NEET PG 2019 Question Paper with Solutions PDF: Free Download

Syndrome associated with posterior inferior cerebellar artery thrombosis:

• (A) Wallenberg syndrome
• (B) Medial medullary syndrome
• (C) Inferior alternating syndrome
• (D) Dejerine syndrome

Space of Disse is in:

• (A) Spleen
• (B) Lymph node
• (C) Liver
• (D) Bone

What are Gitter cells:

• (A) Macroglia
• (B) Modified macrophages in CNS
• (C) Astrocytes
• (D) Oligodendrocytes

Cholecystocaval line separates:

• (A) Right & Left liver lobe
• (B) Liver with Gall Bladder
• (C) Right Lobe of Liver with Gall Bladder
• (D) Left Lobe of Liver with Gall Bladder

Which of the following exocrine glandular ducts are not obstructed in cystic fibrosis:

• (A) Pancreas
• (B) Lung
• (C) Sweat gland
• (D) All of above

Boot shape of heart in TOF is due to:

• (A) Left atrial enlargement
• (B) Right atrial enlargement
• (C) Right ventricular hypertrophy
• (D) Biventricular hypertrophy

Which of the following structure is not derived from external oblique muscle:

• (A) Inguinal ligament
• (B) Lacunar ligament
• (C) Cooper ligament
• (D) Linea Semilunaris

Contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation is due to injury to which tract?

• (A) Anterior spinothalamic tract
• (B) Lateral spinothalamic tract
• (C) Fasciculus gracilis
• (D) Fasciculus cuneatus

Ducts of Bellini are present in which organ?

• (A) Pancreas
• (B) Liver
• (C) Kidney
• (D) Salivary gland

Which structure is derived from the first pharyngeal arch?

• (A) Levator palatini
• (B) Buccinator
• (C) Stylohyoid
• (D) Anterior belly of digastric

Which joint is involved in movement of the head from left to right (turning side to side)?

• (A) Atlanto-axial
• (B) Atlanto-occipital
• (C) C2-C3 joint
• (D) C3-C4 joint

What is the nerve supply of the submandibular gland?

• (A) Auriculotemporal nerve
• (B) Lingual nerve
• (C) Glossopharyngeal nerve
• (D) Inferior alveolar nerve

During parathyroid surgery, the parathyroid gland is most commonly implanted (autotransplanted) into which muscle?

• (A) Sartorius
• (B) Supinator
• (C) Deltoid
• (D) Brachioradialis

The right coronary artery arises from which structure?

• (A) Right aortic sinus
• (B) Left aortic sinus
• (C) Posterior coronary sinus
• (D) Anterior coronary sinus

Bainbridge reflex causes?

• (A) Bradycardia
• (B) Increased cardiac output
• (C) Decreased venous return
• (D) Increased heart rate

Golgi tendon organ is responsible for sensing?

• (A) Tension
• (B) Length
• (C) Pressure
• (D) Proprioception

The hormone predominantly secreted after the 14th day acting on the endometrium is?

• (A) Progesterone
• (B) Estrogen
• (C) LH
• (D) FSH

Peripheral chemoreceptors respond to hypoxia using which channel?

• (A) Calcium channel
• (B) Sodium channel
• (C) Potassium channel
• (D) Chloride channel

With increase in age, which of the following is true for the lungs?

• (A) Pulmonary compliance increases
• (B) Residual volume decreases
• (C) Mucociliary clearance increases
• (D) Fibrosis of interstitium decreases

Functional residual capacity is the volume of air in the lungs measured?

• (A) After normal inspiration
• (B) After normal expiration
• (C) After forceful expiration
• (D) After forceful inspiration

Polyuria is defined as urine output greater than?

• (A) 70 ml/kg/day
• (B) 60 ml/kg/day
• (C) 50 ml/kg/day
• (D) 40 ml/kg/day

Tubuloglomerular feedback control is useful for the regulation of which one of the following?

• (A) GFR
• (B) Plasma sodium
• (C) Plasma volume
• (D) Determining tubular secretion

Calcitonin levels are increased in medullary thyroid carcinoma. This tumour is most commonly associated with which one of the following?

• (A) Hyperthyroidism
• (B) Hyperparathyroidism
• (C) Hypoparathyroidism
• (D) Cushing Syndrome

When the values of FEV1 = 1.3 and FVC = 3.9, which of the following does this signify?

• (A) Normal lung function
• (B) Obstructive lung disease
• (C) Restrictive lung disease
• (D) Both

Antegrade peristalsis (descending relaxation ahead of the bolus) is due to which one of the following neurotransmitters?

• (A) Acetylcholine
• (B) Serotonin
• (C) Substance P
• (D) VIP

C-peptide is seen in which one of the following?

• (A) In Pre-proinsulin
• (B) In Proinsulin
• (C) As a combined entity with insulin after secretion
• (D) A gastrointestinal proactive molecule

In forceful expiration, which one of the following groups of neurons gets fired?

• (A) VRG (Ventral respiratory group)
• (B) DRG (Dorsal respiratory group)
• (C) Pneumotaxic centre
• (D) Chemoreceptors

Slow conduction velocity is seen with which one of the following nerve fibers?

• (A) Preganglionic autonomic nerve fibers
• (B) Postganglionic autonomic nerve fibers
• (C) Motor nerves
• (D) Sympathetic nerve fibers

Testosterone is secreted by which of the following cells?

• (A) Leydig's cells
• (B) Somatotropic cells
• (C) Acidophilic cells
• (D) Gonadotropic cells

Vasopressin acts through which channels in the collecting duct?

• (A) Aquaporin 1
• (B) Aquaporin 2
• (C) GLUT-1
• (D) GLUT-4

Which of the following is true about decorticate rigidity?

• (A) Removal of cerebral cortex and basal ganglia
• (B) Flexion of lower limbs and extension of upper limbs
• (C) Rigidity is less pronounced than decerebrate rigidity
• (D) None of the above

Zellweger syndrome is due to the absence of which organelle?

• (A) Lysosome
• (B) Mitochondria
• (C) Peroxisome
• (D) Nucleus

Urea, creatinine, and nitric oxide are formed from which amino acid?

• (A) Histidine
• (B) Glycine
• (C) Cysteine
• (D) Arginine

Which of the following is NOT a source of cytosolic NADPH?

• (A) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
• (B) ATP citrate lyase
• (C) Malic enzyme
• (D) G6PD (glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase)

All of the following are true regarding mitochondrial DNA, EXCEPT?

• (A) Double stranded
• (B) Inherited from mother
• (C) High mutation rate
• (D) All respiratory proteins are synthesized within the mitochondria itself

Which apolipoprotein is responsible for Alzheimer's disease?

• (A) APOE4
• (B) APOE3
• (C) APOE2
• (D) APOE1

Hyperammonaemia inhibits the TCA cycle by depleting which intermediate?

• (A) Succinate
• (B) Alpha ketoglutarate
• (C) Malate
• (D) Fumarate

Which amino acid is used to synthesise nitric oxide?

• (A) Glycine
• (B) Arginine
• (C) Tyrosine
• (D) Threonine

Menkes disease is associated with deficiency of which enzyme?

• (A) Lysyl oxidase
• (B) Methionine synthase
• (C) Glutamyl aminopeptidase
• (D) Lysyl hydroxylase

LCAT deficiency increases which of the following?

• (A) HDL
• (B) LDL
• (C) VLDL
• (D) Chylomicron

A 25 year old alcoholic presented with edema, hypertension, ocular disturbance, and changes in mental state. A diagnosis of high output cardiac failure with Wet Beri Beri was made. This is due to deficiency of which vitamin?

• (A) Vitamin B3
• (B) Vitamin B6
• (C) Vitamin B9
• (D) Vitamin B1

Glutamine is increased in CSF, blood, and urine. This is due to deficiency of which enzyme?

• (A) CPS-I
• (B) Arginase
• (C) OTC
• (D) Argininosuccinate synthetase

Which of the following is true about type 1 diabetes mellitus?

• (A) Decreased protein catabolism
• (B) Decreased hepatic glucose output
• (C) Increased lipolysis
• (D) Increased glucose uptake

Which protein is NOT synthesised in the liver?

• (A) Phase protein
• (B) Immunoglobulins
• (C) Albumin
• (D) Plasma hormone

Which type of cholesterol is present in gallstones?

• (A) Amorphous cholesterol monohydrate
• (B) Amorphous cholesterol dihydrate
• (C) Crystalline cholesterol dihydrate
• (D) Crystalline cholesterol monohydrate

Which type of collagen is present in skin?

• (A) Type II
• (B) Type I
• (C) Type III
• (D) Type IV

Which of the following is NOT a ribozyme?

• (A) Poly A polymerase
• (B) Ribonuclease
• (C) Transpeptidase
• (D) Peptidyl transferase

Type I hyperlipoproteinemia is characterized by which of the following?

• (A) Elevated LDL
• (B) Elevated HDL
• (C) Elevated chylomicrons
• (D) Elevated lipoprotein lipase

In the Krebs cycle and the urea cycle, the linking amino acid is which of the following?

• (A) Fumarate
• (B) Alanine
• (C) Arginine
• (D) Aspartate

Vitamin A is stored in which of the following cells?

• (A) Cells of Ito
• (B) Hepatocyte
• (C) Endothelial cell
• (D) Kupffer cell

Glanzmann thrombasthenia is due to which of the following?

• (A) Decreased GpIb
• (B) Decreased GpIIb/IIIa
• (C) Anti-GpIIb/IIIa antibodies
• (D) Inhibition or deficiency of ADAMTS 13

Which of the following is an apoptotic gene?

• (A) Bax
• (B) Bcl2
• (C) Bclx
• (D) Mcl

Alpha-1 antitrypsin works by which of the following mechanisms?

• (A) Inhibition of trypsin
• (B) Inhibition of trypsinogen
• (C) Inhibition of elastase
• (D) Inhibition of chymotrypsin

Which one of the following is an autosomal recessive disorder?

• (A) Albinism
• (B) Huntington's syndrome
• (C) Marfan's syndrome
• (D) Neurofibromatosis-1

Fish-mouth appearance of the valve in rheumatic heart disease is due to which of the following?

• (A) Rupture of valve
• (B) Calcification and fibrosis
• (C) Hypertrophy of ventricular wall
• (D) None of the above

Follicular lymphoma shows positivity for which of the following?

• (A) Bcl-1
• (B) Bcl-6
• (C) Bcl-2
• (D) None of the above

What is the histological difference between Ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease?

• (A) Diffuse distribution of pseudopolyps
• (B) Mucosal edema
• (C) Crypt abscess
• (D) Lymphoid aggregates in the mucosa

What is the cause of intracorpuscular defects in hemolysis?

• (A) Uremic syndrome
• (B) PCH
• (C) PNH
• (D) Portal hypertension

Type of necrosis seen in blood vessels due to immune reactions-

• (A) Coagulation
• (B) Liquefaction
• (C) Fibrinoid
• (D) None

In a patient with lipoprotein lipase deficiency, which of the following is increased following a fatty meal?

• (A) Chylomicron
• (B) LDL
• (C) HDL
• (D) Apo-A

In Wilson's disease, there is less urinary excretion of-

• (A) Phosphorus
• (B) Methyl-Histidine
• (C) Phosphotyrosine
• (D) Serine

What is the function of IL-1?

• (A) Enhances hematopoiesis
• (B) Stimulates mast cells
• (C) Has antiviral properties
• (D) Endogenous pyrogen

CEAP score indicates-

• (A) Atrial disorders
• (B) Venous disorder
• (C) Neurological disorder
• (D) Trauma disorder

IL-1 is activated by which of the following?

• (A) Caspase 1
• (B) Caspase 3
• (C) Caspase 8
• (D) Caspase 5

A parotid mass with mixed consistency is most likely which of the following?

• (A) Pleomorphic adenoma
• (B) Sebaceous cyst
• (C) Dermoid cyst
• (D) All

Krabbe's disease is caused by which enzyme deficiency?

• (A) Deficiency of beta-galactosylceramidase
• (B) Deficiency of aryl sulphatase
• (C) Alpha galactosidase
• (D) Acid lipase

What is the choice of treatment for idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)?

• (A) Blood transfusion
• (B) Spontaneous recovery
• (C) IV infusion
• (D) Splenectomy

Which fluoroquinolone has the maximum oral bioavailability?

• (A) Moxifloxacin
• (B) Gatifloxacin
• (C) Levofloxacin
• (D) Ciprofloxacin

What is the mechanism of action of buspirone?

• (A) 5-HT1A partial agonism
• (B) 5-HT1B antagonism
• (C) 5-HT1B partial agonism
• (D) 5-HT2C antagonism

Which statement best describes the mechanism of action of azole antifungals?

• (A) Inhibition of synthesis of ergosterol
• (B) Inhibition of thymidylate synthase
• (C) Targeting beta-1,3-glucan
• (D) Disruption of cell wall

Which of the following is an orally active direct factor Xa inhibitor?

• (A) Rivaroxaban
• (B) Argatroban
• (C) Dabigatran
• (D) Bivalirudin

Which among the following is the most probable reason for preference of cisatracurium over atracurium?

• (A) Decreased histamine release
• (B) Increased histamine release
• (C) Due to elimination by Hofmann elimination
• (D) Increased CNS toxicity

Which of the following drugs is used in SIADH (syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion)?

• (A) Tolvaptan
• (B) Desmopressin
• (C) von Willebrand factor
• (D) Terlipressin

A drug acting on potassium (K+) channels includes which of the following?

• (A) Spironolactone
• (B) Amiloride
• (C) Nicorandil
• (D) Methyldopa

Imipenem, a newer antibiotic with a broad antibacterial spectrum, is co-administered with cilastatin. Which of the following is the best reason for the same?

• (A) Combination of antibiotics is synergistic against Pseudomonas species
• (B) Cilastatin aids gastrointestinal absorption of the active moiety, imipenem
• (C) Cilastatin inhibits the beta-lactamase enzyme destroying imipenem
• (D) Cilastatin inhibits an enzyme in the kidney destroying imipenem

Which of the following is the drug of choice for smoking cessation?

• (A) Acamprosate
• (B) Varenicline
• (C) Thalidomide
• (D) Tryptophan

Which of the following is the drug of choice for cyclosporiasis?

• (A) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole combination
• (B) Paromomycin
• (C) Metronidazole
• (D) Cyclosporine

What is the mechanism of action of curare like drugs?

• (A) Blocks ACh synthesis
• (B) Blocks ACh receptors
• (C) Persistent depolarization
• (D) Agonistic with ACh receptors

A drug with high plasma protein binding property has which of the following properties?

• (A) Less GFR
• (B) Less drug interaction
• (C) Higher volume of distribution
• (D) Less tubular secretion

What is the mechanism of action of Oseltamivir?

• (A) Protein synthesis inhibitor
• (B) Thymidylate synthetase inhibitor
• (C) Neuraminidase inhibitor
• (D) Pyrimidine analog

Which of the following is/are true about colchicine?

• (A) Acts by neutrophil recruitment
• (B) Causes metaphase arrest
• (C) Useful in urate-lowering therapy
• (D) All of the above

Which of the following drugs is an alpha 2 agonist?

• (A) Apraclonidine
• (B) Timolol
• (C) PG analogues
• (D) Verapamil

Which drug is used to differentiate myasthenia gravis from cholinergic crisis?

• (A) Pyridostigmine
• (B) Edrophonium
• (C) Methacholine
• (D) Clonidine

Conversion of norepinephrine to epinephrine is mainly by which of the following?

• (A) S-adenosyl methionine
• (B) Arginine
• (C) Phenylalanine
• (D) Dehydrogenase

Carbapenem which has the tendency to cause maximum seizures is?

• (A) Imipenem
• (B) Ertapenem
• (C) Doripenem
• (D) Meropenem

Drug of choice for the diphtheria carrier state is?

• (A) Penicillin
• (B) Antitoxin
• (C) Penicillin or erythromycin
• (D) Ciprofloxacin

Healthy human volunteers are part of which clinical trial phase?

• (A) Phase 1
• (B) Phase 0
• (C) Phase 3
• (D) Phase 4

Drug of choice for a scorpion sting bite is?

• (A) EDTA
• (B) Neostigmine
• (C) N-acetylcysteine
• (D) Prazosin

What is the mechanism of action of teduglutide in short bowel syndrome?

• (A) GLP-2 analog
• (B) HT1a inhibitor
• (C) GLP-1 analog
• (D) C-peptide analog

Drug of choice for chemotherapy-induced vomiting is?

• (A) Granisetron
• (B) Prazosin
• (C) Clonidine
• (D) Dimenhydrinate

What is the advantage of a fixed dose combination of drugs?

• (A) Increases efficacy of drug
• (B) Decreases adverse effects
• (C) Patient compliance improved
• (D) All of the above

What is the drug of choice for digitalis-induced ventricular tachycardia?

• (A) Lidocaine
• (B) Reducing dosage of digoxin itself reverses the condition
• (C) Verapamil
• (D) Beta blockers

Antiretroviral therapy is to be given in HIV-infected patients irrespective of the presence of symptoms if the CD4 count is less than (cells/mm3)?

• (A) 100
• (B) 150
• (C) 200
• (D) 350

Filgrastim is used in the treatment of:

• (A) Anemia
• (B) Neutropenia
• (C) Malaria
• (D) Filarial

Which of the following is true about the treatment of early breast carcinoma?

• (A) Aromatase inhibitors are replacing tamoxifen in premenopausal women
• (B) Post-mastectomy radiation therapy is given when 4 or more lymph nodes are positive
• (C) Tamoxifen is not useful in post-menopausal women
• (D) In premenopausal women, multidrug chemotherapy is given in selected patients

A patient with rheumatoid arthritis has been taking methotrexate, steroids, and NSAIDs for 4 months, but the activity of disease progression is the same. What should be the next probable step?

• (A) Start monotherapy with anti-TNF alpha drugs
• (B) Continue methotrexate and steroids
• (C) Stop oral methotrexate and start parenteral methotrexate
• (D) Add sulfasalazine

IV mannitol is used for the treatment of:

• (A) Acute congestive glaucoma
• (B) Pulmonary edema
• (C) Acute renal failure
• (D) CHF

Variation in sensitivity of response to different doses of a drug in different individuals is obtained from?

• (A) Dose response curve
• (B) Therapeutic index
• (C) Bioavailability
• (D) Phase 1 clinical trials

Which one of the following is a function of PGI2 (prostacyclin)?

• (A) Inhibits platelet aggregation
• (B) Is a vasodilator
• (C) Is pyrogenic like PGE2
• (D) All of the above

A degloving injury of the skin involves removal of which layers?

• (A) Skin, subcutaneous fat, fascia, muscle
• (B) Skin, subcutaneous fat, fascia
• (C) Skin only
• (D) Skin, subcutaneous fat

Sexual perversion in the form of exhibitionism is punishable under which section of the IPC?

• (A) Section 290
• (B) Section 294
• (C) Section 230
• (D) Section 291

Which structure is affected first in rigor mortis?

• (A) Eyelids
• (B) Myocardium
• (C) Jaw
• (D) Neck

Punishment for perjury (giving false evidence under oath) is provided under which section of the IPC?

• (A) Section 193
• (B) Section 191
• (C) Section 197
• (D) Section 190

Gastric lavage is NOT contraindicated after ingestion of which acid?

• (A) HCl
• (B) H2SO4
• (C) Carbolic acid
• (D) Nitric acid

For toxicological analysis, viscera is stored or preserved in which medium?

• (A) Glycerine
• (B) Rectified spirit
• (C) Formalin
• (D) Saturated salt solution

Two identical (monozygotic) twins will NOT have the same:

• (A) Fingerprints
• (B) DNA copies
• (C) Iris color
• (D) Blood group

In an alleged history of gunshot injury there is burning, blackening, and tattooing around the wound with a dirt collar. The injury is a:

• (A) Close shot entry wound
• (B) Close shot exit wound
• (C) Distant shot entry wound
• (D) Distant shot exit wound

A child has Battered baby syndrome. How will you identify it?

• (A) Stab wound
• (B) Gunshot wound
• (C) Bruise of different ages
• (D) None of these

A patient has gastrointestinal problems including abdominal pain and distension, bloody or mucus-filled diarrhea, and tenesmus with rectal prolapse. A stool ova and parasite exam reveals typical barrel-shaped eggs. The possible causative agent is:

• (A) Campylobacter
• (B) Clostridium difficile
• (C) Giardia lamblia
• (D) Trichuris

Contact isolation is done for:

• (A) MRSA
• (B) Mumps
• (C) Diphtheria
• (D) Asthma

A child suffering from recurrent chronic infections with encapsulated bacteria has a deficiency of which IgG subclass?

• (A) IgG1
• (B) IgG2
• (C) IgG3
• (D) IgG4

The drug of choice (DOC) for Isospora (Cystoisospora) infection is:

• (A) Penicillin G
• (B) Benzathine penicillin
• (C) Co-trimoxazole
• (D) Albendazole

Coxsackievirus A16 causes

• (A) Yellow fever
• (B) Hand-foot-mouth disease
• (C) Rocky mountain spotted fever
• (D) Encephalomyocarditis

Pneumocystis jiroveci is:

• (A) Associated with CMV
• (B) Diagnosis is by sputum microscopy
• (C) Seen only in immunocompromised patients
• (D) Always associated with pneumatocele

All are true about congenital Toxoplasmosis EXCEPT

• (A) Chorioretinitis
• (B) Conjunctivitis
• (C) Hydrocephalus
• (D) Cerebral calcification

True about the TRIAD of congenital rubella syndrome

• (A) PDA, cataract and deafness is seen
• (B) Hepatosplenomegaly, mental retardation, deafness
• (C) Chorioretinitis, multiorgan failure, pneumonitis
• (D) None of these

Disc diffusion method is also known as

• (A) Kirby Bauer
• (B) VDRL
• (C) Dark field microscopy
• (D) None of these

Rubella virus belongs to which family?

• (A) Reovirus
• (B) Togavirus
• (C) Picornavirus
• (D) Orthomyxo

Which of the following infections resembles erythroblastosis?

• (A) EBV
• (B) CMV
• (C) HSV
• (D) Staphylococcus

Which of the following is the diagnostic test for neurosyphilis?

• (A) VDRL
• (B) RPR
• (C) TPI
• (D) FTA-ABS

Flask-shaped ulcers in the intestine are caused by which of the following?

• (A) Giardia lamblia
• (B) Entamoeba histolytica
• (C) Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori)
• (D) E. vermicularis

What type of culture media is used for Legionella?

• (A) (BCYE) agar media
• (B) MacConkey agar
• (C) Baird-Parker agar
• (D) Sabouraud's agar

Which is the special stain used for Cryptococcus?

• (A) ZN stain
• (B) Gram stain
• (C) Mucicarmine stain
• (D) Malachite green

A 36-year-old male presents with cough, cold, fever and rusty sputum. Sputum is negative for tuberculosis. He has a history of travel to China and eating crab. Name the infection.

• (A) Paragonimus westermani
• (B) Fasciola hepatica
• (C) Fasciolopsis buski
• (D) Entamoeba histolytica

Which is the microbiological test for diagnosing Leptospira infection?

• (A) Cold agglutination
• (B) Standard agglutination
• (C) Microscopic agglutination test (MAT)
• (D) None of these

Green colour of triage is for which type of patient?

• (A) Low priority
• (B) Morbidity
• (C) Ambulatory
• (D) High priority

The Concurrent List of the Indian Constitution includes which of the following?

• (A) International immigration rule for quarantine
• (B) Prevention of extension of communicable disease from one unit to another
• (C) Mines and oilfield workers rules
• (D) Establishment and maintenance of drug standards

The last point up to which the Reproductive and Child Health (RCH) programme is included is:

• (A) Sub-centre
• (B) Anganwadi
• (C) District
• (D) Taluka

The health centre in the remotest area, used as the first contact point for planning and management of schemes, is the:

• (A) Anganwadi
• (B) Block centre
• (C) Sub-centre
• (D) PHC

The diagnostic power of a test to correctly diagnose a disease (the proportion of positive test results that truly have the disease) is:

• (A) Negative predictive value
• (B) Positive predictive value
• (C) Sensitivity
• (D) Specificity

Paradoxical carriers are best defined as:

• (A) A person who acquires the microorganism due to his contact with the patient.
• (B) A person who acquires the microorganism from another carrier.
• (C) A person who is clinically recovered from an infectious disease but still capable of transmitting the infectious agent to others.
• (D) None

According to IMNCI, for a baby of 6 months of age, the criterion for fast breathing is a respiratory rate of more than how many breaths per minute?

• (A) 60
• (B) 50
• (C) 40
• (D) 30

All of the following are examples of dietary fibre except:

• (A) Pectin
• (B) Lignin
• (C) Cellulose
• (D) Gums

Cross product ratio is determined by which type of study?

• (A) Case control
• (B) Cohort
• (C) Cross sectional
• (D) Randomised controlled trial (RCT)

In a normal curve, what is the area that comes under 1 standard deviation (mean +/- 1 SD)?

• (A) 50%
• (B) 68%
• (C) 95%
• (D) 100%

A 2 year old boy weighing 12 kg has vitamin A deficiency. What is the recommended oral dose of vitamin A?

• (A) 50,000 I.U.
• (B) 1 lakh I.U.
• (C) 1.5 lakh I.U.
• (D) 2 lakh I.U.

Which of the following is NOT a personal protective equipment (PPE)?

• (A) Goggles
• (B) Badges for detecting radiation
• (C) Gloves
• (D) Lab coat

A confounding factor is best defined as which of the following?

• (A) Factor associated with both the exposure and the disease and is distributed unequally in study and control groups.
• (B) Factor associated with exposure only and is distributed unequally in study and control groups.
• (C) Factor associated with both the exposure and the disease and is distributed equally in study and control groups.
• (D) Factor associated with the disease and is distributed equally in study and control groups.

The significance of the difference between proportions can also be tested by which of the following?

• (A) 't' test
• (B) Chi square test
• (C) ANOVA
• (D) Correlation and regression

The paired t-test is best defined as which of the following?

• (A) Test used to assess quantitative observations before and after an intervention
• (B) Test that is used when the observations are in the form of proportions (for qualitative data)
• (C) Test applied when separate observations are made on individuals of two separate groups, and these need to be compared
• (D) None

Which diagram is the best representation of the incidence of a disease across different points on a timeline?

• (A) Histogram
• (B) Line diagram
• (C) Scattered diagram
• (D) Bar diagram

For the trench type of sanitary fill, the amount of land required for a 2 metre deep trench for a population of 10,000 is:

• (A) 1 acre
• (B) 2 acre
• (C) 3 acre
• (D) 4 acre

What is the approximate risk of genetic diseases in a consanguineous marriage between first cousins?

• (A) 1-2%
• (B) 4-8%
• (C) 8-10%
• (D) 12-14%

Which of the following is NOT an epidemiological indicator?

• (A) ABER
• (B) Annual parasite index
• (C) Annual falciparum incidence
• (D) None of the Above

The dose of diphtheria antitoxin (DAT) is:

• (A) 1000 to 5000 IU
• (B) 10000 to 100000 IU
• (C) 1000 to 2000 IU
• (D) None

Vertical transmission of HIV from mother to child is highest with which of the following?

• (A) Elective caesarean section
• (B) High viral RNA load
• (C) Breast feeding
• (D) Term delivery

The most common site of a branchial cyst is:

• (A) Posterior border of sternocleidomastoid
• (B) Anterior border of sternocleidomastoid
• (C) Digastric muscle
• (D) Omohyoid muscle

Inspiratory stridor is found in what kind of lesions?

• (A) Supraglottic
• (B) Subglottic
• (C) Tracheal
• (D) Bronchus

In Retinitis pigmentosa there is a decreased level of which of the following?

• (A) Arachidonic acid
• (B) Trielonic acid
• (C) Thromboxane
• (D) Docosahexaenoic acid

What is the against-the-rule correction in astigmatism?

• (A) -1.25 cyl 90
• (B) -2 spherical 180
• (C) -3 cyl 180
• (D) +2 cyl 180

Morbid fear of darkness is known as?

• (A) Claustrophobia
• (B) Xenophobia
• (C) Mysophobia
• (D) Nyctophobia

A child has ptosis and poor levator function. What surgery will you do?

• (A) Levator muscle resection
• (B) Mullerectomy
• (C) Fasanella Servat surgery
• (D) Frontalis suspension surgery

Which drug causes ocular hypotension with apnea in an infant?

• (A) Latanoprost
• (B) Timolol
• (C) Brimonidine
• (D) Dorzolamide

Which combination of chemotherapy agents is used for retinoblastoma?

• (A) Vincristine, carboplatin and etoposide
• (B) Vinblastine, etoposide and bleomycin
• (C) Vinblastine, vincristine and etoposide
• (D) Vinblastine, vincristine and cisplatin

Drug used in acute congestive glaucoma are:

• (A) Atropine
• (B) Pilocarpine
• (C) Acetazolamide
• (D) Both B & C

Which is the most common ocular finding in myasthenia gravis?

• (A) Ptosis
• (B) Lagophthalmos
• (C) Proptosis
• (D) Enophthalmos

Esotropia is usually associated with:

• (A) Myopia
• (B) Hypermetropia
• (C) Astigmatism
• (D) Presbyopia

Which wall of heart enlargement can be seen on barium swallow in patient with mitral stenosis?

• (A) Left atrium
• (B) Right atrium
• (C) Left ventricle
• (D) Right ventricle

Which of the following statements is true about the bundle of Kent?

• (A) Abnormal pathway between two atria
• (B) It is muscular or nodal pathway between the atria and ventricle in WPW syndrome
• (C) It is slower than the AV nodal pathway
• (D) None

Deep venous thrombosis - which is incorrect?

• (A) Clinical assessment highly reliable
• (B) Mostly bilateral
• (C) Most common clinically presents as pain and tenderness in calf
• (D) Some cases may directly present as pulmonary thromboembolism

Punched out ulcer in esophagus is seen in:

• (A) Herpes
• (B) CMV
• (C) Oesophagitis
• (D) Candida

In Brown-Sequard syndrome, which type of sensation is lost on the same (ipsilateral) side as the cord lesion?

• (A) Pain
• (B) Touch
• (C) Proprioception
• (D) Temperature

Achondroplasia shows which type of inheritance?

• (A) X-linked recessive
• (B) X-linked dominant
• (C) Autosomal recessive
• (D) Autosomal dominant

Which of the following is included in the MELD (Model for End-stage Liver Disease) score?

• (A) Serum creatinine
• (B) Transaminase
• (C) Albumin
• (D) Alkaline phosphatase

Infarcts involving which portion of the myocardium most commonly cause a ventricular aneurysm as a post-MI complication?

• (A) Subendocardial
• (B) Anterior transmural
• (C) Posterior transmural
• (D) Inferior wall

Which of the following is a recognised risk factor for Alzheimer's disease?

• (A) Klinefelter syndrome
• (B) Low BP
• (C) Down's syndrome
• (D) None

A 26-year-old female presents with oral ulcers, photosensitivity and a malar (butterfly) rash on the face that spares the nasolabial folds on both sides. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• (A) Sturge-Weber syndrome
• (B) SLE
• (C) Dermatitis
• (D) Psoriasis

What is the most characteristic cardiovascular defect seen in congenital rubella syndrome?

• (A) Pulmonary artery stenosis
• (B) Coarctation of aorta
• (C) Ankylosing spondylitis
• (D) Rheumatic fever

Osborn J waves are seen in-

• (A) Hypothermia
• (B) Hyperkalemia
• (C) Hypocalcemia
• (D) Hypokalemia

Alcoholic shows which type of cardiomyopathy-

• (A) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
• (B) Dilated cardiomyopathy
• (C) Pericarditis
• (D) Myocarditis

Which is not related to HIV?

• (A) Primary CNS lymphoma
• (B) Tertiary syphilis
• (C) Oesophageal candidiasis
• (D) None

Essential major blood culture criteria for infective endocarditis.

• (A) Single positive culture of HACEK
• (B) Single positive culture of Coxiella
• (C) Single positive culture of Corynebacterium
• (D) Both a & b

Respiratory centres are stimulated by-

• (A) Oxygen
• (B) Lactic acid
• (C) Carbon dioxide
• (D) Calcium

Which murmur increases on standing?

• (A) HOCM
• (B) MR
• (C) MS
• (D) VSD

Most common indication for liver transplant in children-

• (A) Biliary atresia
• (B) Cirrhosis
• (C) Hepatitis
• (D) Drug reactions

Most common type of gallstone is-

• (A) Mixed stones
• (B) Pure cholesterol stones
• (C) Pigment stones
• (D) Calcium bilirubinate

Serpiginous ulcer in the distal esophagus is classically caused by-

• (A) CMV
• (B) Herpes
• (C) Pill
• (D) Corrosive

Omphalocele is caused by?

• (A) Duplications of intestinal loops
• (B) Abnormal rotation of the intestinal loop
• (C) Failure of gut to return to the body cavity from its physiological herniation
• (D) Reversed rotation of the intestinal loop

Dohlman procedure is performed for-

• (A) Meckel's diverticulum
• (B) Zenker's diverticulum
• (C) Dermatomyositis
• (D) Menetrier's disease

If a mother is donating a kidney to her son, it is an example of-

• (A) Isograft
• (B) Allograft
• (C) Autograft
• (D) Xenograft

Uvula vesicae is produced by which prostate lobe?

• (A) Anterior lobe
• (B) Posterior lobe
• (C) Median lobe
• (D) Lateral lobe

True about Barrett's esophagus are all of the following except:

• (A) Causes adenocarcinoma
• (B) Patient is usually asymptomatic
• (C) Histology of the lesion shows mucus secreting goblet cells
• (D) Chronic gastroesophageal reflux is a predisposing factor

Parathyroid autoimplantation takes place in which of the muscle?

• (A) Biceps
• (B) Triceps
• (C) Brachioradialis
• (D) Sartorius

Bell's palsy is associated with the lesion in which of the nerve?

• (A) 11th cranial nerve
• (B) 7th cranial nerve
• (C) 9th cranial nerve
• (D) 3rd cranial nerve

Cushing ulcer is seen in case of-

• (A) Burns
• (B) Head injury
• (C) Cell necrosis
• (D) Stress

Gasless abdomen seen in-

• (A) Ulcerative colitis
• (B) Acute pancreatitis
• (C) Intussusception
• (D) Necrotising enterocolitis

Bidextrous grip is seen at what age?

• (A) 4 months
• (B) 5 months
• (C) 6 months
• (D) 7 months

Which vaccine to be given every year?

• (A) Hepatitis A
• (B) Hepatitis B
• (C) Influenza
• (D) Chicken pox

APGAR score 3 at 1 minute indicates:

• (A) Mildly depressed
• (B) Further resuscitation not needed
• (C) Severely depressed
• (D) Normal

Severe acute malnutrition as per WHO criteria is defined as:

• (A) Weight for age less than median plus -2 SD
• (B) Weight for height less than median plus 2 SD
• (C) Weight for age less than median plus 3 SD
• (D) Weight for height less than median minus -3 SD

Where do you look for pre-ductal oxygen saturation in a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) in a 3-minute-old born infant?

• (A) Fetal left upper limb
• (B) Fetal left lower limb
• (C) Fetal right upper limb
• (D) Fetal right lower limb

Which of the following is true about Fragile X syndrome?

• (A) Triple nucleotide CAG sequence mutation
• (B) 10% female carriers are mentally retarded
• (C) Males have IQ 20-40
• (D) Gain of function mutation

Foot drop is caused by injury to which nerve?

• (A) Femoral nerve
• (B) Tibial nerve
• (C) Common peroneal nerve
• (D) Sciatic nerve

Which part of a scaphoid fracture is most susceptible to avascular necrosis?

• (A) Distal 1/3rd
• (B) Middle 1/3rd
• (C) Proximal 1/3rd
• (D) Scaphoid tubercle

Pott's puffy tumor is best described as:

• (A) Subperiosteal abscess of frontal bone
• (B) Subperiosteal abscess of ethmoid bone
• (C) Mucocele of frontal bone
• (D) Mucocele of ethmoid bone

Scissor gait is seen in which of the following conditions?

• (A) Polio
• (B) Cerebral palsy
• (C) Hyperbilirubinemia
• (D) Hyponatremia

Which statement is incorrect about the pathology shown in the image?

• (A) Tumor arises from epiphyseal to metaphyseal region
• (B) Tumor has distinct margin
• (C) Eccentric lesion
• (D) Chemotherapy is the treatment of choice

A 65 year old lady presents with backache. Based on the following radiograph of the spine shown in the image, what should be the most likely diagnosis?

• (A) Osteoporosis
• (B) Spondylolisthesis
• (C) Spondylolysis
• (D) Discitis

Which of the following attitude will be seen in a patient with posterior dislocation of the hip?

• (A) Flexion, Abduction, Internal rotation
• (B) Flexion, Adduction, Internal rotation
• (C) Flexion, Abduction, External rotation
• (D) Flexion, Adduction, External rotation

Which of the following is true about tenosynovitis of the finger?

• (A) Fingers held in mild extension / extension deformity at the involved fingers
• (B) Tenosynovitis of little finger will spread to thumb rather than ring finger
• (C) With involvement of little finger the infection can spread to the index finger
• (D) Treatment is conservative

Most common joint involved in septic arthritis is?

• (A) Knee
• (B) Hip
• (C) Shoulder
• (D) Elbow

In painful arc syndrome, pain is felt during?

• (A) Mid abduction
• (B) Initial abduction
• (C) Full range of abduction
• (D) Overhead abduction

Which of the following is false as a physiological change in pregnancy?

• (A) Increase cardiac output
• (B) Increase total protein
• (C) Increase residual volume
• (D) Increase GFR

Overt gestational diabetes is defined as blood glucose more than _?

• (A) >200 mg/dl
• (B) >126 mg/dl
• (C) >100 mg/dl
• (D) >180 mg/dl

MgSO4 has no role in prevention of -

• (A) Seizures in severe pre-eclampsia
• (B) Recurrent seizures in eclampsia
• (C) RDS in premature baby
• (D) Bradycardia

Green frothy vaginal discharge is produced by -

• (A) Herpes simplex
• (B) Candida albicans
• (C) Trichomonas vaginalis
• (D) Normal vaginal flora

Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to OCP use:

• (A) Chronic renal disease
• (B) DVT
• (C) Diabetes mellitus
• (D) History of amenorrhea

Which of the following statement is correct about acute fatty liver of pregnancy?

• (A) Occurs in 1 in 1000 pregnancy
• (B) Mostly seen in last trimester
• (C) Common if female fetus is present
• (D) May be associated with decreased uric acid

Female with 41 weeks gestation confirmed by radiological investigation, very sure of her LMP, no uterine contractions, no effacement and no dilatation. What should not be done?

• (A) Intracervical Foley's
• (B) PGE1 tab
• (C) PGE2 gel
• (D) PGF2alpha

Double decidua sign is seen during -

• (A) 1st trimester
• (B) 2nd early trimester
• (C) 2nd late trimester
• (D) 3rd trimester

A 60 year old woman comes with 3rd degree uterine prolapse. What will be the management?

• (A) Vaginal hysterectomy with pelvic floor repair
• (B) Pelvic floor repair
• (C) Sacrospinous fixation
• (D) Pessary

Day 20 of the menstrual cycle falls under which phase?

• (A) Menstrual phase
• (B) Follicular phase
• (C) Ovulation phase
• (D) Luteal phase

Chromosome number of a partial hydatidiform mole is-

• (A) 46 XX
• (B) 45 XO
• (C) 46 XXY
• (D) 69 XXX

Vulvar atrophy and itching are treated by-

• (A) Estrogen ointment
• (B) Antihistamines
• (C) Tamoxifen
• (D) None

Premature ejaculation is a part of which phase of sexual disorders?

• (A) Excitement phase
• (B) Plateau phase
• (C) Orgasm phase
• (D) Refractory phase

Nuchal translucency on USG can be detected at how many weeks of gestation?

• (A) 11-13 weeks
• (B) 18-20 weeks
• (C) 8-10 weeks
• (D) 20-22 weeks

First line of treatment of mastitis in a lactating mother is-

• (A) Dicloxacillin
• (B) Cefazolin
• (C) Ceftriaxone
• (D) Ampicillin

A patient with recurrent abortion is diagnosed to have antiphospholipid syndrome. What will be the treatment?

• (A) Aspirin only
• (B) Aspirin + Low molecular weight Heparin
• (C) Aspirin + Low molecular weight Heparin + Prednisolone
• (D) No Treatment

Gestational trophoblastic neoplasm does not include-

• (A) Choriocarcinoma
• (B) Placental site trophoblastic tumour
• (C) Invasive mole
• (D) Partial mole

Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy:

• (A) Chicken pox
• (B) Rabies
• (C) Tet toxoid
• (D) Hepatitis B

A 45 years old female presents with 3 months of menorrhagia. USG shows a 2 cm submucosal fibroid. What are the treatment options?

• (A) OCP for 3 months
• (B) Progesterone for 3 months
• (C) Endometrial sampling
• (D) Hysterectomy

In low ovarian reserve, the anti-Mullerian hormone level will be:

• (A) <1
• (B) 1-4
• (C) >7
• (D) >10

The presenting diameter of a fully flexed fetal head is:

• (A) Suboccipito-bregmatic diameter
• (B) Suboccipito-frontal diameter
• (C) Occipito-frontal diameter
• (D) Occipito-posterior position

What is the dose of ulipristal acetate?

• (A) 300mg
• (B) 30mg
• (C) 300µg
• (D) 30µg

The major contribution of the amniotic fluid after 20 weeks of gestation is:

• (A) Ultrafiltrate and maternal plasma
• (B) Fetal urine
• (C) Fetal lung fluid
• (D) Fetal skin

The maximum dose of PGF2 alpha (15-methyl prostaglandin F2 alpha, carboprost) in postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is:

• (A) 2000 micrograms
• (B) 200 micrograms
• (C) 2 mg
• (D) 20 mg

All are true about skin except:

• (A) Both dermis and epidermis are derived from ectoderm
• (B) Skin accounts for a total of 15% of body weight
• (C) Most of the cells in skin are keratinocytes derived from ectoderm
• (D) Dermis is made up of type 1 and type 3 collagen in a 3:2 ratio

The anaesthetic gas with maximum respiratory irritation is:

• (A) Halothane
• (B) Enflurane
• (C) Desflurane
• (D) Sevoflurane

Intravenous administration of which anaesthetic drug is most painful among the following?

• (A) Methohexital
• (B) Ketamine
• (C) Propofol
• (D) Etomidate

Which of the following is not cardiodepressive?

• (A) Propofol
• (B) Thiopentone
• (C) Ketamine
• (D) Etomidate

Which of the following is the most common method used to know the depth of anaesthesia?

• (A) BIS (Bispectral index)
• (B) Oesophageal contractility
• (C) Depressed responses
• (D) Hypotension

MRP2 (multidrug resistance protein 2) is associated with which of the following conditions?

• (A) Rotor syndrome
• (B) Dubin-Johnson syndrome
• (C) Crigler-Najjar syndrome
• (D) Gilbert syndrome

Which of the following elements forms the basis of a water-soluble radiographic contrast agent?

• (A) Barium
• (B) Iodine
• (C) Bromium
• (D) Calcium

A solitary lytic bone lesion can be seen in which of the following conditions?

• (A) Atherosclerosis
• (B) Multiple myeloma
• (C) Mitral stenosis
• (D) Osteoblast

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding somnambulism (sleep walking)?

• (A) Sleep walking
• (B) Patient consciousness is preserved
• (C) Disorder of sleep arousal
• (D) Low level motor skill or function is present

The Confusion Assessment Method (CAM) scale is used for the assessment of which of the following?

• (A) Schizophrenia
• (B) Delirium
• (C) Dementia
• (D) Depression

Which of the following is a poor prognostic factor in obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

• (A) Magical thinking
• (B) Dirt contamination
• (C) Pathological doubt
• (D) Hoarding

Which forensic test is based on the principle that a suspect who has witnessed an event reacts in a certain measurable physiological way when confronted with stimuli related to it?

• (A) Narcoanalysis
• (B) Brain mapping
• (C) Truth serum testing
• (D) Polygraph

Intense depression and misery without any cause is?

• (A) Melancholia
• (B) Major depressive disorder
• (C) Mania
• (D) Schizophrenia

Which of the following is not true regarding delusional disorder?

• (A) Held with absolute conviction
• (B) Usually false
• (C) Not amenable to reasoning
• (D) Occurs at early age

Identify the condition shown in the image below.

• (A) Intertrigo
• (B) Heat rash
• (C) Eczema
• (D) Impetigo

Identify the infection from the chest X-ray of a patient with low-grade fever?

• (A) ILD
• (B) Bronchopneumonia
• (C) Miliary TB
• (D) Consolidation

Identify the condition given in the image?

• (A) Atrial fibrillation
• (B) Atrial flutter
• (C) Ventricular tachycardia
• (D) SVT

A patient presented with history of diplopia and restricted eye movements. A clinical image and CT image is shown below. What will be the diagnosis?

• (A) Le Fort fracture
• (B) Fracture maxilla
• (C) Fracture zygomatic
• (D) Blow out fracture

Identify the radiological procedure shown below?

• (A) Barium meal follow through
• (B) Barium enema
• (C) Enteroclysis
• (D) Proctography

Identify the condition shown in the CT image.

• (A) Lacunar infarct
• (B) Embolic infarct
• (C) Thrombotic infarct
• (D) Intracerebral hemorrhage

Identify the condition in the below image.

• (A) SLE
• (B) Polymorphous light eruption
• (C) Discoid lupus
• (D) Skin tuberculosis

A child with history of fever, photosensitivity and a rash sparing the nasolabial fold presents to OP. Identify the condition.

• (A) Sarcoptes scabies
• (B) Dermatitis herpetiformis
• (C) Xerotic dermatitis
• (D) Erythema multiforme

A patient presents with pruritus of the interdigital spaces of the left hand as shown in the image. Identify the condition.

• (A) Atopic dermatitis
• (B) SLE
• (C) Erythema
• (D) TEN

Identify the condition shown in the image.

• (A) Sebaceous cyst
• (B) Alopecia areata
• (C) Trichotillomania
• (D) Tinea capitis

Identify the condition in the image.

• (A) Leukoderma
• (B) Piebaldism
• (C) Vitiligo
• (D) DLE

Which of the following is true regarding the condition depicted in the image?

• (A) May be an indication of skin malignancy
• (B) Hypopigmentation
• (C) May be associated with insulin resistant diabetes mellitus
• (D) Commonly occurs in lean and thin

The causative organism for the condition depicted in the image is?

• (A) Staphylococci
• (B) Candidal infection
• (C) Streptococcus
• (D) Actinomycetes

Identify the condition as shown.

• (A) Brodie abscess
• (B) Osteoid osteoma
• (C) Intracortical hemangioma
• (D) Chondromyxoid fibroma

A 14-year-old child is a naive rheumatoid arthritis patient as shown in the image. What should be the correct treatment of the given condition?

• (A) DMARD with short course of steroids
• (B) Only NSAIDs
• (C) DMARD after initial 3 months of NSAIDs
• (D) Monotherapy with TNF drugs

In a 34-week gestation the weight of the baby was 3 kg. The child shows the following features, which may indicate an associated condition.

• (A) Anemia
• (B) Diabetes
• (C) APH
• (D) None

A 30-year-old woman with complaints of dysmenorrhoea, dyspareunia and chronic pelvic pain undergoes hysterectomy. From the cut section of the hysterectomy specimen below, identify the condition.

• (A) Adenomyosis
• (B) Fibroids
• (C) Leiomyoma
• (D) Endometriosis

Identify the type of placenta praevia as shown in the picture below.

• (A) I
• (B) II
• (C) III
• (D) IV

A female patient presented with recurrent urinary tract infections. Imaging shows the following picture. What can be the most probable diagnosis?

• (A) Duplication of ureter
• (B) Congenital megaureter
• (C) Ureterocele
• (D) Urinary stones

Identify the triangle marked in the image below.

• (A) Koch's triangle
• (B) Gastrinoma triangle
• (C) Hesselbach's triangle
• (D) Sherren's triangle

Identify the surgical blade shown in the image.

• (A) Blade no. 15
• (B) Blade no. 10
• (C) Blade no. 11
• (D) Blade no. 12

Identify the type of knot shown in the image.

• (A) Granny knot
• (B) Surgeon's knot
• (C) Reef knot
• (D) None

Identify the condition shown in the ECG.

• (A) Atrial fibrillation
• (B) Arrhythmia
• (C) Atrial flutter
• (D) Cardiomyopathy

A patient who is a known case of acute pancreatitis develops breathlessness and bilateral basal crepitations on day 4, with the chest radiograph shown below. What is the diagnosis?

• (A) Bilateral pneumonia
• (B) ARDS
• (C) Cardiogenic pulmonary embolism
• (D) Collapse

Identify the image with the diagnosis.

• (A) VT
• (B) PSVT
• (C) AT
• (D) Ventricular fibrillation

A patient comes to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain, pulse 112 per minute and systolic BP 80 mm Hg, with the chest X-ray shown below. What is the next appropriate step for this patient?

• (A) Exploratory laparotomy
• (B) Saline wash of stomach
• (C) Intercostal tube drainage
• (D) None

True statement about the given condition of the eye except:

• (A) Arise from any part of conjunctiva
• (B) Can cause Astigmatism
• (C) Surgery is treatment of choice
• (D) UV exposure is risk factor

The following test is used to diagnose which ocular condition as shown in the image:

• (A) Strabismus
• (B) Heterophoria
• (C) Both A & B
• (D) None of the above

Name the manoeuvre shown in the image:

• (A) Brandt Daroff
• (B) Epley
• (C) Foster
• (D) Semont

Identify the condition of the given image:

• (A) Acquired cholesteatoma
• (B) Congenital cholesteatoma
• (C) Rupture of tympanic membrane
• (D) Keratosis obturans

CT image of left maxilla with a history of allergic rhinitis. Identify the finding:

• (A) Ground glass appearance
• (B) Double densities
• (C) Honey comb
• (D) Onion Peel Appearance

Identify the instrument:

• (A) Maddox rod
• (B) Maddox wing
• (C) Maddox glass
• (D) Red glasses

Identify the lesion of the vocal cord in the image given below:

• (A) Reinke's edema
• (B) Laryngeal Papilloma
• (C) Malignancy
• (D) Tracheomalacia

A patient gives a history of hoarseness in the voice and presents with the clinical condition shown in the image. Identify the lesion.

• (A) Membranous tonsillitis
• (B) Follicular tonsillitis
• (C) Diphtheria
• (D) Aphthous ulcer

A patient presented with the following picture of the tympanic membrane. What is the most probable diagnosis (marked with the arrow)?

• (A) Tubercular Otitis Media
• (B) Syphilitic Otitis Media
• (C) Pseudomonas infection
• (D) Fungal Otitis Media

Which method is used to study the timeline shown in the image?

• (A) Cohort Study
• (B) Cross sectional study
• (C) Randomized Control Trials
• (D) Interventional Studies

A 6 year old boy has fever and chills, cough, rapid breathing, difficulty breathing and chest pain. Culture from a sample shows a Gram-positive organism. Identify the image.

• (A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
• (B) Staphylococcus
• (C) Propionibacterium
• (D) Mycobacterium

Identify the picture.

• (A) Herpes zoster
• (B) Small pox
• (C) Chicken pox
• (D) Atopic dermatitis

Identify the image.

• (A) Malaria
• (B) Plague
• (C) Japanese encephalitis
• (D) Paragonimus

What is the cause of death according to the death certificate shown below?

• (A) Breast Cancer
• (B) Secondaries
• (C) Cerebral Hemorrhage
• (D) All of the Above

Identify the blood grouping process done here. The slide shows the test cells with anti-D reagent and a control. Which blood group does this signify?

• (A) A-ve
• (B) B+ve
• (C) O+ve
• (D) Rh group

Identify the condition as shown in the image given below.

• (A) Callosal dysgenesis
• (B) Dandy walker syndrome
• (C) Aicardi syndrome
• (D) Septo optic dysplasia

Which nerve supplies the region marked as 'Area B' in the image?

• (A) Ulnar nerve
• (B) Median nerve
• (C) Radial nerve
• (D) Posterior interosseous nerve

Which of the following is NOT a boundary of the structure shown in the given image?

• (A) Common hepatic duct
• (B) Cystic duct
• (C) Inferior surface of the liver
• (D) Gall bladder

The marked area in the given image is supplied by which dermatome?

• (A) T8
• (B) T9
• (C) T10
• (D) T11

Identify the type of the fibre marked in the image of the internal capsule.

• (A) Projection fibres
• (B) Short association fibres
• (C) Long association fibres
• (D) Commissural fibres

Identify the structure marked by the red arrow in the given image.

• (A) Great vein of Galen
• (B) Pineal gland
• (C) Fornix
• (D) Falx cerebri

What is the nerve supply of the marked structure in the given image?

• (A) Anterior interosseous nerve
• (B) Posterior interosseous nerve
• (C) Ulnar nerve
• (D) Median nerve

Identify the marked structure in the image.

• (A) Cerebrum
• (B) Brain stem
• (C) Corpus callosum
• (D) Cerebellum

Nerve injured in Frey's syndrome is:

• (A) Auriculotemporal nerve
• (B) Great auricular nerve
• (C) Lingual nerve
• (D) Inferior alveolar nerve

Which nerve passes through the marked foramen in the given image?

• (A) Lingual nerve
• (B) Mandibular nerve
• (C) Chorda tympani nerve
• (D) Inferior alveolar nerve

Identify the marked muscle 'A' in the diagram.

• (A) Brachioradialis
• (B) Extensor carpi radialis longus
• (C) Flexor carpi radialis
• (D) Extensor carpi ulnaris

Which of the following nail findings is seen in the condition shown below?

• (A) Pterygium
• (B) Pigmentation
• (C) Pitting
• (D) Ridges