Download the NEET PG 2021 question paper with solutions as a free PDF, the postgraduate medical entrance test the National Board of Examinations (NBE) held on September 11, 2021. It was a single computer-based paper of 200 single-best-answer MCQs to be attempted in 3 hours 30 minutes, and this page pairs every question with a worked solution and the answer key.

NEET PG 2021 Question Paper with Solutions Download PDF Check Solutions

NEET PG 2021 Questions with Solutions


Question 1:

Pen Test is for which nerve

  • (A) Median Nerve
  • (B) Ulnar nerve
  • (C) PIN
  • (D) Musculocutaneous

Question 2:

A small boy with multiple fracture of Humerus following which there is loss of sensation over lateral side of forearm, difficulty in flexion of elbow & supination of forearm.

  • (A) Musculocutaneous nerve
  • (B) Median nerve
  • (C) Axillary
  • (D) Radial nerve

Question 3:

Which blood vessel carries deoxygenated blood back to placenta

  • (A) Umbilical Artery
  • (B) Umbilical vein
  • (C) Uterine artery
  • (D) Descending aorta

Question 4:

Structure preventing vertical descent of spleen

  • (A) Phrenocolic ligament
  • (B) Hepatogastric ligament
  • (C) Ligamentum teres
  • (D) Ligamentum flavum

Question 5:

Which nerve is required for GAG reflex

  • (A) 9th cranial nerve
  • (B) 10th cranial nerve
  • (C) 11th cranial nerve
  • (D) 12th cranial nerve

Question 6:

The Great saphenous vein graft was used for a patient in CABG. Post surgery the patient is having a neuralgia on the medial aspect of leg and foot. Which nerve has been injured?

  • (A) Saphenous Nerve
  • (B) Femoral vein
  • (C) Profunda femoris vein
  • (D) Popliteal vein

Question 7:

Beta 2 receptors act via following secondary messenger

  • (A) Adenylate Cyclase
  • (B) Tyrosine kinase receptors
  • (C) TGF-beta receptors
  • (D) Cytokine receptors

Question 8:

A child presented with dehydration and was supplemented with ORS solution for management. Which of the following receptors help in the absorption of glucose from GIT?

  • (A) SGLT 1
  • (B) SGLT 2
  • (C) GLUT 1
  • (D) GLUT 2

Question 9:

A patient presented with cold skin, fatigue, shortness of breath with activity and enlarged liver. His JVP was measured which showed higher amplitude of "a" wave. JVP is due to

  • (A) Tricuspid Regurgitation
  • (B) Tricuspid Stenosis
  • (C) Mitral Regurgitation
  • (D) Mitral Stenosis

Question 10:

The body fluid compartments of a patient were measured, which showed the following values:

Na - 10
K - 140
Cl - 15

Name the fluid compartment.

  • (A) Interstitial fluid
  • (B) ECF
  • (C) ICF
  • (D) Total body fluid

Question 11:

An elderly female presented with dribbling of urine only on coughing and straining. What type of urinary incontinence is she suffering from?

  • (A) Stress incontinence
  • (B) Urge incontinence
  • (C) Overflow incontinence
  • (D) Neurogenic bladder

Question 12:

A young patient presented with muscle spasms, numbness in hands and feet, seizures and difficulty in breathing due to laryngospasm. His blood picture showed electrolyte imbalance. What is the cause for these manifestations in the patient?

  • (A) Respiratory Acidosis
  • (B) Respiratory Alkalosis
  • (C) Metabolic Acidosis
  • (D) Metabolic Alkalosis

Question 13:

A patient on a maize diet presented with diarrhea, dementia and dysentry. Which vitamin deficiency is responsible for the features?

  • (A) Niacin
  • (B) Thiamine
  • (C) Riboflavin
  • (D) Pyridoxine

Question 14:

A patient presented with dryness in eye with a gritty sensation along with corneal softening. What is the most probable cause?

  • (A) Vitamin A deficiency
  • (B) Riboflavin Deficiency
  • (C) Viral Keratitis
  • (D) Follicular conjunctivitis

Question 15:

Which amino acid needs to be supplemented through diet in a patient with cystathionine beta synthase deficiency?

  • (A) Cysteine
  • (B) Methionine
  • (C) Serine
  • (D) Tryptophan

Question 16:

Corneal transparency is maintained by which of the following GAGs?

  • (A) Keratan Sulphate
  • (B) Dermatan Sulphate
  • (C) Heparan Sulphate
  • (D) Chondroitin Sulphate

Question 17:

Which of the following is associated with a defect in mismatch repair?

  • (A) Hereditary NPCC
  • (B) SCID
  • (C) Bloom Disorder
  • (D) MUTYH Associated Polyposis

Question 18:

A patient had dinner at 8 PM in the night and does his blood sugar test at 7 AM in the morning. What is the major source of glucose?

  • (A) Muscle Glycogen
  • (B) Liver Glycogen
  • (C) Gluconeogenesis
  • (D) Dietary Carbohydrate

Question 19:

A patient with tendon xanthomas, increased LDL and cholesterol. What is the most probable diagnosis?

  • (A) Type I Hyperlipoproteinemia
  • (B) Type II Hyperlipoproteinemia
  • (C) Type III Hyperlipoproteinemia
  • (D) Abetalipoproteinemia

Question 20:

A 5 year old child was brought to the physician with a history of black urine. There is no history of fever or any other complaints. There is no growth retardation and all the developmental milestones are normal. The child is suspected to have an enzyme defect for metabolism of an aromatic amino acid. What is the enzyme deficient?

  • (A) Homogentisae oxidase
  • (B) Homogentisate dehydrogenase
  • (C) Tryptophan Hydroxylase
  • (D) Tyrosine Transaminase

Question 21:

A patient presents to you with generalized weakness and easy fatigability. He gives you a history of working in a factory with an exposure to Benzene. Which of the following cases would you suspect in this patient?

  • (A) Blood Cancer
  • (B) Urinary Bladder Cancer
  • (C) Carcinoma Gall Bladder
  • (D) Hepatocellular Carcinoma

Question 22:

Chronic alcoholic patient with history of increasing abdominal girth. On liver biopsy there are reddish inclusions. What are these made up of?

  • (A) Actin
  • (B) Microtubules
  • (C) Intermediate filaments
  • (D) Myofibril

Question 23:

All are increased in Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA) except?

  • (A) TIBC
  • (B) Soluble transferrin receptor
  • (C) Transferrin saturation
  • (D) Erythropoietin

Question 24:

Woman on pap smear having disorganised growth of cells with hyperchromatic nuclei. Which phenomenon is occurring here?

  • (A) Dysplasia
  • (B) Metaplasia
  • (C) Hypertrophy
  • (D) Carcinoma

Question 25:

Poor prognostic marker in Multiple Myeloma (MM) is:

  • (A) S. creatinine
  • (B) Hypercalcemia
  • (C) B2 microglobulins
  • (D) Telomerase

Question 26:

A 34 year old female presenting to the OPD with migratory arthritis and examination revealed a pan systolic murmur. ECHO was performed which is suggestive of mitral regurgitation. Biopsy image is provided showing characteristic nodules in heart muscle. Diagnosis will be?

  • (A) Infective endocarditis
  • (B) Rheumatic heart disease
  • (C) SABE
  • (D) Cardiac failure

Question 27:

A 18 year old male presented to the OPD with gum bleeding, fever, low TLC and low platelet count. General examination is unremarkable. Further investigation show a low reticulocyte count, absent megakaryocytes and no immature cells. Diagnosis will be?

  • (A) Aplastic anemia
  • (B) MDS
  • (C) PNH
  • (D) None

Question 28:

HNPCC has defect in:

  • (A) Nucleotide excision
  • (B) Base pair excision
  • (C) Point mutation
  • (D) Mismatch repair gene

Question 29:

A patient had dinner at 8 pm. He then did a blood sugar test at 7 am the next morning. A major source of blood glucose at the time of this test would be:

  • (A) Glycogenolysis
  • (B) Gluconeogenesis
  • (C) Dietary glucose absorption
  • (D) Lipolysis

Question 30:

Corneal transparency is maintained by which of the following glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)?

  • (A) Hyaluronic acid
  • (B) Chondroitin sulphate
  • (C) Keratan sulphate
  • (D) Heparan sulphate

Question 31:

A patient with vomiting was treated with an anti-emetic drug. The patient was relieved of vomiting but developed abnormal involuntary movements. What drug should be given to manage these abnormal movements?

  • (A) Methyl dopa
  • (B) Benzhexol
  • (C) Hyoscine
  • (D) Cyproheptadine

Question 32:

In a case of measles, which antibiotic should be given?

  • (A) Amoxicillin
  • (B) Vitamin A supplementation only, no antibiotic needed
  • (C) Erythromycin
  • (D) Co-trimoxazole

Question 33:

Kaposi sarcoma is caused by which of the following?

  • (A) Human Herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6)
  • (B) Human Herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8)
  • (C) Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)
  • (D) Human Papillomavirus (HPV)

Question 34:

A patient presents after a dog bite. How will you treat this patient?

  • (A) Rabies vaccine alone
  • (B) Rabies immunoglobulin (RIG) alone
  • (C) Wound washing, rabies vaccine, and rabies immunoglobulin (RIG) for category III exposure
  • (D) Antibiotics alone (amoxicillin-clavulanate)

Question 35:

The HIV virus targets which CD receptor on immune cells?

  • (A) CD8
  • (B) CD4
  • (C) CD3
  • (D) CD20

Question 36:

Which of the following drugs is used for the long term management of obesity?

  • (A) Sibutramine
  • (B) Fenfluramine
  • (C) Metformin
  • (D) Liraglutide

Question 37:

A child accidentally ingested some fruit which he plucked from a tree while playing. After the ingestion of the fruit, he presented with restlessness, painful swallowing, photophobia, dry skin, urinary retention and elevated body temperature. What is the possible poisoning and the appropriate antidote for it?

  • (A) Datura & Physostigmine
  • (B) Yellow oleander & Physostigmine
  • (C) Datura & Pralidoxime
  • (D) Yellow oleander & Pralidoxime

Question 38:

A 30 year old male presents with a history of consumption of some unknown substance. The attending doctor notices the person to be having diaphoresis, headache and acute coronary spasm like features. The person is least likely to show which clinical feature?

  • (A) Bradycardia
  • (B) Tachycardia
  • (C) Hyperthermia
  • (D) Hypertension

Question 39:

A doctor at autopsy noticed the following finding on a cadaver (image showing marbling -- greenish-black discolouration over superficial veins of the skin). Which of the following is true regarding this finding?

  • (A) It is due to sulphaemoglobin pigment
  • (B) This change is seen at 24 hours
  • (C) It is non bacterial
  • (D) It is associated with lightning case

Question 40:

Identify the injury (image showing a wound on the forehead with irregular margins but sharp-looking edges due to sheering forces).

  • (A) Incised looking laceration
  • (B) Laceration
  • (C) Laceration looking incision
  • (D) Incision

Question 41:

While recording evidence in the court of law, lawyer asked the witness, "Were you present when A killed B?", and the witness answered "yes". This type of questioning is permitted in?

  • (A) Examination in chief
  • (B) Direct examination
  • (C) Redirect examination
  • (D) Cross examination

Question 42:

A dead body was recovered from near a pond by the police. During autopsy, the following finding was observed (image showing markedly wrinkled, pale, sodden skin of the soles of the feet). The below phenomenon is due to

  • (A) Case of torture in hot water
  • (B) Case of postmortem hanging
  • (C) Case of immersion in water for 36 hours
  • (D) Case of colliquative liquefaction

Question 43:

Which of the following drugs is most commonly associated with causing Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (SJS)?

  • (A) Lamotrigine
  • (B) Penicillin
  • (C) Aspirin
  • (D) Metformin

Question 44:

Which of the following drugs causes Vitamin B12 deficiency on long-term use?

  • (A) Metformin
  • (B) Omeprazole
  • (C) Colchicine
  • (D) All of the above

Question 45:

Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding the pharmacology of N-acetylcysteine (NAC)?

  • (A) It acts as a precursor for glutathione synthesis
  • (B) It is used as antidote for organophosphate poisoning
  • (C) It inhibits cyclooxygenase enzyme
  • (D) It is a specific antidote for benzodiazepine overdose

Question 46:

Which of the following is a platinum-based drug used in the treatment of carcinoma?

  • (A) Cisplatin
  • (B) Methotrexate
  • (C) Vincristine
  • (D) Doxorubicin

Question 47:

Which of the following drugs is used in alcohol de-addiction (aversion therapy)?

  • (A) Disulfiram
  • (B) Naloxone
  • (C) Flumazenil
  • (D) Buprenorphine

Question 48:

Which of the following statements is TRUE about Warfarin?

  • (A) It inhibits Vitamin K-dependent clotting factors by blocking Vitamin K epoxide reductase
  • (B) It acts immediately on administration and reaches full effect within 2 hours
  • (C) It is monitored by measuring aPTT
  • (D) It crosses the placenta and is safe in pregnancy

Question 49:

Which of the following drugs is known to cause retroperitoneal fibrosis?

  • (A) Methysergide
  • (B) Metformin
  • (C) Amlodipine
  • (D) Propranolol

Question 50:

A patient presented with 70% burns. A test was done on a sample collected from the burnt site as shown in the picture in suspicion of the probable causative organism which is an obligate aerobe. What's the microbe?

  • (A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • (B) Meningococcus
  • (C) Streptococcus pyogenes
  • (D) Pneumococcus

Question 51:

A truck driver presented with a painless, demarcated ulcer on penis with inguinal lymphadenopathy. What is the best method of visualization of motility of the probable causative agent?

  • (A) Dark field microscopy
  • (B) Light microscopy
  • (C) Fluorescent microscopy
  • (D) Electron microscopy

Question 52:

Swab is discarded in which color bin?

  • (A) Yellow bag
  • (B) Red bag
  • (C) White bag
  • (D) Blue bag

Question 53:

A female engineer works for 12-14 hours a day and gives a history of consuming only fast food. There are no vegetables or fruits in his diet. Her Hb count is 9 gm/dl MCV 120 fl. On examination, PS shows macrocytes. What will be the diagnosis?

  • (A) Vitamin B12 deficiency
  • (B) Folic acid deficiency
  • (C) Vitamin D deficiency
  • (D) None

Question 54:

A patient was suspected of having brucellosis. Serum sample was sent for a standard agglutination test. It came negative initially but after dilution of the serum sample, the test was positive. What could be the reason for the initial negative test?

  • (A) Prozone
  • (B) Postzone
  • (C) Complement inactivation
  • (D) Antigen antibody complexes

Question 55:

A patient who was on steroids presented with nocturnal cough and chronic urticaria. BAL stain was done. Identify the organism.

  • (A) Strongyloides stercoralis
  • (B) Enterobius
  • (C) Ancylostoma
  • (D) Capillaria philippinensis

Question 56:

Blood spill management

  • (A) Ethyl Alcohol
  • (B) Chlorhexidine
  • (C) Formaldehyde
  • (D) Sodium Hypochlorite

Question 57:

A child presented with bloody stools and abdominal pain. What enrichment medium should be used for the faeces sample?

  • (A) Selenite F broth
  • (B) Alkaline peptone water
  • (C) Blood agar
  • (D) Muller Hinton Broth

Question 58:

What is the vector for a parasite which has kinetoplast in one of its morphological forms?

  • (A) Sand fly
  • (B) TseTse fly
  • (C) Female Anopheles Mosquito
  • (D) Triatomine bug

Question 59:

A known case of AIDS with productive cough and fever was found to have consolidation in the right infrascapular area. X-Ray chest showed right lower lobe consolidation with CD4 count of 55 per microlitre. What is the most common cause of this?

  • (A) Staphylococcus aureus
  • (B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • (C) Mycoplasma
  • (D) Pneumocystis jirovecii

Question 60:

Following admission of a RTA case, there is a spillage of blood on the hospital floor. Which disinfectant will you use to clean the floor?

  • (A) Sodium Hypochlorite
  • (B) Ethyl alcohol
  • (C) Formaldehyde
  • (D) Chlorhexidine

Question 61:

There is an outbreak of buboes in a community. What is the vector?

  • (A) Xenopsylla (Rat Flea)
  • (B) Tse tse fly
  • (C) Human flea
  • (D) Sand fly

Question 62:

A 11 year old girl is having symptoms of fever and sore throat and to diagnose throat swab was taken. Which bag is used to discard the swab after culture?

  • (A) Yellow bag
  • (B) Red bag
  • (C) Blue bag
  • (D) White bag

Question 63:

Global Hunger Index does not include

  • (A) Under 5 mortality rate
  • (B) IMR
  • (C) Child mortality rate
  • (D) Child undernutrition

Question 64:

A child presented with bluish white spots in the mouth followed by a rash. What is the genome of probable diagnosis?

  • (A) Enveloped virus with single stranded RNA
  • (B) Naked virus with single stranded RNA
  • (C) Double stranded Naked RNA
  • (D) Double stranded Enveloped RNA

Question 65:

16 month old child, 8 kg weight. On assessing in a growth chart, child falls between standard and -2 SD. What should be done next for the management?

  • (A) Assure mother that no malnutrition
  • (B) Mild malnutrition - home treatment
  • (C) Moderate malnutrition - teach mother on how to feed
  • (D) Severe malnutrition: refer to NRC

Question 66:

An anganwadi teacher takes weight and height of a 4 year old and finds out that height-for-age is < -2 SD. The likely cause is:

  • (A) Chronic malnutrition
  • (B) Acute malnutrition
  • (C) Recent malnutrition
  • (D) No malnutrition

Question 67:

A farmer is having skin rash which increases on sun exposure. There is also redness of tongue. Maize is his staple diet. Which of the following vitamin deficiency can cause this type of feature?

  • (A) Niacin deficiency
  • (B) Folic acid deficiency
  • (C) Vit C deficiency
  • (D) Vit K deficiency

Question 68:

A 45 year old man presents with the following skin changes (image showing hyperpigmented, thickened rash over the neck and chest in a photosensitive distribution). What relevant history will you take to diagnose this condition?

  • (A) H/o dietary pattern, dementia, diarrhea
  • (B) Dietary history
  • (C) Dementia
  • (D) Depression

Question 69:

A girl child has had recurrent yeast and respiratory virus infections since she was 3 months old. Now considering studies for immune status, which vaccine is contraindicated?

  • (A) TT/Td
  • (B) Measles/MMR
  • (C) DPT
  • (D) Killed IPV

Question 70:

In a 10 year school child under the school health program, which vaccine has to be given?

  • (A) BCG
  • (B) MMR
  • (C) TT, Td
  • (D) DPT

Question 71:

There is an outbreak of encephalitis in a community. According to the universal immunization schedule, the route of administration of vaccine for the likely infection is?

  • (A) Live & subcutaneous
  • (B) Killed & subcutaneous
  • (C) Live & intramuscular
  • (D) Killed & intramuscular

Question 72:

Low air velocity will be measured by

  • (A) Kata thermometer
  • (B) Globe thermometer
  • (C) Wet thermometer
  • (D) Beckmans thermometer

Question 73:

School health service is at which level?

  • (A) District
  • (B) Subcentre
  • (C) Subdistrict
  • (D) PHC

Question 74:

Post Diwali air pollution index chart was created. Air quality index values on 4 different days were plotted. An AQI value of 470 indicates which level of air pollution?

  • (A) Poor
  • (B) Very poor
  • (C) Severe
  • (D) Moderate

Question 75:

A researcher wants to know whether there is an association of CRP values with risk of MI/Cancer. They started to take CRP readings. 4 values of RR (Relative Risk) were plotted (0.5, 1.5, 1.7, 1.8) with respect to CRP.

  • (A) CRP increases disease/cancer risk
  • (B) CRP has no relationship
  • (C) CRP decreases & disease decreases
  • (D) No association in first interval

Question 76:

A child known case of HIV. His CD4 count is 50. Which vaccine is avoided in him/her?

  • (A) MMR
  • (B) TT
  • (C) DPT
  • (D) BCG

Question 77:

For functioning of a health centre with reference to evaluation, which is the most important determinant for assessing clinical management?

  • (A) Input
  • (B) Process
  • (C) Structure
  • (D) Outcome

Question 78:

A male presented with urethral discharge as shown in figure. What can be the cause?

  • (A) Gonorrhea
  • (B) Hemophilus Ducreii
  • (C) Syphilis
  • (D) HIV

Question 79:

A group of people had pastries late at night followed by bouts of vomiting early in the morning. What could be the cause?

  • (A) S. aureus
  • (B) B. cereus
  • (C) E. coli
  • (D) Lactobacillus

Question 80:

A pregnant woman whose niece contracted varicella in the same house was negative for serum antibodies of varicella. What would this mean?

  • (A) She is susceptible to zoster
  • (B) She is susceptible to chicken pox
  • (C) She is immune to chicken pox
  • (D) She is immune to zoster

Question 81:

A child learning the steps of hand hygiene -- what domain of learning does this involve?

  • (A) Cognitive
  • (B) Psychomotor
  • (C) Affective
  • (D) Affective and cognitive

Question 82:

What is the SI unit of brightness/illuminance?

  • (A) Candela
  • (B) Luminance
  • (C) Lumen
  • (D) Lux

Question 83:

Receptor for absorption of glucose in intestine when a person is given ORS is:

  • (A) SGLT-1
  • (B) SGLT-2
  • (C) GLP-1
  • (D) GLUT-1

Question 84:

A 55-year-old patient from Chattisgarh presents with progressive muscle weakness, stiffness of both lower limbs, and complete paralysis. What is the most important history to ask?

  • (A) Dietary history
  • (B) Medical history
  • (C) Present illness
  • (D) Socioeconomic history

Question 85:

A woman visited ENT OPD with nasal obstruction. On examination, greenish black crusts were present in the nasal cavity covering turbinate and septum. She also had merciful anosmia. What other sign will you find in this case on examination?

  • (A) Roomy nasal cavity
  • (B) Hypertrophied inferior turbinate
  • (C) Polyp
  • (D) Foreign antibody

Question 86:

A 35 year old male presented with epistaxis. Conservative management was done to stop the bleeding which failed. What is the next step of management?

  • (A) Endoscopic Sphenopalatine artery ligation
  • (B) ICA ligation
  • (C) ECA ligation
  • (D) Maxillary artery ligation

Question 87:

Which of the following is the topical use of Mitomycin C (the medicine shown in the image)?

  • (A) Subglottic stenosis
  • (B) Inlay type I myringoplasty
  • (C) Post-adenoidectomy to control bleeding
  • (D) Rhino cerebral mucormycosis

Question 88:

A post-tonsillectomy child was lying in the ward. He started bleeding in the ward. Which of the following should be done?

  • (A) Take to OT, remove the clot and re-ligation
  • (B) Take to OT and pressure packing
  • (C) Cautery
  • (D) Conservative management

Question 89:

Patient with a history of chronic middle ear infection now presents with neurological manifestations, headache, and vomiting. CT Brain is shown (ring-enhancing lesion). What is the probable diagnosis?

  • (A) Extradural Abscess
  • (B) Cerebral Abscess
  • (C) Temporal lobe Abscess
  • (D) Meningitis

Question 90:

A patient was admitted with skull base trauma. The doctor was testing the marked structure in the image. Which of the following nerves was being tested?

  • (A) Vagus
  • (B) Facial nerve
  • (C) Glossopharyngeal nerve
  • (D) Trigeminal nerve

Question 91:

Identify the papillae of the tongue shown in the histology image below (round-shaped papilla with surrounding moat/trench).

  • (A) Circumvallate
  • (B) Fungiform
  • (C) Filiform
  • (D) Foliate

Question 92:

A 33 year old female patient presented with inability to see the right side from both the eyes. What is the most probable cause?

  • (A) Injury to Left Optic Tract
  • (B) Right occipital lobe lesion
  • (C) Optic chiasma lesion
  • (D) Right optic nerve lesion

Question 93:

A patient with contact lens use since 2 years presented with the features shown in the image (giant papillae on the upper tarsal conjunctiva with increased mucus and itching). What is the most probable cause?

  • (A) Giant Papillary Conjunctivitis
  • (B) Trachoma
  • (C) Vernal Keratoconjunctivitis
  • (D) OSSN (Ocular Surface Squamous Neoplasia)

Question 94:

A 15 year old girl patient does not want to use specs for myopic astigmatism. What is the best alternative for her?

  • (A) ICL (Implantable Collamer Lens)
  • (B) FEMTO Lasik
  • (C) LASIK
  • (D) Spherical Specs

Question 95:

A boy working on a hammer & chisel had a foreign body entering his eye. Which investigation is detrimental (contraindicated) for this boy?

  • (A) X-ray
  • (B) B scan orbit
  • (C) CT Scan
  • (D) MRI

Question 96:

A child presenting with whitish pupillary reflex was treated with enucleation. Histopathology of the specimen showed Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes. What is the diagnosis?

  • (A) Retinoblastoma
  • (B) Rhabdomyosarcoma
  • (C) Medulloblastoma
  • (D) Astrocytoma

Question 97:

A one month old baby presents with watering and increased corneal size. What is the diagnosis?

  • (A) Buphthalmos
  • (B) Hurler's Syndrome
  • (C) Galactosemia
  • (D) Cataract

Question 98:

An elderly woman presented with gradual painless diminution of vision. The fundus picture is shown below (yellowish-white deposits around the macula). What is the diagnosis?

  • (A) Hard Exudates in Diabetic Retinopathy
  • (B) Flame shaped haemorrhages in Hypertensive Retinopathy
  • (C) Soft Exudates in Hypertensive Retinopathy
  • (D) CRVO (Central Retinal Vein Occlusion)

Question 99:

A patient with carcinoma of rectum has been taken up for surgery. The superior rectal artery is to be ligated. Which of the following is the correct level of ligation of the superior rectal artery?

  • (A) At the origin from the inferior mesenteric artery
  • (B) At the level of the pelvic brim
  • (C) At the level of S3
  • (D) At the level of the promontory of sacrum

Question 100:

Drug of choice for pheochromocytoma during surgery is:

  • (A) Phentolamine
  • (B) Phenoxybenzamine
  • (C) Propranolol
  • (D) Prazosin

Question 101:

Sengstaken Blakemore tube is used in:

  • (A) Bleeding esophageal varices
  • (B) Boerhaave syndrome
  • (C) Carcinoma esophagus
  • (D) Achalasia cardia

Question 102:

Meigs syndrome is associated with:

  • (A) Ovarian fibroma, ascites, and pleural effusion
  • (B) Ovarian dermoid, ascites, and pleural effusion
  • (C) Uterine fibroid, ascites, and pleural effusion
  • (D) Ovarian cystadenocarcinoma, ascites, and pleural effusion

Question 103:

Instrument used for ligation of pedicles in thyroid surgery is:

  • (A) Kocher's forceps
  • (B) Lane's tissue forceps
  • (C) Dunhill forceps
  • (D) Babcock's forceps

Question 104:

Duct most commonly involved in chronic pancreatitis is:

  • (A) Main pancreatic duct (Wirsung)
  • (B) Accessory pancreatic duct (Santorini)
  • (C) Common bile duct
  • (D) Ampulla of Vater

Question 105:

Most common cause of hemoptysis worldwide is:

  • (A) Pulmonary tuberculosis
  • (B) Bronchiectasis
  • (C) Lung carcinoma
  • (D) Mitral stenosis

Question 106:

Known case of HIV with cough of sputum production & fever with examination finding of consolidation in right infrascapular area with x-ray showing right lower consolidation with CD4 of 55. What is the most common cause of this in these?

  • (A) Staph aureus
  • (B) Strep pneumonia
  • (C) Mycoplasma
  • (D) P. jiroveci

Question 107:

A patient with mediastinal mass was diagnosed with red cell aplasia. What is the probable cause?

  • (A) Bronchogenic carcinoma
  • (B) NHL
  • (C) Thymic neoplasia
  • (D) T cell ALL

Question 108:

A software engineer presented to OPD with complaints of easy fatiguability. He gives a history of sitting in front of the computer for 12-14 hrs a day and consuming junk food and less fruits and vegetables. CBC picture showed Hb concentration as 7gm%, MCV-120. What is the most likely cause of anemia?

  • (A) Folate deficiency
  • (B) Sideroblastic anemia
  • (C) Cyanocobalamin deficiency
  • (D) Acute blood loss

Question 109:

Which of the following is false about pheochromocytoma?

  • (A) Propranolol is preferred drug for hypertension control
  • (B) Surgery is treatment of choice
  • (C) VMA are diagnostic test
  • (D) Catecholamines are diagnostic test

Question 110:

A 50 yr old patient with renal insufficiency was recently operated for pyelolithotomy. Which drug will you give for post-operative analgesia?

  • (A) Diclofenac sodium
  • (B) Naproxen
  • (C) Indomethacin
  • (D) Acetaminophen

Question 111:

A 68-year-old male presents with cough with sputum and bronchial sounds. RR-20/min, urea-44mg/dl, BP-110/70mmHg. What is the next step in management?

  • (A) Home Rx
  • (B) Admit in ICU without MV
  • (C) Admit in ICU with MV
  • (D) Room admission

Question 112:

A patient presents with numbness in finger tips and facial skin tightening. ANA is positive with IF nucleolar pattern. What is the most probable diagnosis?

  • (A) Systemic sclerosis
  • (B) Sjogren's syndrome
  • (C) SLE
  • (D) RA

Question 113:

A hyperventilating patient has ABG value of pH = 7.53, pCO2 = 20 mmHg, HCO3 = 26 meq. What is the diagnosis?

  • (A) Respiratory acidosis
  • (B) Respiratory alkalosis
  • (C) Metabolic acidosis
  • (D) Metabolic alkalosis

Question 114:

Patient presents with breathlessness and wheezing. Absolute eosinophil count is 500. Miliary pattern on CXR. Diagnosis?

  • (A) Miliary TB
  • (B) Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia
  • (C) Bronchial asthma
  • (D) Hypersensitivity pneumonitis

Question 115:

Breathing difficulty with generalized weakness. On auscultation a mid diastolic murmur with prominent wave is seen in:

  • (A) TS (Tricuspid Stenosis)
  • (B) MS (Mitral Stenosis)
  • (C) MR (Mitral Regurgitation)
  • (D) TR (Tricuspid Regurgitation)

Question 116:

Patient behaving strangely, and CNS features were described. Urine osmolality = 1000 and plasma osmolality = 250. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • (A) Hyponatremia
  • (B) Hypernatremia
  • (C) Hypokalemia
  • (D) Hyperkalemia

Question 117:

30 y/F, 70 kg man with serum sodium = 120 mEq/L. Calculate total sodium deficit.

  • (A) 420
  • (B) 840
  • (C) 1400
  • (D) 280

Question 118:

Hypertension with peripheral edema and CKD. Which drug is preferred?

  • (A) Aliskiren
  • (B) Chlorthalidone
  • (C) Prazosin
  • (D) Beta blocker

Question 119:

What surgery is shown here in the image?


  • (A) Thiersch wiring
  • (B) Wells procedure
  • (C) Aktemeier operation
  • (D) Hemorrhoidectomy

Question 120:

Post Modified Radical Mastectomy (MRM) patient presented with upper limb swelling. What is the most probable cause?

  • (A) Upper limb Lymphedema
  • (B) Angiosarcoma
  • (C) Recurrence
  • (D) Metastasis

Question 121:

Repair done for direct inguinal hernia

  • (A) Lichtenstein repair
  • (B) Bassini's repair
  • (C) Herniotomy
  • (D) All

Question 122:

A patient presented with RTA (Road Traffic Accident) leading to breathlessness and decreased air entry into the right lung and the patient is hypotensive. What is the next step?

  • (A) Needle inserted at 2nd ICS in MCL
  • (B) Needle inserted at 5th ICS in mid axillary
  • (C) Fluid resuscitation using wide bore cannula
  • (D) Wide bore needle decompression

Question 123:

After total thyroidectomy, the surgeon is unable to extubate and the patient shows cyanosis and respiratory distress. What is the cause of inability to extubate?

  • (A) Bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
  • (B) Unilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
  • (C) Hemorrhage
  • (D) Supra laryngeal nerve palsy

Question 124:

Asymptomatic varicose veins under CEAP scoring will be classified as

  • (A) C2a
  • (B) C2b
  • (C) C3a
  • (D) C3b

Question 125:

A 60-year-old male patient has antral carcinoma which is spreading to the head of the pancreas and multiple small metastases to the right lobe of the liver. What will be the best treatment?

  • (A) Whipple's surgery
  • (B) Gastrectomy + Right lobectomy
  • (C) Gastrojejunostomy
  • (D) Palliative care

Question 126:

MC (Most Common) nerve injured during Submandibular gland surgery?

  • (A) Lingual nerve
  • (B) Inferior alveolar nerve
  • (C) Hypoglossal nerve
  • (D) Nerve to mylohyoid

Question 127:

Which statement is true among all regarding the condition shown?

A. Associated with mixed aerobic and anaerobic infection
B. Orchidectomy should be done
C. Anti-gas gangrene serum should always be used
D. Urinary diversion done

  • (A) Associated with mixed aerobic and anaerobic infection
  • (B) Orchidectomy should be done
  • (C) Anti-gas gangrene serum should always be used
  • (D) Urinary diversion done

Question 128:

An 85-year-old patient has carcinoma of the prostate with Gleason score 6 and PSA <8 ng/ml. What is the best management?

  • (A) TURP
  • (B) Radiation
  • (C) Radical prostatectomy
  • (D) Keep on active surveillance

Question 129:

A patient underwent cholecystectomy. A stone in the common bile duct (CBD) is detected 2 years after the surgery. What type of stone is it?

  • (A) Primary
  • (B) Secondary
  • (C) Tertiary
  • (D) Retained stone

Question 130:

Gas under the diaphragm is most commonly seen in which of the following conditions?

  • (A) Viscus perforation
  • (B) Liver abscess
  • (C) Spontaneous rupture of oesophagus
  • (D) Empyema Thorax

Question 131:

A patient presents with a left hypochondrium contusion with systolic blood pressure of 70 mmHg and pulse rate of 110 per minute. What should be done next?

  • (A) FAST (Focused Assessment with Sonography in Trauma)
  • (B) CECT abdomen
  • (C) DPL (Diagnostic Peritoneal Lavage)
  • (D) Abdominal X-ray

Question 132:

Mr Ramu faced an accident and sustained a straddle injury. He presents with blood at the urethral meatus. What will be the next step in management?

  • (A) Foley's catheter insertion
  • (B) Suprapubic catheter (SPC) and drain the urine
  • (C) Do retrograde urethrogram
  • (D) CECT pelvis

Question 133:

Identify the condition shown in the image. The X-ray reveals distended small bowel loops with air-fluid levels that appear stacked on top of each other (stepladder sign).

  • (A) Intestinal obstruction
  • (B) Valvulae conniventes
  • (C) Haustrations
  • (D) None

Question 134:

What is the metabolic finding seen in a baby with CHPS (Congenital Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis)?

  • (A) Hyperchloremic hypernatremic metabolic alkalosis
  • (B) Hypochloremic hypernatremic metabolic acidosis
  • (C) Hypochloremic hyponatremic metabolic alkalosis
  • (D) Hyperchloremic hyponatremic metabolic alkalosis

Question 135:

A pregnant woman came for a routine antenatal checkup. She had a history of twin pregnancy 1 year ago. What will be gravida and para?

  • (A) G2P2
  • (B) G2P3
  • (C) G2P1
  • (D) G2P0

Question 136:

A hypertensive patient wants to conceive. Which of the following medicines needs to be stopped?

  • (A) Calcium Channel Blockers
  • (B) ACE inhibitors
  • (C) Alpha Methyl dopa
  • (D) Labetolol

Question 137:

A 27 year old woman who had delivered a female child 9 months back, came to the gynaecologist with complaints of absent periods since child birth. She has been using contraceptive methods as a family control measure. She was advised to get her serum beta hCG levels tested, which came out as 4.9 mIU/ml. Her prolactin level was 88 ng/ml, and TSH was 3.8. What could be the reason for amenorrhea in this case?

  • (A) Normal pregnancy
  • (B) Lactational amenorrhea
  • (C) Hypothyroidism
  • (D) Prolactinoma

Question 138:

Uterine didelphys will cause all of the following symptoms except?

  • (A) Transverse lie
  • (B) Endometriosis
  • (C) Repeated abortion
  • (D) Premature labor

Question 139:

Management of uterine septum?

  • (A) Laparoscopic resection of septum
  • (B) Hysteroscopic resection of septum
  • (C) Uterine metroplasty
  • (D) Laparotomy and resection

Question 140:

What is the modality of this test? [An X-ray image of the pelvis showing contrast dye outlining the uterine cavity and fallopian tubes is shown.]

  • (A) Hysterosalpingography
  • (B) Laparoscopy
  • (C) Hysteroscopy
  • (D) Saline infusion sonography

Question 141:

A 24 year old female patient with weeks of amenorrhea, left adnexal mass on USG, B-hCG 2500, no fetal heart rate. What is the management?

  • (A) Expectant management
  • (B) Salpingectomy
  • (C) Single dose methotrexate
  • (D) Milking of tube

Question 142:

H/o primary infertility, 2 fibroids in the cornua, and both sides tubal blockage, ovulation of women and semen analysis is normal. Treatment?

  • (A) ART
  • (B) Lap Myomectomy
  • (C) Hysterectomy
  • (D) Uterine artery embolization

Question 143:

Lady using OCP since 5 months. Amenorrhea since last 6 weeks. Which is best to calculate gestational age in this case?

  • (A) 280 days from LMP
  • (B) 256 days from LMP
  • (C) CRL by USG
  • (D) Abdominal girth

Question 144:

Order of ligation of devascularization in PPH (Postpartum Hemorrhage)

  • (A) Uterine artery, pudendal artery, vaginal artery
  • (B) Uterine artery, internal iliac, obturator artery
  • (C) Uterine artery, ovarian artery, internal iliac artery
  • (D) Uterine artery, ovarian artery, vaginal artery

Question 145:

Patient with post molar evacuation, now has lesion in lungs with cannon ball appearance. Which is the best management?

  • (A) Hysterectomy
  • (B) Emaco regimen
  • (C) Inj. methotrexate
  • (D) Multiple dose of Inj. methotrexate

Question 146:

Pregnant female with herpetic lesions in the vulva. Management is?

  • (A) Acyclovir and elective Caesarean section
  • (B) Induction of labor
  • (C) Acyclovir and allow spontaneous progression of labor
  • (D) Wait and watch

Question 147:

Patient with infraumbilical flattening and fetal heart rate heard laterally, what is the presentation?

  • (A) Occipitoposterior
  • (B) Knee
  • (C) Brow
  • (D) Right dorsoanterior

Question 148:

Husband asks for paternal testing of his twins. One twin is found to be his son & other is not. Diagnosis?

  • (A) Superfecundation
  • (B) Superfoetation
  • (C) Posthumous child
  • (D) None of the above

Question 149:

Teenage patient with transverse vaginal septum with dysmennorhea & chronic pelvic pain. Diagnosis?

  • (A) Endometriosis
  • (B) Tubovarian abscess
  • (C) Dermoid cyst
  • (D) Theca lutein cyst

Question 150:

28 years old married female anxious about conception. C/o profuse vaginal discharge. No h/o itching. 12 days since LMP.

  • (A) Candida
  • (B) Trichomonas
  • (C) Bacterial vaginosis
  • (D) Physiological

Question 151:

H/o recurrent abortions at 8, 11 & 22 weeks. Cardiac activity is normal in all the three. H/o preeclampsia in last pregnancy. What is the most probable cause?

  • (A) Syphilis
  • (B) APLA
  • (C) TORCH
  • (D) GDM

Question 152:

Female missed OCP on 4 different days in 1st 2 weeks of menstrual cycle. What will you advice?

  • (A) Continue taking pill
  • (B) Take all 4 pills at once & continue taking pills
  • (C) Adopt another method of contraception
  • (D) Continue current pack, consider additional contraceptive method for remaining days

Question 153:

36 weeks pregnant female on warfarin with mitral stenosis. What should we do?

  • (A) Shift to LMW Heparin
  • (B) Warfarin
  • (C) Switch to Aspirin
  • (D) Aspirin + Heparin

Question 154:

Indomethacin when given beyond 36 weeks what will happen?

  • (A) Premature closure of PDA
  • (B) Still birth
  • (C) No effect
  • (D) Teratogenic

Question 155:

A patient with 2nd degree cervical prolapse complains of dribbling of urine on cough. What is the diagnosis?

  • (A) Stress incontinence
  • (B) Overflow incontinence
  • (C) Cystitis
  • (D) Functional incontinence

Question 156:

What does the umbilical artery do?

  • (A) Carrying deoxygenated blood from fetus to placenta
  • (B) Carrying oxygenated blood from placenta to fetus
  • (C) Provide nutrients
  • (D) None of the above

Question 157:

A child presents with rachitic changes in limbs which was not responding to Vitamin D. Investigations done show: Calcium 9.5 mg/dl, Phosphorous 1.6 mg/dl, ALP 814 IU, Sr. PTH 24.2, Sr. Electrolytes, Creatinine and blood gases normal. What is the diagnosis?

  • (A) Vitamin D dependent rickets type 1
  • (B) Vitamin D dependent rickets type 2
  • (C) Hypophosphatemic rickets
  • (D) Chronic renal failure

Question 158:

Which vaccine is contraindicated in a 3-month-old child with recurrent respiratory illness?

  • (A) Inactivated polio
  • (B) Measles
  • (C) DPT
  • (D) DT

Question 159:

In a child, height for age < -2 SD. What is the likely cause?

  • (A) Chronic malnutrition
  • (B) Acute malnutrition
  • (C) Recent infection
  • (D) No malnutrition

Question 160:

A child presents with myoclonus jerks and decreased performance in school. There is a history of fever at the age of 1 year with rash. It is suggestive of which condition?

  • (A) Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
  • (B) Mesial temporal sclerosis
  • (C) Polio
  • (D) Measles

Question 161:

Webbed neck, short stature, low posterior hairline. What is the diagnosis?

  • (A) Turner syndrome
  • (B) Down syndrome
  • (C) Patau syndrome
  • (D) Edwards syndrome

Question 162:

A 12 year old boy presented with weak pulses in upper limbs. His BP was 90/60 mmHg. He also had retinal haemorrhages. Most likely diagnosis is

  • (A) PAn
  • (B) Microscopic polyangiitis
  • (C) Takayasu arteritis
  • (D) HSP

Question 163:

A 10 year old male child presented with generalised edema. His cholesterol was 238 mg/dl and urine protein was 3+. Stool microscopy showed fat in stool.

  • (A) Goodpasture syndrome
  • (B) Urine infection
  • (C) Nephrotic syndrome
  • (D) Nephritic syndrome

Question 164:

X-ray of a 5 year old child is shown in the image below. Bone mineral density is normal. Identify the condition.

[X-ray of knee joint showing subperiosteal haemorrhage, scorbutic zone (Trummerfeld zone), dense zone of provisional calcification (White line of Frankel), Ring epiphysis (Wimberger ring), and Pelken's spur]

  • (A) Rickets
  • (B) Scurvy
  • (C) Metaphyseal dysplasia
  • (D) Osteopetrosis

Question 165:

A 26 years old male with backache, morning stiffness, chest expansion and reddening of eyes with an X-ray presented in OPD. Most likely diagnosis for this patient is

[X-ray shows bamboo spine appearance with sacroiliac joint involvement]

  • (A) Rheumatoid arthritis
  • (B) Ankylosing spondylitis
  • (C) Paget's disease
  • (D) Osteopetrosis

Question 166:

60 year old elderly female with previous h/o Colles fracture is complaining of backache. Which of the given statements is wrong in relation to treatment of this patient?

  • (A) Teriparatide should be started before supplementing bisphosphonates
  • (B) Bisphosphonates not given for more than a year
  • (C) Calcium requirement is 1200 mg per day
  • (D) Oral Vit D3 given along with oral calcium

Question 167:

A patient fell down from bicycle and started having pain around hip, shortening of limb and attitude was flexion, adduction, internal rotation (IR) of hip

  • (A) Anterior dislocation
  • (B) Transcervical fracture
  • (C) Posterior dislocation
  • (D) IT Fracture

Question 168:

A 20 year old patient presenting with chronic low backache and early morning stiffness since last 2 years. Since 6 months there are bilateral heel pain also. Most likely diagnosis for this patient is

  • (A) TB spine
  • (B) Ankylosing spondylitis
  • (C) Mechanical pain
  • (D) Disc prolapsed

Question 169:

The image shows a skin condition with a raised, well-defined, bright red rash on the upper limb. What is the most suitable antibiotic for this condition?

  • (A) Amoxycillin & Clavulinic acid
  • (B) Amikacin
  • (C) Norfloxacin
  • (D) Metronidazole

Question 170:

A male patient came to OPD with white discharge from urethra [Image Shown]. What is the most probable organism involved?

  • (A) Nisseria gonorrhoeae
  • (B) Haemophilus ducreyi
  • (C) Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
  • (D) Treponema pallidum

Question 171:

A woman, anxious to conceive, complains of profuse white discharge per vaginum, which was non foul smelling and not itchy. Her LMP was 13-15 days back. What is the most probable diagnosis?

  • (A) Candidiasis
  • (B) Bacterial Vaginosis
  • (C) Physiological
  • (D) Trichomoniasis

Question 172:

A 30 year old woman came with flaccid bullae on her skin which were easy to rupture. Biopsy of the lesion revealed a suprabasal split. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • (A) Pemphigus vegetans
  • (B) Pemphigus vulgaris
  • (C) Pemphigus foliaceous
  • (D) Erythema multiforme

Question 173:

A patient who has been on MBMDT presents with inflammation over pre-existing lesions and nerve involvement. What will be the best approach of treatment?

  • (A) Stop ALT and start steroids
  • (B) Stop ALT and start thalidomide
  • (C) Continue ALT and start steroids
  • (D) Continue ALT and give thalidomide

Question 174:

A 13 year old male presented with erythematous edematous plaques on face over his previously existing hypoanaesthetic patches. He also complained of pain since 10 days. He has been on MBMDT since the past 2 months. What is your diagnosis?

  • (A) Cellulitis of face
  • (B) Type 1 lepra reaction
  • (C) Erythema Nodosum Leprosum
  • (D) Erysipelas

Question 175:

The image shows a skin finding on the neck (Casal's Necklace). What are the associated features of this deficiency disorder?

  • (A) History of diarrhoea & dementia associated with cognitive impairment
  • (B) Bitot's spots
  • (C) Angular stomatitis
  • (D) Loss of muscle coordination

Question 176:

A young girl presented to the OPD with rough surfaced lesions over her elbows and knees. She also complained of diminished vision in the night. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • (A) Keratosis pilaris
  • (B) Phrynoderma
  • (C) Folliculitis
  • (D) Pyoderma

Question 177:

A male child was brought with a mild painful swelling on his scalp since the last 3 months, as shown in the image. History reveals that there is a pet dog in the child's house. What is the diagnosis?

  • (A) Folliculitis
  • (B) Abscess
  • (C) Kerion
  • (D) Scabies

Question 178:

A 23 year old primi gravida stays in the same house as her school going nephew, who contracted varicella infection. The woman approached the medical centre to get tested for the same and the result for varicella antibody was negative. Which of the following statements are true?

  • (A) She is susceptible to zoster
  • (B) She is susceptible to chickenpox
  • (C) She is immune to chickenpox
  • (D) She is immune to zoster

Question 179:

Hair perforation test is positive for

  • (A) Trichophyton mentagrophytes
  • (B) Microsporum adouinii
  • (C) Epidermophyton floccosum
  • (D) Microsporum gypsum

Question 180:

A 30 year old male was intubated for surgery. The best method to confirm the position of Endotracheal tube is

  • (A) X-ray chest
  • (B) Auscultation
  • (C) Capnography
  • (D) Chest expansion

Question 181:

The below image procedure is done to maintain airway includes?

  • (A) Head tilt, chin lift
  • (B) Jaw thrust
  • (C) In line manual stabilization
  • (D) Head stabilization

Question 182:

A young male was given regional anaesthesia with 0.25% bupivacaine. The patient became unresponsive & pulse became unrecordable. Best Management would be

  • (A) CPCR with 20% Intralipid
  • (B) CPCR with sod. Bicarbonate
  • (C) CPCR with dobutamine
  • (D) CPCR with calcium

Question 183:

Child presents with myoclonus jerk, decrease performance in school. There is history of fever at the age of 1 year with rash. It is suggestive of-

  • (A) Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
  • (B) Mesial temporal sclerosis
  • (C) Polio
  • (D) Measles

Question 184:

Webbed neck, short stature, low posterior hairline. Diagnosis-

  • (A) Turner syndrome
  • (B) Downs syndrome
  • (C) Patau syndrome
  • (D) Edwards syndrome

Question 185:

A 12 year old boy presented with weak pulses in upper limbs. His BP was 90/60mmHg. He also had retinal haemorrhages. Most likely diagnosis is

  • (A) PAN (Polyarteritis Nodosa)
  • (B) Microscopic polyangiitis
  • (C) Takayasu arteritis
  • (D) HSP (Henoch-Schonlein Purpura)

Question 186:

A 10 year old male child presented with generalised edema. His cholesterol was 238mg/dl and urine protein was 3+. Stool microscopy showed fat in stool.

  • (A) Goodpasture syndrome
  • (B) Urine infection
  • (C) Nephrotic syndrome
  • (D) Nephritic syndrome

Question 187:

X-ray of a 5 year old child is shown in the image. Bone mineral density is normal. Identify the condition.

  • (A) Rickets
  • (B) Scurvy
  • (C) Metaphyseal dysplasia
  • (D) Osteopetrosis

Question 188:

A 26 years old male with backache, morning stiffness, chest expansion and reddening of eyes with an X-ray presented in OPD. Most likely diagnosis for this patient is


  • (A) Rheumatoid arthritis
  • (B) Ankylosing spondylitis
  • (C) Paget's disease
  • (D) Osteopetrosis

Question 189:

60 year old elderly female with previous h/o colles fracture is complaining of backache. Which of the given statement is wrong in relation to treatment of this patient?

  • (A) Teriparatide should be started before supplementing bisphosphonates
  • (B) Bisphosphonates not given for more than a year
  • (C) Calcium requirement is 1200mg per day
  • (D) Oral Vit D3 given along with oral calcium

Question 190:

A patient presents following a Road Traffic Accident (RTA) with absent air entry on the left side and tenderness in the left lower chest wall. What is the next step in Emergency Management (EMR)?

  • (A) X-ray
  • (B) CT
  • (C) FAST
  • (D) DPL

Question 191:

A patient presents with a slow-growing soft tissue swelling over the hand and wrist. The clinical image shows a subcutaneous nodule and the X-ray of the wrist is shown. What is the diagnosis?

  • (A) GCT (Giant Cell Tumour of tendon sheath)
  • (B) Osteochondroma
  • (C) Osteoid Osteoma
  • (D) Ewing Sarcoma

Question 192:

A patient presents with ear discharge. A CT scan of the brain is shown depicting a ring-enhancing lesion. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • (A) Cerebellar abscess
  • (B) Temporal lobe abscess
  • (C) Extradural abscess
  • (D) Meningitis

Question 193:

An infertility patient has an ultrasound suggestive of a uterine anomaly. What is the best investigation to confirm the diagnosis?

  • (A) TVS (Transvaginal sonography)
  • (B) Hysteroscopy + Laparoscopy
  • (C) HSG (Hysterosalpingography)
  • (D) Laparoscopy

Question 194:

A 50 year old male presents with backache and morning stiffness, red eye, and ankle swelling. A pelvic X-ray is shown. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • (A) Ankylosing Spondylitis
  • (B) Healed TB spine
  • (C) Paget's disease
  • (D) Osteopetrosis

Question 195:

A mother brings her daughter who has short stature and webbing of the neck, among other features. What will an ultrasound examination show?

  • (A) Hepatomegaly with altered echotexture
  • (B) Single kidney
  • (C) Echo showing tricuspid stenosis
  • (D) Streak ovaries with small uterus

Question 196:

A 60 year old obese female presents with abdominal pain, distension, and increased bowel sounds. There are multiple air fluid levels and air in the biliary tree on imaging. She also has a history of hysterectomy 2 years back. What is the probable diagnosis?

  • (A) Gall stone Ileus
  • (B) Small bowel obstruction
  • (C) Large bowel obstruction
  • (D) Paralytic ileus

Question 197:

A 45 year old patient with hypertension presenting with acute severe chest pain & there is diaphoresis. Also there is h/o loss of consciousness, unequal pulses. In emergency condition which is the best one to make a diagnosis

  • (A) Cardiac enzymes
  • (B) MRI
  • (C) X-ray
  • (D) TEE

Question 198:

A female presenting with abdominal pain, distension, organ failure in last 24 hours. CT scan shows pancreas which is bulky & there is fluid density lesion in the pancreas. Which of the following will be increased.

  • (A) AST
  • (B) Lipase
  • (C) Creatine Kinase
  • (D) Blood Urea Nitrogen

Question 199:

There was patient of Kidney trauma with hematuria. Which of the following investigation is advised to localised the site of hematuria

  • (A) CT
  • (B) X-ray
  • (C) MRI
  • (D) USG

Question 200:

2 X-rays (Erect & Supine) were given to identify the condition [Image shows erect and supine chest X-rays with air under diaphragm on erect view]

  • (A) Empyema Thorax
  • (B) Liver abscess
  • (C) Gastric volvulus
  • (D) Hollow viscus perforation

Question 201:

A baby playing was left unattended by the mother develops distress. Identify where the object is [Images show PA and lateral chest X-rays with a round radio-opaque foreign body in the midline]

  • (A) Oesophagus
  • (B) Trachea
  • (C) Below diaphragm
  • (D) GI tract

Question 202:

Identify the muscle marked causes flexion of hip [Images show axial and coronal CT sections of the abdomen/pelvis with a muscle marked bilaterally in the retroperitoneum]

  • (A) Gluteus Muscle
  • (B) Psoas Muscle
  • (C) Latissimus dorsi
  • (D) Multifidus

Question 203:

A 16 year old female patient presented with over familiarity, flight of ideas, elevated mood, increased sexual desire, pseudohallucinations. What will be the diagnosis?

  • (A) Mania
  • (B) Schizomania
  • (C) Hypomania
  • (D) Cyclothymia

Question 204:

A 50 year old male suddenly stopped alcohol consumption for 3 days in hospital with agitation, altered sensorium, paranoid delusions and hallucinations. The most likely diagnosis is

  • (A) Wernicke's Encephalopathy
  • (B) Korsakoff's psychosis
  • (C) Hangover
  • (D) Delirium Tremens

Question 205:

Which of the following is included in form of thought disorder?

  • (A) Derailment
  • (B) Obsession
  • (C) Thought insertion
  • (D) Delusion

Question 206:

During the course of psychotherapy, the therapist has mixed conscious and unconscious feeling towards a patient, this is known as

  • (A) Transference
  • (B) Countertransference
  • (C) Dissociation
  • (D) Preoccupation

NEET PG 2021 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme Explained

NEET PG 2021 followed a single-best-response MCQ format. The paper carried a noticeably high share of clinical and image-based questions - 59.3% were clinical-scenario questions, 30.1% tested conceptual knowledge, and just 10.6% were straight one-liners.

  • Total questions: 200 MCQs (single best response)
  • Duration: 3 hours 30 minutes, computer-based
  • Total marks: 800
  • Marking scheme: +4 for correct, -1 for incorrect, 0 for unattempted
  • Question types: clinical case-based, image-based, and direct one-liner MCQs
  • Language: English only

NEET PG 2021 Qualifying Percentile and Score Benchmark

  • General category qualifying percentile: 50th - meaning you need to score above the median to be eligible for MD/MS counselling
  • SC/ST/OBC qualifying percentile: 40th
  • Roughly 24,547 MD, 12,780 MS, and 922 Diploma seats were filled through NEET PG 2021 counselling
  • Target at least 150-155 attempts at high accuracy - the paper's clinical-case heavy design rewards careful reading over guessing

High-Weightage Subjects in NEET PG 2021 to Focus On First

Surgery and Medicine dominated the paper, and between the two they accounted for a large chunk of questions. Students who prepped these two subjects first gained the most marks per hour of study.

  • Surgery: 18 questions - the single heaviest subject in NEET PG 2021; high-yield topics included wound healing, hernias, and thyroid surgery
  • Medicine: one of the top contributors; clinical case scenarios from cardiology, nephrology, and pulmonology were frequent
  • Obstetrics and Gynaecology (OBGY): consistently high weightage; normal obstetrics, complications of pregnancy, and gynaecological malignancies featured
  • Pharmacology: well-represented with mechanism-based and adverse-effect questions; beta-receptors, antibiotics, and cancer pharmacology appeared
  • Biochemistry and Pathology: together contributed a solid chunk; enzyme deficiencies, metabolic disorders, and histopathology images appeared
  • Anatomy and Microbiology: moderate weightage; neuroanatomy and clinical microbiology (parasitology, virology) featured
  • Low-weightage subjects: ENT, Psychiatry, Forensic Medicine, Orthopedics, and Anaesthesia - fewer than 10 questions each

NEET PG 2021 Question Paper Analysis Video

Source: NBE NEET PG Analysis

How to Use the NEET PG 2021 Question Paper for Your Preparation

Experts from DAMS called the 2021 paper "easy to moderate though slightly lengthy" due to the clinical and comprehensive question format. That length is exactly what makes this paper valuable as a mock - it trains you to manage time across a 3.5-hour sitting.

  • Solve it timed first - set a 3.5-hour block and do not look at solutions midway; this is what builds real exam stamina
  • Review image-based questions carefully - 2021 had a noticeably high count; practice reading X-rays, biopsies, and clinical photographs from this paper
  • After reviewing, redo every Surgery and Medicine question you got wrong - those two subjects alone can shift your percentile significantly
  • Note which questions are clinical cases vs. one-liners; NEET PG rewards students who can rule out options in a 4-choice clinical scenario, not just recall facts
  • Part C of the 2021 paper was rated the most lengthy and confusing by students - treat it as a dedicated timed drill

NEET PG 2021 Question Paper FAQs

Ques. Was NEET PG 2021 difficult or moderate, and which section was the toughest?

Ans. NEET PG 2021 was rated moderate to difficult overall - 68.2% of students said moderate and 27.3% called it difficult. Part C was the most lengthy and confusing section. The high proportion of clinical case questions (59.3% of the paper) made it slower to attempt than one-liner-heavy papers from earlier years.

Ques. Which subjects had the highest weightage in NEET PG 2021?

Ans. Surgery led with 18 questions - the highest single-subject count. Medicine, OBGY, Pharmacology, Biochemistry, and Microbiology also carried high weightage. ENT, Psychiatry, Forensic Medicine, Orthopedics, and Anaesthesia had the fewest questions, each contributing under 10.

Ques. How many questions should I attempt in NEET PG to qualify at the 50th percentile?

Ans. The qualifying threshold for general category is the 50th percentile. In a 200-question, 800-mark paper with +4/-1 marking, most coaching experts recommend attempting 150-160 questions with above 80% accuracy to comfortably cross the 50th percentile. Avoid blind guessing - one wrong cancels out the benefit of four attempted-but-unsure answers.

Ques. Does NEET PG repeat questions from previous years?

Ans. Exact repetition is rare, but the same concepts and clinical scenarios recur in different framings. Surgery topics like hernia and thyroid, Medicine cardiology cases, and Pharmacology mechanism questions are perennial favourites. Solving 2021 and comparing it with 2022 and 2023 papers will show you which clinical scenarios NBE revisits.

Ques. Were image-based questions asked in NEET PG 2021?

Ans. Yes - NEET PG 2021 had a notable number of image-based questions including X-rays, histopathology slides, and clinical photographs. This is a continuing trend in NEET PG; practicing image identification from Surgery, Pathology, Ophthalmology, and Dermatology is important for any serious attempt.

Ques. Where can I download the NEET PG 2021 question paper with solutions PDF for free?

Ans. The NEET PG 2021 question paper with detailed solutions is available for free download in the table above. For the official answer key, check the National Board of Examinations website at natboard.edu.in.