AP EAPCET 2026 Engineering Question Paper for May 18 Shift 2 is available for download here. JNTUK on behalf of APSCHE conducted AP EAPCET 2026 Engineering exam on May 18 in Shift 2 from 2 PM to 5 PM. AP EAPCET 2026 Engineering consists of 160 questions for a total of 160 marks to be attempted in 3 hours.

  • AP EAPCET 2026 Engineering is divided into 3 sections- Mathematics with 80 questions and Physics and Chemistry with 40 questions each.
  • Each correct answer carries 1 mark and there is no negative marking for incorrect answer.

AP EAPCET 2026 Engineering Question Paper PDF for May 18 Shift 2

AP EAPCET 2026 Engineering Question Paper May 18 Shift 2 Download PDF Check Solutions


Question 1:

The domain of the real valued function \( f(x)=\log_{x-1}(3x+1) \) is

  • (A) \( (1,\infty) \)
  • (B) \( \mathbb{R} \)
  • (C) \( (1,2)\cup(2,\infty) \)
  • (D) \( \mathbb{R} - \{2\} \)

Question 2:

If \( f:A\rightarrow B \), \( g:B\rightarrow C \) are two functions such that \( gof: A\rightarrow C \) is an onto function, then it is necessary that

  • (A) \( f \) is onto function
  • (B) \( g \) is onto function
  • (C) Both \( f \) and \( g \) are onto functions
  • (D) \( f \) is one-one and \( g \) is onto

Question 3:

The expression \( \frac{n(n + 1)^2(n+2)}{12} \) for all \( n \in \mathbb{N} \) is always:

  • (A) \( \frac{(n+2)^{4}}{12} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{n^{4}}{12} \)
  • (C) an integer
  • (D) \( \frac{(2n+1)n}{3} \)

Question 4:

Let \( A, B \) be \( 3^{rd} \) order non-singular square matrices and \( K \) is a real number. Which of the following is true?

  • (A) \( Adj(AB)=(Adj B)(Adj A) \) and \( adj(A^{-1}) \neq (adj A)^{-1} \)
  • (B) \( Adj(KA)=K Adj(A) \) and \( |KA|=K^{3}|A| \)
  • (C) \( |B^{-1}AB|=|A| \) and \( (A+B)^{2}=A^{2}+2AB+B^{2} \)
  • (D) \( (adj A)^{-1}=\frac{A}{|A|} \) and \( (AB)^{-1}=B^{-1}A^{-1} \)

Question 5:

The augmented matrix of a non-homogeneous system of equations \( AX = B \) is reduced to the following form after applying a series of elementary row transformations: \[ \begin{bmatrix}1&1&1&5
0&0&-3&4
0&0&\mu+1&\lambda^{2}-2\lambda+1\end{bmatrix} \]
Then, which of the following is correct?

  • (A) Only for \( \mu \neq -1 \), \( AX=B \) has a unique solution
  • (B) Only for \( \mu = -1 \) and \( \lambda = 1 \), \( AX=B \) has an infinite number of solutions
  • (C) For any value of \( \mu \) and \( \lambda \), \( AX=B \) has an infinite number of solutions
  • (D) For all positive values of \( \mu \), \( AX=B \) has no solution

Question 6:

If \( A=\begin{bmatrix}1&-2&2
2&1&-2
2&K&4\end{bmatrix} \), \( B=\begin{bmatrix}2&4&3
3&4&5
1&2&2\end{bmatrix} \) and \( Rank(A)=2 \), then \( K + Rank(B) = \)

  • (A) \( 1 \)
  • (B) \( 0 \)
  • (C) \( -1 \)

Question 7:

If \( z_{1}=x+iy \), \( z_{2}=a+ib \) and \( x^{2}+y^{2}=a^{2}+b^{2} \), then \( z_{2} = \)

  • (A) \( |z_{1}|cis(\tan^{-1}(\frac{b}{a})) \)
  • (B) \( |\overline{z_{2}}|z_{1} \)
  • (C) \( z_{1}cis(\tan^{-1}(\frac{y}{x})) \)
  • (D) \( z_{1} \)

Question 8:

The locus of \( |z-2i|+|z+4i|=10 \) is

  • (A) a circle with centre at (0,-1) and radius 5
  • (B) a parabola with focus at (0,-1)
  • (C) a hyperbola with foci at (0, 2) and (0,-4)
  • (D) an ellipse with eccentricity \( 3/5 \)

Question 9:

If \( z=(1+\sqrt{3}i)^{4/3} \), then the product of all the values of \( z \) is

  • (A) \( 28-96i \)
  • (B) \( 28+96i \)
  • (C) \( \frac{7+24i}{100} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{7-24i}{100} \)

Question 10:

For a quadratic expression \( ax^{2}+bx+c \), if the minimum value \( \frac{49}{12} \) exists at \( x=\frac{-5}{6} \), then \( 12c-5b = \)

  • (A) \( 35 \)
  • (B) \( 61 \)
  • (C) \( 49 \)
  • (D) \( 37 \)

Question 11:

If \( a, b, c \in \mathbb{R} \) and \( -a^{2}x^{2}+bx+c>0 \quad \forall x \in \left(\frac{3-\sqrt{14}}{2},\frac{3+\sqrt{14}}{2}\right) \), then \( c^{2}-\left(\frac{b}{4}\right)^{2} = \)

  • (A) \( 4a^{2} \)
  • (B) \( a^{3} \)
  • (C) \( 4a \)
  • (D) \( 2a^{2} \)

Question 12:

The equation formed with the roots obtained by diminishing the roots of the equation \( x^{4}+3x^{3}-7x^{2}+4x+1=0 \) by 'h', does not contain the \( x^{2} \) term. If the possible values of such 'h' are \( h_{1}<0 \) and \( h_{2}>0, \) then which one of the following is true?

  • (A) \( |h_{1}| < h_{2} \)
  • (B) \( |h_{1}| = |h_{2}| \)
  • (C) \( |h_{1}| > h_{2} \)
  • (D) \( \dfrac{h_{1}}{h_{2}} > -1 \)

Question 13:

If \( x^{5}+ax^{4}+b death^{3}+cx^{2}+5x+e=0 \) is a reciprocal equation of second kind such that \( a+b=4 \) then the number of complex roots of this equation is

  • (A) \( 3e-a \)
  • (B) \( a+b-e \)
  • (C) \( a+b+e \)
  • (D) \( a-c \)

Question 14:

A student has to answer 10 out of 13 questions in an examination choosing atleast 3 from the 5 particular questions. The number of choices available to the student is

  • (A) \( 196 \)
  • (B) \( 276 \)
  • (C) \( 326 \)
  • (D) \( 156 \)

Question 15:

If a and b are the greatest values of \( {}^{2n}C_{r} \) and \( {}^{(2n-1)}C_{r} \) respectively, then

  • (A) \( a=2b \)
  • (B) \( b=2a \)
  • (C) \( a=b \)
  • (D) \( a^{2}=2b^{2} \)

Question 16:

If all the letters of the word MESSI are permuted in all possible ways and the words [with or without meaning] thus formed are arranged in dictionary order, then the rank of the word MESSI is

  • (A) \( 18 \)
  • (B) \( 27 \)
  • (C) \( 23 \)
  • (D) \( 26 \)

Question 17:

If \(0<x<1\), then the first negative term in the expansion of \[ (1+x)^{\frac{47}{5}} \] is:

  • (A) \( 10^{th} \) term
  • (B) \( 11^{th} \) term
  • (C) \( 12^{th} \) term
  • (D) \( 13^{th} \) term

Question 18:

If \( C_{o},C_{1},C_{2},...,C_{n} \) represent the coefficients in the binomial expansion of \( (1+x)^{n} \), then \( C_{o}+\frac{c_{2}}{3}+\frac{c_{4}}{5}+\cdot\cdot\cdot+\frac{c_{16}}{17}= \)

  • (A) \( \frac{2^{14}}{17} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{2^{15}}{17} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{2^{16}}{17} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{2^{17}}{17} \)

Question 19:

The partial fraction decomposition of \( \frac{x^{4}+24 x^{2}+28}{(x^{2}+1)^{3}} \) is

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{x^{2}+1}-\frac{22}{(x^{2}+1)^{2}}+\frac{5}{(x^{2}+1)^{3}} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{x^{2}+1}+\frac{22}{(x^{2}+1)^{2}}+\frac{5}{(x^{2}+1)^{3}} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{x^{2}+1}-\frac{22}{(x^{2}+1)^{2}}-\frac{5}{(x^{2}+1)^{3}} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{1}{x^{2}+1}+\frac{22}{(x^{2}+1)^{2}}-\frac{5}{(x^{2}+1)^{3}} \)

Question 20:

If \( \cos x+\cos^{2}x=1 \) , then \( \sin^{6}x+3 \sin^{8}x+3 \sin^{10}x+\sin^{12}x= \)

  • (A) \( 0 \)
  • (B) \( 1 \)
  • (C) \( 2 \)
  • (D) \( 3 \)

Question 21:

Assertion (A): \( cos^{2}5^{\circ}+cos^{2}10^{\circ}+cos^{2}15^{\circ}+...+cos^{2}85^{\circ}=\frac{17}{2} \)

Reason (R): If \( A+B=90^{\circ} \), then \( cos^{2}A+cos^{2}B=1 \)

Then, which one of the following is True?

  • (A) A is true, R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (B) A is true, R is true and R is not correct explanation of A
  • (C) A is true, R is false
  • (D) A is false, R is true

Question 22:

If \( sin~A=\frac{3}{5} \) and A lies in the second quadrant, then \( \frac{tan~A-sec~A}{cot~A+cosec~A}= \)

  • (A) \( \frac{2}{5} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{11}{15} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{4}{3} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{3}{2} \)

Question 23:

Statement I: If \( x\in(0,\frac{\pi}{2}) \) and \( cos~3x+cos~x=cos~2x \), then \( x=\frac{\pi}{4} \) or \( \frac{\pi}{3} \)

Statement - II: If \( sin~x~sin~2x=cos~x~cos~2x-1 \), then \( x=\frac{n\pi}{3},n\in Z \)

Which of the following options is correct?

  • (A) I is true and II is true
  • (B) I is false and II is true
  • (C) I is true and II is false
  • (D) I is false and II is false

Question 24:

Match the items of List - I with those of List - II: \[ \begin{array}{ll} \text{List - I} & \text{List - II} \\ \hline \text{A) } \tan^{-1}3+\tan^{-1}x=\tan^{-1}8 \implies x= & \text{I) } \frac{\sqrt{5}}{3} \\ \text{B) } \sin^{-1}x-\cos^{-1}x=\frac{\pi}{6} \implies x= & \text{II) } \frac{1}{5} \\ \text{C) } \sin^{-1}\frac{4}{5}+2\tan^{-1}\frac{1}{3}= & \text{III) } \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \\ \text{D) } \tan\!\left(\sec^{-1}\frac{1}{x}\right)=\sin\!\left(\tan^{-1}2\right),\ x>0 \implies x= & \text{IV) } \frac{\pi}{2} \\ & \text{V) } \frac{\pi}{3} \end{array} \] The correct match is:

  • (A) A-I, B-III, C-V, D-IV
  • (B) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (C) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-V
  • (D) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-V

Question 25:

If \( u=log_{e}[tan(\frac{\pi}{4}+\frac{\theta}{2})], \) then \( sinh~u= \)

  • (A) \( cos~\theta \)
  • (B) \( sec~\theta \)
  • (C) \( tan~\theta \)
  • (D) \( sin~\theta \)

Question 26:

In \( \Delta ABC \), if \( A+B=120^{\circ} \), \( a=\sqrt{3}+1 \) and \( b=\sqrt{3}-1 \), then \( A:B= \)

  • (A) \( 9:7 \)
  • (B) \( 7:1 \)
  • (C) \( 5:3 \)
  • (D) \( 3:1 \)

Question 27:

If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio 4: 1: 1, then the ratio between its largest side and its perimeter is

  • (A) \( 1:(1+\sqrt{3}) \)
  • (B) \( 2:3 \)
  • (C) \( \sqrt{3}:(2+\sqrt{3}) \)
  • (D) \( 1:(2+\sqrt{3}) \)

Question 28:

If the lengths of the sides of a triangle a, b, c \( (a>b>c) \) are in arithmetic progression and the greatest angle is twice the smallest, then a: b: \( c= \)

  • (A) 6:5:4
  • (B) 5:6:7
  • (C) 5:4:3
  • (D) 13:9:5

Question 29:

A vector \( \vec{a} \) has components \( 2p \) and \( 1 \) with respect to a rectangular Cartesian system. This system is rotated through a certain angle about the origin in the positive direction. If with respect to the new system, \( \vec{a} \) has components \( p+1 \) and \( 1 \), then the values of \( p \) are:

  • (A) \( p=\pm1 \)
  • (B) \( p=-1, p=\frac{1}{3} \)
  • (C) \( p=1, p=-\frac{1}{3} \)
  • (D) \( p=\frac{1}{2}, p=\frac{3}{2} \)

Question 30:

O is the origin, \( \overline{OP} \) and \( \overline{OR} \) are vectors making angles \( 45^{\circ} \) and \( 135^{\circ} \) respectively with the positive direction of x-axis, \( |\overline{OP}|=3 \) and \( |\overline{OR}|=4 \). M is the midpoint of PQ in the rectangle OPQR. If OM meets the diagonal PR at T, then \( \overline{OT}= \)

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}(\overline{i}+\overline{j}) \)
  • (B) \( \frac{2}{3}(\overline{i}+5\overline{j}) \)
  • (C) \( \frac{\sqrt{2}}{3}(\overline{i}-5\overline{i}) \)
  • (D) \( \frac{\sqrt{2}}{3}(\overline{i}+5\overline{j}) \)

Question 31:

If \( \overline{a}=\overline{i}+\overline{j}+\overline{k} \), \( \overline{a}.\overline{b}=1 \) and \( \overline{a}\times\overline{b}=\overline{j}-\overline{k} \), then \( \overline{b}= \)

  • (A) \( \overline{i}-\overline{j}+\overline{k} \)
  • (B) \( 2\overline{j}-\overline{k} \)
  • (C) \( \overline{i} \)
  • (D) \( 2\overline{i} \)

Question 32:

Let \( \overline{a}=4\overline{i}+3\overline{j} \) and \( \overline{b} \) be two vectors in XOY plane, and let \( \overline{a} \) be perpendicular to \( \overline{b} \). Then a vector \( \overline{c} \) in the same plane having projections 1 and 2 respectively on \( \overline{a} \) and \( \overline{b} \) is:

  • (A) \( \overline{i}+2\overline{j} \)
  • (B) \( 2\overline{i}+\overline{j} \)
  • (C) \( \overline{i}-2\overline{j} \)
  • (D) \( 2\overline{i}-\overline{j} \)

Question 33:

If M is the foot of the perpendicular drawn from \( P(1,2,-1) \) to the plane passing through the point \( A(3,-2,1) \) and perpendicular to the vector \( 4\overline{i}+7\overline{j}-4\overline{k} \) then the length of PM is

  • (A) \( \frac{32}{9} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{28}{9} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{26}{5} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{22}{5} \)

Question 34:

Consider the following statements:

Statement - I: The variance of the first n even natural numbers is \( \frac{n^{2}-1}{4} \)

Statement - II: The difference between the variance of the first 20 even natural numbers and their mean is 112

Which of the following is correct?

  • (A) Both the statements I and II are true
  • (B) Both the statements I and II are false
  • (C) Statement I is false and Statement II is true
  • (D) Statement I is true and Statement II is false

Question 35:

From a group of 10 men and 5 women, a four-member committee which includes at least one woman is to be formed. Then the probability for the committee thus formed to have more women than men is:

  • (A) \( \frac{3}{11} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{2}{23} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{11} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{21}{220} \)

Question 36:

From a set containing four positive numbers and four negative numbers, four numbers are chosen at random and they are multiplied. The probability that the obtained product is positive is:

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{4} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{19}{35} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{23}{35} \)

Question 37:

Three numbers are chosen at random from {1, 2, ..., 10}. The probability that the minimum of the chosen numbers is 3 or their maximum is 7, is

  • (A) \( \frac{11}{40} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{3}{10} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{3}{4} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{13}{40} \)

Question 38:

From a pack of 52 playing cards, one card was found missing. From the remaining cards, two cards are drawn at random and found to be spade cards. The probability that the missing card is a spade card is

  • (A) \( \frac{39}{50} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{27}{51} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{11}{50} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{11}{100} \)

Question 39:

A dice is thrown twice. If getting a number greater than four is considered a success, the variance of the probability distribution of the number of successes is

  • (A) \( \frac{2}{9} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{2}{3} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{3}{4} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{4}{9} \)

Question 40:

If the mean and variance of a random variable X having binomial distribution are 4 and 2 respectively, then \( P(X=2)= \)

  • (A) \( \frac{7}{64} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{15}{64} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{21}{64} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{39}{64} \)

Question 41:

The locus of the centre of a circle of radius 2 which rolls on the outside of the circle \( x^{2}+y^{2}+3x-6y-9=0 \) along its circumference is

  • (A) \( x^{2}+y^{2}+3x-6y+5=0 \)
  • (B) \( x^{2}+y^{2}+3x-6y-31=0 \)
  • (C) \( x^{2}+y^{2}+3x-6y+\frac{29}{4}=0 \)
  • (D) \( x^{2}+y^{2}-3x+6y+31=0 \)

Question 42:

Let A be the resulting point after the point (4, 1) undergoes the following transformations successively:

i. reflection in the line \( y=x \)

ii. translation through a distance of 2 units along the positive direction of X-axis.

If the axes are rotated through an angle of \( \frac{\pi}{4} \) about origin in the positive direction, then the coordinates of the point A are

  • (A) \( \left(\frac{7}{\sqrt{2}},\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\right) \)
  • (B) \( (-\sqrt{2},7\sqrt{2}) \)
  • (C) \( \left(-\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}},\frac{7}{\sqrt{2}}\right) \)
  • (D) \( (\sqrt{2},7\sqrt{2}) \)

Question 43:

The straight line which is parallel to X-axis and passing through the intersection of the lines \( ax+2by+3b=0 \) and \( bx-2ay-3a=0 \), \( (a,b)\neq(0,0) \) is

  • (A) above the X-axis at a distance of \( \frac{3}{2} \) units from it
  • (B) above the X-axis at a distance of \( \frac{2}{3} \) units from it
  • (C) below the X-axis at a distance of \( \frac{3}{2} \) units from it
  • (D) below the X-axis at a distance of \( \frac{2}{3} \) units from it

Question 44:

In \( \triangle ABC \), coordinates of A are (1, 2). If the equations of the medians through B and C are \( x+y=5 \) and \( x=4 \) respectively, then the area of \( \triangle ABC \) (in sq. units) is

  • (A) 12
  • (B) 9
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 4

Question 45:

If the slope of one of the lines \( 2x^{2}-17xy+by^{2}=0 \) is 16 times the slope of another line, then the angle between this pair of lines is

  • (A) \( \cos^{-1}(\frac{2}{3}) \)
  • (B) \( \tan^{-1}(\frac{4}{3}) \)
  • (C) \( \tan^{-1}(\frac{3}{2}) \)
  • (D) \( \cos^{-1}(\frac{3}{5}) \)

Question 46:

The square of the distance from the origin to the point of intersection of the pair of lines \( ax^{2}-xy-3y^{2}-5x+20y-25=0 \) is

  • (A) 25
  • (B) 20
  • (C) 13
  • (D) 17

Question 47:

If \( 2x+y-2=0 \) and \( 6x-4y+1=0 \) are two normals of a circle S and the length of the perpendicular drawn from (2, 3) to the line \( 3x+4y-3=0 \) is the radius of S, then the interior point of the circle S among the following options is

  • (A) \( (-1,-3) \)
  • (B) \( (-3,1) \)
  • (C) \( (1,-3) \)
  • (D) \( (3,1) \)

Question 48:

The line \( 5x-12y-4=0 \) cuts the circle \( x^{2}+y^{2}-2x+2y+c=0 \) at two points A, B. If \( AB=2\sqrt{3} \), then the length of the tangent drawn from the point (2, 1) to the given circle is

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4

Question 49:

The perpendicular distance from origin to the tangent drawn at the point \( P(\frac{\pi}{4}) \) to the circle \( x^{2}+y^{2}-4x-4y+6=0 \) is

  • (A) 4
  • (B) \( 3\sqrt{2} \)
  • (C) 6
  • (D) \( 5\sqrt{2} \)

Question 50:

The sum of the slopes of the common tangents drawn to the circles \( x^{2}+y^{2}+4x-2y-11=0 \) and \( x^{2}+y^{2}-2x+6y+6=0 \) is

  • (A) \( \frac{24}{5} \)
  • (B) \( -\frac{24}{5} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{8}{3} \)
  • (D) \( -\frac{8}{3} \)

Question 51:

Let \( \theta \) be the angle between the circles \( x^{2}+y^{2}-4x+2fy-f=0 \) and \( x^{2}+y^{2}+2fx-4y-f=0 \). If \( \cos\theta=\frac{9}{16} \) and \( f\in\mathbb{Z} \), then the distance between the centres of these circles is

  • (A) \( \frac{10\sqrt{2}}{3} \)
  • (B) \( 5\sqrt{2} \)
  • (C) 5
  • (D) 13

Question 52:

Let S be the focus of the parabola \( y^{2}=36x \) and let the line \( x+by+c=0 \) intersect the parabola at the points Q and R. If the centroid of \( \triangle QRS \) is (57,0), then -c is

  • (A) an even number
  • (B) a prime number
  • (C) a perfect square
  • (D) a perfect cube

Question 53:

If a tangent drawn to the parabola \( y^{2}=16x \) meets the curve \( xy=4 \) at the points P and Q, then the locus of midpoint of PQ is

  • (A) \( y^{2}=2x \)
  • (B) \( y^{2}+2x=0 \)
  • (C) \( y^{2}=4x \)
  • (D) \( y^{2}+4x=0 \)

Question 54:

If the distance of a point P on an ellipse from its focus (1, 2) is half of the distance of P from its corresponding directrix \( x+y=0 \), then the point of intersection of the given directrix and its major axis, is

  • (A) \( (2,-2) \)
  • (B) \( (-\frac{1}{2},\frac{1}{2}) \)
  • (C) \( (-1,1) \)
  • (D) \( (\frac{1}{3},-\frac{1}{3}) \)

Question 55:

A normal is drawn to the hyperbola \( 9x^{2}-16y^{2}=144 \) at one of the ends of its latus rectum. If that end lies in the third quadrant and the equation of the normal is \( ax+by+c=0 \) then \( \frac{b+c}{a} = \)

  • (A) \( \frac{44}{25} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{84}{25} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{55}{16} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{145}{16} \)

Question 56:

\( A(1,2,3) \), \( B(3,4,k) \), \( C(2,1,4) \) form an isosceles triangle. If \( AB=BC \), then the area of \( \triangle ABC \) is

  • (A) \( \frac{\sqrt{165}}{4} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{15}{4} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{7}{2} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{\sqrt{114}}{4} \)

Question 57:

If \( A(1,0,1) \), \( B(0,1,-1) \), \( C(-1,1,0) \) are the vertices of a triangle ABC, then \( \cos^{2}A+\cos^{2}B = \)

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{2\sqrt{3}} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{3\sqrt{2}} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{5}{6} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{7}{9} \)

Question 58:

If the angle between the planes \( \lambda x-2y+3z+1=0 \) and \( 2x+3y-\lambda z+\lambda=0 \) is \( \cos^{-1}(\frac{12}{49}) \) and \( \lambda\in\mathbb{Z} \), then the sum of the perpendicular distances from the origin to these planes is

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4

Question 59:

The value of \( \lim_{x\rightarrow0}\frac{e^{2x^{2}}-\cos 2x}{x^{2}} = \)

  • (A) 2
  • (B) \( \frac{5}{2} \)
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 6

Question 60:

The value of \( \lim_{x\rightarrow\infty}\frac{x^{3}+2x^{2}\sin x-4x \cos x}{\sqrt{(3x^{2}+2x \cos x)^{3}}} = \)

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{9} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{3\sqrt{3}} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{2}{3} \)

Question 61:

If the function \[ f(x)= \begin{cases} \dfrac{e^{\,b(x-1)^2}-1}{\sqrt{x^2-1}}, & \text{for } x>1\\[6pt] \sqrt{2}, & \text{for } x=1\\[6pt] \log\!\left(\dfrac{1+bx}{1-bx}\right)\dfrac{1}{\sin^2 x}, & \text{for } 0<x<1 \end{cases} \] is continuous at \(x=1\), then \[ \lim_{x\to 2}\frac{x^2-5x+6}{x-2} \] is:

  • (A) \( b \)
  • (B) \( -b \)
  • (C) \( 2b \)
  • (D) \( -2b \)

Question 62:

If \( y=sech^{-1}\left(\frac{9}{9x^{2}+10}\right) \), then \( \frac{dy}{dx} = \)

  • (A) \( \frac{-18x}{\sqrt{(9x^{2}+10)^{2}+81}} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{-18x}{\sqrt{(9x^{2}+10)^{2}-81}} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{18x}{\sqrt{(9x^{2}+19)(9x^{2}+1)}} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{18x(9x^{2}+10)}{\sqrt{(9x^{2}+19)(9x^{2}+1)}} \)

Question 63:

If \( x^{2}y - xy^{2} + x^{3} - y^{3} = 0 \), then \( \frac{dy}{dx} \) at the point (1, 1) is

  • (A) \( 1 \)
  • (B) \( 0 \)
  • (C) \( -1 \)
  • (D) Does not exist

Question 64:

If \( f(x)=|x-2|(3^{4|x|}-1) \) is a real valued function, then the set of points at which f is not differentiable, is

  • (A) \( \{0\} \)
  • (B) \( \{2\} \)
  • (C) \( \{0, 2\} \)
  • (D) \( \emptyset \)

Question 65:

If a sector of maximum area is made with a wire of length 40 cm, then the area (in sq cms) of that sector is

  • (A) \( 50 \)
  • (B) \( 100 \)
  • (C) \( 25 \)
  • (D) \( 200 \)

Question 66:

If the rate of increase in the surface area of a cube is 6 sq. cm./sec., then the rate of increase in its volume (in c. c./sec), when the length of its edge is 12 cm, is

  • (A) \( 6 \)
  • (B) \( 12 \)
  • (C) \( 18 \)
  • (D) \( 9 \)

Question 67:

Approximate value of \( \sqrt[3]{345} \), when it is calculated with the application of derivatives, is

  • (A) \( 7.013 \)
  • (B) \( 7.025 \)
  • (C) \( 7.001 \)
  • (D) \( 7.003 \)

Question 68:

The length of the normal drawn to the curve \( 2x^{3}+2y^{3}=9xy \) at the point (2, 1) is

  • (A) \( \frac{\sqrt{41}}{4} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{2}{3}\sqrt{41} \)
  • (C) \( \sqrt{5} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{2}{3}\sqrt{5} \)

Question 69:

If \( \int e^{x}\left(\frac{1}{n}+\tan nx\right)\sec nx \, dx = \frac{1}{n}(g(x)+k) = F(x) \) and \( F(0)=1 \), then \( k = \)

  • (A) \( n \)
  • (B) \( n+1 \)
  • (C) \( n-1 \)
  • (D) \( 1 \)

Question 70:

For \( x>0 \), if \( \int \frac{1}{x^{2}+5x+7} \, dx = \frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}F(x)+k \) and \( F\left(-\frac{5}{2}\right)=0 \), then \( \sin(F(x)) = \)

  • (A) \( \frac{2x-5}{\sqrt{3}} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{2x+5}{2\sqrt{x^{2}+5x+7}} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{2\sqrt{x^{2}+5x+7}}{2x+5} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{2\sqrt{x^{2}+5x+7}}{\sqrt{3}} \)

Question 71:

If \( F(x)=\int x(\log x)^{2} \, dx \) and \( F(e)=\frac{e^{2}}{4} \), then \( F(1) = \)

  • (A) \( 0 \)
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{4} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{3\log(2)}{4} \)

Question 72:

If \( \int e^{5x}x^{n} \, dx = F(n, x) + c \), then \( 5F(n, x) + nF(n-1, x) = \)

  • (A) \( F'(n, x) + k \)
  • (B) \( -F'(n, x) + k \)
  • (C) \( \frac{xF'(n, x)}{5} + k \)
  • (D) \( \frac{x^{2}F'(n, x)}{F(n, x)} + k \)

Question 73:

If \( \int \frac{2x+5}{(x-1)(x+1)(x+4)(x+6)} \, dx = \frac{1}{10}\log\left(\frac{f(x)}{g(x)}\right)+c \) and \( \frac{f(-2)}{g(-2)}=6 \), then \( \frac{f(10)}{g(10)} = \)

  • (A) \( \frac{72}{77} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{144}{75} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{55}{63} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{70}{59} \)

Question 74:

If \( \int_{\pi/4}^{3\pi/4} \frac{x \sin x}{1+3\cos 2x} \, dx = k \int_{\pi/4}^{3\pi/4} \frac{\sin x}{1+3\cos 2x} \, dx \), then \( \int_{0}^{k} \sin^{\pi/k}x \, dx = \)

  • (A) \( \frac{2}{3} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{\pi}{2} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{3\pi}{4} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{\pi}{4} \)

Question 75:

If \( \int_{0}^{3} x\left(\sqrt[5]{9-x^{2}}\right) \, dx = k \cdot 3^{1/k} \), then \( k = \)

  • (A) \( \frac{9}{5} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{5}{9} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{5}{12} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{12}{5} \)

Question 76:

\( \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{1}{n}\sum_{r=1}^{n}\sin^{k}\left(\frac{\pi r}{2n}\right)\cos\left(\frac{\pi r}{2n}\right) = \)

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{k+1} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{\pi}{2(k+1)} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{2}{\pi(k+1)} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{2}{k+1} \)

Question 77:

The area (in sq. units) of the region bounded between the curve \( y=x^{2}+5x+1 \) and the line \( 7x-y+1=0 \) is

  • (A) \( 2 \)
  • (B) \( \frac{3}{4} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{4}{3} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{2}{5} \)

Question 78:

The general solution of the differential equation \( \frac{dy}{dx}=x^{2}y(x+y+xy+1) \) is \( y = \)

  • (A) \( A \cdot e^{\frac{x^{3}}{3}} \cdot e^{\frac{x^{4}}{4}}(1+y) \)
  • (B) \( (y+1)Ae^{\dots} \)
  • (C) \( (y+1) + A \cdot e^{\frac{x^{3}}{3}} \cdot e^{\frac{x^{4}}{4}} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{A \cdot e^{\frac{x^{3}}{3}}(y+1)}{e^{\frac{x^{4}}{4}}} \)

Question 79:

The substitution required to reduce the differential equation \( \frac{dy}{dx}+\sin y \cos y \sin x = \sin 2x \cos^{2}y \) to a linear differential equation in z is

  • (A) \( z = \tan x \)
  • (B) \( z = \sin 2y \)
  • (C) \( z = \cos y \)
  • (D) \( z = \tan y \)

Question 80:

The differential equation among the following, whose general solution is \( y=A e^{5x}+B e^{-4x} \) is

  • (A) \( 5\frac{dy}{dx}+4\frac{dx}{dy}=0 \)
  • (B) \( \frac{d^{2}y}{dx^{2}}+\frac{dy}{dx}+20y=0 \)
  • (C) \( \left(\frac{dy}{dx}\right)^{2}-\frac{dy}{dx}-20y=0 \)
  • (D) \( \frac{d^{2}y}{dx^{2}}-\frac{dy}{dx}-20y=0 \)

Question 81:

Match the following physical quantities with their dimensional formulae: \[ \begin{array}{ll} \text{A) Gravitational potential} & \text{I) } L^{2}T^{-2} \\ \text{B) Gravitational potential energy} & \text{II) } ML^{2}T^{-2} \\ \text{C) Gravitational constant} & \text{III) } M^{-1}L^{3}T^{-2} \\ \text{D) Gravitational intensity} & \text{IV) } LT^{-2} \end{array} \] The correct match is:

  • (A) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (B) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • (C) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • (D) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

Question 82:

A velocity-time graph is drawn for two different objects. They make \( 30^{\circ} \) and \( 45^{\circ} \) with the time axis. Then the ratio of their accelerations, \( a_1: a_2 \) is

  • (A) 1:2
  • (B) 2:3
  • (C) \( \sqrt{3}:1 \)
  • (D) \( 1:\sqrt{3} \)

Question 83:

An object is projected with an angle of \( 60^{\circ} \) with horizontal with a velocity V. During the path, when it makes \( 30^{\circ} \) with horizontal, its velocity becomes 10 \( ms^{-1} \), then V is:

  • (A) \( 10\sqrt{3} \, ms^{-1} \)
  • (B) \( \sqrt{30} \, ms^{-1} \)
  • (C) \( 3\sqrt{10} \, ms^{-1} \)
  • (D) \( \sqrt{3} \, ms^{-1} \)

Question 84:

Two bodies projected with same velocity at different angles attain same range. If the time of flights of the bodies are \( T_{1} \) and \( T_{2} \) respectively, then \( \frac{T_{1}}{T_{2}} \) is:

  • (A) \( \tan\theta \)
  • (B) \( \tan^{2}\theta \)
  • (C) \( \cot\theta \)
  • (D) \( \cot^{2}\theta \)

Question 85:

A block of mass 5 kg is sliding with constant velocity of \( 6 \, ms^{-1} \) on a frictionless horizontal surface. The force exerted on the horizontal surface is:

  • (A) 30 N
  • (B) 1.2 N
  • (C) 150 N
  • (D) 49 N

Question 86:

On a wedge of mass 2m, a block of mass m is sliding as shown in the figure. There is no friction between block and wedge. Then the minimum coefficient of friction between wedge and ground so that the wedge does not move is:

  • (A) 0.50
  • (B) 0.25
  • (C) 0.10
  • (D) 0.20

Question 87:

The velocity-time graph of a body of mass 4 kg moving along a straight line is shown in figure. Work done by all the forces acting on the body from \( t=0 \) to \( t=5s \) is

  • (A) 300 J
  • (B) -300 J
  • (C) -600 J
  • (D) 600 J

Question 88:

As shown in figure, a particle slides on a frictionless track which terminates in a straight line horizontal section B. If the particle starts slipping from A, then the horizontal distance to be covered by the particle before it hits the ground after crossing B is:

  • (A) 0.5 m
  • (B) 1 m
  • (C) 1.5 m
  • (D) 2 m

Question 89:

Three bodies A, B, and C of masses 2 kg, 3 kg, and 5 kg respectively are projected simultaneously with the same speed from the roof of a tower. The body A is thrown vertically upwards, body B is thrown vertically downwards and body C is projected horizontally. The acceleration of the centre of mass of the system of three bodies is (Acceleration due to gravity \( = 10 \, m \, s^{-2} \))

  • (A) \( 6 \, m \, s^{-2} \)
  • (B) \( 10 \, m \, s^{-2} \)
  • (C) \( 8 \, m \, s^{-2} \)
  • (D) \( 12 \, m \, s^{-2} \)

Question 90:

If the moment of inertia of solid sphere of mass 2 kg and radius 10 cm about its tangent is I, then the moment of inertia of a uniform disc of mass 3.5 kg and radius 20 cm about its diameter is:

  • (A) 3.75 I
  • (B) 2.25 I
  • (C) 1.25 I
  • (D) 1.75 I

Question 91:

The equation of motion of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is given by \( X=\sqrt{2} [1.2 \sin 2t - 1.6 \cos 2t] \), where \( X \) is displacement in metre and \( t \) is time in second. The velocity of the particle at a time of 0.125 s is:

  • (A) \( 5.6 \, ms^{-1} \)
  • (B) \( 5.6\sqrt{2} \, ms^{-1} \)
  • (C) \( 2.8 \, ms^{-1} \)
  • (D) \( 2.8\sqrt{2} \, ms^{-1} \)

Question 92:

If the minimum time taken by a particle executing simple harmonic motion to move from extreme position to a point at a displacement of 86.6% of the amplitude is T, then the minimum time taken by the particle to move from mean position to a point at a displacement of 86.6% of the amplitude is:

  • (A) T
  • (B) 0.5 T
  • (C) 0.25 T
  • (D) 2 T

Question 93:

If a body is thrown vertically upwards from a height of 0.5 R (R is the radius of the earth) with a velocity equal to the escape velocity of a body from the surface of the earth, then the velocity of the body when it escapes from the gravitational influence of the earth is: (g is the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth)

  • (A) \( \sqrt{2gR} \)
  • (B) \( \sqrt{gR} \)
  • (C) \( \sqrt{\frac{2gR}{3}} \)
  • (D) \( \sqrt{\frac{2gR}{5}} \)

Question 94:

A uniform metal wire is suspended from a rigid ceiling and a solid sphere is attached to the second end of the wire. If the radius of the sphere is doubled and then immersed in a liquid whose density is 60% of the density of the material of the sphere, then the percentage increase in the elongation of the wire is:

  • (A) 420%
  • (B) 120%
  • (C) 220%
  • (D) 320%

Question 95:

A long cylindrical vessel of glass having a hole of 0.5 mm radius at its bottom is slowly lowered vertically into a deep water bath. If the surface tension of water is \( 7 \times 10^{-2} \, Nm^{-1} \) then the maximum depth the vessel can be submerged without water entering through the hole is: (Acceleration due to gravity \( = 10 \, ms^{-2} \))

  • (A) 4.2 cm
  • (B) 5.6 cm
  • (C) 2.8 cm
  • (D) 1.4 cm

Question 96:

A body cools from \( 80^{\circ}C \) to \( 50^{\circ}C \) in 5 min. Calculate the time it takes to cool from \( 60^{\circ}C \) to \( 30^{\circ}C \) if the surrounding temperature is \( 20^{\circ}C \)

  • (A) 5 min
  • (B) 8 min
  • (C) 9 min
  • (D) 6 min

Question 97:

A spherical perfect black body of radius 10 cm is maintained at \( 727^{\circ}C \). The total power radiated from it is (approximately) Stefan-Boltzmann constant, \( \sigma=5.67\times10^{-8} \, Wm^{-2}K^{-4} \)

  • (A) \( 7120 \, W \)
  • (B) \( 7270 \, W \)
  • (C) \( 1000 \, W \)
  • (D) \( 7000 \, W \)

Question 98:

Internal energy of an ideal gas depends only on:

  • (A) P
  • (B) V
  • (C) T
  • (D) P and T

Question 99:

An ideal gas is taken through the cycle \( A\rightarrow B\rightarrow C\rightarrow A \) as shown in figure. If the net heat supplied to the gas in the cycle is 10 J, the work done in the process \( C\rightarrow A \) is:

  • (A) -5 J
  • (B) -10 J
  • (C) +5 J
  • (D) +10 J

Question 100:

The ratio of velocity of sound to the rms velocity of gas molecules in a diatomic gas is:

  • (A) \( \sqrt{\frac{9}{5}} \)
  • (B) \( 5/9 \)
  • (C) \( \frac{7}{15} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{15}{7} \)

Question 101:

A sound source of 1000 Hz frequency approaches the observer with speed \( 20~ms^{-1} \). The observed frequency of sound is nearly: (speed of sound in air \( = 340~ms^{-1} \))

  • (A) 1060 Hz
  • (B) 940 Hz
  • (C) 1020 Hz
  • (D) 1000 Hz

Question 102:

If a person cannot see objects closer than 100 cm, the power of lens required to read at 25 cm is:

  • (A) +3D
  • (B) -3D
  • (C) +4D
  • (D) -4D

Question 103:

A compound microscope consists of an objective lens of focal length \( f_{o}=1~cm \) and an eyepiece of focal length \( f_{e}=5~cm \). An object is placed 1.2 cm in front of the objective. The final image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision. The nature of the intermediate image and the total magnification of the microscope are:

  • (A) Real, inverted; Magnification \( = -50 \)
  • (B) Virtual, inverted; Magnification \( = 30 \)
  • (C) Virtual, erect; Magnification \( = 50 \)
  • (D) Real, inverted; Magnification \( = -30 \)

Question 104:

How fast a person should drive his car so that the red signal of light appears green? (wavelengths of red and green colours are 6200\AA\ and 5400\AA\ respectively)

  • (A) \( 1.5\times10^{8}~ms^{-1} \)
  • (B) \( 7\times10^{7}~ms^{-1} \)
  • (C) \( 3.9\times10^{7}~ms^{-1} \)
  • (D) \( 2\times10^{8}~ms^{-1} \)

Question 105:

The net outward flux through surface of a box is \( 8.0\times10^{3}~Nm^{2}C^{-1} \). The net charge inside the box is (approximately):

  • (A) 70 nC
  • (B) 42 nC
  • (C) 21 nC
  • (D) 60 nC

Question 106:

\(1\,\mu C\) and \(-1\,\mu C\) charges are placed at a distance of \(5\ \text{cm}\), forming a dipole. The amount of torque required to place this dipole perpendicular to an electric field of \(3\times10^{5}\ \text{N C}^{-1}\) is:

  • (A) \(5\times10^{-3}\ \text{N}\cdot\text{m}\)
  • (B) \(15\times10^{-3}\ \text{N}\cdot\text{m}\)
  • (C) \(1\times10^{-3}\ \text{N}\cdot\text{m}\)
  • (D) \(10\times10^{-3}\ \text{N}\cdot\text{m}\)

Question 107:

As shown in the figure two capacitors \( C_{1} \) \& \( C_{2} \) each having same gap between the plates x filled with different media of dielectric constants 3K and 6K respectively. If these two capacitors are connected to a battery, the ratio of potential differences across dielectric layers of \( C_{1} \) and \( C_{2} \) is:

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 6
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 8

Question 108:

The current \( I_{3} \) in the given circuit is:

  • (A) 5 A
  • (B) 3 A
  • (C) -3 A
  • (D) \( -\frac{5}{6}A \)

Question 109:

In the circuit shown in the figure, the current (I) is 6 A when \( R_{3} \) is infinite and current (I) is 9 A when \( R_{3} \) is short circuited. Then the values of \( R_{1} \) and \( R_{2} \) are respectively:

  • (A) \( 4\,\Omega, 2\,\Omega \)
  • (B) \( 2\,\Omega, 4\,\Omega \)
  • (C) \( 2\,\Omega, 2\,\Omega \)
  • (D) \( 1\,\Omega, 4\,\Omega \)

Question 110:

A circular coil connected to a battery of emf E produced a magnetic field at its centre. The coil is unwound, stretched to double its length and rewound into a coil of \( \left(\frac{1}{3}\right)^{rd} \) of its initial radius. If this coil is connected to a battery of emf E' to produce same magnetic field at its centre, then E' is:

  • (A) \( \frac{2E}{9} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{3E}{7} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{9E}{4} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{E}{6} \)

Question 111:

A particle of charge 'q' and mass 'm' starts moving from the origin under the action of electric field, \( \vec{E}=E_{0}\hat{i} \) with a velocity \( v=v_{0}\hat{j} \). The time taken to increase its velocity to \( \frac{\sqrt{5}}{2} v_0 \) is:

  • (A) \( \frac{mv_{0}}{qE_{0}} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{mv_{0}}{2qE_{0}} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{\sqrt{3}mv_{0}}{2qE_{0}} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{\sqrt{5}mv_{0}}{2qE_{0}} \)

Question 112:

Two identical short bar magnets, each having a magnetic moment of 10 \( Am^{2} \) are arranged such that their axial lines are perpendicular to each other and their centres be along the same straight line in a horizontal plane. If the distance between their centres is 0.2 m, the resultant magnetic induction at a point midway between them is: (\( \mu_{\circ}=4\pi\times10^{-7}~Hm^{-1} \))

  • (A) \( \sqrt{2}\times10^{-7}~T \)
  • (B) \( \sqrt{5}\times10^{-7}~T \)
  • (C) \( \sqrt{2}\times10^{-3}~T \)
  • (D) \( \sqrt{5}\times10^{-3}~T \)

Question 113:

A circular coil of radius 8 cm, 400 turns and resistance \( 2\,\Omega \) is placed with its plane perpendicular to the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field. It is rotated about its vertical diameter through \( 180^{\circ} \) in 0.30 sec. Horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field at the place is \( 3\times10^{-5} \) T. The magnitude of current induced in the coil is approximately:

  • (A) \( 4\times10^{-2}~A \)
  • (B) \( 8\times10^{-4}~A \)
  • (C) \( 8\times10^{-2}~A \)
  • (D) \( 1.92\times10^{-3}~A \)

Question 114:

An ac source has a peak voltage \( \frac{200}{\sqrt{2}} \) V and frequency 50 Hz. The value of voltage after \( \frac{1}{600} \) s from the start is:

  • (A) 220 V
  • (B) \( \frac{200}{\sqrt{2}}V \)
  • (C) \( \frac{100}{\sqrt{2}}V \)
  • (D) 50 V

Question 115:

A solar cell has a light gathering area of \( 10\,cm^{2} \) and produces 0.2 A at 0.8 V (D.C.) when illuminated with sunlight of intensity \( 1000\,Wm^{-2} \). The efficiency of the solar cell is:

  • (A) 16%
  • (B) 12%
  • (C) 8%
  • (D) 20%

Question 116:

Sodium and Copper have work functions 2.3 eV and 4.5 eV respectively. Then the ratio of their threshold wavelengths is nearly:

  • (A) 1:2
  • (B) 4:2
  • (C) 2:1
  • (D) 1:4

Question 117:

An electron is moving in an orbit of hydrogen atom in which there can be a maximum of six transitions. Another electron is moving in another orbit of hydrogen atom in which there can be a maximum of three transitions. The ratio of the velocity of electrons in these two orbits is:

  • (A) 3:4
  • (B) 2:3
  • (C) 3:2
  • (D) 4:3

Question 118:

Energy released in the fission of a single \( {}_{92}U^{235} \) nucleus is 200 MeV. The fission rate of a \( {}_{92}U^{235} \) fueled reactor operating at a power level of 5W is:

  • (A) \( 1.56\times10^{11}\,s^{-1} \)
  • (B) \( 1.56\times10^{10}\,s^{-1} \)
  • (C) \( 1.56\times10^{16}\,s^{-1} \)
  • (D) \( 1.56\times10^{17}\,s^{-1} \)

Question 119:

In the logic circuit, if A=1 and B=1, the outputs \( Y_{3} \) and Y are respectively:

  • (A) 0, 0
  • (B) 0, 1
  • (C) 1, 0
  • (D) 1, 1

Question 120:

A TV transmitting antenna is 81 m tall. Service area covered, if the receiving antenna is at the ground level, will be about:

  • (A) \( 3257~km^{2} \)
  • (B) \( 4250~km^{2} \)
  • (C) \( 2500~km^{2} \)
  • (D) \( 1500~km^{2} \)

Question 121:

Wavelength of a particular line in Balmer series of atomic spectrum of hydrogen is 656.4 nm. What is the wavelength (in nm) of corresponding line in the spectrum of \(He^{+1}\)?

  • (A) 328.2
  • (B) 164.1
  • (C) 492.3
  • (D) 246.1

Question 122:

In an atom, electron is moving with a speed of \(x~ms^{-1}.\) If its speed is measured within an accuracy of 0.001%, what is its uncertainty in position (in m)? \((m_{e}=9\times10^{-31}kg, h=6.6\times10^{-34}Js)\)

  • (A) \(\frac{3\pi x}{55}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{55\pi}{3x}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{55}{3\pi x}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{55x}{3\pi}\)

Question 123:

In which of the following, elements are not in correct order with respect to the property mentioned in brackets?

  • (A) \( S < P < N < O \) (Electronegativity)
  • (B) \( Br < Ge < Ga < Ca \) (Atomic radius)
  • (C) \( Al < Mg < S < P \) (First ionization enthalpy)
  • (D) \( Mg < Ca < K < Cs \) (Metallic nature)

Question 124:

In which of the following sets, molecules are correctly arranged in the decreasing order of covalent character?

I. \( AlCl_{3} > MgCl_{2} > NaCl \)

II. \( BeCl_{2} > MgCl_{2} > CaCl_{2} \)

III. \( CaI_{2} > CaBr_{2} > CaCl_{2} \)

  • (A) \( I, II \) only
  • (B) \( I, II, III \)
  • (C) \( II, III \) only
  • (D) \( I, III \) only

Question 125:

Observe the following statements:

Statement - I: The correct order of O-O bond length in \( O_{2} \), \( H_{2}O_{2} \) and \( O_{3} \) is \( H_{2}O_{2} > O_{3} > O_{2} \).

Statement - II: Hybridisation of carbon in graphite and pyridine is same.

  • (A) Both statements I and II are correct
  • (B) Statement I is correct, but statement II is not correct
  • (C) Statement I is not correct, but statement II is correct
  • (D) Both statements I and II are not correct

Question 126:

At 300 K, one mole of a gas present in a 10 L flask exerted a pressure of 2.71 atm. What is its compressibility factor? \((R=0.082~L~atm~mol^{-1}K^{-1})\)

  • (A) \(1.15 \)
  • (B) \(0.95 \)
  • (C) \(1.10 \)
  • (D) \(0.91 \)

Question 127:

Observe the following unbalanced equation \(aS_{8}+b~OH^{-}(aq)\rightarrow cS^{2-}(aq)+dS_{2}O_{3}^{2-}(aq)+eH_{2}O(l)\). In the balanced equation, the ratio of c and d is:

  • (A) \(1:2 \)
  • (B) \(2:1 \)
  • (C) \(1:3 \)
  • (D) \(3:1 \)

Question 128:

At constant temperature, one mole of an ideal gas of volume 2L was expanded to 100 L against an external pressure of 1 atm under reversible conditions. What is the change in internal energy? \((1 L atm=101.3~J; log~5=0.7)\)

  • (A) Zero
  • (B) 793.2 J
  • (C) 3266 J
  • (D) 326.6 J

Question 129:

What is the enthalpy change \((in~J~mol^{-1})\) for the conversion of 1 mole of \(H_{2}O (l)\) at \(10^{\circ}C\) to 1 mole of \(H_{2}O (s)\) at \(-10^{\circ}C\)? \((At~0^{\circ}C~H_{2}O(s)+x~kj~mol^{-1}\rightarrow H_{2}O(l); C_{p}(H_{2}O(l))=yJ~mol^{-1}K^{-1}; C_{p}(H_{2}O(s))=zJ~mol^{-1}K^{-1})\)

  • (A) \(-(1000x+10y+10z)\)
  • (B) \(-(x + y + z)\)
  • (C) \(-(1000x+y-z)\)
  • (D) \(-(1000x-y+z)\)

Question 130:

At \(T(K)\), in a 10 L flask, the following equilibrium is established:

\(2SO_{2}(g)+O_{2}(g)\rightleftharpoons 2SO_{3}(g)\).

The value of \(K_{c}\) for this reaction is 100. At equilibrium, the number of moles of \(SO_{3}(g)\) is equal to twice the number of moles of \(SO_{2}(g)\). What is the number of moles of \(O_{2}(g)\) at equilibrium?

  • (A) \(0.04 \)
  • (B) \(0.4 \)
  • (C) \(0.02 \)
  • (D) \(0.2 \)

Question 131:

What is the conjugate acid of \(H_{3}P_{2}O_{6}^{-}\)?

  • (A) Orthophosphorus acid
  • (B) Hypophosphorus acid
  • (C) Pyrophosphoric acid
  • (D) Hypophosphoric acid

Question 132:

The total number of electrons, protons and neutrons present in the three isotopes of hydrogen is

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 5
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 9

Question 133:

Which of the given statements are not correct for Li and Mg?

I. Both Li and Mg mainly give monoxides only
II. Both Li and Mg react slowly with water
III. Both Li and Mg give flame test
IV. On combustion in air, Mg forms \(Mg_3N_2\) but Li does not form \(Li_3N\)

  • (A) I & II
  • (B) I & III
  • (C) I & IV
  • (D) III & IV

Question 134:

The structure of \(Al_{2}Cl_{6}\) is given below. The correct order of bond angles X, Y and Z is

  • (A) \(X>Y>Z\)
  • (B) \(Z>X>Y\)
  • (C) \(Y>X>Z\)
  • (D) \(Z>Y>X\)

Question 135:

Which of the following reaction is not correct?

  • (A) \(SiF_{4}+2F^{-}\rightarrow[SiF_{6}]^{2-} \)
  • (B) \(GeCl_{4}+2Cl^{-}\rightarrow[GeCl_{6}]^{2-} \)
  • (C) \(Sn(OH)_{4}+2OH^{-}\rightarrow[Sn(OH)_{6}]^{2-} \)
  • (D) \(SiCl_{4}+2Cl^{-}\rightarrow[SiCl_{6}]^{2-} \)

Question 136:

Which ions in drinking water causes a disease 'methemoglobinemia' when they are above permissible level?

  • (A) \(SO_{4}^{2-} \)
  • (B) \(NO_{3}^{-} \)
  • (C) \(F^{-} \)
  • (D) \(CH_{3}COO^{-} \)

Question 137:

In the estimation of sulphur by Carius method. x g of an organic compound gave 0.233 g of \(BaSO_{4}\) If the percentage of sulphur in it is 8.89%, the value of x is

  • (A) 0.12
  • (B) 0.24
  • (C) 0.36
  • (D) 0.48

Question 138:

Consider the following carbocations and the correct stability order for the above carbocations is

  • (A) \((b) > (a) > (d) > (c) \)
  • (B) \((b) > (d) > (c) > (a) \)
  • (C) \((d) > (b) > (c) > (a) \)
  • (D) \((d) > (b) > (a) > (c) \)

Question 139:

The ratio of number of \(sp^{3}\) hybrid orbitals to number of \(sp^{2}\) hybrid orbitals in the major product (Z) of the given reaction sequence is

  • (A) 3:5
  • (B) 3:2
  • (C) 2:3
  • (D) 3:4

Question 140:

The number of unit cells in 5.85 g of cube shaped ideal crystal of NaCl \((Z=4)\) is \(x\times10^{21}\). The value of x is

  • (A) 10
  • (B) 18
  • (C) 15
  • (D) 20

Question 141:

What mass (in g) of glycerol is required to produce the same anti-freezing effect in 1.0 L of water as that of 20 g of NaCl in 1.0 L of water? (molar mass of glycerol = 92 g mol\(^{-1}\), assume NaCl is 97% dissociated)

  • (A) 52.96
  • (B) 61.96
  • (C) 41.91
  • (D) 72.96

Question 142:

The value of \(log K_{c}\) for the given cell reaction at 298 K is

\(Cu(s)+2Ag^{+}(aq)\rightarrow Cu^{2+}(aq)+2Ag(s)\).

(Given: \(E^{\circ}_{Cu^{2+}/Cu}=0.34V, E^{\circ}_{Ag^{+}/Ag}=0.80V; \frac{2.303RT}{F}=0.06\))

  • (A) 45.33
  • (B) 20.33
  • (C) 15.33
  • (D) 30.66

Question 143:

The number of moles of \(H_{2}\) gas liberated at cathode, when 10 mA current is passed through dilute NaCl for \(19.3 \times 10^{4}\) seconds is (\(F=96500 C mol^{-1}\))

  • (A) 0.50
  • (B) 0.02
  • (C) 0.01
  • (D) 0.15

Question 144:

When 50 mL of 2M \(N_{2}O_{5}\) was heated, 0.28 L of \(O_{2}\) was formed at STP after 30 minutes. The concentration of unreacted \(N_{2}O_{5}\) is X M and average rate is Y. What are X and Y?

  • (A) 0.5, \(1.66 \times 10^{-2}\)
  • (B) 1.0, \(3.33 \times 10^{-2}\)
  • (C) 1.5, \(1.66 \times 10^{-2}\)
  • (D) 0.75, \(2.50 \times 10^{-2}\)

Question 145:

If a graph is drawn between \(log(x/m)\) (y-axis) and log p (x-axis) we get a straight line with slope equal to 2 and intercept equal to 0.60. The value of x/m at 9 atm is (\(log 4=0.60\))

  • (A) 243
  • (B) 81
  • (C) 162
  • (D) 324

Question 146:

Which of the following is most effective towards coagulation of CdS sol?

  • (A) \(K_{2}SO_{4}\)
  • (B) \(CaCl_{2}\)
  • (C) \(Na_{3}PO_{4}\)
  • (D) \(AlCl_{3}\)

Question 147:

Wrought iron is prepared from cast iron in a reverberatory furnace. The substance commonly used to line the furnace and the chemical process involved in it are respectively

  • (A) Magnetite, reduction
  • (B) Magnetite, oxidation
  • (C) Haematite, oxidation
  • (D) Haematite, reduction

Question 148:

Chlorine gas reacts with cold, dilute NaOH to produce NaCl, H\(_2\)O and (X). With hot, concentrated NaOH, it produces NaCl, H\(_2\)O and (Y). Identify the correct statements regarding the oxidation states of chlorine in X and Y.


The oxidation state of chlorine in Y is same as that of nitrogen in nitric acid
The oxidation state of chlorine in X is same as that of phosphorus in phosphinic acid
The sum of the oxidation states of chlorine in X and Y is same as that of iodine in iodic acid

  • (A) I, II only
  • (B) II, III only
  • (C) I, III only
  • (D) I, II, III

Question 149:

The method by which very pure nitrogen can be obtained is

  • (A) Thermal decomposition of ammonium dichromate
  • (B) Thermal decomposition of barium azide
  • (C) Reaction of aqueous ammonium chloride with sodium nitrite
  • (D) Thermal decomposition of ammonium nitrate

Question 150:

The nature of chromium oxide formed by the thermal decomposition of ammonium dichromate is

  • (A) acidic
  • (B) basic
  • (C) neutral
  • (D) amphoteric

Question 151:

In which of the following given sets, complexes are correctly arranged in the increasing order of their spin-only magnetic moment values?

\[ \begin{aligned} \text{I. } & [\mathrm{Fe(CN)_6}]^{4-} < [\mathrm{Fe(CN)_6}]^{3-} < [\mathrm{Fe(H_2O)_6}]^{3+} \\[6pt] \text{II. } & [\mathrm{Co(NH_3)_6}]^{3+} < [\mathrm{Ni(H_2O)_6}]^{2+} < [\mathrm{Cr(H_2O)_6}]^{3+} \\[6pt] \text{III. } & [\mathrm{V(H_2O)_6}]^{3+} < [\mathrm{Cr(CN)_6}]^{3-} < [\mathrm{Fe(H_2O)_6}]^{2+} \end{aligned} \]
  • (A) I, II only
  • (B) I, II, III
  • (C) II, III only
  • (D) I, III only

Question 152:

Which of the following is not an example of copolymer?

  • (A) Bakelite
  • (B) Dacron
  • (C) Buna-N
  • (D) Perlan-L

Question 153:

Which of the following are the correct statements about D-glucose?

\[ \begin{aligned} \text{I. } & \text{It forms oxime with hydroxylamine} \\ \text{II. } & \text{It forms addition product with } \mathrm{NaHSO_3} \\ \text{III. } & \text{It forms cyanohydrin with } \mathrm{HCN} \\ \text{IV. } & \text{It forms saccharic acid with bromine water} \end{aligned} \]
  • (A) II \& III only
  • (B) I \& III only
  • (C) II \& IV only
  • (D) III \& IV only

Question 154:

Which of the following represents the structure of 'Terpineol'?



  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4

Question 155:

Which of the following four compounds (I to IV) are correctly arranged in decreasing order of reactivity towards \(S_{N}2\) reaction?

I. 1-Bromobutane

II. 1-Bromo-2-methylbutane

III. 1-Bromo-2,2-dimethylpropane

IV. 1-Bromo-3-methylbutane

  • (A) \(I > IV > III > II\)
  • (B) \(I > II > III > IV\)
  • (C) \(I > III > IV > II\)
  • (D) \(IV > III > II > I\)

Question 156:

What are X and Y respectively in the following set of reactions? (R--Br + \(CH_{3}CH_{2}O^-\) \(\rightarrow\) X; R--Br + \((CH_{3})_{3}CO^-\) \(\rightarrow\) Y)




  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4

Question 157:

Ethanal \[ \xrightarrow[\text{ii. } H_2O]{\text{i. } (CH_3)_2CHMgBr} \] X;

Propanone \[ \xrightarrow[\text{ii. } H_2O]{\text{i. } C_2H_5MgBr} \] Y.

Consider the following statements:

I. Ease of dehydration is \(Y>X\)

II. Acidic character is \(X>Y\)

III. Reactivity towards Lucas reagent is \(X>Y\)

  • (A) I, II only
  • (B) I, III only
  • (C) II, III only
  • (D) I, II, III

Question 158:

Benzonitrile (A) + X \(\rightarrow\) B; A + Y \(\rightarrow\) C. B + C \(\xrightarrow{dil.\ NaOH}\) \(\alpha,\beta\)-unsaturated carbonyl compound. What are X and Y?

  • (A) DIBAL-H, \(H_2O\); \((CH_3)_2Cd\)
  • (B) \(SnCl_2 + HCl,\ H_3O^+\); \(CH_3MgBr,\ H_2O\)
  • (C) DIBAL-H, \(H_2,\ Ni\)
  • (D) \(SnCl_2 + HCl,\ H_2O\); \((CH_3)_2Cd\)

Question 159:

Alkyl halide A (\(C_4H_9Br\)) + NaOH \(\rightarrow\) alcohol (B). Alcohol B + reagent C \(\rightarrow\) carboxylic acid D. What are C and D?

  • (A) \([Ag(NH_3)_2]^+\); OH
  • (B) PCC; OH
  • (C) dil.\ \(KMnO_4,\ 273K\); OH
  • (D) \(CrO_3-H_2SO_4\); OH

Question 160:

Consider the reactions: Y \(\xrightarrow{i.\ LiAlH_4,\ ii.\ H_2O}\) X; \(CONH_2 \xrightarrow{Br_2/OH^-}\) X. Statements: I. \(pK_b\) of X \(>\) Y; II. Both form stable diazonium salts with \(NaNO_2/HCl\); III. Both prepared by ammonolysis.

  • (A) I, II only
  • (B) II, III only
  • (C) I only
  • (D) I, III only

AP EAPCET 2026 Paper Pattern – Engineering

Section Number of Questions Marks per Question Weightage Total Marks
Mathematics 80 1 80 80
Physics 40 1 40 40
Chemistry 40 1 40 40
Total 160 1 160 160

AP EAPCET 2026 Engineering Paper Analysis