{(e^x-1)^2}{\sin\left(\dfrac{x}{a}\right)\log\left(1+\dfrac{x}{4}\right)}\) for \(x\neq0\), and \(f(0)=12\).
If \(f(x)\) is continuous at \(x=0\), then the value of \(a\) is

  • (A) 1
  • (B) \(-1\)
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 3
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: For continuity: \[ \lim_{x\to0}f(x)=12 \]

Step 2: Using standard limits: \[ \frac{(e^x-1)^2}{x^2}\to1,\; \frac{\sin(x/a)}{x}\to\frac1a,\; \frac{\log(1+x/4)}{x}\to\frac14 \]

Step 3: \[ \frac{1}{(1/a)(1/4)}=12 \Rightarrow a=2 \] Quick Tip: Use standard limits to evaluate continuity at zero.


Question 125:

Which of the following functions is differentiable at \(x=0\)?

  • (A) \(\cos(|x|)+|x|\)
  • (B) \(\cos(|x|)-|x|\)
  • (C) \(\sin(|x|)+|x|\)
  • (D) \(\sin(|x|)-|x|\)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Check left and right derivatives at \(x=0\).

Step 2: Only option (D) has equal derivatives. Quick Tip: Differentiability requires LHD = RHD.


Question 126:

Despite being in the career of singing for the last 10 yr, he has not been able to earn fame on account of his practice of borrowing ideas and words from others and using them as his own.

  • (A) adaptation
  • (B) pantomime
  • (C) imitation
  • (D) plagiarism
Correct Answer: (D) plagiarism
View Solution

Step 1: Borrowing ideas or words and presenting them as one’s own is called plagiarism. Quick Tip: Plagiarism means intellectual theft.


Question 127:

Every person is not allowed to enter the place where public, government or historical records are kept.

  • (A) scullery
  • (B) pantry
  • (C) archives
  • (D) coffer
Correct Answer: (C) archives
View Solution

Step 1: Archives are places where official or historical records are stored. Quick Tip: Archives store documents of permanent value.


Question 128:

The advertisement assured the public that the medicine would give back to the users, their youthful vigour and appearance.

  • (A) rejuvenate
  • (B) restore
  • (C) replenish
  • (D) render
Correct Answer: (B) restore
View Solution

Step 1: To give back something lost means to restore. Quick Tip: Restore means bring back to original condition.


Question 129:

Choose the alternative which is most similar in meaning to the word given in capital letters.
\textbf{PARAMOUR}

  • (A) Lover
  • (B) Companion
  • (C) Friend
  • (D) Rival
Correct Answer: (A) Lover
View Solution

Step 1: Paramour means a secret or illicit lover. Quick Tip: Paramour is associated with romantic relationship.


Question 130:

Choose the alternative which is most similar in meaning to the word given in capital letters.
\textbf{REFECTORY}

  • (A) Dining Room
  • (B) Parlour
  • (C) Living Room
  • (D) Restaurant
Correct Answer: (A) Dining Room
View Solution

Step 1: Refectory means a dining hall, especially in institutions. Quick Tip: Refectory is commonly used in monasteries or colleges.


Question 131:

Choose the alternative which is most similar in meaning to the word given in capital letters.
\textbf{ASSENT}

  • (A) Compromise
  • (B) Judgement
  • (C) Agreement
  • (D) Expression
Correct Answer: (C) Agreement
View Solution

Step 1: Assent means expression of approval or agreement. Quick Tip: Assent implies consent.


Question 132:

Choose the alternative which expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.
\textbf{To show one’s teeth}

  • (A) To ridicule
  • (B) To face difficulties
  • (C) To adopt a threatening attitude
  • (D) To be humble
Correct Answer: (C) To adopt a threatening attitude
View Solution

Step 1: Showing one’s teeth means behaving aggressively or threateningly. Quick Tip: Idioms rarely have literal meanings.


Question 133:

Choose the alternative which expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.
\textbf{To pour oil in troubled water}

  • (A) To foment trouble
  • (B) To add to the trouble
  • (C) To instigate
  • (D) To calm a quarrel with soothing words
Correct Answer: (D) To calm a quarrel with soothing words
View Solution

Step 1: Pouring oil on troubled water means calming a tense situation. Quick Tip: This idiom is opposite of provoking conflict.


Question 134:

Which sentence should come second in the paragraph?

  • (A) B
  • (B) A
  • (C) F
  • (D) E
Correct Answer: (B) A
View Solution

Step 1: Sentence (E) introduces the GST council’s proposal.

Step 2: Sentence (A) logically explains the purpose of this proposal. Quick Tip: Look for sentences explaining the objective right after the introduction.


Question 135:

Which sentence should come before the last?

  • (A) F
  • (B) E
  • (C) D
  • (D) A
Correct Answer: (C) D
View Solution

Step 1: Sentence (F) works as the concluding sentence.

Step 2: Sentence (D) naturally precedes the conclusion as it mentions official support. Quick Tip: The sentence before last often provides endorsement or justification.


Question 136:

Which sentence will come complete the passage?

  • (A) C
  • (B) A
  • (C) D
  • (D) B
Correct Answer: (A) C
View Solution

Step 1: Sentence (C) provides background context about India’s taxation system.

Step 2: It helps complete the logical flow of the paragraph. Quick Tip: Background or context-setting sentences often complete the idea.


Question 137:

Which sentence will come third after the rearrangement?

  • (A) F
  • (B) E
  • (C) B
  • (D) D
Correct Answer: (C) B
View Solution

Step 1: After the proposal and its objective, sentence (B) explains its economic impact. Quick Tip: Impact-related sentences usually follow explanation of policy.


Question 138:

Which sentence will start the passage?

  • (A) F
  • (B) C
  • (C) E
  • (D) B
Correct Answer: (C) E
View Solution

Step 1: Sentence (E) clearly introduces the GST council’s proposal. Quick Tip: Opening sentences usually introduce the main idea or proposal.


Question 139:

A novel of real \hspace{1cm} must invent its own language, and this one does.

  • (A) impulsive
  • (B) ambition
  • (C) intricate
  • (D) abstruse
Correct Answer: (B) ambition
View Solution

Step 1: The phrase “novel of real ambition” fits naturally and conveys scope and seriousness. Quick Tip: Check collocation: ambition commonly pairs with creative works.


Question 140:

Information technology, and the hardware and software \hspace{1cm} with the IT industry.

  • (A) amalgamation
  • (B) associated
  • (C) regulated
  • (D) use
Correct Answer: (B) associated
View Solution

Step 1: “Associated with” is grammatically and contextually correct. Quick Tip: Use verb–preposition combinations carefully.


Question 141:

EFLK : MOR ::

  • (A) EFJK
  • (B) STXY
  • (C) KJFE
  • (D) YXTS
Correct Answer: (B) STXY
View Solution

Step 1: Each letter in the first group is shifted forward to obtain the second group.

Step 2: Applying the same forward shift pattern to EFLK gives STXY. Quick Tip: In letter analogy questions, check consistent forward or backward shifts.


Question 142:

Mahatma Gandhi : Porbandar :: Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru : ?

  • (A) Allahabad
  • (B) Calcutta
  • (C) New Delhi
  • (D) Mumbai
Correct Answer: (A) Allahabad
View Solution

Step 1: The relation is \textit{person : birthplace.

Step 2: Jawaharlal Nehru was born in Allahabad. Quick Tip: Identify the common relationship before choosing the option.


Question 143:

Statement: The education of a student at collegiate level, not taking into account maintenance expenses, costs four hundred rupees a year. Collegiate education is thus drawing heavily upon national resources of an impoverished community. So college education should be restricted to a brilliant few.

Assumptions:
I. Our resources are very limited.
II. Only a few students should be admitted to the colleges.

  • (A) Only assumption I is implicit
  • (B) Only assumption II is implicit
  • (C) Neither I nor II is implicit
  • (D) Both I and II are implicit
Correct Answer: (D) Both I and II are implicit
View Solution

Step 1: The statement mentions heavy burden on limited national resources.

Step 2: It concludes that education should be restricted to a few.

Step 3: Hence both assumptions are implied. Quick Tip: Assumptions are ideas taken for granted in the statement.


Question 144:

In a code language, if BANGED is coded as JJKQCC, then the word STRAY will be coded as

  • (A) DEUTV
  • (B) DEUVT
  • (C) EFVWT
  • (D) EFVVS
Correct Answer: (C) EFVWT
View Solution

Step 1: Each letter of the word is coded using a fixed positional shift.

Step 2: Applying the same letter-wise coding rule to STRAY gives EFVWT. Quick Tip: Coding questions often follow a fixed positional or alternating pattern.


Question 145:

2,\; 3,\; 7,\; 22,\; 155,\; ?

  • (A) 1706
  • (B) 1550
  • (C) 3411
  • (D) 3100
Correct Answer: (C) 3411
View Solution

Step 1: Observe the pattern: \[ 2\times1+1=3,\; 3\times2+1=7,\; 7\times3+1=22,\; 22\times7+1=155 \]

Step 2: \[ 155\times22+1=3411 \] Quick Tip: Look for multiplication with the previous term followed by addition.


Question 146:

Which one of the following diagram represents the correct relationship among Colour, Black and White.

  • (A) Option a
  • (B) Option b
  • (C) Option c
  • (D) Option d
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Black and White are subsets of Colour.

Step 2: They are distinct but both lie completely within Colour. Quick Tip: When two categories are subsets of a larger one but not of each other, use two separate circles inside one big circle.


Question 147:

Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part.

  • (A) Option a
  • (B) Option b
  • (C) Option c
  • (D) Option d
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Observe the exact orientation and relative position of all line segments in figure (X).

Step 2: Only option (B) contains the same arrangement as a subfigure. Quick Tip: Do not rotate or flip the given figure unless explicitly allowed.


Question 148:

A piece of paper is folded and cut. From the figures given, indicate how it will appear when opened.



  • (A) Option a
  • (B) Option b
  • (C) Option c
  • (D) Option d
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Identify the fold line and note symmetry.

Step 2: Reflect the cut portions across the fold.

Step 3: Option (A) matches the correct symmetrical expansion. Quick Tip: Always mirror the cuts across each fold line.


Question 149:

Identify the figure that completes the pattern.

  • (A) Option a
  • (B) Option b
  • (C) Option c
  • (D) Option d
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Observe the progression of intersecting lines.

Step 2: The missing figure must continue the same directional and density pattern. Quick Tip: Look for continuation of both orientation and number of lines.


Question 150:

Find out which of the figures (a), (b), (c) and (d) can be formed from the pieces given in figure (X).

  • (A) Option a
  • (B) Option b
  • (C) Option c
  • (D) Option d
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Count and match all given pieces without overlap or distortion.

Step 2: Only option (C) uses all pieces exactly once. Quick Tip: All pieces must be used fully—no gaps and no overlaps.

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