NEET PG 2024 Question Paper PDF (memory-based) for Shift 1 is available for download here. NBE conducted NEET PG 2024 Shift 1 exam on August 11, 2024 from 9 AM to 12.30 PM. NEET PG 2024 was conducted in online CBT mode for a duration of 3 hours 30 minutes. NEET PG 2024 question paper comprises 200 questions carrying a total weightage of 800 marks.

NEET PG 2024 Question Paper with Solutions PDF for Shift 1

NEET PG 2024 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solutions PDF download iconDownload Check Solutions

NEET PG 2024 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solution

Question 1:

Male not responding to O-2, diagnosis ARDS. What is the role of IL-8 in ARDS?

  • (A) Endothelial cell activation
  • (B) Requirement of neutrophil
  • (C) Macrophage activation
  • (D) Promote surfactant production

Question 2:

A patient presents with the finding as shown, What is the best investigation for Wilson's disease?

  • (A) Urine Copper
  • (B) Hepatic copper
  • (C) S. Ceruloplasmin
  • (D) MRI Brain

Question 3:

Which tumor is positive for TTF-1?

  • (A) Squamous Cell Carcinoma (Sq)
  • (B) Small Cell Carcinoma (Small)
  • (C) Adenocarcinoma (Adeno Ca)
  • (D) Carcinoid

Question 4:

Vitamin to be supplemented after gastrectomy?

  • (A) Vitamin A
  • (B) Vitamin C
  • (C) Vitamin B12
  • (D) Vitamin D

Question 5:

10-year-old male presents with cervical lymphadenopathy, Surface Ig+, CD34-, CD5-, CD23-, Tdt-, CD10+, CD19+:

  • (A) Burkitt's Lymphoma
  • (B) Diffuse Large B-cell Lymphoma (DLBCL)
  • (C) Anaplastic Large Cell Lymphoma (ALCL)
  • (D) B-cell Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (B-ALL)

Question 6:

Most common mutation in Papillary cell carcinoma?

  • (A) BRAF V600E
  • (B) RET
  • (C) MET
  • (D) RAS

Question 7:

Renal mass, haematuria, flank pain:

  • (A) Clear cell
  • (B) Papillary
  • (C) Chromophobic
  • (D) Belini

Question 8:

Which disease will show the following mode of inheritance?

  • (A) Wiskott
  • (B) Wilson
  • (C) Prader-Willi
  • (D) Achondroplasia

Question 9:

Young male died during exercise. History of similar deaths in sibling, On gross morphology: septal thickening was seen. Most common cause of death?

  • (A) Dilated Cardiomyopathy (DCM)
  • (B) Restrictive Cardiomyopathy (RCM)
  • (C) Hypertrophic Obstructive Cardiomyopathy (HOCM)
  • (D) Viral Myocarditis

Question 10:

Which is not true?

  • (A) VWD type 1 is mostly severe in children
  • (B) VWD type 3 is mostly severe in children
  • (C) VWD type 2 is more related to activity rather than levels
  • (D) VWD type 3 has severely low VWD

Question 11:

Child presents with sunlight causing eruptions, diagnosed with a DNA repair defect. Which defect could it be?

  • (A) Nucleotide excision
  • (B) Base excision repair
  • (C) Mismatch repair defect
  • (D) Recombination defect

Question 12:

18-year-old male with hepatosplenomegaly, Hb 7 gm percent, LN+, WBC 50K, platelets 30, petechiae, purpura, and fatigue: what is the most appropriate management?

  • (A) Cytarabine + Iso?
  • (B) IVIG x 2 days
  • (C) Prednisolone + Vinblastine
  • (D) Radiotherapy to LN

Question 13:

A baby failed to pass meconium. The structures absent in the disease are absent in which layer?

  • (A) Epithelial
  • (B) Submucosa
  • (C) Muscular
  • (D) Serosa

Question 14:

Muscle responsible for ptosis in Horner syndrome:

  • (A) Orbicularis oculi
  • (B) Levator palpebrae
  • (C) Horner muscle
  • (D) Muller's muscle

Question 15:

A patient presented to the eye OPD after 3 years of cataract surgery. Slit lamp finding was given. What is the likely diagnosis?

  • (A) PCO
  • (B) Bullous keratopathy
  • (C) Phakic glaucoma
  • (D) Lens subluxation

Question 16:

Following perimetry image is suggestive of?

  • (A) Extension of blind spot
  • (B) Arcuate scotoma
  • (C) Reinee step defect
  • (D) Altitude Anopia

Question 17:

A patient came with nyctalopia. Rational image given below, what will be the diagnosis?

  • (A) Retinitis pigmentosa
  • (B) Vitamin A deficiency
  • (C) Retinal detachment
  • (D) Diabetic retinopathy

Question 18:

Patient was shown image A along with image B. Image C was visualised. What is the likely diagnosis?

  • (A) Left eye suppression
  • (B) Right eye suppression
  • (C) Crossed diplopia
  • (D) Uncrossed diplopia

Question 19:

A patient presents in the eye OPD with this finding. What is the diagnosis?

  • (A) Dermoid
  • (B) Lipodermoid
  • (C) Pterygium
  • (D) Papilloma

Question 20:

In Wilson's disease, the best choice of investigation is?

  • (A) Serum copper
  • (B) Ceruloplasmin
  • (C) Hepatic copper estimation
  • (D) Urine copper

Question 21:

Clinical scenario about homocystinuria, which vitamin to be supplemented?

  • (A) Thiamine
  • (B) Vitamin B6
  • (C) Biotin
  • (D) Pyruvate

Question 22:

A 2-week-old baby presented with vomiting, acidosis, early cataract. Which of the following enzyme is defective?

  • (A) Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase
  • (B) Galactokinase
  • (C) Hexokinase
  • (D) Aldol reductase

Question 23:

Diagnosis of MRI image:

  • (A) Arnold-Chiari malformation
  • (B) Corpus callosal agenesis
  • (C) Vein of Galen malformation
  • (D) Dandy-Walker malformation

Question 24:

A 76-year-old elderly patient presents in a confused state. He is on antihypertensive medication and on aspirin due to a previous heart attack. There is a minor trauma due to fall from a chair 3 weeks back. NCCT is done and shows the following. Diagnosis?

  • (A) SAH (Subarachnoid Hemorrhage)
  • (B) EDH (Epidural Hematoma)
  • (C) Normal Study
  • (D) Chronic SDH (Subdural Hematoma)

Question 25:

Diagnosis of MRCP image:

  • (A) GB Stone (Gallbladder Stone)
  • (B) Cholangiocarcinoma
  • (C) Choledochal Cyst
  • (D) Gall and Blood Cancer

Question 26:

A 35-year-old nullipara female presented with dull aching pain with exacerbation during the menstrual cycle. USG reveals a heterogeneous mass in the right adnexa. MRI reveals a 4 x 5 cm T1 hyperintense mass with no suppression on fat-saturated images. T2-weighted images show low signal with dark shading. Diagnosis?

  • (A) Dermoid cyst
  • (B) Endometrioma
  • (C) Ovarian cancer
  • (D) Para-Ovarian Cyst

Question 27:

Diagnosis of following Plain X-ray of abdomen:

  • (A) Enterolith in jejunum
  • (B) Calcific mediastinal lymph nodes
  • (C) Horse shoe kidney with calculi
  • (D) Chronic calcific pancreatitis

Question 28:

A patient has Proteus infection and now plain X-ray of abdomen was done and a large stone was shown in the urinary bladder. The stone is made up of:

  • (A) Calcium Phosphate
  • (B) Cysteine
  • (C) Calcium Oxalate
  • (D) Xanthine

Question 29:

Correct statement regarding esophageal foreign body (FB):

  • (A) Right main bronchus is one of the sites of constriction
  • (B) Most common site of impaction is cricopharyngeus
  • (C) Commonly seen in adults
  • (D) Can’t cause mediastinitis

Question 30:

Gastrectomy patient needs supplemental: (PART A)

  • (A) Vitamin C
  • (B) Vitamin D
  • (C) Vitamin B12
  • (D) Vitamin A

Question 31:

After a right limb amputation, the patient is experiencing severe phantom limb pain. What is the mechanism behind this?

  • (A) Projection of adjacent fibers to overlap to right sensory cortex
  • (B) Projection of adjacent fibers to overlap to left sensory cortex
  • (C) Expansion of right sensory cortex
  • (D) Expansion of left sensory cortex

Question 32:

Patient had sunburn and now takes a bath with 40-degree water and feels pain.

  • (A) Thermal receptor: hyperalgesia
  • (B) Innocuous thermal receptor: allodynia
  • (C) Thermal receptor: allodynia
  • (D) Innocuous thermal receptor: hyperalgesia

Question 33:

A 50-year-old female presented with dyspnea and chest pain. Which of the following proves that she has aortic stenosis rather than aortic regurgitation?

  • (A) Increase in myocardial oxygen consumption is seen with increased pressure work than volume
  • (B) Aortic stenosis causes reduced pressure at aortic valve
  • (C) Workload has nothing to do with myocardial oxygen consumption
  • (D) Increase in preload more than afterload than afterload

Question 34:

Taste absent in which tastebud?

  • (A) Filliform
  • (B) Foliate
  • (C) Fungiform Papilla
  • (D) Circumvallate

Question 35:

Which receptor helps in the improvement of insulin resistance in DM2 with regular exercise and physical activity?

  • (A) GLUT1
  • (B) GLUT4
  • (C) GLUT2
  • (D) GLUT3

Question 36:

A man is having difficulty sleeping during the night. He has the habit of drinking coffee before bedtime. What is the role of caffeine in wakefulness?

  • (A) Blocks adenosine action and causes wakefulness
  • (B) Activates locus coeruleus and causes wakefulness
  • (C) No role in maintaining wakefulness if taken 1hr before sleep
  • (D) Activates histamine release and prevents sleep

Question 37:

RMP predominantly affected by which ion?

  • (A) K+
  • (B) Ca
  • (C) Na
  • (D) Cl

Question 38:

Alcoholic gait, nystagmus after RTA, which lobe of cerebellum is affected?

  • (A) Flocculonodular
  • (B) Dentate
  • (C) Anterior lobe
  • (D) Vermis

Question 39:

A 14-year-old boy presented with nasal mass and recurrent episodes of bleeding from the mass. Investigation of choice?

  • (A) Plain CT
  • (B) CT with contrast
  • (C) X-ray Caldwell view
  • (D) X-ray with Pierre view

Question 40:

Cochlear implant given below, identify the marked structure:

  • (A) Internal magnet
  • (B) Electrode
  • (C) Receiver
  • (D) Antenna

Question 41:

Which nerve supplies the external ear?

  • (A) ATN, greater auricular, 7 and 10
  • (B) Greater auricular, 7 and 10, ATN
  • (C) 7 and 10, ATN, greater auricular nerve
  • (D) ATN, 7 and 10, GAN

Question 42:

In head impulse test, the following finding is seen in right vestibular neuritis:

  • (A) On rotating head to right, left saccade
  • (B) On rotating head to left, right saccade
  • (C) On rotating head toward right, right saccade
  • (D) On rotating to the left, left saccade

Question 43:

Which of the following instrument insertions will be difficult:

  • (A) Nasogastric Tube
  • (B) LMA
  • (C) Tracheostomy
  • (D) Indirect Laryngoscopy

Question 44:

A singer presents with problems in high pitch. On examination, bowing of one side vocal cord is seen. Which of the following muscles is affected?

  • (A) Posterior cricoarytenoid
  • (B) Lateral cricoarytenoid
  • (C) Cricothyroid
  • (D) Thyroarytenoid

Question 45:

A 45-year-old male presents with breathlessness and undergoes a CT scan of the paranasal sinuses (PNS). Which sinus is obstructed?

  • (A) Maxillary
  • (B) Frontal
  • (C) Sphenoid
  • (D) Ethmoid

Question 46:

Intraoperatively, which stain is used to view the following lesion:

  • (A) AgNO3
  • (B) Toluidine Blue
  • (C) Congo red
  • (D) Methylene blue

Question 47:

Gag reflex will be absent in which nerve injury?

  • (A) 5 and 10
  • (B) 9 and 10
  • (C) 10 and 12
  • (D) 7 and 9

Question 48:

In the given X-ray, which of the following signs is seen:

Correct Answer: 1. Double ring sign
View Solution

Question 49:

Taste absent in which taste bud?

  • (A) Filliform
  • (B) Foliate
  • (C) Papilla
  • (D) Circumvallate

Question 50:

Which of the following may be true in this patient?

  • (A) Oesophagus is the correct site
  • (B) Most commonly in adults
  • (C) Mostly above cricoid
  • (D) Mediastinal infection not present

Question 51:

A patient presented with complaints of hearing loss, and the otoscopy finding shown. What will be the Rinne test finding?

  • (A) True positive
  • (B) True negative
  • (C) False positive
  • (D) False negative

Question 52:

A female with mild CHL and tinnitus. The PTA is shown. What is the interpretation?

  • (A) Otosclerosis
  • (B) Meniere's disease
  • (C) NIHL (Noise-Induced Hearing Loss)
  • (D) None

Question 53:

A nasal surgery was done in this patient, and the incision mark is shown. Which of these is probably done?

  • (A) Septoplasty
  • (B) Rhinoplasty
  • (C) FESS
  • (D) Young's surgery

Question 54:

A man meets with an RTA and comes to the emergency department with complaints of back pain. No neurological deficit. X-ray spine done. What will be the diagnosis?

  • (A) Fracture of spinous process
  • (B) Compressed fracture
  • (C) Fracture of base of vertebrae
  • (D) Chance fracture

Question 55:

What is the type of classification used for this fracture and its type?

  • (A) Gartland type 3
  • (B) Salter Harris type 3
  • (C) Gartland type 4
  • (D) Salter Harris type 4

Question 56:

A child with this deformity. He has recurrent tooth abscesses. Calcium normal, Phosphorus low, PTH normal, ALP high. Diagnosis is?

  • (A) Nutritional rickets
  • (B) VDDR1 (Vitamin D Dependent Rickets Type 1)
  • (C) VDDR2 (Vitamin D Dependent Rickets Type 2)
  • (D) Hypophosphatemic rickets

Question 57:

A 16-year-old boy claiming to be 18 years old. Which 2 joints should be checked for age estimation?

  • (A) Wrist and knee
  • (B) Hip and elbow
  • (C) Hip and knee
  • (D) Head and shoulder

Question 58:

What is the device/implant shown in this following picture used for femur neck fracture?

  • (A) Condylar plate
  • (B) Dynamic condylar screw
  • (C) Dynamic hip screw
  • (D) Locking plate

Question 59:

Pain in the back of the leg and thigh after lifting heavy weight. Which segment is involved?

  • (A) L4
  • (B) L5
  • (C) L3
  • (D) S1

Question 60:

Fracture of the base of the 5th metatarsal, below knee cast should be worn for:

  • (A) 6-8 weeks
  • (B) 2-3 weeks
  • (C) 16-20 weeks
  • (D) 3-5 weeks

Question 61:

A football player had a twist of the knee and ankle, clinically no bony injury was appreciated. The examiner is doing the test as shown here. Which test is this?

  • (A) Ant drawer for ACL
  • (B) Post drawer for PCL
  • (C) McMurray
  • (D) Lachman

Question 62:

Fracture at which site will affect the longitudinal growth of the bone?

  • (A) Epiphyseal plate
  • (B) Epiphysis
  • (C) Metaphysis
  • (D) Diaphysis

Question 63:

The patient is unable to make the "OK" sign. Which muscle is involved?

  • (A) FDS (Flexor Digitorum Superficialis)
  • (B) FDP (Flexor Digitorum Profundus)
  • (C) FIC (Flexor Indicis Proprius)

Question 64:

Which area is fractured in the given X-ray?

  • (A) Tibial tuberosity
  • (B) Medial epicondyle of tibia
  • (C) Gerdy's tubercle

Question 65:

Which nerve will be commonly involved if the injury occurs at the marked levels?

  • (A) L4
  • (B) L5
  • (C) L2
  • (D) L3

Question 66:

Artery passing between medial malleolus and the Achilles tendon?

Correct Answer: Posterior tibial artery
View Solution

Question 67:

A child with a left femur shaft fracture, managed by plating. Which of the following types of callus formation occurs?

  • (A) Creeping substitution
  • (B) Primary callus
  • (C) Secondary callus

Question 68:

What is the most likely diagnosis for the lesion shown here?

Correct Answer: Sunburst
View Solution

Question 69:

A diaphyseal tumor, probably small round blue cells. Which test/translocation is useful for diagnosis?

  • (A) T11,22
  • (B) T15,17

Question 70:

What is the level of amputation shown here?

Correct Answer: Below Knee Amputation
View Solution

Question 71:

A 40-year-old RTA case is brought to the casualty and declared brought dead by the doctor. The doctor informs the police official and sends the body to the mortuary. Autopsy in this case will be conducted on the request of:

  • (A) PP (Public Prosecutor)
  • (B) Defence lawyer
  • (C) Dr.
  • (D) Investigating officer

Question 72:

A 30-year-old male dead body was brought for autopsy. The doctor notices greyish white waxy material with preserved facial features. Which is true of the following change?

  • (A) High temperature needed
  • (B) Hot and dry environment needed
  • (C) Starts very early after death
  • (D) It is a form of body preservation by saponification of fats

Question 73:

The microscopic image of the organism was analyzed in a drowning case. Which is correct about them?

  • (A) Contains silica and chlorophyll point
  • (B) Are microscopic unicellular bacteria
  • (C) Present only in bone marrow
  • (D) Are not resistant to acids and heat

Question 74:

The range of fire by a rifled firearm per the image:

  • (A) Contact
  • (B) Close
  • (C) Distant
  • (D) Cannot be opined

Question 75:

A pregnant female comes to a gynecologist who sends her for USG. On USG twin pregnancy noted with about one month difference in the age of fetuses. Which is true of the following?

  • (A) Superfetation
  • (B) Superfecundation
  • (C) Suppositious child
  • (D) Posthumous child

Question 76:

The findings in the image are suggestive of which poisoning?

  • (A) OPC (Organophosphorus Compounds)
  • (B) Arsenic
  • (C) Lead
  • (D) Mercury

Question 77:

Many people have consumed contaminated alcohol and present with abdominal pain, confusion, and decreased vision. Methyl alcohol concentration detected as 20 mg percent. On assessment, which metabolites will be found?

  • (A) Formic acid and lactic acid
  • (B) Glycolic acid and oxalic acid
  • (C) Oxalic acid and formic acid
  • (D) Glyoxylic acid and formic acid

Question 78:

A person comes to the emergency department after consumption of a substance, the form and dose of which is not known to relatives. The patient shows tachypnea, hypotension. On metabolic assessment, high anion gap acidosis is noted with hypocalcemia. Diagnosis?

  • (A) Methyl alcohol
  • (B) Ethylene glycol
  • (C) Dhatura
  • (D) Ethyl alcohol

Question 79:

A 36-year-old woman (G4L3P3) presents in full-term labor. Labor arrested at 8cm cervical dilation. Emergency C-section was done after counseling, the baby was alive but intractable postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) occurred. Emergency hysterectomy was done to save the life of the mother. Which is the appropriate classification?

  • (A) C
  • (B) P
  • (C) T
  • (D) T

Question 80:

A 30-year-old female abuser with suicidal tendencies is brought to the hospital. Mydriasis, tachypnea, tachycardia observed. Diagnosis?

  • (A) Cocaine
  • (B) Morphine
  • (C) Heroin
  • (D) Chlorpheniramine

Question 81:

MTP in a 21-year-old, 10-week pregnancy is to be done by medical methods using:

  • (A) Intrauterine hyperosmotics
  • (B) Dinoprostone
  • (C) Oxytocin infusion
  • (D) M + M (Methotrexate and Misoprostol)

Question 82:

A 22-week pregnancy unmarried 14-year-old girl, who is a rape victim, comes at your clinic for medical termination. What is true for medical abortion?

  • (A) MTP can be done in rape victim till 24 weeks
  • (B) Only one doctor's opinion required
  • (C) Only done if risk of life
  • (D) MTP can be done after permission of medical board

Question 83:

This is seen in the postmortem examination of which type of asphyxia:

  • (A) Throttling
  • (B) Smothering
  • (C) Hanging
  • (D) Garrotting

Question 84:

A patient from a railway station is arrested by police and shows symptoms like dilated pupils, sweating, hot skin, and staggering gait. He is suspected to have intoxication from:

  • (A) Dhatura
  • (B) Cocaine
  • (C) Alcohol
  • (D) Morphine

Question 85:

In MTP at 28 weeks for congenital anomalies, whose presence is not required?

  • (A) Obstetrician
  • (B) Lawyer
  • (C) Pediatrician
  • (D) Sonologist

Question 86:

A G5P4 woman comes for routine sonography for the first time. She has had four daughters and wants a boy this time. She asks for sex determination. To be in line with the above-depicted guidelines, what will you choose?

  • (A) Will check routine ANC and sex for developmental abnormalities and do not reveal gender to the patient
  • (B) Will check routine ANC and sex for developmental abnormalities and reveal gender to the patient
  • (C) Reveal gender if a girl
  • (D) Check only routine ANC, do not check sex

Question 87:

A child was born after the death of his father, and some of them claimed that the child is not from his biological father. DNA fingerprinting was done to identify the father, and the deceased father was found to be the biological father. This child is called as:

  • (A) Posthumous child
  • (B) Suppositious child
  • (C) Illegitimate child

Question 88:

A child was a victim of sexual assault, and a test was done using a perianal swab. What's the name of this test? The test showed yellow needle-shaped crystals.

  • (A) Barberio test
  • (B) Teichman test
  • (C) Takayama test
  • (D) Florence test

Question 89:

Which one is correct about the sequence of rigor mortis?

  • (A) Centre to periphery
  • (B) Head to foot
  • (C) Foot to head
  • (D) Simultaneously

Question 90:

In a sexual assault case in court, "in camera" trial refers to:

  • (A) Closed court proceedings
  • (B) Recording of proceedings
  • (C) Open court proceedings
  • (D) Proceedings occurring in a different place

Question 91:

An 18-year-old male accused of rape claims he is 16 years old. Which joint X-ray should be done?

  • (A) Elbow and ankle
  • (B) Knee and wrist
  • (C) Shoulder and head
  • (D) Hip & knee

Question 92:

Sour taste is mediated by: - PHYSIOLOGY (PART A)

  • (A) TRPV3 Channel
  • (B) Metabolic receptors
  • (C) GPCR T1R1
  • (D) GPCR T1R3