Download the NEET PG 2020 question paper with solutions as a free PDF, the postgraduate medical entrance test the National Board of Examinations (NBE) conducted on January 5, 2020. It was a single computer-based paper of 300 single-best-answer MCQs to be attempted in 3 hours 30 minutes, and this page pairs every question with a worked solution and the answer key.
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NEET PG 2020 Questions with Solutions
Upward movement of the thyroid gland is prevented due to?
The reason for the long left recurrent laryngeal nerve is due to the persistence of which arch artery?
Ligation of the hepatic artery will impair blood supply in
Wolffian duct remnant in female is
Nerve supply of the extraocular muscles is constituted by all except
Claudication due to popliteal femoral incompetence is primarily seen in
Which muscle is paralyzed if there is hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joint and flexion of the interphalangeal joint?
Tumour of the uncinate process of the pancreas will compress which artery?
A boy met with a motorbike accident. CT brain shows injury to the posterior end of the superior temporal gyrus. He is likely to suffer from
A 65-year-old lady presents with a vascular injury to the inferior frontal gyrus. Which functional area would mostly be affected?
Where is the highest oxygen concentration present in fetal circulation?
When the value of the ventilation-perfusion ratio (V/Q) is infinity, it means?
The proteoglycan present in the glomerular basement membrane is?
A 35-year-old female was watching TV for long hours with her hands under her head. She complains of a tingling sensation over her arm. Which type of nerve fibers is most likely to be affected?
The reflex in which there is inhibition of gastric emptying when there is acid and a hypertonic solution in the duodenum is?
In multiple sclerosis, the slow conduction of motor and sensory pathways is due to?
Which of the following clotting factors in a patient on warfarin therapy would have decreased gamma-carboxyglutamate residues?
Blood stored in citrate-phosphate-dextrose (CPD) is better for hypoxic patients than acid-citrate-dextrose (ACD) because?
Which of the following is referred to as the "window of the limbic system"?
Cerebral blood flow is regulated by all except:
Hepcidin inhibits which of the following?
Which of the following techniques is used to study current flow across a single ion channel?
A 4-year-old boy of a first-degree consanguineous couple was noted by the parents to have darkening of the urine to an almost black color when it was left standing. He has a normal sibling, and there are no other medical problems. Growth and development to date are normal. Which of the following is most likely to be elevated in this patient?
Which of the following is true about the different structures of protein?
The insulin to glucagon ratio is decreased. Which enzyme is active at this time?
Ochronosis is due to the accumulation of which of the following?
Bilirubin in serum can be measured by which of the following?
In a sample of double-stranded DNA, if adenine is 28 percent, what is the amount of cytosine present?
Which of the following vitamins at higher doses causes cystoid macular edema?
Which of the following is a true statement regarding Huntington's chorea?
Addition of which amino acid will increase the UV absorption of a protein?
Which of the following is the richest source of vitamin B12?
Which amino acid is used to synthesise nitric oxide?
Which of the following is true about a non-competitive antagonist (inhibitor)?
Werner syndrome, associated with premature aging, is caused by a defect in which of the following?
Which of the following dietary fibers is insoluble in water?
According to NCEP-ATP III criteria, which of the following is NOT included in the diagnosis of metabolic syndrome?
Which of the following is the basis for the intestine-specific expression of apoprotein B-48?
A 30-year-old male presents with swelling around the knee joint. Histopathological examination of the swelling shows many giant cells interspersed with mononuclear cells. What is the probable diagnosis?
A 30-year-old woman presents with easy fatigability, exertional dyspnea and weight loss. She also reports frequent falls. On examination there is a bilateral decrease in vibration sense. Her hemoglobin is 8.2 g%. She was treated with folate; her anemia improved but her neurological symptoms worsened. What is the most probable reason for her condition?
A 45-year-old man who is a chronic smoker presents with a complaint of cough. The physician takes a biopsy of the airway, shown below. Which of the following cellular changes has happened in this patient?
A 30-year-old woman presents with thyroid swelling. On investigation, her TSH level is elevated. Postoperative histology shows lymphocytic infiltration and Hurthle cells. The most probable diagnosis is?
Which of the following will be seen on cardiac biopsy of a patient who had a post-MI reperfusion injury?
Loss of foot processes (foot process effacement) on electron microscopy is classical in which of the following?
Which of the following factors plays the major role in the initiation of thrombus formation?
A 33-year-old man presents with a 5-week history of calf pain, swelling, and low-grade fever. Serum creatine kinase is elevated. A muscle biopsy reveals numerous eosinophils, and he also has peripheral blood eosinophilia. Which of the following interleukins is primarily responsible for the increase in eosinophils in this patient?
Which of the following is true about polyarteritis nodosa (PAN)?
A 23-year-old male presents with fatigue and tiredness. Investigations show Hb 9 g%, MCV 101 fL. The peripheral smear shows microcytic RBCs and hypersegmented neutrophils. Which is the most probable etiology?
What is the main feature of chemotaxis as observed in white blood cells?
Which of the following anticancer drugs are competitive inhibitors of tyrosine kinase?
Which of the following is not a prokinetic agent?
Which of the following drugs acts by inhibiting DNA replication?
What is the drug of choice for onychomycosis?
Theophylline causes diuresis by which of the following mechanisms?
Which of the following antimicrobials should not be given to a chronic asthmatic patient managed on theophylline therapy?
What is the drug of choice for prophylaxis of motion sickness?
Which of the following antihypertensive drugs is avoided in patients with high serum uric acid levels?
The mechanism of bacterial resistance to penicillins via beta-lactamase is:
A patient on lithium therapy developed hypertension and was started on a thiazide diuretic. After a few days, he developed coarse tremors and other features suggestive of lithium toxicity. What is the probable mechanism of this interaction?
Which of the following drugs/hormones acts via a tyrosine kinase receptor?
Pegloticase is used for the treatment of:
Which fluoroquinolone is contraindicated (dose must be reduced) in liver disease?
At a high altitude of 3000 m, a person complains of breathlessness. All of the following can be used for the management of this person except:
A patient with diabetes and COPD developed postoperative urinary retention. Which of the following drugs can be used for short-term treatment to relieve the symptoms of this person?
Drug of choice for invasive aspergillosis is:
Which of the following drugs acts by inhibiting the transcription of DNA to RNA?
A patient was recently started on fluphenazine. A few weeks later, he developed tremors, rigidity, bradykinesia, and excessive salivation. The first line of management for this patient is:
A person was given a muscle relaxant that competitively blocks nicotinic receptors. Which of the following drugs is used for reversal of muscle relaxation after surgery?
Zero-order kinetics is otherwise known as saturation kinetics. It is independent of:
Which of the following is the law on child sexual abuse in India?
Punishment of perjury comes under which IPC section?
When civil negligence is brought up against a doctor, the onus of proof lies upon:
Relatives of a patient state during postmortem examination that the deceased had a tattoo which is now invisible. How can it be identified?
True about the hymen in child rape is:
Magnan's symptom is related to:
Parents complain that their child was assaulted by a relative and the child has anal pain. On investigation a test shows yellow needle-shaped crystals on adding picric acid. What is the name of the test?
The maximum number of days for which a Magistrate can detain a mentally ill person under a Reception Order is:
The vector for Zika virus is:
All are true regarding Japanese encephalitis except:
All of the following have superantigen property EXCEPT:
Which of the following is a Category A bioterrorism agent?
Which culture medium is used for the isolation of E. coli O157:H7?
Donovanosis is caused by which of the following organisms?
Which fungal infection is classically acquired by traumatic inoculation?
Which of the following organisms is NOT a cause of urethritis?
A patient develops nausea, vomiting and stomach cramps within 3 hours of attending a social gathering. Which organism is the most likely cause of this food poisoning?
A 46-year-old woman with HIV has severe persistent diarrhoea. On histological investigation, which organism is most likely causing the diarrhoea?
Which organism causes lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)?
Which interleukin is responsible for class switching of B cells to produce IgE?
Rapid bedside detection of HBsAg in point-of-care kits is based on which principle?
A nosocomial (hospital-acquired) infection is defined as one occurring within how many hours of hospital admission?
Which cell-surface component produced by Neisseria gonorrhoeae is mainly responsible for attachment to host cells?
According to the Bio-Medical Waste Management Rules 2016, chemical liquid biomedical waste should be discarded in which colour-coded container?
Under the Factories Act, the maximum number of work hours per week for a person, including overtime, is:
Which vaccine is most appropriate to ensure people are protected after a disaster?
What does the WHO MONICA project stand for?
Under the ESI Act, the maximum duration of Extended Sickness Benefit for an insured person with tuberculosis is:
A person reports 4 hours after sustaining a clean wound without laceration. He had received tetanus toxoid (TT) 10 years ago. The next best step in management is:
The recent (2009) influenza pandemic was caused by which strain?
Mission Indradhanush is for:
A study had a normal distribution with the median value as 200 and standard deviation 20. 68% of values will fall between:
Which of the following is a technique or method based on behavioural sciences?
As per the Sustainable Development Goals, the target for maternal mortality ratio (MMR) is to achieve maternal deaths of:
The best method for routine monitoring of air pollution uses which set of indicators?
The variation in one data set is compared with another data set by using:
In which of the following methods of management is the benefit measured in natural units?
The difference between the incidence in the exposed and the non-exposed group is best given by:
If the value of one variable is given, you can predict the value of another variable by using the:
Prospective screening is done in the case of:
A researcher wanted to prove the relation between COPD and smoking. He collected patient records from government hospitals and records of cigarette sales from the finance and taxation department. This is an example of which study design?
A study was done to assess malnutrition among young children. 100 children were selected each from rural and urban areas. Out of these, 30 among rural and 20 among urban were found to be malnourished. Which of the following statistical tests is used to compare the data sets?
The active disinfectant property of bleaching powder is due to:
Mother does not transmit which of the following antibodies to the baby?
Voluntary admission can be done for a maximum of how much time according to the Mental Healthcare Act (MHA) 2017?
Blood bags are disposed of in which colour-coded bag?
Absolute contraindications for an IUD (Intrauterine Contraceptive Device) are all of the following except:
Which of the following is a water-related (water breeding) disease?
In Vision 2020 (The Right to Sight), the Secondary level Service Centre is targeted to cover how much population?
CA-125 is a marker for the screening of ovarian cancer. To characterize this test, histopathological confirmation of ovarian cancer was done in a cohort of patients. 60 of 100 women who tested positive had ovarian cancer, and 20 of 100 women who tested negative had ovarian cancer. What is the negative predictive value of this test?
Screening is NOT useful in which of the following carcinomas?
Admission rate bias is also known as which of the following?
Stimulation of the external auditory canal leads to cough due to which nerve?
Widening of the cartilaginous part of the external auditory canal is called?
Tubercular otitis media is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT?
Partial closure and full closure operations are done in which condition?
The occipitomental view of an X-ray of the paranasal sinuses (PNS) is called?
Shifting fluid (shifting subretinal fluid) is characteristically seen in which condition?
Conjunctival injection, pharyngeal injection, polymorphic rash and cervical lymphadenopathy can be seen in which condition?
Incongruous homonymous hemianopia with a Wernicke's hemianopic pupil is seen with a lesion of?
A patient presents with proptosis and restriction of eye movements and is euthyroid. What could this be from?
Which of the following is a prerequisite for sympathetic ophthalmitis?
The photostress test is used to differentiate between which of the following?
Which layer of the cornea helps in the hydration (deturgescence) of the corneal stroma?
A 65-year-old man with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents to the OPD with diplopia and squint. On examination, the secondary deviation is more than the primary deviation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Esotropia is commonly associated with which refractive error?
An extra row of cilia (eyelashes) arising posterior to the grey line is called?
A patient presents with unilateral proptosis and bilateral abducent (sixth) nerve palsy. This could be from a lesion of the?
What is the characteristic finding of a fungal corneal ulcer?
A patient with raised intraocular pressure, optic disc changes and ciliary congestion is started on a drug that lowers IOP by increasing uveoscleral outflow. Which drug is this?
A patient diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis was on long-term medication. After 2 years, he developed blurring of vision and was found to have corneal opacity. Which drug is most likely to cause this?
Regarding nutcracker esophagus, the correct statement is:
A patient has chronic liver disease with cirrhosis. Which of the following criteria is used to assess the prognosis of this liver condition?
A patient presents with sudden onset of severe headache with neck rigidity. The most likely diagnosis is:
Vegetation on the mitral valve is most characteristically seen in which condition?
Water hammer pulse (Corrigan's pulse) is seen in:
Parents bring their 3-year-old child to a PHC with fever and cough for 5 days. On examination, chest indrawing is present. Under the IMNCI classification, what will you do?
Which poison can be detected in the skeleton even after the body has undergone emaciation or has been burnt for a long time?
An arterial blood gas shows pH 7.2, HCO3 10 to 12 mmol/L and pCO2 35 mm Hg. This metabolic acidosis is due to:
Impaired function of aquaporins (water channels) results in which of the following conditions?
Most serious complication of measles is:
The most common cause of death in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) in children is:
A patient has multiple gallstones and imaging shows 8 mm dilatation with 4 stones in the common bile duct (CBD). The best treatment modality is:
Pulmonary plethora is seen with all of the following except:
A 20-year-old man presents with swelling of the wrist for the last two years. Histopathological examination shows spindle-shaped cells and Verocay bodies. What is the diagnosis?
A hemodynamically unstable patient presents with supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) as shown.
The most appropriate immediate management is:
A female patient on lithium for bipolar disorder for 6 months fasted for several days for religious reasons and later presented with seizures, tremors, confusion and weakness. Which investigation should be done to diagnose her condition?
Lithium causes which of the following electrolyte or metabolic effects?
A 50-year-old man presents with paresthesia. Hemoglobin is 6.8 g/dl. Peripheral smear shows macrocytosis and neutrophils with hypersegmented nuclei. Endoscopy reveals atrophic gastritis. The most probable diagnosis is:
All-trans retinoic acid (ATRA) is used in the treatment of a tumour associated with which genetic abnormality?
A patient with renal tubular acidosis has the following arterial blood gas (ABG): pH = 7.24, PaO2 = 80, PaCO2 = 36, Na = 131, HCO3 = 14, Cl = 90, base excess (BE) = -13, glucose = 135. The above ABG picture suggests:
A patient has pulmonary fibrosis. Which antiarrhythmic drug should NOT be given to this patient?
A 42-year-old patient presents with obstructive jaundice. Alkaline phosphatase (ALP), gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT), and haptoglobin are all increased. The most likely cause is:
The differentiating feature between irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) and organic gastrointestinal disease is:
A patient has fatigue but is not gaining weight, and the body feels warm. Investigations are most likely to show:
Rewarming in frostbite should be done at what temperature?
Which of the following is NOT seen in pituitary apoplexy?
Loss of pain and temperature sensation on the ipsilateral face and contralateral body is due to thrombosis in the:
All of the following are found in left ventricular failure (LVF) EXCEPT:
All of the following show low glucose in pleural fluid, EXCEPT:
A 25 year old lady with a history of fever for 1 month presents with headache and ataxia. Brain imaging shows dilated ventricles and significant basal exudates. Which of the following will be the most likely CSF finding?
Which of the following drugs can be given in patients of primary pulmonary hypertension?
A patient arrives in the ER following a road traffic accident with hypotension, respiratory distress and subcutaneous emphysema with no entry of air on one side. What will be the best management?
Treatment of renal cell carcinoma of less than 4 cm will be: 
Which of the following is NOT seen in the ASEPSIS score?
Esophageal manometry was performed. It revealed panesophageal pressurization with distal contractile integrity of > 450 mmHg.s.cm pressure in the body. What will be the diagnosis?
What will be the appropriate management for an abdominal aortic aneurysm?
What is the T stage of a 2.5 cm lung carcinoma, not involving the pleura? 
In the primary survey, which is NOT included?
What is the most common location of gastrinoma in MEN-1 syndrome?
A patient presents with a precancerous penile lesion along with abdominal swelling and palpable inguinal lymphadenopathy. The most probable carcinoma associated with this clinical picture is:
An intoxicated man fell into a manhole and sustained a perineal injury. He now has a swollen scrotum and upper thigh, blood at the urethral meatus, and difficulty passing urine. The injury most likely associated with this trauma is:
A patient with known carcinoma of the bladder presents with dyspnoea, clinical signs of deep vein thrombosis, and tachycardia. According to the Wells score, the risk of this patient developing pulmonary embolism is:
Four months after a renal transplant, a patient is most likely to develop infection with which of the following organisms?
A patient presents with faecal peritonitis, and at laparotomy a perforated diverticulum is found with frank faecal contamination of the peritoneal cavity. According to the Hinchey classification, this corresponds to which stage?
A young man met with a motorbike accident sustaining injuries to the ileum and jejunum, following which the entire ileum and part of the jejunum were resected. The patient is most likely to subsequently suffer from:
A patient presents with epigastric pain after a heavy meal. On examination there is tenderness and rigidity in the upper abdomen, and the chest X-ray shows pneumomediastinum. The most likely cause is:
Transplantation of tissue between two genetically identical individuals (identical twins) is termed:
The Thoracoscore is a widely used model to predict operative mortality in thoracic surgery patients. Which of the following is NOT a component of the Thoracoscore?
Regarding retrosternal goitre, which of the following statements is true?
All of the following are part of the King's College Criteria used in acute fulminant (non-paracetamol) liver failure to decide for transplantation, EXCEPT:
A patient is posted for elective inguinal hernia repair. He has a past history of myocardial infarction for which he underwent CABG. What is the appropriate preoperative cardiac assessment?
A patient with a stab injury to the right lower chest presents with low BP and low pulse rate. He improves with IV fluids and, after resuscitation in the trauma centre, his BP becomes normal. Chest X-ray shows clear lung fields. What is the next step?
In a patient operated for parathyroid adenoma, how do we confirm intraoperatively that the correct (culprit) gland has been removed?
Which flap, with its correctly matched vascular pedicle, is commonly used in breast reconstruction?
A 30-year-old man presents with cramping gluteal (buttock) pain after walking 500 m. Which vascular segment is involved?
Which is the most common functioning pancreatic endocrine neoplasm?
An elderly man has a long-standing mole over the face that is increasing in size and showing irregular borders. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Which parameter most conclusively rules out malnutrition?
A 2-year-old child weighing 6.7 kg has Hb 6 g/dl, total protein 3 g/dl, low albumin, and a distended abdomen but no proteinuria. What is the diagnosis?
In respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) in a child, which cells are found to be defective?
What is the cause of the greenish-black colour of stool (meconium) in a neonate?
A term baby on breastfeeding has a serum bilirubin of 14 mg/dL. Which of the following is true?
What is the most common karyotype seen in true hermaphroditism (ovotesticular disorder of sex development)?
An APGAR score of 3 at 1 minute indicates that the newborn is:
A woman develops pain and a crawling sensation in her legs at night, with a clinical history of restless leg syndrome. What is the drug of choice?
A patient has arthritis involving the 1st metacarpophalangeal joint, the PIP and DIP joints of the hands, while sparing the wrist and ankle. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 12-year-old child is admitted to the ICU with blunt trauma and a femur fracture. PaO2 stays at 60 mmHg despite 100% oxygen via a non-rebreather mask, the chest X-ray shows clear lung fields, but the patient remains confused. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 4-year-old child, while playing, was suddenly swung around by the elbow from the maid's hand and is now crying continuously, not allowing anyone to touch the elbow. The child keeps the elbow extended. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A sexually active female presents with a profuse, frothy, foul-smelling discharge and intense itching. Examination reveals a strawberry cervix. What is the diagnosis?
A 33-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology OPD with heavy menstrual bleeding for 6 months. Clinical examination shows no abnormality and ultrasound is also normal. She was tried on non-hormonal treatment, which failed. What is the next step in management?
In a postmenopausal woman, the first-line drug for osteoporosis is:
Prolactin is secreted maximally at:
All of the following are used for postcoital (emergency) contraception EXCEPT:
A woman delivered at home with a complete perineal tear and presents to the hospital 2 weeks later. What management will you prefer?
In modern obstetrics, for a sensitized Rh-negative mother, what is preferred to evaluate the fetal condition?
A 7-week pregnant woman has a single accidental exposure to a diagnostic x-ray. Which of the following should be done?
A 32-year-old woman complains of amenorrhea since the delivery of a baby 15 months earlier, despite the fact that she did not breastfeed. The delivery was complicated by excessive haemorrhage requiring transfusion of 2.5 litres of blood. She has also been fatigued and has gained 4.5 kg since the baby was born. Laboratory data: serum LH < 1 IU/L (normal 4-24), serum estradiol 5 pg/mL (normal 20-100), serum TSH 0.1 mU/L (normal 0.5-5), serum GH 3 ng/mL (normal < 5), serum ACTH 28 pg/mL (normal 10-50), serum prolactin 2 ng/mL (low). Injection of 500 microgram of TRH failed to produce the expected rise in both serum TSH and prolactin. Which diagnosis most likely explains these findings?
Completion of meiosis I (the first meiotic division of the germ cell) occurs in:
A woman with DCDA twins at 38 weeks, with the first twin in breech presentation, has BP 140/96 mmHg and 1+ proteinuria. What is the management?
A 36-week pregnant lady has a history of one previous twin delivery. What is her obstetric (gravida-para) score?
Misoprostol, used in the induction of labour, is an analogue of which type of prostaglandin?
In early pregnancy, the clinical sign in which the cervix and the body of the bulky uterus feel separated because of a softened isthmus at 6 to 8 weeks of gestation is:
A 13-year-old girl visits the gynaecology OPD with a complaint of not attaining menarche. Her karyotype is 46,XX. On examination, clitoromegaly is seen. Which enzyme is most likely deficient in this condition?
A mother brings her 16-year-old daughter to the gynaecology OPD with a complaint of not attaining menarche. There is a history of cyclical lower abdominal pain. On examination there is a midline abdominal swelling, and per-rectal examination reveals a bulging mass in the vagina. What is the most common cause?
Which of the following is NOT an estrogen-dependent pubertal change?
A 22-year-old primigravida attends the ANC OPD at 20 weeks of gestation. On examination the uterine height corresponds to a 16-week size. USG shows reduced liquor. What is the most likely diagnosis?
The most common site for fertilization is:
Which distension medium is used for hysteroscopy performed with bipolar cautery?
The best treatment option for a septate uterus is:
A pregnant female had meconium-stained liquor and underwent an emergency LSCS. A few days later her condition deteriorated. USG showed edematous bowels. What is the cause?
An 18-year-old girl presents with 6 months of amenorrhea, a history of low-grade fever, weight loss, abdominal pain and generalized weakness. On per-rectal examination, a palpable left-sided pelvic mass is felt. The diagnosis is:
A child is born covered with a thick membranous coat. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Mouth-to-mouth respiration provides what percentage of oxygen to the recipient?
A cancer patient undergoes radiotherapy. Pick the true statement regarding radiosensitivity of tissues:
Which is the most common drug causing dependence worldwide?
An MBBS student presents with choking, dyspnea, chest tightness, anxiety and an impending sense of doom. On examination all systemic findings are normal, and she is referred to psychiatry. What is the probable diagnosis?
A patient with depression was given imipramine for 2 weeks. Relatives then noticed increased excitement, colourful clothing and increased talking. What is the next step in management?
A patient falls down often, with behavioral change and enuresis. What is the most likely condition?
A patient has depressive symptoms for 6 months and, in the last 2 weeks, auditory hallucinations. What is the probable diagnosis?
Identify the type of joint shown in the picture.
Identify the muscle marked in the image. What is its nerve supply?
Identify the cartilage shown in the histology slide.
Identify the boundaries of the anatomical structure marked in the image.
Identify the cell type marked in the cerebellum.
Identify the sleep wave marked in the EEG during the sleep-wake cycle.
Casal's necklace is seen in the deficiency of:
An HIV positive patient with a CD4 count of 300/cumm presents with mucosal lesions in the mouth as shown in the figure. On microscopy, budding yeasts and pseudohyphae are seen. The most probable diagnosis is:
A 25-year-old male presented with a 2 cm thyroid nodule. A thyroidectomy was done and the histology is shown below. What could be the diagnosis?
A 5-year-old child presented with a history of blood in the stools. On examination, there was a polypoid mass in the rectum, a biopsy of which is shown below. The most probable diagnosis is:
A 25-year-old man presents for a routine physical examination. The patient is tall and on examination he was found to have an early diastolic murmur. His family pedigree is given below. Which of the following is the mode of inheritance by which the disease is likely to be transmitted?
A 51-year-old person came with a complaint of hematuria. On examination he was normotensive and had pedal edema. Investigations revealed the patient had no glucosuria and had a creatinine value of 9 mg%. The renal biopsy is as shown below. Which of the following investigations should one do to identify the etiology of the disease?
A 35-year-old heterosexual patient diagnosed with HIV had a history of chronic watery diarrhea. A colonoscopic biopsy is shown below. The most probable diagnosis is?
An 11-year-old boy presented with cough for 15 days. On examination he was found to have cervical lymphadenopathy. Lymph node examination showed the finding below. What could be the diagnosis?
A 40-year-old person presented with a 10 x 8 cm swelling in the retroperitoneum. The biopsy from the lesion is as shown below. Molecular analysis demonstrated t(12;16). The most probable diagnosis is?
A 35-year-old woman with a long history of dyspnea, chronic cough, sputum production, and wheezing dies of respiratory failure following a bout of lobar pneumonia. She was not a smoker or an alcoholic. The lung autopsy is shown in the image. Which of the following underlying conditions was most likely associated with the pathologic changes shown here?
The graph below shows the dose-response curves of three drugs A, B and C. Which of the following drugs shown in the graph has the highest potency?
In the following X-ray of the wrist, what is the exact age?
Identify the phenomenon shown in the image.
Identify the following image.
Identify the parasite egg shown in the image.
Identify the organism causing the infection shown on the upper arm.
The immunoglobulin shown in the image is:
A 15-year-old boy presented with fever and chills for 3 days. On examination he had a delayed skin pinch time and dry oral mucosa. A peripheral blood smear revealed the following picture. Identify the pathogen involved.
A patient complains of painful blisters around the angle of the mouth. Identify the condition.
A patient presents with the feature shown in the image. The patient has another 3-year-old sibling at home who is fully immunized as per the immunization schedule. What is the best measure to prevent diphtheria in the sibling of this diphtheria case?
The most common site of origin of the pharyngeal diverticulum seen in the barium swallow shown below is:
The image shows bluish-purple discolouration behind the mastoid. Identify the sign.
A patient presents with fever and dysphagia. The image shows the tonsil being pushed. What is the diagnosis?
This patient gives a history of toothache for one week. What is the diagnosis?
Look at the eye movement shown in the image. The movement is lost in:
Identify the condition shown in the image below:
A barium swallow examination is shown below. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Identify the condition shown in the image below:
Identify the condition shown in the imaging below:
What is the use of the instrument given in the image below?
Identify the contraceptive device shown in the image below:
What maternal condition is associated with the fetal anomaly shown in the image below?
Interpret the partogram shown below and identify the most likely diagnosis:
A 60-year-old woman presents with a history of intermittent bleeding. Her ultrasound is shown below. What is the diagnosis?
What will be the hysteroscopic finding in the given image?
A lady on treatment for infertility developed ascites, abdominal pain and dyspnea. USG of the patient is shown below. What will be the diagnosis?
A 5-year-old male child presents to the clinic with a history of recurrent infection. On examination he is found to have the rashes shown below. On routine blood investigation, a low platelet count is found. What will be the diagnosis?
The patient is presenting with the deformity of the finger as shown. The PIP joint is involved but the DIP joint is spared. What is the diagnosis?
What is the most likely diagnosis given in the image?
The patient is presenting with pain around the base of the thumb. The tendons involved are:
The angle shown in the image is known as:
What is the diagnosis of a 55-year-old woman with a chronic low backache?
Identify the condition shown in the image.
The patient came with a history of bullae involving > 30% of the body surface area along with erosions of the lips and other mucosae for the past 7 days. What is the most probable underlying etiology?
Which of the following does the capnograph image below depict?
Identify the device shown in the image.
Identify the condition in the X-ray given below.
A chest radiograph obtained in a male with hypertension. What will be the diagnosis?
Steeple sign, seen in the image below, is seen in which of the following conditions?
Identify the radiological sign given below.
A middle-aged man has a swelling over the neck since childhood, with the overlying skin not intact, which had a bag-of-worms or worm-like appearance with a black spot in the middle. What will be the diagnosis?
Identify the radiological image given below.
Name the sign represented in the image given below.
A 35-year-old male presents with recurrent episodes of abdominal pain, jaundice, and fatigue and underwent MRCP. What will be the most likely diagnosis?
NEET PG 2020 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme Explained
As per the NBE information bulletin on the official website (natboard.edu.in), NEET PG 2020 was a single-best-answer MCQ paper, and nearly 80% of it was clinical-knowledge based rather than straight recall - which is why students found it lengthy.
- Total questions: 300 MCQs (single best response), split across three parts
- Duration: 3 hours 30 minutes, computer-based test
- Total marks: 1200
- Marking scheme: +4 for correct, -1 for incorrect, 0 for unattempted
- Question types: clinical case-based, image-based, and direct single-best-answer MCQs
- Language: English only
NEET PG 2020 Qualifying Percentile and Score Benchmark
- General category qualifying percentile: 50th - you needed to score above the median to be eligible for MD/MS counselling
- SC/ST/OBC and PwD qualifying percentile: 40th
- With ~80% of the paper being clinical, target at least 220-240 attempts at high accuracy - careful reading beats blind guessing on a +4/-1 paper
- Use these as weekly targets when you redo the paper as a timed mock
High-Weightage Subjects in NEET PG 2020 to Focus On First
General Medicine led the paper, and clinical subjects together carried the bulk of the questions. Students who prepped Medicine, PSM, and Pharmacology first gained the most marks per hour of study.
- General Medicine: the single heaviest subject in NEET PG 2020; cardiology, nephrology, and endocrinology clinical cases were frequent
- Preventive and Social Medicine (PSM): one of the top contributors, with biostatistics, epidemiology, and national health programme questions
- Pharmacology: well-represented with mechanism-of-action and adverse-effect questions on antibiotics, anticancer drugs, and autonomic drugs
- General Surgery and Obstetrics and Gynaecology: consistent high weightage; wound healing, hernias, normal obstetrics, and gynaecological malignancies featured
- Anaesthesia, Radiology, and Paediatrics: moderate weightage with image-based and clinical-scenario questions
- Low-weightage subjects: Forensic Medicine, Ophthalmology, and ENT - Ophthalmology and ENT combined carried only about six questions
NEET PG 2020 Question Paper Analysis Video
Source: Dr. Rajamahendran
How to Use the NEET PG 2020 Question Paper for Your Preparation
NEET PG 2020 was rated medium difficulty but lengthy, since nearly 80% of questions needed applied clinical reasoning rather than memory. That length is exactly what makes this paper valuable as a mock - it trains you to manage time across a 3.5-hour, 300-question sitting.
- Solve it timed first - set a 3.5-hour block and do not look at solutions midway; this is what builds real exam stamina
- Review every clinical-scenario question carefully, since these dominated 2020 and are slower to read than one-liners
- After reviewing, redo every Medicine, PSM, and Pharmacology question you got wrong - those three subjects alone can shift your percentile significantly
- Practise reading the image-based questions (X-rays, slides, clinical photographs) from this paper, as image recognition is a recurring NEET PG skill
- Track your attempt count and accuracy each time you redo the paper, aiming to cross the 50th percentile benchmark
NEET PG 2020 Question Paper FAQs
Ques. Was NEET PG 2020 difficult or moderate, and what made it lengthy?
Ans. NEET PG 2020 was rated medium overall but lengthy. Nearly 80% of the paper was clinical-knowledge based, so many questions needed applied reasoning rather than memory recall. Subjects like Medicine, Surgery, Anaesthesia, Radiology, OBGY, and Paediatrics dominated, which is why students found the 300-question paper time-consuming.
Ques. Which subjects had the highest weightage in NEET PG 2020?
Ans. General Medicine led, followed by Preventive and Social Medicine (PSM) and Pharmacology. General Surgery and Obstetrics and Gynaecology were the other big contributors. The fewest questions came from Forensic Medicine, Ophthalmology, and ENT - with Ophthalmology and ENT together carrying only about six questions.
Ques. How many questions should I attempt in NEET PG 2020 to qualify at the 50th percentile?
Ans. The general-category qualifying threshold is the 50th percentile. On a 300-question, 1200-mark paper with +4/-1 marking, most coaching experts recommend attempting 220-240 questions at above 80% accuracy to comfortably cross the median. Avoid blind guessing - one wrong cancels out the benefit of four uncertain attempts.
Ques. Does NEET PG repeat questions from previous years?
Ans. Exact repetition is rare, but the same concepts and clinical scenarios recur in different framings. Medicine cardiology cases, Pharmacology mechanism questions, and PSM biostatistics are perennial favourites. Solving 2020 and comparing it with 2021 and later papers shows you which clinical scenarios NBE keeps revisiting.
Ques. Were image-based questions asked in NEET PG 2020?
Ans. Yes - NEET PG 2020 had several image-based questions including X-rays, histopathology slides, and clinical photographs. This is a continuing NEET PG trend; practising image identification from Surgery, Pathology, Radiology, and Dermatology is important for any serious attempt.
Ques. Where can I download the NEET PG 2020 question paper with solutions PDF for free?
Ans. The NEET PG 2020 question paper with detailed solutions is available for free download in the table above. For the official notification and answer-key details, check the National Board of Examinations website at natboard.edu.in.
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