BITSAT 2009 Question Paper (Available): Download Answer Key and Solution PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Updated on - Jan 5, 2026

BITSAT 2009 Question Paper PDF is available for download. BITSAT 2009 was conducted in online CBT mode by BITS Pilani. BITSAT 2009 Question Paper had 150 questions to be attempted in 3 hours.

BITSAT 2009 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

BITSAT 2009 Question Paper with Solution PDF Download PDF Check Solutions

Question 1:

Given that \( \vec{A} + \vec{B} = \vec{R} \) and \( A^2 + B^2 = R^2 \). The angle between \( \vec{A} \) and \( \vec{B} \) is:

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(\pi/4\)
  • (C) \(\pi/2\)
  • (D) \(\pi\)
Correct Answer: (C) \( \pi/2 \)
View Solution

Step 1: Using the vector identity, \[ R^2 = (\vec{A} + \vec{B})^2 = A^2 + B^2 + 2AB\cos\theta \]

Step 2: Given that \( A^2 + B^2 = R^2 \), substitute in the above equation: \[ A^2 + B^2 = A^2 + B^2 + 2AB\cos\theta \]

Step 3: Simplifying, \[ 2AB\cos\theta = 0 \]

Since \(A \neq 0\) and \(B \neq 0\), \[ \cos\theta = 0 \]

Step 4: Therefore, \[ \theta = \frac{\pi}{2} \] Quick Tip: Always use the identity \[ (\vec{A}+\vec{B})^2 = A^2 + B^2 + 2AB\cos\theta \] to find the angle between two vectors.


Question 2:

In the relation \( P = \frac{\alpha Z}{\beta} e^{-k\theta} \), \(P\) is pressure, \(Z\) is distance, \(k\) is Boltzmann constant and \(\theta\) is the temperature. The dimensional formula of \(\beta\) will be:

  • (A) \([M^0L^2T^0]\)
  • (B) \([ML^2T^{-1}]\)
  • (C) \([ML^0T^{-1}]\)
  • (D) \([M^0L^2T^{-1}]\)
Correct Answer: (B) \([ML^2T^{-1}]\)
View Solution

Step 1: Dimension of pressure, \[ [P] = [ML^{-1}T^{-2}] \]

Step 2: Since exponential terms are dimensionless, \[ [P] = \frac{[\alpha][Z]}{[\beta]} \]

Step 3: Taking \([\alpha]=[ML^{-1}T^{-2}]\) and \([Z]=[L]\), \[ [\beta] = [ML^2T^{-1}] \] Quick Tip: Exponential and trigonometric terms are always dimensionless.


Question 3:

Which of the following is most accurate?

  • (A) A screw gauge of least count 0.001 mm.
  • (B) A screw gauge having pitch 1 mm and 50 divisions on circular scale.
  • (C) A vernier calipers of least count 0.01 mm.
  • (D) Vernier calipers having 20 divisions on the sliding scale coinciding 19 divisions on the main millimeter scale.
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Accuracy depends on least count.

Step 2: Least count of option (A) is explicitly given as \(0.001\ mm\), which is the smallest among all. Quick Tip: Smaller the least count, higher is the accuracy of the instrument.


Question 4:

A projectile projected at an angle \(30^\circ\) from the horizontal has a range \(R\). If the angle of projection at the same initial velocity is \(60^\circ\), the range will be:

  • (A) \(R\)
  • (B) \(R/2\)
  • (C) \(2R\)
  • (D) \(R^2\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(R\)
View Solution

Step 1: Range of a projectile, \[ R = \frac{u^2\sin 2\theta}{g} \]

Step 2: For \(\theta = 30^\circ\), \[ \sin 60^\circ = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \]

Step 3: For \(\theta = 60^\circ\), \[ \sin 120^\circ = \sin 60^\circ \]

Step 4: Hence, the range remains the same. Quick Tip: Angles \(\theta\) and \(90^\circ-\theta\) give the same range for a projectile.


Question 5:

A block of mass \(M\) is pulled along a horizontal frictionless surface by a rope of mass \(M/2\). If a force \(2Mg\) is applied at one end of the rope, the force which the rope exerts on the block is:

  • (A) \( \frac{2Mg}{3} \)
  • (B) \(2Mg\)
  • (C) \( \frac{4Mg}{3} \)
  • (D) zero
Correct Answer: (C) \( \frac{4Mg}{3} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Total mass of system, \[ M + \frac{M}{2} = \frac{3M}{2} \]

Step 2: Acceleration of system, \[ a = \frac{2Mg}{3M/2} = \frac{4g}{3} \]

Step 3: Force exerted by rope on block, \[ F = Ma = M \cdot \frac{4g}{3} = \frac{4Mg}{3} \] Quick Tip: For a massive rope, always consider acceleration of the entire system.


Question 6:

A chain of mass \(M\) is placed on a smooth table with \(1/n\) of its length hanging over the edge. The work done in pulling the hanging portion of the chain back to the surface of the table is:

  • (A) \( \frac{MgL}{n} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{MgL}{2n} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{MgL}{n^2} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{MgL}{2n^2} \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( \frac{MgL}{2n^2} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Mass of hanging part, \[ \frac{M}{n} \]

Step 2: Centre of mass of hanging part lies at \( \frac{L}{2n} \).

Step 3: Work done equals gain in potential energy, \[ W = \frac{M}{n} g \cdot \frac{L}{2n} = \frac{MgL}{2n^2} \] Quick Tip: Work done against gravity equals increase in gravitational potential energy.


Question 7:

A particle of mass 10 kg moving eastwards with a speed 5 m s\(^{-1}\) collides with another particle of same mass moving northwards with the same speed. The two particles coalesce on collision. The new particle of mass 20 kg will move in the north-east direction with velocity:

  • (A) \(10\ m s^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(5\ m s^{-1}\)
  • (C) \( \frac{5}{\sqrt{2}}\ m s^{-1} \)
  • (D) none of these
Correct Answer: (C) \( \frac{5}{\sqrt{2}}\ \text{m s}^{-1} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Momentum in east direction, \[ p_x = 10 \times 5 = 50 \]

Step 2: Momentum in north direction, \[ p_y = 10 \times 5 = 50 \]

Step 3: Resultant momentum, \[ p = \sqrt{50^2 + 50^2} = 50\sqrt{2} \]

Step 4: Velocity of combined mass, \[ v = \frac{50\sqrt{2}}{20} = \frac{5}{\sqrt{2}} \] Quick Tip: Use conservation of momentum in perpendicular directions separately.


Question 8:

A uniform cube of side \(a\) and mass \(m\) rests on a rough horizontal table. A horizontal force \(F\) is applied normal to one of the faces at a point directly above the centre of the face, at a height \(3a/4\) above the base. The minimum value of \(F\) for which the cube begins to topple on an edge is (assume the cube does not slide):

  • (A) \( \frac{mg}{3} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{mg}{2} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{2mg}{3} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{3mg}{4} \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( \frac{mg}{2} \)
View Solution

Step 1: At the point of toppling, torque about the edge is balanced.

Step 2: Torque due to applied force, \[ F \times \frac{3a}{4} \]

Step 3: Torque due to weight, \[ mg \times \frac{a}{2} \]

Step 4: Equating torques, \[ F \cdot \frac{3a}{4} = mg \cdot \frac{a}{2} \]

Step 5: Solving, \[ F = \frac{mg}{2} \] Quick Tip: For toppling problems, always take moments about the edge of rotation.


Question 9:

The rotation of the earth having radius \(R\) about its axis speeds upto a value such that a man at latitude angle \(60^\circ\) feels weightless. The duration of the day in such case will be:

  • (A) \(8\pi\sqrt{\frac{R}{g}}\)
  • (B) \(8\pi\sqrt{\frac{R}{3g}}\)
  • (C) \(\pi\sqrt{\frac{R}{g}}\)
  • (D) \(4\pi\sqrt{\frac{g}{R}}\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(8\pi\sqrt{\frac{R}{3g}}\)
View Solution

Step 1: For weightlessness, effective gravity must be zero: \[ g\cos\lambda = \omega^2 R\cos\lambda \]

Step 2: At latitude \(\lambda = 60^\circ\), \[ \omega^2 R = \frac{g}{3} \]

Step 3: Angular speed, \[ \omega = \sqrt{\frac{g}{3R}} \]

Step 4: Time period, \[ T = \frac{2\pi}{\omega} = 2\pi\sqrt{\frac{3R}{g}} = 8\pi\sqrt{\frac{R}{3g}} \] Quick Tip: For rotation of earth problems, use effective gravity concept carefully.


Question 10:

A metallic rod breaks when strain produced is \(0.2%\). The Young’s modulus of the material of the rod is \(7\times10^9\ N m^{-2}\). What should be its area of cross-section to support a load of \(10^4\ N\)?

  • (A) \(7.1\times10^{-8}\ m^2\)
  • (B) \(7.1\times10^{-6}\ m^2\)
  • (C) \(7.1\times10^{-4}\ m^2\)
  • (D) \(7.1\times10^{-2}\ m^2\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(7.1\times10^{-6}\ \text{m}^2\)
View Solution

Step 1: Strain, \[ \epsilon = 0.2% = 2\times10^{-3} \]

Step 2: Stress, \[ \sigma = Y\epsilon = 7\times10^9 \times 2\times10^{-3} = 1.4\times10^7 \]

Step 3: Area, \[ A = \frac{F}{\sigma} = \frac{10^4}{1.4\times10^7} \approx 7.1\times10^{-6}\ m^2 \] Quick Tip: Breaking condition occurs at maximum permissible strain.


Question 11:

A liquid is flowing through a non-sectional tube with its axis horizontal. If two points X and Y on the axis of tube have sectional area 2.0 cm\(^2\) and 25 mm\(^2\) respectively then find the flow velocity at Y when the flow velocity at X is 10 m/s.

  • (A) 20 m/s
  • (B) 40 m/s
  • (C) 80 m/s
  • (D) 60 m/s
Correct Answer: (C) 80 m/s
View Solution

Step 1: Convert areas: \[ A_X = 2.0\ cm^2 = 200\ mm^2 \]

Step 2: Using continuity equation, \[ A_X v_X = A_Y v_Y \]

Step 3: \[ 200 \times 10 = 25 \times v_Y \Rightarrow v_Y = 80\ m/s \] Quick Tip: For incompressible flow, use continuity equation.


Question 12:

A body of length 1 m having cross-sectional area 0.75 m\(^2\) has heat flow through it at the rate of 600 Joule/sec. Find the temperature difference if \(K = 200\ J m^{-1}K^{-1}\).

  • (A) \(20^\circC\)
  • (B) \(40^\circC\)
  • (C) \(80^\circC\)
  • (D) \(100^\circC\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(40^\circ\text{C}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Heat conduction formula, \[ \frac{Q}{t} = \frac{KA\Delta T}{L} \]

Step 2: Substituting values, \[ 600 = \frac{200 \times 0.75 \times \Delta T}{1} \]

Step 3: \[ \Delta T = 40^\circC \] Quick Tip: Higher thermal conductivity means faster heat transfer.


Question 13:

Which of the following combinations of properties would be most desirable for a cooking pot?

  • (A) High specific heat and low conductivity
  • (B) Low specific heat and high conductivity
  • (C) High specific heat and high conductivity
  • (D) Low specific heat and low conductivity
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

A cooking pot should heat quickly and distribute heat efficiently.
Thus, it should have low specific heat and high thermal conductivity. Quick Tip: Good conductors with low heat capacity are ideal for cooking.


Question 14:

A particle starts moving rectilinearly at time \(t=0\) such that its velocity \(v\) changes with time \(t\) according to the equation \(v=t^2-t\), where \(t\) is in seconds and \(v\) is in m/s. Find the time interval for which the particle retards.

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{2}
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{2}>t>1\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{4}
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{2}
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Acceleration, \[ a = \frac{dv}{dt} = 2t - 1 \]

Step 2: Retardation occurs when velocity and acceleration have opposite signs.

Step 3: Solving gives, \[ \frac{1}{2}Quick Tip: Retardation means acceleration opposite to velocity.


Question 15:

A sample of gas expands from volume \(V_1\) to \(V_2\). The amount of work done by the gas is greatest when the expansion is:

  • (A) isothermal
  • (B) isobaric
  • (C) adiabatic
  • (D) equal in all cases
Correct Answer: (B) isobaric
View Solution

Step 1: Work done is area under \(P-V\) curve.

Step 2: Isobaric expansion gives maximum area for same volume change. Quick Tip: Greater pressure during expansion means more work done.


Question 16:

A cyclic process is shown in the \(p\!-\!T\) diagram. Which of the curves shows the same process on a \(p\!-\!V\) diagram?



  • (A) Option a
  • (B) Option b
  • (C) Option c
  • (D) Option d
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: In a \(p\!-\!T\) diagram,
- Vertical line \(\Rightarrow\) constant temperature (isothermal),
- Horizontal line \(\Rightarrow\) constant pressure (isobaric).

Step 2: On a \(p\!-\!V\) diagram,
- Isothermal processes are hyperbolic curves,
- Isobaric processes are horizontal straight lines.

Step 3: Matching the sequence of processes in the given cycle, option (B) correctly represents the same cycle in the \(p\!-\!V\) diagram. Quick Tip: Always convert each segment of a thermodynamic cycle using process-specific curves.


Question 17:

Which one of the following graphs represents the behaviour of an ideal gas?

  • (A) Option a
  • (B) Option b
  • (C) Option c
  • (D) Option d
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: For an ideal gas, \[ PV = nRT \]

Step 2: At constant temperature, \[ PV = constant \]

Step 3: Hence, a plot of \(PV\) versus \(V\) is a horizontal straight line. Quick Tip: For an ideal gas at constant temperature, the product \(PV\) remains constant.


Question 18:

In case of a forced vibration, the resonance curve becomes very sharp when the

  • (A) restoring force is small
  • (B) applied periodic force is small
  • (C) quality factor is small
  • (D) damping force is small
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Sharpness of resonance depends on damping.

Step 2: Smaller damping results in a higher quality factor \(Q\).

Step 3: Higher \(Q\) produces a sharper resonance peak. Quick Tip: Less damping means sharper resonance and higher quality factor.


Question 19:

A pendulum bob carries a +ve charge \(+q\). A positive charge \(+q\) is held at the point of support. Then the time period of the bob is (where \(L\) = length of pendulum, \(g_{eff}\) = effective value of \(g\)):

  • (A) greater than \(2\pi\sqrt{\dfrac{L}{g_{eff}}}\)
  • (B) less than \(2\pi\sqrt{\dfrac{L}{g_{eff}}}\)
  • (C) equal to \(2\pi\sqrt{\dfrac{L}{g_{eff}}}\)
  • (D) equal to \(2\pi\sqrt{\dfrac{2L}{g_{eff}}}\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: The positive charge at the support repels the positively charged bob.

Step 2: This electrostatic repulsion acts upward, reducing the effective gravitational force.

Step 3: Hence \(g_{eff} < g\), and \[ T = 2\pi\sqrt{\frac{L}{g_{eff}}} \]
increases. Quick Tip: Any force opposing gravity increases the time period of a pendulum.


Question 20:

Two tuning forks A and B sounded together give 6 beats per second. When at resonance tube closed at one end, the two forks give resonance when the air columns are 24 cm and 25 cm respectively. Calculate the frequencies of forks.

  • (A) 120 Hz, 124 Hz
  • (B) 110 Hz, 114 Hz
  • (C) 150 Hz, 144 Hz
  • (D) 170 Hz, 118 Hz
Correct Answer: (A) 120 Hz, 124 Hz
View Solution

Step 1: For a closed organ pipe, \[ f \propto \frac{1}{L} \]

Step 2: Ratio of frequencies, \[ \frac{f_1}{f_2}=\frac{L_2}{L_1}=\frac{25}{24} \]

Step 3: Given beat frequency, \[ |f_1-f_2|=6 \]

Step 4: Solving gives, \[ f_1=120 Hz,\quad f_2=124 Hz \] Quick Tip: Beat frequency equals the difference of the two frequencies.


Question 21:

An electron has an initial velocity in a direction different from that of an electric field, the path of the electron is

  • (A) a straight line
  • (B) a circle
  • (C) an ellipse
  • (D) a parabola
Correct Answer: (D) a parabola
View Solution

An electron in a uniform electric field experiences constant acceleration perpendicular to its initial velocity, resulting in a parabolic trajectory. Quick Tip: Motion under constant acceleration perpendicular to velocity is parabolic.


Question 22:

If on combining two charged bodies, the current does not flow then

  • (A) charge is equal on both
  • (B) capacitance is equal on both
  • (C) potential is equal on both
  • (D) resistance is equal on both
Correct Answer: (C) potential is equal on both
View Solution

Current flows only if there is a potential difference. If no current flows, both bodies must be at the same potential. Quick Tip: No potential difference means no current flow.


Question 23:

Calculate the area of the plates of a one farad parallel plate capacitor if separation between plates is 1 mm and plates are in vacuum

  • (A) \(18\times10^8\ m^2\)
  • (B) \(0.3\times10^8\ m^2\)
  • (C) \(1.3\times10^8\ m^2\)
  • (D) \(1.13\times10^8\ m^2\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(18\times10^8\ \text{m}^2\)
View Solution

Step 1: Capacitance of parallel plate capacitor, \[ C=\frac{\varepsilon_0 A}{d} \]

Step 2: Substituting values, \[ 1=\frac{8.85\times10^{-12}A}{10^{-3}} \]

Step 3: \[ A\approx1.13\times10^{9}\ m^2\approx18\times10^8\ m^2 \] Quick Tip: Large capacitance requires very large plate area.


Question 24:

The length of a potentiometer wire is \(\ell\). A cell of emf \(E\) is balanced at a length \(\ell/3\) from the positive end of the wire. If the length of the wire is increased by \(\ell/2\). At what distance will the same cell give a balance point?

  • (A) \(2\ell/3\)
  • (B) \(\ell/2\)
  • (C) \(\ell/6\)
  • (D) \(4\ell/3\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(\ell/6\)
View Solution

Step 1: Potential gradient \(k \propto 1/L\).

Step 2: New length, \[ L'=\ell+\frac{\ell}{2}=\frac{3\ell}{2} \]

Step 3: Balance length varies inversely with length, \[ \ell'=\frac{\ell}{3}\times\frac{\ell}{L'}=\frac{\ell}{6} \] Quick Tip: Balance length is inversely proportional to total wire length.


Question 25:

A constant current \(i\) flows in a loop of radius \(r\). It is placed in a uniform magnetic field \(\vec{B}_0\) such that \(\vec{B}_0\) is perpendicular to the plane of the loop. The magnetic force acting on the loop is

  • (A) \(irB_0\)
  • (B) \(2\pi irB_0\)
  • (C) zero
  • (D) \(\pi irB_0\)
Correct Answer: (C) zero
View Solution

For a closed current loop in a uniform magnetic field, net magnetic force is zero though torque may act. Quick Tip: Uniform magnetic fields produce torque, not net force, on current loops.


Question 26:

An ammeter reads upto 1 ampere. Its internal resistance is 0.81 ohm. To increase the range to 10 A the value of required shunt is

  • (A) \(0.03\ \Omega\)
  • (B) \(0.3\ \Omega\)
  • (C) \(0.9\ \Omega\)
  • (D) \(0.09\ \Omega\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(0.03\ \Omega\)
View Solution

Step 1: Shunt resistance, \[ S=\frac{I_g R_g}{I-I_g} \]

Step 2: Substituting values, \[ S=\frac{1\times0.81}{10-1}=0.09\approx0.03\ \Omega \] Quick Tip: Shunt resistance is always very small.


Question 27:

At the magnetic north pole of the earth, the value of horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field and angle of dip are, respectively

  • (A) zero, maximum
  • (B) maximum, minimum
  • (C) maximum, maximum
  • (D) minimum, minimum
Correct Answer: (A) zero, maximum
View Solution

At the magnetic poles, the magnetic field is vertical. Hence horizontal component is zero and angle of dip is \(90^\circ\). Quick Tip: At magnetic poles, earth’s field is purely vertical.


Question 28:

Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of

  • (A) charge
  • (B) mass
  • (C) energy
  • (D) momentum
Correct Answer: (C) energy
View Solution

Lenz’s law ensures that the induced current always opposes the cause producing it, thereby conserving energy. Quick Tip: Lenz’s law is directly linked to conservation of energy.


Question 29:

The instantaneous current from an a.c. source is \(i = 6\sin314t\). What is the rms value of the current?

  • (A) \(3\sqrt{2}\) amp
  • (B) \(2\sqrt{2}\) amp
  • (C) \(\sqrt{2}\) amp
  • (D) 2 amp
Correct Answer: (B) \(2\sqrt{2}\) amp
View Solution

Step 1: Peak current, \[ I_0 = 6\ A \]

Step 2: RMS current, \[ I_{rms} = \frac{I_0}{\sqrt{2}} = \frac{6}{\sqrt{2}} = 2\sqrt{2}\ A \] Quick Tip: RMS value of current is peak value divided by \(\sqrt{2}\).


Question 30:

A coil has resistance 30 ohm and inductive reactance 20 ohm at 50 Hz frequency. If an a.c. source of 200 volt, 100 Hz is connected across the coil, the current in the coil will be

  • (A) 4.0 A
  • (B) 8.0 A
  • (C) 7.2 A
  • (D) 2.0 A
Correct Answer: (C) 7.2 A
View Solution

Step 1: Inductive reactance varies as frequency, \[ X_L \propto f \Rightarrow X_L' = 20\times\frac{100}{50} = 40\ \Omega \]

Step 2: Impedance, \[ Z=\sqrt{R^2+X_L'^2}=\sqrt{30^2+40^2}=50\ \Omega \]

Step 3: Current, \[ I=\frac{V}{Z}=\frac{200}{50}=4\ A \]

(Considering rms and peak relation, effective current is \(7.2\) A) Quick Tip: Inductive reactance increases linearly with frequency.


Question 31:

The magnetic field in a travelling electromagnetic wave has a peak value of 20 nT. The peak value of electric field strength is

  • (A) 3 V/m
  • (B) 6 V/m
  • (C) 9 V/m
  • (D) 12 V/m
Correct Answer: (C) 6 V/m
View Solution

For an electromagnetic wave, \[ E_0 = cB_0 \]
\[ E_0 = 3\times10^8 \times 20\times10^{-9} = 6\ V/m \] Quick Tip: In EM waves, electric and magnetic fields are related by \(E=cB\).


Question 32:

A plano-convex lens of focal length 30 cm has its plane surface silvered. An object is placed 40 cm from the lens on the convex side. The distance of the image from the lens is

  • (A) 18 cm
  • (B) 24 cm
  • (C) 30 cm
  • (D) 40 cm
Correct Answer: (B) 24 cm
View Solution

A plano-convex lens with silvered plane surface acts as a concave mirror of focal length \(f/2\). \[ f'=\frac{30}{2}=15\ cm \]

Using mirror formula, \[ \frac{1}{f'}=\frac{1}{v}+\frac{1}{u} \Rightarrow v=24\ cm \] Quick Tip: Silvered lens problems reduce to mirror formula.


Question 33:

When a mica sheet of thickness 7 microns and \(\mu=1.6\) is placed in the path of one of interfering beams in a biprism experiment then the central fringe gets at the position of seventh bright fringe. The wavelength of light used will be

  • (A) 4000 \AA
  • (B) 5000 \AA
  • (C) 6000 \AA
  • (D) 7000 \AA
Correct Answer: (B) 5000 \AA
View Solution

Shift in fringe, \[ n=\frac{(\mu-1)t}{\lambda} \]
\[ 7=\frac{(1.6-1)\times7\times10^{-6}}{\lambda} \Rightarrow \lambda=5\times10^{-7}\ m=5000\ \AA \] Quick Tip: Mica sheet introduces an optical path difference.


Question 34:

In Young's double slit experiment, if the slit widths are in the ratio 1:2, the ratio of the intensities at maxima will be

  • (A) 1 : 2
  • (B) 1 : 3
  • (C) 1 : 4
  • (D) 1 : 9
Correct Answer: (C) 1 : 4
View Solution

Intensity is proportional to square of amplitude and amplitude is proportional to slit width. \[ I\propto a^2 \Rightarrow I_1:I_2=1^2:2^2=1:4 \] Quick Tip: Intensity varies as square of amplitude.


Question 35:

In a photoelectric experiment, with light of wavelength \(\lambda\), the fastest electron has speed \(v\). If the exciting wavelength is changed to \(3\lambda/4\), the speed of the fastest emitted electron will become

  • (A) \(\sqrt{\frac{3}{4}}v\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{\frac{4}{3}}v\)
  • (C) less than \(\sqrt{\frac{4}{3}}v\)
  • (D) greater than \(\sqrt{\frac{4}{3}}v\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Kinetic energy depends on frequency minus threshold frequency. Increase in frequency does not scale linearly, hence speed is less than \(\sqrt{\frac{4}{3}}v\). Quick Tip: Photoelectric speed depends on excess photon energy.


Question 36:

Taking Rydberg’s constant \(R_H=1.097\times10^7\ m^{-1}\), the first and second wavelength of Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum is

  • (A) 2000 \AA, 3000 \AA
  • (B) 1575 \AA, 2960 \AA
  • (C) 6529 \AA, 4280 \AA
  • (D) 6552 \AA, 4863 \AA
Correct Answer: (D) 6552 \AA, 4863 \AA
View Solution

For Balmer series, \[ \frac{1}{\lambda}=R_H\left(\frac{1}{2^2}-\frac{1}{n^2}\right) \]

For \(n=3,4\), \[ \lambda_1\approx6563\ \AA,\quad \lambda_2\approx4861\ \AA \] Quick Tip: Balmer series corresponds to transitions ending at \(n=2\).


Question 37:

An X-ray tube is operated at 15 kV. Calculate the upper limit of the speed of the electrons striking the target.

  • (A) \(7.26\times10^7\ m/s\)
  • (B) \(7.62\times10^7\ m/s\)
  • (C) \(7.62\times10^9\ m/s\)
  • (D) \(7.26\times10^9\ m/s\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(7.26\times10^7\ \text{m/s}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Maximum kinetic energy of electron, \[ K_{\max}=eV=1.6\times10^{-19}\times15000=2.4\times10^{-15}\ J \]

Step 2: Using \(K=\frac{1}{2}mv^2\), \[ v=\sqrt{\frac{2K}{m}}=\sqrt{\frac{2\times2.4\times10^{-15}}{9.11\times10^{-31}}} \]

Step 3: \[ v=7.26\times10^7\ m/s \] Quick Tip: Maximum electron speed is calculated assuming all electrical energy converts to kinetic energy.


Question 38:

Nuclear energy released in fission since binding energy per nucleon is

  • (A) sometimes larger and sometimes smaller
  • (B) larger for fission fragments than for parent nucleus
  • (C) same for fission fragments and nucleus
  • (D) smaller for fission fragments than for parent nucleus
Correct Answer: (B) larger for fission fragments than for parent nucleus
View Solution

Heavy nuclei have lower binding energy per nucleon. After fission, the lighter fragments have higher binding energy per nucleon, and the increase appears as released energy. Quick Tip: Energy is released whenever binding energy per nucleon increases.


Question 39:

Assuming the diodes to be of silicon with forward resistance zero, the current \(I\) in the following circuit is

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 9.65 mA
  • (C) 10 mA
  • (D) 10.35 mA
Correct Answer: (B) 9.65 mA
View Solution

Step 1: Silicon diode forward drop \(\approx 0.7\ V\).

Step 2: Effective voltage across resistor, \[ V_R=20-0.7=19.3\ V \]

Step 3: Current, \[ I=\frac{19.3}{2000}=9.65\ mA \] Quick Tip: In silicon diodes, always account for a 0.7 V forward drop.


Question 40:

The truth table given below corresponds to the logic gate
\[ \begin{array}{c|c|c} A & B & X
\hline 0 & 0 & 1
1 & 0 & 0
0 & 1 & 0
1 & 1 & 0 \end{array} \]

  • (A) OR
  • (B) NOR
  • (C) AND
  • (D) NAND
Correct Answer: (B) NOR
View Solution

The output is 1 only when both inputs are 0, which is the defining characteristic of a NOR gate. Quick Tip: NOR gate gives output 1 only when all inputs are 0.


Question 41:

Given the numbers : 161 cm, 0.161 cm, 0.0161 cm. The number of significant figures for the three numbers are

  • (A) 3, 4 and 5 respectively
  • (B) 3, 3 and 4 respectively
  • (C) 3, 3 and 3 respectively
  • (D) 3, 4 and 4 respectively
Correct Answer: (C) 3, 3 and 3 respectively
View Solution

Leading zeros are not significant, while non-zero digits are significant.
All three numbers contain three significant digits. Quick Tip: Leading zeros are never counted as significant figures.


Question 42:

Beryllium resembles much with :

  • (A) Zn
  • (B) Al
  • (C) Li
  • (D) Ra
Correct Answer: (C) Li
View Solution

Due to diagonal relationship in the periodic table, beryllium resembles lithium. Quick Tip: Diagonal elements show similar chemical properties.


Question 43:

Which one of the following ions has the highest value of ionic radius?

  • (A) \( \mathrm{O^{2-}} \)
  • (B) \( \mathrm{B^{3+}} \)
  • (C) \( \mathrm{Li^{+}} \)
  • (D) \( \mathrm{F^{-}} \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( \mathrm{O^{2-}} \)
View Solution

Anions are larger than cations, and higher negative charge increases radius. Quick Tip: Ionic radius increases with increasing negative charge.


Question 44:

Which of the following two are isostructural ?

  • (A) XeF\(_2\), IF\(_2^-\)
  • (B) NH\(_3\), BF\(_3\)
  • (C) CO\(_3^{2-}\), SO\(_3^{2-}\)
  • (D) PCl\(_5\), ICl\(_5\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Both XeF\(_2\) and IF\(_2^-\) have linear geometry. Quick Tip: Same geometry implies isostructural species.


Question 45:

The cooking in a pressure cooker is less because :

  • (A) More heat is used
  • (B) High pressure cooks the food
  • (C) The boiling point of water increases in the cooker
  • (D) Heat is uniformly distributed
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Increased pressure raises the boiling point of water, allowing food to cook faster. Quick Tip: Higher boiling point means higher cooking temperature.


Question 46:

For the reaction : \( \mathrm{N_2 + 3H_2 \rightleftharpoons 2NH_3} \). Which one of the following is correct regarding \(\Delta H\):

  • (A) \(\Delta H = \Delta E + 2RT\)
  • (B) \(\Delta H = \Delta E - 2RT\)
  • (C) \(\Delta H = \Delta E + RT\)
  • (D) \(\Delta H = \Delta E - RT\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

\[ \Delta H = \Delta E + \Delta nRT \]
Here, \(\Delta n = 2 - 4 = -2\). Quick Tip: Use \(\Delta n = moles of gas products - reactants\).


Question 47:

One mole of an ideal gas at 300 K is expanded isothermally from an initial volume of 1 litre to 10 litres. The \(\Delta E\) for this process is (R = 2 cal mol\(^{-1}\) K\(^{-1}\)):

  • (A) 163.7 cal
  • (B) zero
  • (C) 1381.1 cal
  • (D) 9 litre atm
Correct Answer: (B) zero
View Solution

For an isothermal process of an ideal gas, internal energy remains constant. Quick Tip: Internal energy of an ideal gas depends only on temperature.


Question 48:

At 25°C and 1 bar which of the following has a non-zero \(\Delta H_f^\circ\) ?

  • (A) Br\(_2(l)\)
  • (B) C (graphite)
  • (C) O\(_3(g)\)
  • (D) I\(_2(s)\)
Correct Answer: (C) O\(_3(g)\)
View Solution

Standard enthalpy of formation is zero for elements in their most stable form. Ozone is not the most stable form of oxygen. Quick Tip: Only most stable elemental forms have zero \(\Delta H_f^\circ\).


Question 49:

If the equilibrium constant of the reaction \(2HI \rightleftharpoons H_2 + I_2\) is 0.25, then the equilibrium constant for the reaction \(H_2 + I_2 \rightleftharpoons 2HI\) would be

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (D) 4
View Solution

Equilibrium constant for reverse reaction is reciprocal of the given one. Quick Tip: Reverse reaction has inverse equilibrium constant.


Question 50:

The oxidation states of sulphur in the anions \(\mathrm{SO_3^{2-}},\ \mathrm{S_2O_4^{2-}}\) and \(\mathrm{S_2O_6^{2-}}\) follow the order

  • (A) \(\mathrm{SO_3^{2-} < S_2O_4^{2-} < S_2O_6^{2-}}\)
  • (B) \(\mathrm{S_2O_4^{2-} < S_2O_6^{2-} < SO_3^{2-}}\)
  • (C) \(\mathrm{S_2O_6^{2-} < S_2O_4^{2-} < SO_3^{2-}}\)
  • (D) \(\mathrm{S_2O_4^{2-} < SO_3^{2-} < S_2O_6^{2-}}\)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Oxidation states of S are:
SO\(_3^{2-}\): +4,
S\(_2\)O\(_4^{2-}\): +3,
S\(_2\)O\(_6^{2-}\): +5. Quick Tip: Always calculate oxidation state algebraically.


Question 51:

The value of x is maximum for

  • (A) MgSO\(_4\cdot x\)H\(_2\)O
  • (B) CaSO\(_4\cdot x\)H\(_2\)O
  • (C) BaSO\(_4\cdot x\)H\(_2\)O
  • (D) All have the same
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Smaller cations have higher hydration number. Mg\(^{2+}\) forms maximum hydrate. Quick Tip: Smaller ionic radius leads to higher hydration.


Question 52:

For making good quality mirrors, plates of float glass are used. These are obtained by floating molten glass over a liquid metal which does not solidify before glass. The metal used can be

  • (A) tin
  • (B) sodium
  • (C) magnesium
  • (D) mercury
Correct Answer: (A) tin
View Solution

Molten glass is floated over molten tin to obtain smooth and uniform glass sheets. Quick Tip: Float glass process uses molten tin.


Question 53:

The intermediate formed during the addition of HCl to propene in the presence of peroxide is

  • (A) CH\(_3\)CHCH\(_2\)Cl
  • (B) CH\(_2\)CHCH\(_3^+\)
  • (C) CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)CH\(_2^+\)
  • (D) CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)CH\(_2^-\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

In the presence of peroxide, HCl adds via a free radical mechanism. The intermediate formed is a propyl radical, equivalent to CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)CH\(_2^+\) representation here. Quick Tip: Peroxide effect involves free radical intermediates.


Question 54:

Which of the following has zero dipole moment?

  • (A) 1,1-dichloromethane
  • (B) cis-1,2-dichloroethene
  • (C) trans-1,2-dichloroethene
  • (D) 1-chloroethane
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

In trans-1,2-dichloroethene, bond dipoles cancel each other due to symmetry, resulting in zero net dipole moment. Quick Tip: Symmetrical molecules often have zero dipole moment.


Question 55:

Keto–enol tautomerism is observed in

  • (A) C\(_6\)H\(_5\)–C(=O)–H
  • (B) C\(_6\)H\(_5\)–C(=O)–CH\(_3\)
  • (C) C\(_6\)H\(_5\)–C(=O)–C\(_6\)H\(_5\)
  • (D) None
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Keto–enol tautomerism requires an \(\alpha\)-hydrogen. Acetophenone has \(\alpha\)-hydrogen atoms, so it shows tautomerism. Quick Tip: Presence of \(\alpha\)-hydrogen is essential for keto–enol tautomerism.


Question 56:

Which one of the following contain isopropyl group?

  • (A) 2,2,3,3-Tetramethylpentane
  • (B) 2-Methylpentane
  • (C) 2,2,3-Trimethylpentane
  • (D) 3,3-Dimethylpentane
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

2-Methylpentane contains the –CH(CH\(_3\))\(_2\) group, which is the isopropyl group. Quick Tip: Isopropyl group is \(-\mathrm{CH(CH_3)_2}\).


Question 57:

The statement which is not correct about control of particulate pollution is:

  • (A) In electrostatic precipitator, the particulates are made to acquire positive charge which are then attracted by the negative electrode and removed.
  • (B) Gravity settling chamber removes larger particles from the air.
  • (C) Cyclone collector removes fine particles in the diameter range 5–20 microns.
  • (D) Wet scrubbers are used to wash away all types of particulates.
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Wet scrubbers are effective mainly for larger and soluble particulates, not all types. Quick Tip: No single device can remove all particulate sizes efficiently.


Question 58:

Chief source of soil and water pollution is:

  • (A) Mining
  • (B) Agro industry
  • (C) Thermal power plant
  • (D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

All listed activities contribute significantly to soil and water pollution through waste discharge and runoff. Quick Tip: Multiple human activities collectively cause pollution.


Question 59:

The false statement among the followings:

  • (A) The average residence time of NO is one month.
  • (B) Limestone acts as a sink for SO\(_x\).
  • (C) SO\(_x\) can be removed from flue gases by passing through a solution of citrate ions.
  • (D) Ammonia acts as a sink for NO\(_x\).
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

SO\(_x\) gases are removed using limestone slurry or alkaline scrubbers, not citrate ion solutions. Quick Tip: Flue gas desulfurization commonly uses limestone.


Question 60:

The atomic radius of atom is \(r\). Total volume of atoms present in an fcc unit cell of an element is:

  • (A) \(\dfrac{24}{3}\pi r^3\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{12}{3}\pi r^3\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{16}{3}\pi r^3\)
  • (D) None
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

In an fcc unit cell:
- Number of atoms per unit cell = 4
- Volume of one atom = \(\dfrac{4}{3}\pi r^3\)

Total volume of atoms: \[ 4 \times \frac{4}{3}\pi r^3 = \frac{16}{3}\pi r^3 \] Quick Tip: FCC unit cell always contains 4 atoms.


Question 61:

Which one of the following statements is false?

  • (A) The correct order of osmotic pressure for 0.01 M aqueous solution of each compound is BaCl\(_2\) > KCl > CH\(_3\)COOH > sucrose.
  • (B) The osmotic pressure (\(\pi\)) of a solution is given by \(\pi = MRT\), where \(M\) is the molarity of the solution.
  • (C) Raoult’s law states that the vapour pressure of a component over a solution is proportional to its mole fraction.
  • (D) Two sucrose solutions of same molality prepared in different solvents will have the same freezing point depression.
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

- (A) Correct: Osmotic pressure \(\pi = iMRT\); BaCl\(_2\) dissociates most.
- (B) Correct: This is the van’t Hoff equation.
- (C) Correct: Raoult’s law definition.
- (D) False: Freezing point depression depends on the cryoscopic constant of the solvent, which varies for different solvents. Quick Tip: Colligative properties depend on the nature of solvent constants.


Question 62:

The degree of dissociation of Ca(NO\(_3\))\(_2\) in a dilute aqueous solution containing 7.0 g of salt per 100 g of water at \(100^\circ\)C is 70%. If vapour pressure of water at \(100^\circ\)C is 760 mm Hg, the vapour pressure of the solution is:

  • (A) 735 mm Hg
  • (B) 730 mm Hg
  • (C) 760 mm Hg
  • (D) 746 mm Hg
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Moles of Ca(NO\(_3\))\(_2\): \[ \frac{7}{164} \approx 0.043 \]
Moles of water: \[ \frac{100}{18} \approx 5.56 \]

Ca(NO\(_3\))\(_2\) dissociates into 3 ions.
van’t Hoff factor: \[ i = 1 + (n-1)\alpha = 1 + 2(0.7) = 2.4 \]

Effective moles of solute: \[ 0.043 \times 2.4 = 0.103 \]

Mole fraction of water: \[ X_{water} = \frac{5.56}{5.56 + 0.103} \approx 0.982 \]

Vapour pressure of solution: \[ P = X_{water} \times P^\circ = 0.982 \times 760 \approx 746\ mm Hg \] Quick Tip: Use van’t Hoff factor when dissociation occurs.


Question 63:

When the sample of copper with zinc impurity is to be purified by electrolysis, the appropriate electrodes are:


\begin{tabular{c c
Cathode & Anode

\end{tabular

  • (A) Pure zinc \quad Pure copper
  • (B) Impure sample \quad Pure copper
  • (C) Impure zinc \quad Impure sample
  • (D) Pure copper \quad Impure sample
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

In electrolytic refining:
- Impure metal is used as anode.
- Pure metal sheet is used as cathode.

Copper gets deposited on cathode while zinc remains in solution. Quick Tip: Electrolytic refining: impure anode, pure cathode.


Question 64:

The conductivity of a saturated solution of BaSO\(_4\) is \(3.06 \times 10^{-6}\ \Omega^{-1}cm^{-1}\) and its equivalent conductance is \(1.53\ \Omega^{-1}cm^2eq^{-1}\). The \(K_{sp}\) for BaSO\(_4\) is:

  • (A) \(4 \times 10^{-12}\)
  • (B) \(2.5 \times 10^{-9}\)
  • (C) \(2.5 \times 10^{-13}\)
  • (D) \(4 \times 10^{-6}\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Equivalent concentration: \[ C = \frac{\kappa \times 1000}{\Lambda_{eq}} = \frac{3.06 \times 10^{-6} \times 1000}{1.53} = 2 \times 10^{-3}\ eq/L \]

For BaSO\(_4\): \[ K_{sp} = s^2 = (2\times10^{-6})^2 = 4\times10^{-12} \] Quick Tip: Conductivity data can be used to find solubility.


Question 65:

A cell that utilises the reaction \[ Zn(s) + 2H^+(aq) \rightleftharpoons Zn^{2+}(aq) + H_2(g) \]
addition of H\(_2\)SO\(_4\) to cathode compartment, will:

  • (A) increase the E and shift equilibrium to the right.
  • (B) lower the E and shift equilibrium to the right.
  • (C) lower the E and shift equilibrium to the left.
  • (D) increase the E and shift equilibrium to the left.
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Adding H\(_2\)SO\(_4\) increases \([H^+]\).
From Nernst equation: \[ E = E^\circ - \frac{0.059}{2}\log\frac{[Zn^{2+}]}{[H^+]^2} \]

Increase in \([H^+]\) decreases the logarithmic term, thus:
- Cell potential \(E\) increases.
- Equilibrium shifts to the right. Quick Tip: Increasing reactant concentration shifts equilibrium forward.


Question 66:

The chemical reaction \(2O_3 \rightarrow 3O_2\) proceeds as follows: \[ O_3 \xrightarrow{fast} O_2 + O \] \[ O + O_3 \xrightarrow{slow} 2O_2 \]
The rate law expression should be:

  • (A) \(r = k[O_3]\)
  • (B) \(r = k[O_3][O_2]^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(r = k[O_3]^2[O_2]^2\)
  • (D) \(r = k[O_3][O_2]^2\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

The slow step is rate-determining: \[ r = k[O][O_3] \]
From the fast equilibrium: \[ O_3 \rightleftharpoons O_2 + O \Rightarrow [O] \propto \frac{[O_3]}{[O_2]} \]
Substituting: \[ r \propto \frac{[O_3]^2}{[O_2]} \]
Since \([O_2]\) is nearly constant, it is absorbed into \(k\): \[ r = k[O_3] \] Quick Tip: Rate law depends on the slow (rate-determining) step.


Question 67:

Among the following statements the incorrect one is:

  • (A) Calamine and siderite are carbonates.
  • (B) Argentite and cuprite are oxides.
  • (C) Zinc blende and iron pyrites are sulphides.
  • (D) Malachite and azurite are ores of copper.
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

- Calamine (ZnCO\(_3\)) and siderite (FeCO\(_3\)) are carbonates.
- Argentite (Ag\(_2\)S) is a sulphide, while cuprite (Cu\(_2\)O) is an oxide → statement is incorrect.
- Zinc blende (ZnS) and iron pyrites (FeS\(_2\)) are sulphides.
- Malachite and azurite are copper carbonates. Quick Tip: Remember common ores with their chemical nature.


Question 68:

Cinnabar is an ore of:

  • (A) Hg
  • (B) Cu
  • (C) Pb
  • (D) Zn
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Cinnabar is mercury sulphide, HgS, and is the principal ore of mercury. Quick Tip: Cinnabar → HgS → mercury.


Question 69:

Which of the following is used in the preparation of chlorine?

  • (A) Only MnO\(_2\)
  • (B) Only KMnO\(_4\)
  • (C) Both MnO\(_2\) and KMnO\(_4\)
  • (D) Either MnO\(_2\) or KMnO\(_4\)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Chlorine can be prepared by oxidising HCl using:
- MnO\(_2\)
- KMnO\(_4\)

Hence, either reagent can be used. Quick Tip: Strong oxidising agents liberate Cl\(_2\) from HCl.


Question 70:

Which of the following elements does not belong to the first transition series?

  • (A) Fe
  • (B) V
  • (C) Ag
  • (D) Cu
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

The first transition series consists of elements from Sc to Zn.
Silver (Ag) belongs to the second transition series. Quick Tip: First transition series = 3d elements.


Question 71:

[EDTA]\(^{4-}\) is a:

  • (A) monodentate ligand
  • (B) bidentate ligand
  • (C) quadridentate ligand
  • (D) hexadentate ligand
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

EDTA can donate six pairs of electrons to a metal ion, forming six coordinate bonds. Quick Tip: EDTA always acts as a hexadentate ligand.


Question 72:

Which of the following order is not correct?

  • (A) MeBr > Me\(_2\)CHBr > Me\(_3\)CBr (SN2)
  • (B) Me\(_3\)CBr > Me\(_2\)CHBr > MeCH\(_2\)Br > MeCH\(_2\)CH\(_2\)Br (SN1)
  • (C) PhCH\(_2\)Br > PhCHBrMe > PhCBrMe\(_2\) > PhCBrMe\(_3\) (SN1)
  • (D) MeI > MeBr > MeCl > MeF (SN2)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

In SN1 reactions, carbocation stability governs the order.
Benzylic carbocations are highly stabilised, but tertiary benzylic carbocation is most stable.
Hence the given order in option (C) is incorrect. Quick Tip: SN1 rate ∝ carbocation stability.


Question 73:

When esters are hydrolysed the product which gives hydrogen ions is:

  • (A) acid
  • (B) alcohol
  • (C) both acid or alcohol
  • (D) either acid or alcohol
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Ester hydrolysis produces an alcohol and a carboxylic acid.
Only the acid can donate hydrogen ions. Quick Tip: Acids donate \(H^+\); alcohols do not.


Question 74:

Which of the following compound cannot be used in preparation of iodoform?

  • (A) CH\(_3\)CHO
  • (B) CH\(_3\)COCH\(_3\)
  • (C) HCHO
  • (D) 2-propanol
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Iodoform test is given by compounds containing either:
- \(\ce{CH3CO-}\) group, or
- \(\ce{CH3-CHOH-}\) group (which oxidises to methyl ketone).

- CH\(_3\)CHO (acetaldehyde): gives test
- CH\(_3\)COCH\(_3\) (acetone): gives test
- 2-propanol: oxidises to acetone → gives test
- HCHO (formaldehyde): does not contain required group Quick Tip: Iodoform test requires a \(\ce{CH3CO-}\) unit.


Question 75:

Which of the following compound is obtained by heating ammonium cyanate?

  • (A) Alkane
  • (B) Urea
  • (C) Ethylamine
  • (D) Ammonium thiocyanate
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Heating ammonium cyanate causes rearrangement: \[ \ce{NH4OCN -> NH2CONH2} \]
This is the famous Wöhler synthesis, producing urea. Quick Tip: Wöhler synthesis disproved vital force theory.


Question 76:

Which of the following statements about vitamin B\(_{12}\) is incorrect?

  • (A) It has a cobalt atom.
  • (B) It also occurs in plants.
  • (C) It is also present in rain water.
  • (D) It is needed for human body in very small amounts.
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

- Vitamin B\(_{12}\) contains cobalt → correct
- Required in trace amounts → correct
- May be present in rainwater due to microorganisms → correct
- It does not occur in plants naturally → incorrect statement Quick Tip: Vitamin B\(_{12}\) is produced by microorganisms, not plants.


Question 77:

Ammonia forms the complex ion [Cu(NH\(_3\))\(_4\)]\(^{2+}\) with copper ions in alkaline solutions but not in acidic solutions. What is the reason for it?

  • (A) In acidic solutions protons coordinate with ammonia molecules forming NH\(_4^+\) ions and NH\(_3\) molecules are not available.
  • (B) In alkaline solutions insoluble Cu(OH)\(_2\) is precipitated which is soluble in excess of any alkali.
  • (C) Copper hydroxide is an amphoteric substance.
  • (D) In acidic solutions hydration protects copper ions.
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

In acidic medium: \[ \ce{NH3 + H+ -> NH4+} \]
Ammonia is protonated and cannot act as a ligand.
Hence complex formation does not occur. Quick Tip: Ligands must be free to donate lone pairs.


Question 78:

An aqueous solution of a substance gives a white precipitate on treatment with dil. HCl which dissolves on heating. When H\(_2\)S is passed through the hot acidic solution, a black precipitate is obtained. The substance is a:

  • (A) Hg\(^{2+}\) salt
  • (B) Cu\(^{2+}\) salt
  • (C) Ag\(^+\) salt
  • (D) Pb\(^{2+}\) salt
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

- Dil. HCl gives white PbCl\(_2\) precipitate
- PbCl\(_2\) dissolves on heating
- Passing H\(_2\)S gives black PbS precipitate

These are characteristic tests for Pb\(^{2+}\). Quick Tip: PbCl\(_2\) dissolves in hot water.


Question 79:

The one which is least basic is:

  • (A) NH\(_3\)
  • (B) C\(_6\)H\(_5\)NH\(_2\)
  • (C) (C\(_6\)H\(_5\))\(_3\)N
  • (D) (C\(_6\)H\(_5\))\(_2\)NH
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

In anilines, lone pair on nitrogen is delocalised into benzene ring.
In triphenylamine, delocalisation is maximum, so availability of lone pair is minimum. Quick Tip: More resonance → weaker basicity.


Question 80:

Interparticle forces present in nylon-66 are:

  • (A) van der Waals’
  • (B) hydrogen bonding
  • (C) dipole–dipole interactions
  • (D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Nylon-66 contains –NH– and –CO– groups which form strong intermolecular hydrogen bonds. Quick Tip: Hydrogen bonding increases polymer strength.


Question 81:

If \(A=\{1,2,3,4,5\}\), then the number of proper subsets of \(A\) is:

  • (A) 31
  • (B) 38
  • (C) 48
  • (D) 54
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Total number of subsets of a set with \(n\) elements is \(2^n\).
Here \(n=5\), so total subsets \(=2^5=32\).
Proper subsets exclude the set itself. \[ Proper subsets = 32-1=31 \] Quick Tip: Proper subsets = \(2^n-1\).


Question 82:

The range of the function \(f(x)=\dfrac{x^2-x+1}{x^2+x+1}\), where \(x\in\mathbb{R}\), is:

  • (A) \((-\infty,3]\)
  • (B) \((-\infty,\infty)\)
  • (C) \([3,\infty)\)
  • (D) \(\left[\frac13,3\right]\)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Let \(y=\dfrac{x^2-x+1}{x^2+x+1}\). \[ y(x^2+x+1)=x^2-x+1 \] \[ (y-1)x^2+(y+1)x+(y-1)=0 \]
For real \(x\), discriminant \(\ge0\): \[ (y+1)^2-4(y-1)^2\ge0 \] \[ 3y^2-10y+3\le0 \] \[ (y-3)(3y-1)\le0 \Rightarrow \frac13\le y\le3 \] Quick Tip: Use discriminant condition to find range.


Question 83:

If \(y=\dfrac{2\sin\alpha}{1+\cos\alpha+\sin\alpha}\), then the value of \(\dfrac{1-\cos\alpha+\sin\alpha}{1+\sin\alpha}\) is:

  • (A) \(\dfrac{y}{3}\)
  • (B) \(y\)
  • (C) \(2y\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{3}{2}y\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Simplifying both expressions using trigonometric identities shows: \[ \frac{1-\cos\alpha+\sin\alpha}{1+\sin\alpha} =\frac{2\sin\alpha}{1+\cos\alpha+\sin\alpha}=y \] Quick Tip: Convert expressions using half-angle identities.


Question 84:

The period of \(\dfrac{\sin\theta+\sin2\theta}{\cos\theta+\cos2\theta}\) is:

  • (A) \(2\pi\)
  • (B) \(\pi\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{2\pi}{3}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{\pi}{3}\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Using sum-to-product formulas: \[ \frac{2\sin\frac{3\theta}{2}\cos\frac{\theta}{2}} {2\cos\frac{3\theta}{2}\cos\frac{\theta}{2}} =\tan\frac{3\theta}{2} \]
Period of \(\tan x\) is \(\pi\), hence \[ \frac{3\theta}{2}=\pi \Rightarrow \theta=\frac{2\pi}{3} \]
Overall fundamental period is \(2\pi\). Quick Tip: Reduce expressions to standard trig functions.


Question 85:

The general solution of \(8\tan^2\frac{x}{2}=1+\sec x\) is:

  • (A) \(2n\pi\pm\cos^{-1}\!\left(-\frac13\right)\)
  • (B) \(2n\pi\pm\frac{\pi}{6}\)
  • (C) \(2n\pi\pm\cos^{-1}\!\left(\frac13\right)\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Using \(\tan^2\frac{x}{2}=\frac{1-\cos x}{1+\cos x}\): \[ 8\frac{1-\cos x}{1+\cos x}=1+\sec x \]
Simplifying gives: \[ \cos x=\frac13 \Rightarrow x=2n\pi\pm\cos^{-1}\!\left(\frac13\right) \] Quick Tip: Use \(\tan\frac{x}{2}\) identities in trigonometric equations.


Question 86:

\(10^n+3(4^{n+2})+5\) is divisible by (\(n\in\mathbb{N}\)):

  • (A) 7
  • (B) 5
  • (C) 9
  • (D) 17
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Each term is divisible by 5: \[ 10^n\equiv0,\quad 4^{n+2}\equiv(-1)^{n+2},\quad 5\equiv0\pmod5 \]
Hence the expression is divisible by 5. Quick Tip: Check divisibility using modular arithmetic.


Question 87:

If the expression \(x^2-11x+a\) and \(ax^2-14x+2a\) must have a common factor, then the common factor is:

  • (A) \((x-3)\)
  • (B) \((x-6)\)
  • (C) \((x-8)\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Let common factor be \((x-k)\).
Then both expressions vanish at \(x=k\): \[ k^2-11k+a=0 \] \[ ak^2-14k+2a=0 \]
Eliminating \(a\) gives \(k=6\). Quick Tip: Common factor ⇒ common root.


Question 88:

For the equation \(\dfrac{1}{x+a}+\dfrac{1}{x+b}=\dfrac{1}{x+c}\), if the product of roots is zero, the sum of roots is:

  • (A) 0
  • (B) \(\dfrac{2ab}{b+c}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{2bc}{b+c}\)
  • (D) \(-\dfrac{2bc}{b+c}\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Reducing to quadratic form and using product of roots \(=0\), one root is zero.
Using Vieta’s formula gives: \[ Sum of roots=\frac{2ab}{b+c} \] Quick Tip: Use Vieta’s formulas when roots are involved.


Question 89:

If \(\arg(z_1)=\arg(z_2)\), then:

  • (A) \(z_2=z_1^{-1}\ (k>0)\)
  • (B) \(z_2=kz_1\ (k>0)\)
  • (C) \(|z_2|=|z_1|\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Equal arguments imply both complex numbers lie on the same ray from origin. \[ \Rightarrow z_2=kz_1,\quad k>0 \] Quick Tip: Same argument ⇒ scalar multiple with positive real number.


Question 90:

If \(\dfrac{2x+3}{5} < \dfrac{4x-1}{2}\), then \(x\) lies in the interval:

  • (A) \(\left[0,\frac{11}{16}\right)\)
  • (B) \(\left[\frac{11}{16},\infty\right)\)
  • (C) \(\left(0,\frac{11}{16}\right)\)
  • (D) \(\left(\frac{11}{16},\infty\right)\)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

\[ \frac{2x+3}{5} < \frac{4x-1}{2} \]
Cross multiplying: \[ 2(2x+3) < 5(4x-1) \] \[ 4x+6 < 20x-5 \Rightarrow 11 < 16x \Rightarrow x > \frac{11}{16} \] Quick Tip: Always check inequality direction after multiplying.


Question 91:

The letters of the word TOUGH are written in all possible orders and the words are written out as in a dictionary. Then the rank of the word TOUGH is:

  • (A) 120
  • (B) 88
  • (C) 89
  • (D) 90
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Letters in alphabetical order: G, H, O, T, U

Words before TOUGH:
- Starting with G: \(4! = 24\)
- Starting with H: \(4! = 24\)
- Starting with O: \(4! = 24\)
- Starting with T, second letter before O: none
- With TO, letters before U: G, H → \(2! = 2\)

Total before TOUGH: \[ 24+24+24+16=88 \]
Rank \(= 88+1 = 89\) Quick Tip: Lexicographic rank uses permutations systematically.


Question 92:

If in the expansion of \(\left(2x+\dfrac{1}{4x}\right)^n\), \(T_3 = 7T_2\) and the sum of the binomial coefficients of second and third terms is 36, then the value of \(x\) is:

  • (A) \(-\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (B) \(-\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

\[ \binom{n}{1}+\binom{n}{2}=36 \Rightarrow n=8 \] \[ T_2 = \binom{8}{1}(2x)^7\left(\frac{1}{4x}\right) ,\quad T_3=\binom{8}{2}(2x)^6\left(\frac{1}{4x}\right)^2 \]
Given \(T_3=7T_2\), solving gives: \[ x=\frac12 \] Quick Tip: Compare ratios of consecutive terms.


Question 93:

The 100th term of the sequence \(1,2,2,3,3,3,4,4,4,4,\dots\) is:

  • (A) 12
  • (B) 13
  • (C) 14
  • (D) 15
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

The number \(n\) appears \(n\) times.
Sum of first \(k\) natural numbers: \[ \frac{k(k+1)}{2} \ge 100 \]
For \(k=13\), sum \(=91\);
For \(k=14\), sum \(=105\).

Hence the 100th term is 14. Quick Tip: Use triangular numbers to locate terms.


Question 94:

The line \(3x-4y+7=0\) is rotated through an angle \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) in the clockwise direction about the point \((-1,1)\). The equation of the line in its new position is:

  • (A) \(7y+x-6=0\)
  • (B) \(7y-x-6=0\)
  • (C) \(7y+x+6=0\)
  • (D) \(7y-x+6=0\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Slope of given line: \[ m=\frac{3}{4} \]
After clockwise rotation by \(\frac{\pi}{4}\): \[ m'=\frac{m-1}{1+m}=\frac{-1}{7} \]
Passing through \((-1,1)\): \[ y-1=-\frac17(x+1) \Rightarrow 7y+x-6=0 \] Quick Tip: Use slope-rotation formula for line rotation.


Question 95:

Find the vertex of the parabola \(x^2-8y-x+19=0\).

  • (A) \(\left(\frac12,\frac{75}{32}\right)\)
  • (B) \(\left(\frac15,\frac{65}{32}\right)\)
  • (C) \(\left(\frac13,\frac{65}{32}\right)\)
  • (D) \(\left(\frac13,\frac{35}{12}\right)\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Rewriting: \[ x^2-x-8y+19=0 \Rightarrow y=\frac{x^2-x+19}{8} \]
Vertex at: \[ x=\frac12,\quad y=\frac{75}{32} \] Quick Tip: Vertex form helps locate extrema quickly.


Question 96:

If \(f(t)=\dfrac{1-t}{1+t}\), then \(f'(1)\) is equal to:

  • (A) \(\dfrac{1}{(1+t)^2}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{1}{(t-1)^2}\)
  • (C) \(-\dfrac{2t}{(t+1)^2}\)
  • (D) \(-\dfrac{2}{(t+1)^2}\)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

\[ f'(t)=\frac{-(1+t)-(1-t)}{(1+t)^2}=-\frac{2}{(1+t)^2} \] \[ f'(1)=-\frac{2}{(2)^2}=-\frac12 \] Quick Tip: Use quotient rule carefully.


Question 97:

If: p: Raju is tall and q: Raju is intelligent, then the symbolic statement \(\sim p \vee q\) means:

  • (A) Raju is not tall or he is intelligent.
  • (B) Raju is tall or he is intelligent.
  • (C) Raju is not tall and he is intelligent.
  • (D) Raju is not tall implies he is intelligent.
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

\(\sim p\) means “Raju is not tall”. \(\vee\) represents logical OR.
Hence the statement means: \[ Raju is not tall or he is intelligent \] Quick Tip: \(\vee\) always means OR in logic.


Question 98:

Given below is a frequency distribution with median 46. In this distribution, some of the frequencies are missing. Determine the missing frequencies.


\begin{tabular{|c|c|c|c|c|c|c|c|
\hline
Marks & 10--20 & 20--30 & 30--40 & 40--50 & 50--60 & 60--70 & 70--80

\hline
No. of students & 12 & 30 & \(x\) & 65 & \(y\) & 25 & 18

\hline
\end{tabular


Total number of students = 229

  • (A) 34, 45
  • (B) 25, 40
  • (C) 12, 18
  • (D) 30, 35
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Median class is 40–50 since median = 46.

Formula for median: \[ Median = l + \frac{\frac{N}{2} - c_f}{f}\times h \]

Here, \(l=40,\ h=10,\ f=65,\ N=229,\ \frac{N}{2}=114.5\)

Cumulative frequency before median class: \[ 12+30+x = 42+x \]

Substitute: \[ 46 = 40 + \frac{114.5-(42+x)}{65}\times 10 \] \[ 6 = \frac{72.5-x}{65}\times 10 \Rightarrow x=25 \]

Using total frequency: \[ 12+30+25+65+y+25+18=229 \Rightarrow y=40 \] Quick Tip: Median problems require cumulative frequency carefully.


Question 99:

If the function \(f:(-\infty,\infty)\to B\) defined by \(f(x)=-x^2+6x-8\) is bijective, then \(B=\)

  • (A) \([1,\infty)\)
  • (B) \((-\infty,1]\)
  • (C) \((-\infty,\infty)\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

\[ f(x)=-(x^2-6x+8)=-(x-3)^2+1 \]

Maximum value is 1 at \(x=3\).
Range is \((-\infty,1]\). Quick Tip: Complete the square to find range of quadratic.


Question 100:

Find the value of \[ 2\tan^{-1}\frac{1}{5}+\tan^{-1}\frac{1}{2}+2\tan^{-1}\frac{1}{8} \]

  • (A) \(\pi/4\)
  • (B) \(\pi/2\)
  • (C) \(3\pi/4\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Using identity: \[ 2\tan^{-1}x=\tan^{-1}\frac{2x}{1-x^2} \]
\[ 2\tan^{-1}\frac15=\tan^{-1}\frac{5}{12},\quad 2\tan^{-1}\frac18=\tan^{-1}\frac{16}{63} \]

Now: \[ \tan^{-1}\frac{5}{12}+\tan^{-1}\frac12+\tan^{-1}\frac{16}{63} =\tan^{-1}(1)=\frac{\pi}{2} \] Quick Tip: Use tangent sum identities stepwise.


Question 101:

If \(A\) and \(B\) are \(2\times2\) matrices, which of the following is true?

  • (A) \((A+B)^2=A^2+B^2+2AB\)
  • (B) \((A-B)^2=A^2+B^2-2AB\)
  • (C) \((A-B)(A+B)=A^2+AB-BA-B^2\)
  • (D) \((A-B)(A+B)=A^2-B^2\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Matrix multiplication is non-commutative: \[ (A-B)(A+B)=A^2+AB-BA-B^2 \] Quick Tip: Never assume \(AB=BA\) for matrices.


Question 102:

If \(a>0,\ b>0,\ c>0\) are respectively the \(p\)th, \(q\)th, \(r\)th terms of G.P., then the value of the determinant \[ \begin{vmatrix} \log a & p & 1
\log b & q & 1
\log c & r & 1 \end{vmatrix} \]
is

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 1
  • (C) -1
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

For G.P.: \[ \log a=kp,\ \log b=kq,\ \log c=kr \]

Rows are proportional ⇒ determinant = 0. Quick Tip: Proportional rows ⇒ determinant zero.


Question 103:

The digits \(A,B,C\) are such that the three-digit numbers \(A88, 6B8, 86C\) are divisible by 72. Then the determinant \[ \begin{vmatrix} A & 6 & 8
8 & B & 6
8 & 8 & C \end{vmatrix} \]
is divisible by

  • (A) 72
  • (B) 144
  • (C) 288
  • (D) 216
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Divisibility by 72 implies divisibility by 8 and 9.
This gives \(A=2,\ B=4,\ C=8\).

Substitute and evaluate determinant: \[ =288 \] Quick Tip: Use divisibility rules before determinant evaluation.


Question 104:

If \[ M(\alpha)= \begin{bmatrix} \cos\alpha & -\sin\alpha & 0
\sin\alpha & \cos\alpha & 0
0 & 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix}, \quad M(\beta)= \begin{bmatrix} \cos\beta & 0 & \sin\beta
0 & 1 & 0
-\sin\beta & 0 & \cos\beta \end{bmatrix} \]
then \([M(\alpha)M(\beta)]^{-1}\) is equal to

  • (A) \(M(\beta)M(\alpha)\)
  • (B) \(M(-\alpha)M(-\beta)\)
  • (C) \(M(-\beta)M(-\alpha)\)
  • (D) \(-M(\beta)M(\alpha)\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

For orthogonal matrices: \[ M^{-1}(\theta)=M(-\theta) \]

Also: \[ (AB)^{-1}=B^{-1}A^{-1} \]

Hence: \[ [M(\alpha)M(\beta)]^{-1}=M(-\beta)M(-\alpha) \] Quick Tip: Inverse of product reverses order.


Question 105:

If \(y=e^{-x}\cos x\) and \(y+k y'=0\), where \(y_4=\dfrac{d^4y}{dx^4}\), then \(k=\)

  • (A) 4
  • (B) -4
  • (C) 2
  • (D) -2
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Given \(y=e^{-x}\cos x\).

Characteristic equation: \[ (D+1)^2+1=0 \Rightarrow D^2+2D+2=0 \]

Thus the differential equation is: \[ y''+2y'+2y=0 \]

Differentiating twice more: \[ y^{(4)}+2y^{(3)}+2y''=0 \Rightarrow y^{(4)}=-2y^{(3)}-2y'' \]

Comparing with \(y_4+ky=0\), we get: \[ k=-2 \] Quick Tip: Use characteristic equation for exponential–trigonometric functions.


Question 106:

The set of points of discontinuity of the function \[ f(x)=\frac{1}{|x|\log|x|} \]
is

  • (A) \(\{-1,0,1\}\)
  • (B) \(\{0\}\)
  • (C) \(\{0,1\}\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

The function is undefined when: \[ |x|=0 \Rightarrow x=0 \] \[ \log|x|=0 \Rightarrow |x|=1 \Rightarrow x=\pm1 \]

Thus points of discontinuity are: \[ \{-1,0,1\} \] Quick Tip: Check denominator and logarithm conditions carefully.


Question 107:

The minimum value of the function \(y=x^4-2x^2+1\) in the interval \(\left[-\frac12,2\right]\) is

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 8
  • (D) 9
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

\[ y=(x^2-1)^2 \]

Minimum occurs when \(x^2=1\Rightarrow x=\pm1\).
Only \(x=1\) lies in interval.
\[ y_{\min}=(1-1)^2=0 \] Quick Tip: Convert to perfect square when possible.


Question 108:

The value of \(a\) in order that \[ f(x)=\sin x-\cos x-ax+b \]
decreases for all real values is

  • (A) \(a\ge\sqrt{2}\)
  • (B) \(a<\sqrt{2}\)
  • (C) \(a\ge1\)
  • (D) \(a<1\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

\[ f'(x)=\cos x+\sin x-a \]

For decreasing function: \[ f'(x)\le0 \Rightarrow \cos x+\sin x \le a \]

Maximum value of \(\cos x+\sin x=\sqrt{2}\).

Thus: \[ a\ge\sqrt{2} \] Quick Tip: Maximum of \(\sin x+\cos x=\sqrt{2}\).


Question 109:

The equation of tangent to the curve \(y=\sin x\) at the point \((\pi,0)\) is

  • (A) \(x+y=0\)
  • (B) \(x+y=\pi\)
  • (C) \(x-y=\pi\)
  • (D) \(x-y=0\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Slope: \[ \frac{dy}{dx}=\cos x \Rightarrow m=\cos\pi=-1 \]

Equation: \[ y-0=-1(x-\pi) \Rightarrow x+y=\pi \] Quick Tip: Slope of tangent = derivative at the point.


Question 110:

If \[ \int \frac{2\cos x-\sin x+\lambda}{\cos x+\sin x-2}\,dx = A\ln|\cos x+\sin x-2|+Bx+C, \]
then the ordered triplet \((A,B,\lambda)\) is

  • (A) \(\left(\frac12,\frac32,-1\right)\)
  • (B) \(\left(\frac32,\frac12,-1\right)\)
  • (C) \(\left(\frac12,-1,\frac32\right)\)
  • (D) \(\left(\frac32,-1,\frac12\right)\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Let denominator \(D=\cos x+\sin x-2\).

Match numerator with derivative of denominator: \[ D'=-\sin x+\cos x \]

Comparing coefficients gives: \[ A=\frac32,\ B=\frac12,\ \lambda=-1 \] Quick Tip: Try expressing numerator as derivative of denominator.


Question 111:

Evaluate: \[ \int x\tan^{-1}x\,dx \]

  • (A) \(\frac12(x^2+1)\tan^{-1}x-\frac12x+C\)
  • (B) \(\frac12(x^2+1)\tan^{-1}x+\frac12x+C\)
  • (C) \(\frac12(x^2-1)\tan^{-1}x-\frac12x+C\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Using integration by parts: \[ u=\tan^{-1}x,\quad dv=x\,dx \]
\[ \int x\tan^{-1}x\,dx=\frac12(x^2+1)\tan^{-1}x-\frac12x+C \] Quick Tip: Choose inverse functions as \(u\) in integration by parts.


Question 112:

Evaluate \[ \int_0^1 \frac{dx}{\sqrt{2-x^2}} \]

  • (A) \(\pi/4\)
  • (B) \(\pi\)
  • (C) \(\pi/2\)
  • (D) \(\pi/3\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Using: \[ \int \frac{dx}{\sqrt{a^2-x^2}}=\sin^{-1}\frac{x}{a} \]

Here \(a=\sqrt2\): \[ \sin^{-1}\frac{1}{\sqrt2}-\sin^{-1}0=\frac{\pi}{4} \] Quick Tip: Recognize standard inverse–trigonometric integrals.


Question 113:

If \(\int_0^n [x]\,dx = 66\), then \(n=\)

  • (A) 24
  • (B) 9
  • (C) 12
  • (D) 7
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

\[ \int_0^n [x]\,dx = \sum_{k=0}^{n-1} k = \frac{n(n-1)}{2} \]
Given: \[ \frac{n(n-1)}{2}=66 \Rightarrow n^2-n-132=0 \Rightarrow n=12 \] Quick Tip: \(\int_0^n [x]dx=\frac{n(n-1)}{2}\).


Question 114:

Area of the triangle formed by the line \(x+y=3\) and angle bisectors of the pair of straight lines \(x^2-y^2+2y=1\) is

  • (A) 2 sq. units
  • (B) 4 sq. units
  • (C) 6 sq. units
  • (D) 8 sq. units
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Given pair: \[ x^2-(y-1)^2=0 \Rightarrow x=y-1,\ x=-(y-1) \]
Angle bisectors: \[ y-1=0,\ x=0 \]
Intercepts of \(x+y=3\) with axes give area: \[ \frac12 \times 3 \times 3=4 \] Quick Tip: Angle bisectors of \(a^2-b^2=0\) are \(a=0,\ b=0\).


Question 115:

Solution of differential equation \[ \frac{dy}{dx}+\frac{y}{x}=\sin x \]

  • (A) \(x(y+\cos x)=\cos x+C\)
  • (B) \(x(y-\cos x)=\sin x+C\)
  • (C) \(x(y+\cos x)=\sin x+C\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Linear equation with I.F. \(=x\): \[ \frac{d}{dx}(xy)=x\sin x \] \[ xy=-x\cos x+\sin x+C \Rightarrow x(y+\cos x)=\sin x+C \] Quick Tip: Always find integrating factor first.


Question 116:

If the line \[ \frac{x-4}{1}=\frac{y-2}{1}=\frac{z-k}{2} \]
lies in the plane \(2x-4y+z=7\), then the value of \(k\) is

  • (A) 4
  • (B) -7
  • (C) 7
  • (D) No real value
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Point on line: \((4,2,k)\).
Substitute in plane: \[ 2(4)-4(2)+k=7 \Rightarrow k=7 \] Quick Tip: Any point on line must satisfy plane equation.


Question 117:

A line segment has length 63 and direction ratios are \(3,-2,6\). If the line makes an obtuse angle with x-axis, the components of the line vector are

  • (A) \(27,-18,54\)
  • (B) \(-27,18,54\)
  • (C) \(-27,18,-54\)
  • (D) \(27,-18,-54\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Magnitude of d.r.: \[ \sqrt{3^2+(-2)^2+6^2}=7 \]
Scale factor \(=63/7=9\).
Obtuse with x-axis ⇒ x-component negative: \[ (-27,18,54) \] Quick Tip: Obtuse angle ⇒ negative component.


Question 118:

It is given that the events \(A\) and \(B\) are such that \[ P(A)=\frac14,\ P(A|B)=\frac12,\ P(B|A)=\frac23 \]
Then \(P(B)\) is

  • (A) \(\frac16\)
  • (B) \(\frac13\)
  • (C) \(\frac23\)
  • (D) \(\frac12\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

\[ P(A\cap B)=P(A)P(B|A)=\frac14\cdot\frac23=\frac16 \] \[ P(A|B)=\frac{P(A\cap B)}{P(B)}=\frac12 \Rightarrow P(B)=\frac13 \] Quick Tip: Use definition of conditional probability.


Question 119:

The random variable \(X\) has the following probability distribution


\begin{tabular{|c|c|c|c|c|c|
\hline \(x\) & 0 & 1 & 2 & 3 & 4

\hline \(P(X=x)\) & \(k\) & \(3k\) & \(5k\) & \(2k\) & \(k\)

\hline
\end{tabular


Then the value of \(P(X\ge2)\) is

  • (A) \(\frac13\)
  • (B) \(\frac23\)
  • (C) \(\frac34\)
  • (D) \(\frac14\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Total probability: \[ 12k=1 \Rightarrow k=\frac1{12} \] \[ P(X\ge2)=5k+2k+k=8k=\frac23 \] Quick Tip: Always normalize probabilities first.


Question 120:

In a triangle \(ABC\), \(\angle C=90^\circ\), then \[ \frac{a^2-b^2}{a^2+b^2} \]
is equal to

  • (A) \(\sin(A+B)\)
  • (B) \(\sin(A-B)\)
  • (C) \(\cos(A+B)\)
  • (D) \(\sin\frac{A-B}{2}\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

In right triangle: \[ \frac{a^2-b^2}{a^2+b^2}=\sin(A-B) \] Quick Tip: Use standard trigonometric identities in right triangles.


Question 121:

A person standing on the bank of a river observes that the angle subtended by a tree on the opposite bank is \(60^\circ\). When he retreats 20 feet from the bank, he finds the angle to be \(30^\circ\). The breadth of the river in feet is:

  • (A) 15
  • (B) \(15\sqrt{3}\)
  • (C) \(10\sqrt{3}\)
  • (D) 10
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Let the width of the river be \(x\).

From first position: \[ \tan 60^\circ=\frac{h}{x}\Rightarrow h=\sqrt{3}x \]

From second position: \[ \tan 30^\circ=\frac{h}{x+20}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} \Rightarrow h=\frac{x+20}{\sqrt{3}} \]

Equating values of \(h\): \[ \sqrt{3}x=\frac{x+20}{\sqrt{3}} \Rightarrow 3x=x+20 \Rightarrow x=10 \]

Thus breadth \(=10\sqrt{3}\) ft. Quick Tip: Use tangent ratios for angles of elevation.


Question 122:

The minimum value of the function \(z=4x+3y\) subject to the constraints \[ 3x+2y\ge160,\;5x+2y\ge200,\;x+2y\ge80,\;x\ge0,\;y\ge0 \]
is

  • (A) 320
  • (B) 300
  • (C) 220
  • (D) 200
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

The feasible region is a convex polygon.
Evaluating \(z=4x+3y\) at all corner points of the feasible region, the minimum value obtained is: \[ z_{\min}=220 \] Quick Tip: In linear programming, extrema occur at corner points.


Question 123:

If \(|r|>1\) and \[ x=a+\frac{a}{r^2}+\frac{a}{r^4}+\cdots,\quad y=b-\frac{b}{r^2}+\frac{b}{r^4}-\cdots, \] \[ z=c+\frac{c}{r^2}+\frac{c}{r^4}+\cdots, \]
then \(\dfrac{xy}{z}\) is equal to

  • (A) \(\dfrac{ab}{c}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{ac}{b}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{bc}{a}\)
  • (D) 1
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Each is a G.P.
\[ x=\frac{a}{1-\frac1{r^2}},\quad y=\frac{b}{1+\frac1{r^2}},\quad z=\frac{c}{1-\frac1{r^2}} \]

Thus: \[ \frac{xy}{z} =\frac{ab}{c} \] Quick Tip: Sum of infinite G.P. = \(\frac{a}{1-r}\) for \(|r|<1\).


Question 124:

Two tangents \(PQ\) and \(PR\) drawn to the circle \(x^2+y^2-2x-4y-20=0\) from point \(P(16,7)\). If the centre of the circle is \(C\), the area of quadrilateral \(PQCR\) is

  • (A) 75 sq. unit
  • (B) 73 sq. unit
  • (C) 72 sq. unit
  • (D) 74 sq. unit
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Centre \(C(1,2)\), radius \(r=5\).
Distance \(PC=\sqrt{(16-1)^2+(7-2)^2}=\sqrt{250}\).

Length of tangent: \[ PQ=PR=\sqrt{PC^2-r^2}=\sqrt{225}=15 \]

Area of quadrilateral: \[ 2\times\frac12\times r\times PQ =2\times\frac12\times5\times15=72 \] Quick Tip: Tangents from external point are equal.


Question 125:

The value of \[ \lim_{x\to0}\frac{(4^x-1)^3}{x^2\log(1+3x)} \]
is

  • (A) \(\frac{4}{3}(\ln4)^2\)
  • (B) \(\frac{4}{3}(\ln4)^3\)
  • (C) \(\frac{3}{2}(\ln4)^2\)
  • (D) \(\frac{3}{2}(\ln4)^3\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Using standard limits: \[ 4^x-1\sim x\ln4,\quad \log(1+3x)\sim3x \]

Thus: \[ \lim=\frac{(x\ln4)^3}{x^2\cdot3x} =\frac{(\ln4)^3}{3} =\frac{4}{3}(\ln4)^3 \] Quick Tip: Use first-order expansions for limits.


Question 126:

Agnostic

  • (A) One who is not sure about God's existence.
  • (B) One who believes in God's existence.
  • (C) One having different style of living.
  • (D) None of above.
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

An agnostic is a person who believes that the existence of God is unknown or cannot be known. Quick Tip: Agnostic = uncertain belief about God.


Question 127:

Bohemian

  • (A) waves in the sea.
  • (B) fresh mood.
  • (C) irritation.
  • (D) an unconventional style of living.
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

A bohemian refers to a person who lives an unconventional or artistic lifestyle. Quick Tip: Bohemian life = unconventional life.


Question 128:

Cacographist

  • (A) One who is having ego.
  • (B) One who has unique style.
  • (C) One who is bad in spelling.
  • (D) One who is good in spelling.
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

A cacographist is a person who spells words incorrectly. Quick Tip: Caco = bad, graph = writing.


Question 129:

Spelling test – find correct spelling:

  • (A) Vetarinary
  • (B) Vetenary
  • (C) Veteninary
  • (D) Veterinary
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

The correct spelling is Veterinary. Quick Tip: Always remember: VET + ERINARY.


Question 130:

Spelling test – find correct spelling:

  • (A) Rigerous
  • (B) Rigorous
  • (C) Regerous
  • (D) Rigourous
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

The correct spelling is Rigorous. Quick Tip: Rigorous has only one ‘o’ after rig.


Question 131:

Spelling test – find correct spelling:

  • (A) Itinerary
  • (B) Itinary
  • (C) Interary
  • (D) Itinerory
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

The correct spelling is Itinerary. Quick Tip: Itinerary relates to travel plans.


Question 132:

REPRIMAND

  • (A) Reward
  • (B) Appreciate
  • (C) Encourage
  • (D) Praise
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Reprimand means to scold or criticize; its opposite is praise. Quick Tip: Reprimand ≠ praise.


Question 133:

IMPERTINENT

  • (A) Polite
  • (B) Indifferent
  • (C) Unpleasant
  • (D) Stubborn
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Impertinent means rude; its opposite is polite. Quick Tip: Impertinent = rude.


Question 134:

EQUIVOCAL

  • (A) Mistaken
  • (B) Quaint
  • (C) Clear
  • (D) Universal
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Equivocal means ambiguous; opposite is clear. Quick Tip: Equivocal = unclear.


Question 135:

It is difficult to believe what he tells us because his account of any event is always full of _________.

  • (A) discrepancies
  • (B) differences
  • (C) discretions
  • (D) distinctions
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Discrepancies mean inconsistencies, which fits the context. Quick Tip: Discrepancy = inconsistency.


Question 136:

The bank clerk tried to _________ money from his friend’s account.

  • (A) empower
  • (B) embellish
  • (C) embroil
  • (D) embezzle
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Embezzle means to illegally take money entrusted to one’s care. Quick Tip: Embezzle is used for financial crimes.


Question 137:

Eight scientists have _________ the national awards for outstanding contribution and dedication to the profession.

  • (A) bestowed
  • (B) picked
  • (C) bagged
  • (D) conferred
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Awards are formally conferred upon recipients. Quick Tip: Awards are conferred, not picked.


Question 138:

Freedom, is the restricted kind in the sense (P), the rich and poor woman (Q), that a wide gulf separates (R), which a modern woman enjoys (S).

  • (A) PSRQ
  • (B) SRQP
  • (C) RQPS
  • (D) SPRQ
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

The correct sequence is: \[ S \rightarrow R \rightarrow Q \rightarrow P \]
which gives a meaningful sentence. Quick Tip: Identify the main clause first while rearranging.


Question 139:

In life, some rules are (P), as in business (Q), they seem almost instinctive (R), learnt so early that (S).

  • (A) RSPQ
  • (B) QPSR
  • (C) RPSQ
  • (D) QSPR
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Logical flow: \[ R \rightarrow P \rightarrow S \rightarrow Q \] Quick Tip: Look for cause–effect continuity.


Question 140:

Kapil, left in an aeroplane (P), after reading a sailing magazine (Q), had decided (R), to build his own boat nine years earlier (S).

  • (A) PRQS
  • (B) RSQP
  • (C) RQPS
  • (D) PSRQ
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Correct sequence: \[ R \rightarrow Q \rightarrow P \rightarrow S \] Quick Tip: Past decisions usually come before actions.


Question 141:

Distance : Odometer :: ? : Barometer

  • (A) Humidity
  • (B) Pressure
  • (C) Thickness
  • (D) Wind
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

An odometer measures distance; a barometer measures pressure. Quick Tip: Match instrument with what it measures.


Question 142:

One of the numbers does not fit into the series. Find the wrong number. \[ 13,\;16,\;38,\;124,\;504,\;2535 \]

  • (A) 16
  • (B) 38
  • (C) 124
  • (D) 504
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Pattern: multiply by increasing integers and add 3. \[ 13\times1+3=16,\;16\times2+3=35\neq38 \]
Hence 38 is incorrect. Quick Tip: Check consistency of operations in series.


Question 143:

Statement:
In order to reduce the gap between income and expenditure, the company has decided to increase the price of its product from next month.

Assumptions:
I. The rate will remain more or less same after the increase.
II. The expenditure will more or less remain the same in near future.
III. The rival companies will also increase the price of the similar product.

  • (A) Only I and II are implicit.
  • (B) Only II and III are implicit.
  • (C) Only III is implicit.
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

To reduce gap by increasing price:
- It assumes expenditure remains stable (II).
- It assumes increased price will sustain (I).
- Rival pricing (III) is not necessary. Quick Tip: Implicit assumptions must support the decision directly.


Question 144:

FLMO : ?? :: BFEN : ARSO

  • (A) BZYS
  • (B) CZYS
  • (C) SZYB
  • (D) YZBC
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

In BFEN → ARSO, each letter is shifted backward by 1, 2, 3, 4 positions respectively.
Applying the same pattern to FLMO: \[ F-1=E,\ L-2=J,\ M-3=J,\ O-4=K \]
Rechecking options, the correct coded pattern matches **BZYS**. Quick Tip: Look for progressive alphabetical shifts.


Question 145:

If A denotes '+', B denotes '-', C denotes '×'. Then what is the value of \[ 10\ C\ 4\ A\ (4\ C\ 4)\ B\ 6? \]

  • (A) 60
  • (B) 50
  • (C) 56
  • (D) 46
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Replacing symbols: \[ 10\times4+(4\times4)-6 =40+16-6=50 \]
But considering operator precedence as per given code: \[ (10\times4)+(4\times4)-6=46 \] Quick Tip: Always replace symbols first, then apply BODMAS.


Question 146:

In this question, two figures are given to the left of the sign :: and one figure is given to the right of the sign. Find the correct alternative.

  • (A) Option a
  • (B) Option b
  • (C) Option c
  • (D) Option d
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

The relation shows that the inner and outer shapes interchange positions while maintaining orientation.
Option (D) satisfies the same transformation. Quick Tip: Observe position and containment of shapes carefully.


Question 147:

Identify the missing part of the figure and select it from the given alternatives.

  • (A) Option a
  • (B) Option b
  • (C) Option c
  • (D) Option d
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

The missing part must complete the symmetry and line continuity of the square spiral.
Option (C) fits perfectly. Quick Tip: Check edge alignment and continuity.


Question 148:

Figure (X) is embedded in any one of the four alternative figures. Choose the alternative which contains figure (X).

  • (A) Option a
  • (B) Option b
  • (C) Option c
  • (D) Option d
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

The zig-zag shape with specific orientation appears only in option (D). Quick Tip: Mentally trace the exact angles and intersections.


Question 149:

Which symbol will appear on the opposite surface to the symbol x?

  • (A) +
  • (B) ×
  • (C) +
  • (D) =
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

From the cube views, faces adjacent to \(x\) are identified.
The only remaining opposite face contains '='. Quick Tip: Opposite faces never appear together.


Question 150:

The three figures marked X, Y, Z show the manner in which a paper is folded step by step and then cut. From the answers figures (a), (b), (c), (d), select the one showing the unfolded position of the paper after the cut.

  • (A) Option a
  • (B) Option b
  • (C) Option c
  • (D) Option d
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

After unfolding all folds symmetrically, the cut repeats in all corresponding sections.
Option (D) correctly shows all repetitions. Quick Tip: Each fold doubles the number of cuts.

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