The NEET PG 2010 (AIPGMEE 2010) question paper is now available with detailed solutions for free download. AIPGMEE 2010 was conducted by the National Board of Examinations (NBE) in January 2010, and the paper carried 300 single-best-answer MCQs to be solved in 3 hours 30 minutes.
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NEET PG 2010 (AIPGMEE) Questions with Solutions
A patient with a bilirubin value of 8 mg/dl and a serum creatinine of 1.9 mg/dl is planned for surgery. What is the muscle relaxant of choice in this patient?
A 25 year old overweight female was given fentanyl-pancuronium anaesthesia for surgery. After surgery and extubation she was observed to have limited movement of the upper body and chest wall in the recovery room. She was conscious and alert but voluntary respiratory effort was limited. Her blood pressure and heart rate were normal. The likely diagnosis is:
All of the following statements about the neuromuscular blockade produced by succinylcholine are true, except:
A 27 year old female was brought to the emergency department for acute abdominal pain, following which she was shifted to the operation theatre for laparotomy. A speedy intubation was performed, but after the intubation breath sounds were observed to be decreased on the left side and a high end tidal CO2 was recorded. The likely diagnosis is:
The hypogastric sheath is a condensation of:
Which of the following positions best describes the location of the celiac plexus?
The gluteus medius muscle is supplied by which nerve?
Which of the following tendons passes below the sustentaculum tali?
Which of the following passes through the foramen magnum?
All of the following movements occur during abduction of the shoulder, except:
All of the following are composite muscles, except:
The urogenital diaphragm is made up of the following, except:
In post-ductal coarctation of the aorta, collaterals may be formed by all of the following, except:
A left-sided superior vena cava drains into:
All of the following statements about bronchial circulation are true, except:
An important non-respiratory function of the lungs is:
Maximum water reabsorption in the gastrointestinal tract occurs in:
The primary action of Nitric oxide (NO) in the gastrointestinal tract is:
Hot water bottle relieves pain of abdominal spasm by:
Vitamin K dependent coagulation factors include:
During heavy exercise the cardiac output (CO) increases up to five fold while pulmonary arterial pressure rises very little. This physiological ability of the pulmonary circulation is best explained by:
Venous return to the heart during quiet standing is facilitated by all of the following factors, except:
During cardiac imaging the phase of minimum motion of the heart is:
Insulin secretion is inhibited by:
Which of the following is not seen in humans?
Lesions of the lateral cerebellum cause all of the following, except:
Basal Metabolic Rate depends most closely on:
Decreased Basal Metabolic Rate is seen in:
Low CSF protein may be seen in all of the following conditions, except:
Sphingomyelinase deficiency is seen in:
Which of the following lipoproteins does not move towards the charged end in electrophoresis?
Inulin like fructans are used as prebiotics as they are non digestible. Resistance to digestion in the upper GI tract results from:
Method of chromatography in which negatively charged molecules are selectively released from the stationary phase by positively charged molecules in the mobile phase is termed:
Which of the following techniques is used for detection of variation in DNA sequence and gene expression?
Which of the following tests is not used for detection of specific aneuploidy?
Prenatal diagnosis of hemophilia is best done by:
Rothera's test is used for detection of:
Which of the following liver enzymes is predominantly mitochondrial?
Mechanism of action of theophylline in bronchial asthma includes all of the following except:
Which of the following drugs should not be used with rivastigmine in patients with Alzheimer's disease, except:
Ethosuximide is the drug of choice for:
Narrow therapeutic index is seen with:
Which of the following is a proton pump inhibitor?
Methyldopa is primarily used in:
Fetal hydantoin syndrome is caused by maternal use of:
Which of the following statements about opioid receptor antagonists is false?
L-Dopa is combined with carbidopa in the treatment of parkinsonism to:
All of the following statements about phenytoin are true, except:
Which of the following teratogenic effects is incorrectly matched?
All of the following agents are used for prophylaxis of migraine, except:
MAO inhibitors should not be used with:
Serotonin syndrome may be precipitated by all of the following medications, except:
A young male presents with meningococcal meningitis and allergy to penicillin. Which is the most suitable drug?
All of the following drugs may cause hirsutism, except:
Most common congenital anomaly associated with lithium:
Which of the following should be monitored in a patient receiving linezolid therapy?
All of the following statements about thalidomide are true, except:
Pancreatitis occurs with:
Which of the following agents is recommended for treatment of Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumors (GIST)?
Amphotericin B toxicity can be lowered by:
Which of the following newer drugs has activity on both HER1 and HER2 receptors?
Tyrosine kinase inhibitors are used in the treatment of:
Which of the following statements about mycophenolate mofetil is not true?
Which of the following drugs is recommended for the treatment of heparin induced thrombocytopenia?
All of the following statements about Trientine are true, except:
Allopurinol is used in the treatment of:
In equivalent concentrations, topical steroids are more potent in which form:
Caspases are involved in:
(a) Actions of bradykinin include all of the following, except: Vasodilatation, Bronchodilatation, Increased vascular permeability, Pain. (b) What is the most important role of bradykinin in acute inflammation? The options below answer part (b).
Heterozygous sickle cell anemia (sickle cell trait) gives protection against:
Burkitt lymphoma is associated with:
Translocation t(2;8)(p12;q24) is associated with:
All of the following are features of apoptosis, except:
Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) is associated with deficiency of:
Plasmacytoid lymphomas (lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma) may be associated with:
Which of the following has the most friable vegetation?
The characteristic pathological finding in carcinoid heart disease is:
A female presents with a history of progressive breathlessness. Histology shows heterogeneous patchy fibrosis with several fibroblastic foci. The most likely diagnosis is:
The chromophobe variant of renal cell carcinoma is associated with:
All of the following conditions are associated with granulomatous pathology, except:
Electron microscopy is diagnostic in:
Which of the following is the most characteristic ultrastructural feature of paraganglioma on electron microscopy?
Which of the following is a marker of Langerhans cell histiocytosis?
Hypercoagulation in nephrotic syndrome is caused by:
Which of the following markers is specific for gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST)?
Down's syndrome is most commonly caused by:
Cystic fibrosis is inherited as an autosomal recessive condition. A normal couple has one daughter affected with the disease. They are now planning to have another child. What is the chance of their next child being affected by the disease?
Males are more commonly affected than females in:
All of the following statements about El Tor vibrios are true, except:
The peptide binding site on class I MHC molecules for presenting processed antigen to CD8 T cells is formed by:
All of the following statements about Staphylococcus aureus are true, except:
A child presents with sepsis. The bacteria isolated showed beta hemolysis on blood agar, resistance to bacitracin, and a positive CAMP test. The most likely organism is:
Isolation of Chlamydia from a tissue specimen can be done by:
Varicella zoster virus remains latent in:
The most common genital lesion in an HIV patient is:
A diabetic patient presents with bloody nasal discharge, orbital swelling and pain. Culture of the periorbital pus shows branching septate hyphae. Which of the following is the most probable organism involved?
All of the following statements about Penicillin binding proteins (PBPs) are true, except:
Which of the following may cause biliary obstruction?
A young woman complains of recurrent rhinitis, nasal discharge and bilateral nasal blockage since one year. She also had a history of allergy and asthma. On examination, multiple polyps with mucosal thickening and impacted secretions are seen in the nasal cavities. A biopsy was taken and the material on culture showed many hyphae with dichotomous branching typically at 45 degrees. Which of the following is the most likely organism responsible?
Primary impact injuries (in a pedestrian hit by a vehicle) are commonly seen on:
A woman died within 5 years of marriage under suspicious circumstances. Her parents complained that her in-laws used to frequently demand dowry. Under which of the following sections can a magistrate authorize autopsy of the case?
A factory worker presents with excessive salivation, blue lines on gums, tremors, disturbed personality, insomnia and loss of appetite. The most likely poisoning is:
Which of the following bullets leaves a visible mark, so that a person can see its path:
Lightning flash can cause injury by all of the following, except:
Aconite poisoning causes all of the following except:
Which of the following drugs is used for narcoanalysis?
Which of the following is associated with emotional valence and is most likely to be influenced by motivation?
ASHA (Accredited Social Health Activist) is posted at:
Movement across socioeconomic levels is termed as:
JSY stands for:
The concept of primary health care was provided by:
Which of the following best reflects the highest level of community participation?
Which of the following regarding maternal mortality rate (MMR) is not true?
Perinatal mortality rate includes:
Rural and urban difference in prevalence is seen in all of the following, except:
Which of the following is not an essential component of primary health care?
All of the following factors contribute to resurgence of malaria, except:
Which of the following is the current trend in health care?
IMNCI differs from IMCI in all of the following, except:
Mass chemoprophylaxis in an endemic area is recommended for all of the following, except:
A case of acute flaccid paralysis must be observed for how many days to look for residual weakness?
India aimed to eliminate which of the following diseases by 2015?
The screening strategy for prevention of blindness from diabetic retinopathy according to the NPCB involves:
All of the following statements about the Tuberculosis annual risk of infection (ARI) are true, except:
All of the following statements about scrub typhus are true, except:
Which of the following statements about confidence limits or interval is true?
A standard z-score is related to:
A new test for diabetes was carried out. Of the 80 people who tested positive, it was found that actually 40 had diabetes. Of the 9920 people who tested negative, only 9840 did not have the disease actually. The sensitivity of this new test is:
Which of the following is not a synthetic pyrethroid compound?
The population of a community on the 1st of June was recorded as 1,65,000. The total number of new cases of tuberculosis recorded from 1st January to 30th June was 22. The total registered cases of tuberculosis in the community were 220. What is the incidence of TB in this community per 10 lakh population?
All of the following about the Red Cross emblem are true, except:
A 16 year old girl presents with a history of fatiguability, weakness and lethargy. The complete blood count (CBC) reveals a haemoglobin of 7.0 g/dL, MCV of 70 fL, MCH of 20 pg/cell and a red cell distribution width (RDW) of 20. The most likely diagnosis is:
Which of the following investigations should be done immediately to best confirm a mismatched (non-matched) blood transfusion reaction?
Bence Jones proteinuria may be seen in:
Bence Jones proteins are derived from:
Which of the following is a major criterion for the diagnosis of polycythaemia vera?
All of the following statements about Fanconi's anemia are true, except:
All of the following statements about the third heart sound (S3) are true, except:
A young asymptomatic female is observed to have a midsystolic click on routine examination. The valves are likely to show:
Beck's triad is seen in:
A patient presents with the following parameters: pH 7.5, pCO2 30 mmHg, pO2 102 mmHg, and HCO3 16 meq/L. Which of the following correctly describes the primary disorder with its compensatory mechanism?
A 29 year old anxious lady presents with progressive breathlessness and exercise intolerance for four months. Her FVC is 90% and FEV1/FVC is 86%. Oxygen saturation after exercise dropped from 92% to 86%. What is the likely diagnosis?
Accelerated idioventricular rhythm (AIVR) is the most common arrhythmia associated with:
Streptokinase and urokinase are contraindicated in:
A truck driver presented with a history of fever for four weeks and a dry cough. He also gives a history of weight loss of about 10 kg. Chest X-ray shows bilateral reticulonodular infiltrates. The most likely diagnosis is:
Cavitatory lesions in the lung are seen in:
Pre-renal azotemia is characterized by all of the following except:
A patient is found to be positive for HBsAg on routine laboratory evaluation. Other serological tests for hepatitis are unremarkable. He is clinically asymptomatic and liver enzymes are within the normal range. Which of the following best describes his diagnosis?
A male patient is observed to be HBsAg positive, HBeAg negative, and anti-HBe antibody positive. HBV DNA copies are observed to be 100,000/ml, while SGOT and SGPT are elevated to 6 times the upper limit of normal. What is the likely diagnosis?
(a) A patient presents with unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia and presence of urobilinogen in urine. Which amongst the following is the least likely diagnosis? (b) A related patient presents with unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia and elevated urobilinogen levels in urine, and the most likely diagnosis is asked. Choose the option that answers part (a), the least likely diagnosis.
A lady presented with non-progressive dysphagia for solids only. Barium study showed proximal esophageal dilatation with distal constriction. The most likely diagnosis is:
A young girl presents with abdominal pain and a recent change in bowel habit, with passage of mucus in the stool. There is no associated blood in the stool and the symptoms are increased with stress. The most likely diagnosis is:
Which of the following statements about lung carcinoma is true?
A plasma urea to creatinine ratio of 20:1 may be seen in:
An elderly patient presents with a prolonged history of weakness and lethargy. On examination he is found to be anemic and the stool is positive for occult blood. Which of the following is the investigation of choice?
Which of the following statements about Wilson's disease is true?
Gout is a disorder of:
Which of the following is recommended in a woman with antiphospholipid antibodies and a history of prior abortions or still birth?
All of the following may be associated with thymoma, except:
Plasmapheresis is used in all of the following except:
All of the following statements about primary gout arthritis are true, except:
Antiphospholipid antibody (APLA) syndrome is associated with all of the following except:
All of the following statements about antiphospholipid antibody syndrome (APLA) are true except:
Low calcium and high phosphate is seen in:
All of the following statements about pseudohypoparathyroidism are true, except:
A patient presents with symptoms of hypoglycemia. Investigations reveal decreased blood glucose and increased insulin levels. A C-peptide assay shows a normal level of C-peptide. The most likely diagnosis is:
Which of the following is associated with peripheral artery disease, coronary heart disease and stroke?
All of the following statements about hyponatremia are true, except:
A patient presents with ataxia, urinary incontinence and dementia. The likely diagnosis is:
A patient known to have mitral stenosis and atrial fibrillation presents with acute onset of weakness in the left upper limb which recovered completely in two weeks. The most likely diagnosis is:
A 25 year old person presents with acute onset of fever and focal seizures. MRI scan shows hyperintensity in the temporal lobe and frontal lobe with enhancement. The most likely diagnosis is:
In a patient with head injury, damage in the brain is aggravated by:
(a) All of the following are associated with hypergonadotrophic hypogonadism in males, except: (Klinefelter, Noonan, viral orchitis are causes; one option is not). (b) Which of the following is the most common cause of hypergonadotrophic hypogonadism in males? Options for both parts: A. Viral orchitis, B. Klinefelter's syndrome, C. Kallmann's syndrome, D. Noonan syndrome.
Which of the following represents the site of the lesion in Motor Neuron disease?
All of the following are true about Guillain Barre Syndrome (GBS), except:
Kayser Fleischer rings (KF rings) are seen in:
Lord's plication is done for:
A 50 year old female is admitted with abdominal pain and anuria. Radiological studies revealed bilateral impacted ureteric stones with hydronephrosis. Urine analysis showed RBCs with pus cells in urine. Serum creatinine level was 16 mg/dl and urea level was 200 mmol/l. Which of the following should be the immediate treatment?
Which of the following is a complication of PCNL done through the 11th intercostal space, EXCEPT:
Which of the following stones is hard to break by ESWL?
Which of the following is the most common renal vascular anomaly?
The first autologous renal transplantation was done by:
The best time for surgery of an undescended testis is:
The Grayhack shunt is established between:
Most common site of urethral carcinoma in men is:
An adult presented with hematemesis and upper abdominal pain. Endoscopy revealed a growth at the pyloric antrum of the stomach. CT scan showed growth involving the pyloric antrum without infiltration or invasion into surrounding structures and no evidence of distant metastasis. At laparotomy the neoplastic growth was observed to involve the posterior wall of the stomach and the pancreas, extending 6 cm up to the tail of the pancreas. What will be the most appropriate surgical management?
All of the following about gastrointestinal carcinoid tumors are true, except:
Treatment of choice for annular pancreas is:
A lady presented with recurrent attacks of giddiness and abdominal pain for three months. Endoscopy was normal. Her fasting blood glucose was 40 mg% and insulin levels were elevated. CT abdomen showed a well defined 8 mm enhancing lesion in the head of the pancreas, with no other abnormal findings. What should be the treatment plan for this patient?
A young male patient presents with complete rectal prolapse. The surgery of choice is:
According to the Bismuth / Strasberg classification, 'cystic duct blow out' (cystic duct stump leak) is classified as:
In orthotopic liver transplantation, which is the best way to get bile drainage in the donor liver?
Most common cysts of the spleen are:
All of the following are primary restrictive operations for morbid obesity, except:
The Trauma and Injury Severity Score (TRISS) includes:
A 27-year-old patient presented with left-sided abdominal pain to the emergency room 6 hours after a road traffic accident. He was haemodynamically stable and FAST positive. A contrast-enhanced CT (CECT) scan showed a grade III splenic laceration. (a) With no contrast blush, what is the most appropriate treatment? (b) If the same CECT instead shows a contrast blush along with the grade III laceration, what is the most appropriate management? (Choose the answer for part b.)
A lady presented to the emergency department with a stab injury to the left side of the abdomen. She was haemodynamically stable and a contrast-enhanced CT scan revealed a laceration in the spleen. Laparoscopy was planned, but the patient's pO2 suddenly dropped as soon as the pneumoperitoneum was created. What is the most likely cause?
A patient presents with fever for 3 weeks. On examination he has splenomegaly. Ultrasonography reveals a hypoechoic shadow in the spleen near the hilum. Gram-negative bacilli are isolated on blood culture. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?
A patient with ITP has a platelet count of 50,000 and is being planned for splenectomy. What is the best time for platelet infusion in this patient?
The most common cause of abdominal aortic aneurysm is:
Which of the following grading methods is used to evaluate the prognosis or outcome after subarachnoid hemorrhage?
Health status of a child under 5 years of age will be adversely affected by all of the following, except:
A seven year old asymptomatic girl is found to have persistent hypertension. There is no significant history and urine examination is normal. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A child presented with intermittent episodes of left sided flank pain. Ultrasonography reveals a large hydronephrosis with dilated renal pelvis and cortical thinning with a normal ureter. Kidney differential function was observed to be 19 percent. Which of the following is the best management?
A neonate presented with fever, lethargy, abdominal distension, vomiting and constipation. Clinically he was diagnosed as volvulus neonatorum with suspected perforation. Best investigation would be:
A ten year old boy presents to the pediatric emergency unit with seizures. Blood pressure in the upper extremity is measured as 200/140 mm Hg. Femoral pulses are not palpable. The most likely diagnosis amongst the following is:
A child presents with hepatomegaly and hypoglycemia. There is no improvement in blood sugar even after administration of epinephrine. What is the likely diagnosis?
All of the following factors are associated with a substantially greater risk of developing epilepsy after febrile seizures, except:
A child presents with short episodes of vacant stare several times a day. The vacant episode begins abruptly and the child remains unresponsive during the episode. There is no associated history of aura or postictal confusion and the child is otherwise normal. The likely diagnosis is:
Which of the following is the most common cause of meningoencephalitis in children?
Which of the following agents is most commonly associated with recurrent meningitis due to CSF leaks?
A two year old child with a long history of purulent nasal discharge and fever now presents with conjunctival congestion and edema. His fever is 102 to 103 F and WBC count is 12,000. The culture of eye discharge was negative. X-rays show opacification of the ethmoid sinus. Which of the following should be the next step in evaluating this patient?
A boy presented with weakness in the lower limbs, calf hypertrophy, positive Gower's sign and an elevated CPK value of 10,000. The most likely diagnosis is:
The primary metabolic bone disorder in scurvy is:
Which of the following drugs is not used in Juvenile Myoclonic epilepsy (JME)?
A child presents to the clinic with a history of seizures and mental retardation. Clinical examination reveals multiple hypopigmented macules. What is the likely diagnosis?
Which of the following conditions presents with absence of both Mullerian and Wolffian duct structures?
A lady presented with secondary amenorrhea 6 months after having an abortion. Her FSH level was measured as 6 mIU/ml. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Which of the following methods for assessment of female fertility during a menstrual cycle can best predict the timing of ovulation?
Primary amenorrhea with absent uterus, normal breasts and scant pubic hair is seen in:
Which of the following agents is most commonly associated with carcinoma cervix?
A 52 year old lady presents with constant leakage of urine and dysuria two weeks after a complicated total abdominal hysterectomy. A diagnosis of vesicovaginal fistula is suspected. The most important test for the diagnosis is:
Which of the following statements about partial mole is false?
Conversion of a complete hydatidiform mole into an invasive mole is indicated by all of the following except:
A 40 year old woman presents with abnormal cervical cytology on PAP smear suggestive of CIN III (HSIL). The next best step in management is:
Sentinel lymph node biopsy is most useful for which of the following gynaecological malignancies?
All of the following are associated with polycystic ovarian syndrome, except:
Which of the following is the most specific marker for neural tube defects?
AFP (alpha fetoprotein) is raised in:
Weight gain in pregnancy depends on all of the following factors, except:
Which of the following statements about multiple pregnancies is true?
Treatment of choice for intrahepatic cholestasis in pregnancy is:
All of the following are cardiac contraindications to pregnancy, except:
Two related recalls. (a) The drug of choice to treat Chlamydia infection in pregnancy, when azithromycin is an option, is: A. Tetracycline, B. Doxycycline, C. Erythromycin, D. Azithromycin (Ans D). (b) When azithromycin is not listed and the choice is between A. Tetracycline, B. Doxycycline, C. Erythromycin, D. Penicillin, the drug of choice is Erythromycin (Ans C). The single combined answer below addresses the version that lists azithromycin. Which is the drug of choice for Chlamydia in pregnancy?
Which of the following conditions is associated with polyhydramnios?
Increased nuchal translucency at 14 weeks gestation is seen in:
Non-immune hydrops fetalis is caused by:
A lady presented with features of threatened abortion at 32 weeks of pregnancy. Which of the following statements with regard to antibiotic usage is not correct?
A woman presents with leakage of fluid per vaginum and meconium stained liquor at 34 weeks of gestation. The most likely organism causing infection would be:
Two related recalls on active management of the third stage of labour. (a) Which of the following interventions is not recommended in active management of the third stage of labour? A. Administration of uterotonic within 1 minute of delivery, B. Immediate clamping, cutting and ligation of cord, C. Gentle massage of uterus, D. Controlled cord traction (Ans B). (b) Active management of the third stage of labour includes all of the following except: A. Oxytocin injection, B. Ergometrine injection, C. Controlled cord traction, D. Gentle massage of uterus. The combined answer below addresses part (a). Which intervention is not recommended in active management of the third stage?
All of the following maneuvers are used in shoulder dystocia, except:
All of the following interventions are recommended to prevent mother-to-child transmission of HIV, except:
A person with prolonged use of contact lenses presented with irritation of the left eye. After examination, a diagnosis of keratitis was made and corneal scrapings revealed growth of Pseudomonas aeruginosa. The bacteria were observed to be multidrug resistant. Which of the following best explains the mechanism of antimicrobial resistance in these isolated Pseudomonas aeruginosa strains?
Endophthalmitis involves inflammation of all of the following, except:
Which of the following is the least common corneal dystrophy?
Cherry-red spot at the macula is seen in all of the following, except:
Relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) is characteristically seen in damage to:
A patient with ptosis presents with retraction of the ptotic eyelid on chewing. This represents:
Otoacoustic emissions arise from:
Which of the following statements regarding corneal transplantation is true?
All of the following statements about sodium fluoride in otosclerosis are true, except:
Arden Index is related to:
All of the following statements about CSF leak are true, except:
A patient with a known mutation in the Rb gene is disease free from retinoblastoma. The patient is at highest risk of developing which of the following malignancies?
Vestibular schwannoma (acoustic neuroma) arises most frequently from:
All of the following statements about nasopharyngeal carcinoma are true, except:
All of the following are extrinsic laryngeal membranes or ligaments, except:
Which of the following structures is not seen on bronchoscopy?
A child presents with stridor, barking cough and difficulty in breathing since 2 to 3 days. He has fever and elevated leukocyte count. All of the following statements about his condition are true, except:
Drug of choice in laryngeal stenosis is:
Which of the following lasers is most commonly used in laryngeal surgery?
Which of the following statements about the menisci is not true?
Which of the following statements about changes in articular cartilage with aging is not true?
Metal on metal articulation should be avoided in:
A patient developed breathlessness and chest pain on the second postoperative day after a total hip replacement. Echocardiography showed right ventricular dilatation and tricuspid regurgitation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
The characteristic triad of Klippel-Feil syndrome includes all of the following, except:
Progression of congenital scoliosis is least likely in which of the following vertebral anomalies:
A patient involved in a road traffic accident presents with quadriparesis, sphincter disturbance, a sensory level up to the upper border of the sternum, and a respiratory rate of 35 per minute. The likely level of lesion is:
All of the following statements about synovial cell sarcoma are true, except:
The lift-off test is done to assess the function of:
A median nerve lesion at the wrist causes all of the following, except:
Hyperglycemia is associated with:
Brown Tumor is seen in:
A 17 year old girl with acne has been taking a drug for the last two years. She now presents with blue black pigmentation of nails. The likely medication causing the above pigmentation is:
Treatment of an erythematous skin rash with multiple pus lakes in a pregnant woman is:
Which of the following stains is used to study fungal morphology in tissue sections?
Which of the following best estimates the amount of radiation delivered to an organ in the radiation field?
A young lady presents with white lacy lesions in the oral cavity and her proximal nail fold has extended onto the nail bed. What is the likely diagnosis?
An otherwise healthy male presents with a creamy curd like white patch on the tongue. The probable diagnosis is:
Which of the following statements about stochastic effects of radiation is true?
The 'Egg on side' (egg lying on its side) appearance on a chest radiograph is seen in:
Which of the following is the most ionizing radiation?
The walls of a CT scanner room are coated with:
The major difference between X-rays and visible light is:
Which of the following statements best describes 'background radiation'?
All of the following statements about the CT scan features of an adrenal adenoma are true, except:
A patient presents with acute renal failure and anuria. The ultrasound is normal. Which of the following investigations will give the best information regarding renal function?
A dense nephrogram is obtained by:
A 30 year old man, since 2 months, suspects that his wife is having an affair with his boss. He thinks his friend abroad is also involved and is providing technology support. He thinks people talk ill about him. His friends tried to convince him but he is not convinced at all. Otherwise he is normal. He does not have any thought disorder or any other inappropriate behaviour. The most likely diagnosis is:
A 25 year old lady presented with sadness, palpitation, loss of appetite and insomnia. There is no complaint of hopelessness or suicidal thought, and there is no past history of any precipitating event. She is remarkably well in other areas of life. She is doing her office job normally and her social life is also normal. What is the probable diagnosis in this case?
All of the following are done in behaviour therapy to increase a behaviour, except:
All of the following are parts of the cognitive behaviour change technique (stages of change), except:
A 60 year old man had undergone cardiac bypass surgery 2 days back. Now he started forgetting things and was not able to recall the names and phone numbers of his relatives. What is the probable diagnosis?
Alcohol paranoia is associated with:
Autistic disorder is characterised by all of the following, except:
Which of the following is not a cognitive error or dysfunction?
A patient presents to the emergency department with self harm and indicates suicidal intent. Which of the following conditions does not warrant an immediate specialist assessment?
Lymphatics from the spongy urethra drain into the following lymph nodes:
Branched chain ketoacid decarboxylation is defective in:
A 60 year old male is brought by his wife. He thinks that he has committed sins all through his life. He is very depressed and has considered suicide but has not thought about how to go about it. He has also attended sessions with a spiritual guru. He is not convinced by his wife that he has led a pious life. He does not want to hear anything to the contrary. How will you treat him?
NEET PG 2010 (AIPGMEE) Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme Explained
As per the NBE pattern in force that year, AIPGMEE 2010 was a single paper of single-best-response MCQs covering the full MBBS syllabus, and you can see the same structure across all 300 questions in the solved PDF above.
- Total questions: 300 single-best-answer MCQs in one combined paper
- Duration: 3 hours 30 minutes for the full paper
- Subjects covered: 15 subjects across pre-clinical, para-clinical and clinical MBBS
- Marking scheme: +1 for a correct answer, with negative marking for wrong answers as per the NBE scheme that year
- Question types: theory-based recall, one-liners and a few clinical-vignette MCQs (no image-based questions yet in 2010)
High-Weightage Subjects in NEET PG 2010 (AIPGMEE) to Focus On First
The 300 questions are spread across all 15 subjects, but the clinical majors and PSM carried the bulk of the paper, so start your revision there.
- Medicine and allied: the single largest block at roughly 45 of the 300 questions, the most paper you can lock down from one subject
- PSM (Community Medicine): close behind at around 37 questions, mostly direct fact and definition recall that is quick to score
- Surgery and Pharmacology: about 32 and 29 questions, the next two heavy hitters worth a dedicated revision pass
- Pathology and Anatomy: roughly 26 and 25 questions each, strong reservoirs of repeatable one-liners
- Smaller subjects (Anaesthesia, Radiology, Skin, Psychiatry): single-digit to low-teen counts, so cover them only after the majors are solid
NEET PG 2010 (AIPGMEE) Question Paper Strategy Video
Source: Dr. Anuj Pachhel
How to Use the NEET PG 2010 (AIPGMEE) Question Paper for Practice
Treat this 300-question paper as a full-length recall test, not light reading, because a large share of these one-liners still resurface as concepts in current NEET PG papers.
- Solve it as a timed 3 hour 30 minute mock first, then check every answer against the solution PDF
- Mark the Medicine, PSM and Pharmacology questions you missed and revise those high-weightage subjects the same day
- Redo the wrong questions after a week to convert weak recall into long-term memory
- Note repeated themes across older AIPGMEE papers, since the same factual anchors keep coming back
NEET PG Good Attempts and Qualifying Score Benchmark
- Aim to attempt 240 or more of the 300 questions at high accuracy when you use this as a mock
- The qualifying bar that year was a percentile cut-off (50th percentile for the general category), so accuracy mattered more than raw speed
- Use your attempt count and accuracy on this paper as a weekly target when you redo it
NEET PG 2010 (AIPGMEE) Question Paper FAQs
Ques. How many questions were there in the AIPGMEE 2010 (NEET PG 2010) paper?
Ans. The AIPGMEE 2010 paper had 300 single-best-answer MCQs from 15 subjects, to be solved in 3 hours 30 minutes. All 300 are solved in the PDF above.
Ques. Which subjects had the highest weightage in NEET PG 2010?
Ans. Medicine led with about 45 questions, followed by PSM at around 37 and Surgery near 32. Pharmacology, Pathology and Anatomy made up most of the rest, so the clinical majors plus PSM dominated the paper.
Ques. Are AIPGMEE 2010 questions still useful for NEET PG preparation now?
Ans. Yes. A large number of these factual one-liners and concepts keep repeating as updated questions, so working through the 2010 recall paper is a fast way to lock high-yield facts in Medicine, PSM and Pharmacology.
Ques. Who conducted AIPGMEE 2010 and is it the same as NEET PG?
Ans. AIPGMEE 2010 was conducted by the National Board of Examinations (NBE), the same body that now conducts NEET PG. You can verify the conducting authority on the official website, natboard.edu.in. AIPGMEE was later renamed NEET PG.
Ques. What was the marking scheme in AIPGMEE 2010?
Ans. Each correct answer carried +1 mark and wrong answers attracted negative marking as per the NBE scheme that year, so guessing blindly could pull your score down. Selection was based on a percentile cut-off, not a fixed pass mark.
Ques. Where can I download the NEET PG 2010 (AIPGMEE) question paper with solutions PDF for free?
Ans. Download it free from the table at the top of this Collegedunia page, which carries all 300 questions with step-by-step solutions. For the official record you can also check the NBE website at natboard.edu.in.
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