AP EAPCET (AP EAMCET) 2025 Question Paper May 24 Shift 2 (Available): Download Solutions with Answer Key

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Shivam Yadav

Updated 3+ months ago

The JNTUK conducted the AP EAPCET Engineering Exam 2025 on May 24, Shift 1, from 9:00 AM to 12:00 PM, across 117 Exam Centers.

The AP EAPCET 2025 Question Paper includes 160 MCQs: 80 of Mathematics, 40 of Physics, and 40 of Chemistry, and carries 1 mark each with no negative marking.  As per initial analysis, mathematics was time-consuming, physics was concept-based, and chemistry was moderately easy.

AP EAPCET 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF May 24 Shift 1

AP EAPCET 2025 May 24 Shift 1 Question Paper with Answer Key Download PDF Check Solution
AP EAPCET Question Paper 2025

Question 1:

If \(A = \{x \in \mathbb{R} \mid \sin^{-1}(\sqrt{x^2+x+1}) \in [-\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2}]\}\) and \(B = \{y \in \mathbb{R} \mid y = \sin^{-1}(\sqrt{x^2+x+1}), x \in A\}\), then

  • (1) \(A \cap B \neq \emptyset\)
  • (2) \(A \cap B = [0,1]\)
  • (3) \(A \cap B = [\frac{\pi}{3}, \frac{\pi}{2}]\)
  • (4) \(A \cap B = \mathbb{R} - [-1,0] \cup [\frac{\pi}{3},\frac{\pi}{2}]\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(A \cap B = [\frac{\pi}{3}, \frac{\pi}{2}]\)
View Solution

Question 2:

The domain of the function \(f(x) = \ln\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{x^2-4x+4}}\right) + \sin^{-1}(x^2-2)\) is

  • (1) \([1,3]\)
  • (2) \([1,3)\)
  • (3) \([1,\sqrt{3}]\)
  • (4) \([1,\sqrt{3})\)
Correct Answer: (3) \([1,\sqrt{3}]\)
View Solution

Question 3:

For all \(n \in \mathbb{N}\), if \(n(n^2+3)\) is divisible by \(k\), then the maximum value of \(k\) is

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 6
  • (3) 8
  • (4) 2
Correct Answer: (4) 2
View Solution

Question 4:

If \(a\) is the determinant of the adjoint of the matrix \(\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 & 2
1 & 2 & 3
2 & 3 & 3 \end{bmatrix}\) and \(b\) is the determinant of the inverse of the matrix \(\begin{bmatrix} 2 & 1 & 3
1 & -4 & -1
2 & 1 & 4 \end{bmatrix}\), then \(\frac{b+1}{18b} = \)

  • (1) \(a\)
  • (2) \(10a\)
  • (3) \(2 + a\)
  • (4) \(2a\)
Correct Answer: (4) \(2a\)
View Solution

Question 5:

Consider two systems of 3 linear equations in 3 unknowns \(AX = B\) and \(CX = D\). If \(AX = B\) has the unique solution \(X = D\) and \(CX = D\) has the unique solution \(X = B\), then the solution of \((A - C^{-1})X = 0\) is

  • (1) \(B\)
  • (2) \(D\)
  • (3) \(B + D\)
  • (4) \(B - D\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(D\)
View Solution

Question 6:

\(f(x)\) is an \(n^{th}\) degree polynomial satisfying \(f(x) = \frac{1}{2}\left[f(x)f\left(\frac{1}{x}\right) + f\left(\frac{f(x)}{x}\right)\right]\). If \(f(2) = 33\), then the value of \(f(3)\) is

  • (1) 126
  • (2) 214
  • (3) 244
  • (4) -124
Correct Answer: (3) 244
View Solution

Question 7:

If the point \(P\) denotes the complex number \(z = x + iy\) in the Argand plane and \(\frac{z - (2 - i)}{z + (1 + 2i)}\) is purely imaginary, then the locus of \(P\) is

  • (1) a hyperbola not containing the point \((-1, -2)\)
  • (2) an ellipse not containing the point \((-1, -2)\)
  • (3) a parabola not containing the point \((-1, -2)\)
  • (4) a circle not containing the point \((-1, -2)\) and having its centre on the line \(x + y + 1 = 0\)
Correct Answer: (4) a circle not containing the point \((-1, -2)\) and having its centre on the line \(x + y + 1 = 0\)
View Solution

Question 8:

If \((\sqrt{3} - i)^n = 2^n\), \(n \in \mathbb{N}\), then the least possible value of \(n\) is

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 12
Correct Answer: (3) 6
View Solution

Question 9:

\((1 + \sqrt{5} + i \sqrt{10 - 2\sqrt{5}})^3 = \)

  • (1) 1024
  • (2) -1024
  • (3) 512
  • (4) -512
Correct Answer: (2) -1024
View Solution

Question 10:

The number of solutions of the equation \(\sqrt{3x^2 + x + 5} = x - 3\) is

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 0
  • (4) 4
Correct Answer: (3) 0
View Solution

Question 11:

The set of all real values of \(x\) for which \(\frac{x^2-1}{(x-4)(x-3)} \ge 1\) is

  • (1) \([-1,1] \cup (3,4)\)
  • (2) \([1,\frac{7}{3}] \cup (4,\infty)\)
  • (3) \((-\infty, \frac{-13}{7}] \cup (3,4)\)
  • (4) \(\mathbb{R} - [3,4]\)
Correct Answer: (2) \([1,\frac{7}{3}] \cup (4,\infty)\)
View Solution

Question 12:

If \(\alpha\), \(\beta\), and \(\gamma\) are the roots of the equation \(2x^3 + 3x^2 - 5x - 7 = 0\), then \(\frac{1}{\alpha^2} + \frac{1}{\beta^2} + \frac{1}{\gamma^2} =\)

  • (1) \(\frac{17}{49}\)
  • (2) \(-\frac{23}{49}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{55}{49}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{67}{49}\)
Correct Answer: (4) \(\frac{67}{49}\)
View Solution

Question 13:

Two roots of the equation \(ax^4 + bx^3 + cx^2 + dx + e = 0\) are positive and equal. If the product of the other two real roots is 1, then

  • (1) \(be^2 = a^2d\)
  • (2) \(\frac{3e + 2b\sqrt{e} + c}{\sqrt{a}} = a\)
  • (3) \(e + 2b\sqrt{e} + 3c = a\sqrt{a}\)
  • (4) \(b^2e = ad^2\)
Correct Answer: (4) \(b^2e = ad^2\)
View Solution

Question 14:

The number of integers between 10 and 10,000 such that in every integer every digit is greater than its immediate preceding digit, is

  • (1) 1112
  • (2) 437
  • (3) 216
  • (4) 182
Correct Answer: (3) 216
View Solution

Question 15:

All letters of the word `AGAIN' are permuted in all possible ways, and the words so formed (with or without meaning) are written as in a dictionary. Then the \(50^{th}\) word is

  • (1) IAANG
  • (2) INAGA
  • (3) NAAIG
  • (4) NAAGI
Correct Answer: (3) NAAIG
View Solution

Question 16:

The number of ways in which a cricket team of 11 members can be formed out of 6 batsmen, 6 bowlers, 4 all-rounders, and 4 wicket-keepers by selecting at least 4 batsmen, at least 3 bowlers, at least 2 all-rounders, and only one wicket-keeper is

  • (1) 11560
  • (2) 6480
  • (3) 7680
  • (4) 13080
Correct Answer: (4) 13080
View Solution

Question 17:

If \(y = \frac{3}{4} + \frac{3 \cdot 5}{4 \cdot 8} + \frac{3 \cdot 5 \cdot 7}{4 \cdot 8 \cdot 12} + \dots \infty\), then

  • (1) \(y^2 - 2y + 5 = 0\)
  • (2) \(y^2 + 2y - 7 = 0\)
  • (3) \(y^2 - 3y + 4 = 0\)
  • (4) \(y^2 + 4y - 6 = 0\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(y^2 + 2y - 7 = 0\)
View Solution

Question 18:

Sum of the coefficients of \(x^4\) and \(x^6\) in the expansion of \((1 + x - x^2)^6\) is

  • (1) 121
  • (2) -91
  • (3) 11
  • (4) 31
Correct Answer: (3) 11
View Solution

Question 19:

If \(\frac{3x^2 - 7x + 1}{(x - 2)^3} = \frac{A}{x - 2} + \frac{B}{(x - 2)^2} + \frac{C}{(x - 2)^3}\), then \(A(B + C + D + E) =\)

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 64
  • (3) 348
  • (4) 256
Correct Answer: (1) 0
View Solution

Question 20:

\(\tan\left(\frac{2\pi}{7}\right)\tan\left(\frac{4\pi}{7}\right) + \tan\left(\frac{4\pi}{7}\right)\tan\left(\frac{\pi}{7}\right) + \tan\left(\frac{\pi}{7}\right)\tan\left(\frac{2\pi}{7}\right) =\)

  • (1) 7
  • (2) -7
  • (3) 3
  • (4) -3
Correct Answer: (2) -7
View Solution

Question 21:

\(\cos(13^\circ)\sin(17^\circ)\sin(21^\circ)\cos(47^\circ) =\)

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{32}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{16}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{32}(1 + 2\sqrt{3} - \sqrt{5})\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{16}(1 + \sqrt{3} + \sqrt{5})\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(\frac{1}{32}\)
View Solution

Question 22:

\(\sin\left(\frac{\pi}{5}\right) + \sin\left(\frac{2\pi}{5}\right) + \sin\left(\frac{3\pi}{5}\right) + \sin\left(\frac{4\pi}{5}\right) =\)

  • (1) 1
  • (2) \(\sqrt{5}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{4}(\sqrt{5} + 1)(\sqrt{10 + 2\sqrt{5}})\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{4}(\sqrt{5} - 1)(\sqrt{10 - 2\sqrt{5}})\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(\frac{1}{4}(\sqrt{5} + 1)(\sqrt{10 + 2\sqrt{5}})\)
View Solution

Question 23:

The sum of the solutions of \(\cos x \sqrt{16 \sin^2 x} = 1\) in \((0, 2\pi)\) is

  • (1) \(2\pi\)
  • (2) \(\frac{13\pi}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{17\pi}{4}\)
  • (4) \(4\pi\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(\frac{13\pi}{2}\)
View Solution

Question 24:

If \(\cot(\cos^{-1} x) = \sec\left(\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{a}{\sqrt{b^2 - a^2}}\right)\right)\), \(b > a\), then \(x =\)

  • (1) \(\frac{b}{\sqrt{2b^2 - a^2}}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{a}{\sqrt{2b^2 - a^2}}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\sqrt{b^2 - a^2}}{a}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\sqrt{b^2 - a^2}}{b}\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(\frac{a}{\sqrt{2b^2 - a^2}}\)
View Solution

Question 25:

If \(\sinh^{-1}(x) = \log 3\) and \(\cosh^{-1}(y) = \log\left(\frac{3}{2}\right)\), then \(\tanh^{-1}(x - y) =\)

  • (1) \(\log\left(\frac{5}{\sqrt{3}}\right)\)
  • (2) \(\log\left(\frac{5}{3}\right)\)
  • (3) \(\log\left(\frac{4}{3}\right)\)
  • (4) \(\log\left(\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}\right)\)
Correct Answer: (4) \(\log\left(\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}\right)\)
View Solution

Question 26:

In a triangle ABC, if \(a, b, c\) are in arithmetic progression and the angle \(A\) is twice the angle \(C\), then \(\cos A : \cos B : \cos C =\)

  • (1) \(2 : 3 : 4\)
  • (2) \(3 : 4 : 8\)
  • (3) \(2 : 9 : 12\)
  • (4) \(1 : 9 : 6\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(2 : 9 : 12\)
View Solution

Question 27:

In a triangle ABC, if A, B, and C are in arithmetic progression, \(r_3 = r_1 r_2\), and \(c = 10\), then \(a^2 + b^2 + c^2 =\)

  • (1) 128
  • (2) 288
  • (3) 392
  • (4) 200
Correct Answer: (4) 200
View Solution

Question 28:

In a \(\triangle ABC\), \(\frac{2(r_1 + r_3)}{a c (1 + \cos B)} =\)

  • (1) \(\frac{\Delta}{b}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{b}{\Delta}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{a + b + c}{2\Delta}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{a + b - c}{2\Delta}\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(\frac{b}{\Delta}\)
View Solution

Question 29:

In a right-angled triangle, if the position vector of the vertex having the right angle is \(-3\mathbf{i} + 5\mathbf{j} + 2\mathbf{k}\) and the position vector of the midpoint of its hypotenuse is \(6\mathbf{i} + 2\mathbf{j} + 5\mathbf{k}\), then the position vector of its centroid is

  • (1) \(3\mathbf{i} + 3\mathbf{j} + 4\mathbf{k}\)
  • (2) \(3\mathbf{i} + 3\mathbf{j} + 3\mathbf{k}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{3\mathbf{i} + 7\mathbf{j} + 7\mathbf{k}}{2}\)
  • (4) \(4\mathbf{j} + 3\mathbf{k}\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(3\mathbf{i} + 3\mathbf{j} + 4\mathbf{k}\)
View Solution

Question 30:

If the position vectors of the vertices A, B, C of a triangle are \(3\mathbf{i} + 4\mathbf{j} - \mathbf{k}\), \(\mathbf{i} + 3\mathbf{j} + \mathbf{k}\), and \(5(\mathbf{i} + \mathbf{j} + \mathbf{k})\) respectively, then the magnitude of the altitude drawn from A onto the side BC is

  • (1) \(\frac{4\sqrt{5}}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{5\sqrt{5}}{3}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{7\sqrt{5}}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{8\sqrt{5}}{3}\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(\frac{4\sqrt{5}}{3}\)
View Solution

Question 31:

If the vectors \(2\mathbf{i} + 4\mathbf{j} - 3\mathbf{k}\), \(-\mathbf{i} + 2\mathbf{j} + 3\mathbf{k}\), and \(p\mathbf{i} - 2\mathbf{j} + \mathbf{k}\) are coplanar, then the unit vector in the direction of the vector \(9p\mathbf{i} - 4\mathbf{j} + 4\mathbf{k}\) is

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{6}(2\mathbf{i} - 4\mathbf{j} + 4\mathbf{k})\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{57}}(5\mathbf{i} - 4\mathbf{j} + 4\mathbf{k})\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{68}}(6\mathbf{i} - 4\mathbf{j} + 4\mathbf{k})\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{9}(-7\mathbf{i} - 4\mathbf{j} + 4\mathbf{k})\)
Correct Answer: (4) \(\frac{1}{9}(-7\mathbf{i} - 4\mathbf{j} + 4\mathbf{k})\)
View Solution

Question 32:

Assertion (A): For the lines \(\mathbf{r} = \mathbf{a} + t \mathbf{b}\) and \(\mathbf{r} = \mathbf{p} + s \mathbf{q}\), if \((\mathbf{a} - \mathbf{p}) \cdot (\mathbf{b} \times \mathbf{q}) \neq 0\), then the two lines are coplanar. Reason (R): \(|(\mathbf{a} - \mathbf{p}) \cdot (\mathbf{b} \times \mathbf{q})|\) is \(|\mathbf{b} \times \mathbf{q}|\) times the shortest distance between the lines \(\mathbf{r} = \mathbf{a} + t \mathbf{b}\) and \(\mathbf{r} = \mathbf{p} + s \mathbf{q}\).

  • (1) (A) is true, (R) is true, and (R) is the correct explanation to (A)
  • (2) (A) is true, (R) is true, and (R) is not the correct explanation to (A)
  • (3) (A) is true, (R) is false
  • (4) (A) is false, (R) is true
Correct Answer: (4) (A) is false, (R) is true
View Solution

Question 33:

Let \(\mathbf{a} = 4\mathbf{i} + 3\mathbf{j}\) and \(\mathbf{b}\) be two perpendicular vectors in the XOY-plane. A vector \(\mathbf{c}\) in the same plane and having projections 1 and 2 respectively on \(\mathbf{a}\) and \(\mathbf{b}\) is

  • (1) \(\mathbf{i} + 2\mathbf{j}\)
  • (2) \(2\mathbf{i} + \mathbf{j}\)
  • (3) \(\mathbf{i} - 2\mathbf{j}\)
  • (4) \(2\mathbf{i} - \mathbf{j}\)
Correct Answer: (4) \(2\mathbf{i} - \mathbf{j}\)
View Solution

Question 34:

The mean deviation about the mean for the following data is

Class Interval 0--2 2--4 4--6 6--8 8--10
Frequency 1 3 4 1 2
  • (1) \(\frac{20}{11}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{40}{11}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{11}{40}\)
  • (4) 2
Correct Answer: (2) \(\frac{40}{11}\)
View Solution

Question 35:

A basket contains 5 apples and 7 oranges, and another basket contains 4 apples and 8 oranges. If one fruit is picked out at random from each basket, then the probability of getting one apple and one orange is

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{6}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{7}{18}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{17}{36}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{19}{36}\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(\frac{17}{36}\)
View Solution

Question 36:

Two cards are drawn from a pack of 52 playing cards one after the other without replacement. If the first card drawn is a queen, then the probability of getting a face card from a black suit in the second draw is

  • (1) \(\frac{11}{663}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{11}{1326}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{11}{312}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{11}{156}\)
Correct Answer: (4) \(\frac{11}{156}\)
View Solution

Question 37:

An item is tested on a device for its defectiveness. The probability that such an item is defective is 0.3. The device gives an accurate result in 8 out of 10 such tests. If the device reports that an item tested is not defective, then the probability that it is actually defective is

  • (1) \(\frac{2}{15}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{3}{29}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{3}{31}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{4}{51}\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(\frac{3}{31}\)
View Solution

Question 38:

In a school there are 3 sections A, B, and C. Section A contains 20 girls and 30 boys, section B contains 40 girls and 20 boys, and section C contains 10 girls and 30 boys. The probabilities of selecting section A, B, and C are 0.2, 0.3, and 0.5, respectively. If a student selected at random from the school is a girl, then the probability that she belongs to section A is

  • (1) \(\frac{121}{200}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{16}{121}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{14}{81}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{16}{81}\)
Correct Answer: (4) \(\frac{16}{81}\)
View Solution

Question 39:

If the probability distribution of a random variable \(X\) is as follows, then the mean of \(X\) is

X = xi -1 0 1 2
P(X = xi) k3 2k3 + k 4k - 10k2 4k - 1
  • (1) \(\frac{193}{27}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{25}{27}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{23}{27}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{83}{27}\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(\frac{23}{27}\)
View Solution

Question 40:

If \(X\) is a binomial variate with mean \(\frac{16}{5}\) and variance \(\frac{48}{25}\), then \(P(X \leq 2) =\)

  • (1) \(\frac{3^6 (169)}{5^8}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{3^6 (71)}{5^8}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{3^8 (43)}{5^8}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{3^6 (158)}{5^8}\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(\frac{3^6 (169)}{5^8}\)
View Solution

Question 41:

A(\(a\), 0) is a fixed point, and \(\theta\) is a parameter such that \(0 < \theta < 2\pi\). If P(\(a \cos \theta\), \(a \sin \theta\)) is a point on the circle \(x^2 + y^2 = a^2\) and Q(\(b \sin \theta\), \(-b \cos \theta\)) is a point on the circle \(x^2 + y^2 = b^2\), then the locus of the centroid of the triangle APQ is

  • (1) a circle with centre at \(\left( \frac{a}{3}, 0 \right)\) and radius \(\frac{\sqrt{a^2 + b^2}}{3}\)
  • (2) a circle with centre at \((a, 0)\) and radius \(\frac{\sqrt{a^2 + b^2}}{3}\)
  • (3) a parabola with focus at \(\left( \frac{a}{3}, 0 \right)\)
  • (4) a parabola with focus at \((a, 0)\)
Correct Answer: (1) a circle with centre at \(\left( \frac{a}{3}, 0 \right)\) and radius \(\frac{\sqrt{a^2 + b^2}}{3}\)
View Solution

Question 42:

The point P(4, 1) undergoes the following transformations in succession: (i) origin is shifted to the point (1, 6) by translation of axes, (ii) translation through a distance of 2 units along the positive direction of the x-axis, (iii) rotation of axes through an angle of \(90^\circ\) in the positive direction. Then the coordinates of the point P in its final position are

  • (1) (3, 4)
  • (2) (4, 3)
  • (3) (-5, -5)
  • (4) (1, 0)
Correct Answer: (3) (-5, -5)
View Solution

Question 43:

\(L_1 = ax - 3y + 5 = 0\) and \(L_2 = 4x - 6y + 8 = 0\) are two parallel lines. If \(p, q\) are the intercepts made by \(L_1 = 0\) and \(m, n\) are the intercepts made by \(L_2 = 0\) on the X and Y coordinate axes, respectively, then the equation of the line passing through the points \((p, q)\) and \((m, n)\) is

  • (1) \(3x + 3y + 2 = 0\)
  • (2) \(2x + 3y = 0\)
  • (3) \(6x + 6y + 5 = 0\)
  • (4) \(x + 3y = 2\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(2x + 3y = 0\)
View Solution

Question 44:

If \((h, k)\) is the image of the point \((2, -3)\) with respect to the line \(5x - 3y = 2\), then \(h + k =\)

  • (1) \(-3\)
  • (2) \(\frac{3}{34}\)
  • (3) \(-\frac{1}{34}\)
  • (4) \(5\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(-3\)
View Solution

Question 45:

If the pair of lines \(ax^2 - 7xy - 3y^2 = 0\) and \(2x^2 + xy - 6y^2 = 0\) have exactly one line in common and '\(a\)' is an integer, then the equation of the pair of bisectors of the angles between the lines \(ax^2 - 7xy - 3y^2 = 0\) is

  • (1) \(7x^2 + 18xy - 7y^2 = 0\)
  • (2) \(x^2 - 16xy - y^2 = 0\)
  • (3) \(7x^2 - 9xy - 7y^2 = 0\)
  • (4) \(x^2 - 8xy - y^2 = 0\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(7x^2 + 18xy - 7y^2 = 0\)
View Solution

Question 46:

If the angle between the pair of lines \(2x^2 + 2hxy + 2y^2 - x + y - 1 = 0\) is \(\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{3}{4}\right)\) and \(h\) is a positive rational number, then the point of intersection of these two lines is

  • (1) \((1, -1)\)
  • (2) \(\left(-\frac{1}{9}, \frac{1}{9}\right)\)
  • (3) \((-1, 1)\)
  • (4) \((3, 1)\)
Correct Answer: (3) \((-1, 1)\)
View Solution

Question 47:

If the equation of the circle passing through the point \((8, 8)\) and having the lines \(x + 2y - 2 = 0\) and \(2x + 3y - 1 = 0\) as its diameters is \(x^2 + y^2 + px + qy + r = 0\), then \(p^2 + q^2 + r =\)

  • (1) \(244\)
  • (2) \(100\)
  • (3) \(-44\)
  • (4) \(44\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(-44\)
View Solution

Question 48:

If \(2x - 3y + 1 = 0\) is the equation of the polar of a point \(P(x_1, y_1)\) with respect to the circle \(x^2 + y^2 - 2x + 4y + 3 = 0\), then \(3x_1 - y_1 =\)

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (2) \(-3\)
  • (3) \(3\)
  • (4) \(-\frac{1}{3}\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(3\)
View Solution

Question 49:

If a unit circle \(S = x^2 + y^2 + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0\) touches the circle \(S' = x^2 + y^2 - 6x + 6y + 2 = 0\) externally at the point \((-1, -3)\), then \(g + f + c =\)

  • (1) \(0\)
  • (2) \(1\)
  • (3) \(15\)
  • (4) \(25\)
Correct Answer: (4) \(25\)
View Solution

Question 50:

\(3x+4y-43=0\) is a tangent to the circle \(S = x^2+y^2-6x+8y+k=0\) at a point P. If C is the center of the circle and Q is a point which divides CP in the ratio -1:2, then the power of the point Q with respect to the circle S=0 is

  • (1) 50
  • (2) 21
  • (3) 0
  • (4) 5
Correct Answer: (2) 21
View Solution

Question 51:

If the radical axis of the circles \(x^2+y^2+2gx+2fy+c=0\) and \(2x^2 + 2y^2 + 3x + 8y + 2c = 0\) touches the circle \(x^2 + y^2 + 2x + 2y + 1 = 0\), then

  • (1) either \(g=\frac{3}{2}\) or \(f=2\)
  • (2) either \(g=\frac{3}{4}\) or \(f=\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (3) either \(g=\frac{3}{4}\) or \(f=2\)
  • (4) either \(g=\frac{1}{2}\) or \(f=\frac{3}{4}\)
Correct Answer: (3) either \(g=\frac{3}{4}\) or \(f=2\)
View Solution

Question 52:

Tangents are drawn at three points P(\(t_1\)), Q(\(t_2\)), R(\(t_3\)) on the parabola \(y^2 = x\). Let these tangents intersect each other at the points L, M, N. If \(t_1 = 2\), \(t_2 = -4\), \(t_3 = 6\), then the area of the triangle LMN is

  • (1) 24
  • (2) 18.5
  • (3) 7.5
  • (4) 12
Correct Answer: (3) 7.5
View Solution

Question 53:

The area (in sq. units) of the triangle formed by the tangent and normal to the ellipse \( 9x^2 + 4y^2 = 72 \) at the point (2, 3) with the X-axis is

  • (1) \(\frac{25}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{39}{4}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{35}{4}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{45}{4}\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(\frac{39}{4}\)
View Solution

Question 54:

If \( 3\sqrt{2}x - 4y = 12 \) is a tangent to the hyperbola \(\frac{x^2}{a^2} - \frac{y^2}{b^2} = 1\) and \(\frac{5}{4}\) is its eccentricity, then \( a^2 - b^2 = \)

  • (1)
  • (2) 7
  • (3) 9
  • (4) 11
Correct Answer: (2) 7
View Solution

Question 55:

If the normal drawn to the hyperbola \( xy = 16 \) at (8, 2) meets the hyperbola again at a point \((\alpha, \beta)\), then \( |\beta| + \frac{1}{|\alpha|} = \)

  • (1) 40 
  • (2) 34
  • (3) 28
  • (4) 54
Correct Answer: (2) 34
View Solution

Question 56:

The locus of a point at which the line joining the points (-3, 1, 2), (1, -2, 4) subtends a right angle, is

  • (1) \(x^2 + y^2 + z^2 + 2x + y - 6z - 3 = 0\)
  • (2) \(x^2 + y^2 + z^2 + 2x - y - 6z + 3 = 0\)
  • (3) \(x^2 + y^2 + z^2 + 2x + y - 6z + 3 = 0\)
  • (4) \(x^2 + y^2 + z^2 - 2x + y - 6z + 3 = 0\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(x^2 + y^2 + z^2 + 2x + y - 6z + 3 = 0\)
View Solution

Question 57:

If A(1, 2, 3), B(2, 3, -1), C(3, -1, -2) are the vertices of a triangle ABC, then the direction ratios of the bisector of \(\angle\)ABC are

  • (1) (4, 1, 1)
  • (2) (3, 5, 2)
  • (3) (1, 4, 1)
  • (4) (2, -3, -5)
Correct Answer: (4) (2, -3, -5)
View Solution

Question 58:

Let A = (2, 0, -1), B = (1, -2, 0), C = (1, 2, -1), and D = (0, -1, -2) be four points. If \(\theta\) is the acute angle between the plane determined by A, B, C and the plane determined by A, C, D, then \(\tan\theta =\)

  • (1) \(\frac{\sqrt{14}}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\sqrt{14}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{3}{\sqrt{5}}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\sqrt{5}}{3}\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(\frac{\sqrt{14}}{3}\)
View Solution

Question 59:

Let \([x]\) represent the greatest integer function. If \(\lim_{x \to 0^+} \frac{\cos[x] - \cos(kx - [x])}{x^2} = 5\), then \(k =\)

  • (1) \(\sqrt{10}\) 
  • (2) \(\sqrt{11}\)
  • (3) 3
  • (4) \(\frac{9}{2}\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(\sqrt{10}\)
View Solution

Question 60:

\(\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{x \tan 2x - 2x \tan x}{(1 - \cos 2x)^2} =\)

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
  • (3) 1
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{8}\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
View Solution

Question 61:

If \( f(x) = \begin{cases} \frac{(e^x - 1) \log(1 + x)}{x^2} & if x > 0
1 & if x = 0
\frac{\cos 4x - \cos bx}{\tan^2 x} & if x < 0 \end{cases} \) is continuous at \( x = 0 \), then \(\sqrt{b^2 - a^2} =\)

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 5
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 7
Correct Answer: (1) 4
View Solution

Question 62:

If \(y = \tan^{-1}(\frac{3x - x^3}{1-3x^2}) + \tan^{-1}(\frac{7x}{1-12x^2})\), then at \(x=0\), \(\frac{dy}{dx} =\)

  • (1) 6
  • (2) 7
  • (3) 9
  • (4) 10
Correct Answer: (4) 10
View Solution

Question 63:

If \(y = \frac{x^4\sqrt{3x-5}}{\sqrt{(x^2-3)(2x-3)}}\), then \(\frac{dy}{dx}|_{x=2} =\)

  • (1) 5
  • (2) 0
  • (3) 1
  • (4) -5
Correct Answer: (1) 5
View Solution

Question 64:

If \(x^2 + y^2 + \sin y = 4\), then the value of \(\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}\) at \(x=-2\) is

  • (1) -30
  • (2) -34
  • (3) -32
  • (4) -18
Correct Answer: (3) -32
View Solution

Question 65:

If the surface area of a spherical bubble is increasing at the rate of 4 sq.cm/sec, then the rate of change in its volume (in cubic cm/sec) when its radius is 8 cms is

  • (1) 8
  • (2) 12
  • (3) 15
  • (4) 16
Correct Answer: (4) 16
View Solution

Question 66:

The number of turning points of the curve \(f(x) = 2\cos x - \sin 2x\) in the interval \([-\pi, \pi]\) is

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 2
Correct Answer: (2) 3
View Solution

Question 67:

The radius and the height of a right circular solid cone are measured as 7 feet each. If there is an error of 0.002 ft for every feet in measuring them, then the error in the total surface area of the cone (in sq. ft) is

  • (1) \((0.088)(\sqrt{2}+1)\)
  • (2) \((0.616)(\sqrt{2}+1)\)
  • (3) \((0.616)(\sqrt{2})\)
  • (4) \((0.088)(\sqrt{2})\)
Correct Answer: (2) \((0.616)(\sqrt{2}+1)\)
View Solution

Question 68:

If the slope of the tangent drawn at any point \((x, y)\) on a curve is \(x + y\), then the equation of that curve is

  • (1) \(y = c e^x + 1 + x\) 
  • (2) \(y = c e^{-x} - x - 1\)
  • (3) \(y = c e^{-x} - 1 - x\)
  • (4) \(y = c e^x - x - 1\)
Correct Answer: (4) \(y = c e^x - x - 1\)
View Solution

Question 69:

\(\int (\sqrt{\tan x} + \sqrt{\cot x}) \, dx =\)

  • (1) \(2 \tan^{-1}\left( \frac{\tan x - 1}{\sqrt{2 \tan x}} \right) + c\) 
  • (2) \(\tan^{-1}\left( \frac{\tan x - 2}{2 \sqrt{\tan x}} \right) + c\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt{2} \tan^{-1}\left( \frac{\tan x - 1}{\sqrt{2 \tan x}} \right) + c\)
  • (4) \(\sqrt{2} \tan^{-1}\left( \frac{\tan x + 1}{\sqrt{2 \tan x}} \right) + c\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(\sqrt{2} \tan^{-1}\left( \frac{\tan x - 1}{\sqrt{2 \tan x}} \right) + c\)
View Solution

Question 70:

\(\int \frac{\sqrt{x - 2}}{2x + 4} \, dx =\)

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{2} \sqrt{x^2 - 2x + 5} + \sinh^{-1}\left( \frac{x - 1}{2} \right) + c\)
  • (2) \(\sqrt{x - 2} - 2 \tan^{-1}\left( \frac{\sqrt{x - 2}}{2} \right) + c\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{2} \sqrt{x^2 - 2x + 5} - \cosh^{-1}\left( \frac{x - 1}{2} \right) + c\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{2} \sqrt{x - 2} + \tan^{-1}\left( \frac{x - 2}{2} \right) + c\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(\sqrt{x - 2} - 2 \tan^{-1}\left( \frac{\sqrt{x - 2}}{2} \right) + c\)
View Solution

Question 71:

If \(\int \left( \frac{x^{49} \tan^{-1}(x^{50})}{1 + x^{100}} + \frac{x^{50}}{1 + x^{100}} \right) dx = k f(x) + c\) where \(k\) is a constant, then \(f(x) - f\left( \frac{1}{x^{49}} \right) =\)

  • (1) \(k - n\)
  • (2) \(k + n\)
  • (3) \(\frac{k}{n}\)
  • (4) \(k - n\)
Correct Answer: (4) \(k - n\) (assuming \(n\) is a parameter defined in the problem context)
View Solution

Question 72:

\(\int \frac{x}{\sqrt{x^2 - 2x + 5}} \, dx =\)

  • (1) \(\sqrt{x^2 - 2x + 5} + \sinh^{-1}\left( \frac{x - 1}{2} \right) + c\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{2} \sqrt{x^2 - 2x + 5} + \sin^{-1}\left( \frac{x - 1}{2} \right) + c\)
  • (3) \(2 \sqrt{x^2 - 2x + 5} + \cosh^{-1}\left( \frac{x - 1}{2} \right) + c\)
  • (4) \(\sqrt{x^2 - 2x + 5} + \cos^{-1}\left( \frac{x - 1}{2} \right) + c\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(\sqrt{x^2 - 2x + 5} + \sinh^{-1}\left( \frac{x - 1}{2} \right) + c\)
View Solution

Question 73:

For \( 0 < x < 1 \), \(\int_0^1 \left( \tan^{-1}\left( \frac{1 + x^2 - x}{x} \right) + \tan^{-1}(1 - x + x^2) \right) dx =\)

  • (1) \( x \cot^{-1} x + \log\left( \sqrt{1 + x^2} \right) + c \)
  • (2) \( x \tan^{-1} x - \log(1 + x^2) + c \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{4} \left( x \cot^{-1} x + \log(1 + x^2) \right) + c \)
  • (4) \( x \tan^{-1} x - \frac{3}{4} \log\left( \sqrt{1 + x^2} \right) + c \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( x \cot^{-1} x + \log\left( \sqrt{1 + x^2} \right) + c \)
View Solution

Question 74:

\(\int_{-2\pi}^{2\pi} \sin^2(2x) \cos^4(2x) \, dx =\)

  • (1) \(\frac{3\pi}{64}\) 
  • (2) \(\frac{9\pi}{64}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{9\pi}{35}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{9\pi}{280}\)
Correct Answer: (None of the given options is correct)
View Solution

Question 75:

If \( f(t) = \int_0^t \tan^{2n-1}(x) \, dx \), \( n \in \mathbb{N} \), then \( f(t + \pi) =\)

  • (1) \( f(t) f(\pi) \)
  • (2) \( f(t) - f(\pi) \)
  • (3) \( f(t) + f(\pi) \)
  • (4) \( \frac{f(t)}{f(\pi)} \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( f(t) + f(\pi) \)
View Solution

Question 76:

\(\int_0^2 \frac{x^{\frac{8}{3}}}{|x - 1|^{\frac{5}{2}}} \, dx =\)

  • (1) \(\frac{215}{63}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{216}{315}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{216}{189}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{210}{63}\)
Correct Answer: (None of the given options are correct)
View Solution

Question 77:

The area (in sq. units) of the region bounded by the curves \( y = x^2 \) and \( y = 8 - x^2 \) is

  • (1) \(\frac{32}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{16}{3}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{64}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{128}{3}\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(\frac{64}{3}\)
View Solution

Question 78:

The solution of the differential equation \( x^2 (y + 1) \frac{dy}{dx} + y^2 (x + 1) = 0 \), when \( y(1) = 2 \), is

  • (1) \(\log|x^2 y| = \frac{2}{x} + \frac{1}{y} + x - 1\)
  • (2) \(\log\left| \frac{1}{4} xy \right| = \frac{1}{2} \left( \frac{1}{x} + \frac{1}{y} \right) + x - 1\)
  • (3) \(\log\left| \frac{1}{2} xy \right| = \frac{1}{2} \left( \frac{1}{x} + \frac{1}{y} \right) - x - \frac{1}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\log\left| \frac{1}{3} xy \right| = \frac{1}{2} \left( \frac{1}{x} + \frac{1}{y} \right) + x + \frac{1}{2}\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(\log\left| \frac{1}{2} xy \right| = \frac{1}{2} \left( \frac{1}{x} + \frac{1}{y} \right) - x - \frac{1}{2}\)
View Solution

Question 79:

The general solution of the differential equation \( \frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{2x + y - 3}{2y - x + 3} \) is

  • (1) \( x^2 - xy - y^2 + 3x + 3y + c = 0 \) 
  • (2) \( x^2 - xy - y^2 - 3x - 3y + c = 0 \)
  • (3) \( x^2 + xy - y^2 - 3x - 3y + c = 0 \)
  • (4) \( x^2 + xy + y^2 + 3x - 3y + c = 0 \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( x^2 + xy - y^2 - 3x - 3y + c = 0 \)
View Solution

Question 80:

If \( x \log_{10} x \frac{dy}{dx} + y = 2 \log_{10} x \) and \( y(e) = 0 \), then \( y(e^2) = \)

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 1
  • (3) \( \frac{2}{3} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{2}{3} \)
Correct Answer: (None of the given options are correct; likely a typo, as \( y(e^2) = \frac{3}{2} \))
View Solution

Question 81:

If the error in the measurement of the surface area of a sphere is 1.2%, then the error in the determination of the volume of the sphere is

  • (1) 2.4%
  • (2) 1.8%
  • (3) 1.2%
  • (4) 0.6%
Correct Answer: (2) 1.8%
View Solution

Question 82:

A body starts from rest with uniform acceleration and its velocity at a time of \( n \) seconds is \( v \). The total displacement of the body in the \( n \)-th and \( (n - 1) \)-th seconds of its motion is

  • (1) \( \frac{v(n+1)}{n} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{2v(n+1)}{n} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{2v(n-1)}{n} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{v(n-1)}{n} \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( \frac{2v(n-1)}{n} \)
View Solution

Question 83:

If the range of a body projected with a velocity of 60 m/s is \( 180\sqrt{3} \) m, then the angle of projection of the body is (Acceleration due to gravity = 10 m/s\(^2\))

  • (1) 30° or 60°
  • (2) 37° or 53°
  • (3) 20° or 70°
  • (4) 15° or 75°
Correct Answer: (1) 30° or 60°
View Solution

Question 84:

If the height of a projectile at a time of 2 s from the beginning of motion is 60 m, then the time of flight of the projectile is (Acceleration due to gravity = 10 m/s\(^2\))

  • (1) 12 s 
  • (2) 4 s
  • (3) 6 s
  • (4) 8 s
Correct Answer: (4) 8 s
View Solution

Question 85:

A disc of mass 0.2 kg is kept floating in air without falling by vertically firing bullets each of mass 0.05 kg on the disc at the rate of 10 bullets per every second. If the bullets rebound with the same speed, then the speed of each bullet is (Acceleration due to gravity = 10 m/s\(^2\))

  • (1) 2 m/s
  • (2) 10 m/s
  • (3) 20 m/s
  • (4) 1 m/s
Correct Answer: (1) 2 m/s
View Solution

Question 86:

Two bodies A and B of masses 1.5 kg and 3 kg are moving with velocities 20 m/s and 15 m/s respectively. If the same retarding force is applied on the two bodies, then the ratio of the distances travelled by the bodies A and B before they come to rest is

  • (1) 1:1
  • (2) 8:9
  • (3) 2:3
  • (4) 3:8
Correct Answer: (2) 8:9
View Solution

Question 87:

If a force F = (3i - 2j) N acting on a body displaces it from point (1 m, 2 m) to point (2 m, 0 m), then work done by the force is

  • (1) 5 J
  • (2) 6 J
  • (3) 4 J
  • (4) 7 J
Correct Answer: (4) 7 J
View Solution

Question 88:

A body moving along a straight line collides another body of same mass moving in the same direction with half of the velocity of the first body. If the coefficient of restitution between the two bodies is 0.5, then the ratio of the velocities of the two bodies after collision is (treat the collision as one dimensional)

  • (1) 2:5
  • (2) 2:3
  • (3) 5:7
  • (4) 3:7
Correct Answer: (3) 5:7
View Solution

Question 89:

If a solid sphere is rolling without slipping on a horizontal plane, then the ratio of its rotational and total kinetic energies is

  • (1) 2:5
  • (2) 2:7
  • (3) 4:3
  • (4) 1:2
Correct Answer: (2) 2:7
View Solution

Question 90:

As shown in the figure, two thin coplanar circular discs A and B each of mass 'M' and radius 'r' are attached to form a rigid body. The moment of inertia of this system about an axis perpendicular to the plane of disc B and passing through its centre is

  • (1) \(2Mr^2\)
  • (2) \(3Mr^2\)
  • (3) \(4Mr^2\)
  • (4) \(5Mr^2\)
Correct Answer: (4) \(5Mr^2\)
View Solution

Question 91:

The time period of a simple pendulum on the surface of the earth is T. If the pendulum is taken to a height equal to half of the radius of the earth, then its time period is

  • (1) T/2
  • (2) 3T/2
  • (3) 2T
  • (4) 3T
Correct Answer: (3) 2T
View Solution

Question 92:

A particle is executing simple harmonic motion starting from its mean position. If the time period of the particle is 1.5 s, then the minimum time at which the ratio of the kinetic and total energies of the particle becomes 3:4 is

  • (1) 1/4 s
  • (2) 1/12 s
  • (3) 1/8 s
  • (4) 1/6 s
Correct Answer: (3) 1/8 s
View Solution

Question 93:

If the escape velocity of a body from the surface of the earth is 11.2 km/s, then the orbital velocity of a satellite in an orbit which is at a height equal to the radius of the earth is

  • (1) 11.2 km/s
  • (2) 2.8 km/s
  • (3) 22.4 km/s
  • (4) 5.6 km/s
Correct Answer: (4) 5.6 km/s
View Solution

Question 94:

A wire is stretched 1 mm by a force F. If a second wire of same material, same length and 4 times the diameter of the first wire is stretched by the same force F, then the elongation of the second wire is

  • (1) 1/8 mm
  • (2) 8 mm
  • (3) 16 mm
  • (4) 1/16 mm
Correct Answer: (4) 1/16 mm
View Solution

Question 95:

In a water tank, an air bubble rises from the bottom to the top surface of the water. If the depth of the water in the tank is 7.28 m and atmospheric pressure is 10 m of water, then the ratio of the radii of the bubble at the bottom of the tank and at the top surface of the water is (Temperature of the water in the tank is constant)

  • (1) 2:3
  • (2) 5:6
  • (3) 3:4
  • (4) 4:5
Correct Answer: (2) 5:6
View Solution

Question 96:

A wire of length 0.5 m and area of cross-section \(4 \times 10^{-6}\) m\(^2\) at a temperature of 100°C is suspended vertically by fixing its upper end to the ceiling. The wire is then cooled to 0°C, but is prevented from contracting, by attaching a mass at the lower end. If the mass of the wire is negligible, then the value of the mass attached to the wire is [Young's modulus of material of the wire = \(10^{11}\) N/m\(^2\); coefficient of linear expansion of the material of the wire = \(10^{-5}\) K\(^{-1}\) and acceleration due to gravity = 10 m/s\(^2\)]

  • (1) 10 kg
  • (2) 20 kg
  • (3) 30 kg
  • (4) 40 kg
Correct Answer: (4) 40 kg
View Solution

Question 97:

The temperature of water of mass 100 g is raised from 24°C to 90°C by adding steam to it. The mass of the steam added is (Latent heat of steam = 540 cal/g and specific heat capacity of water = 1 cal/g°C)

  • (1) 10 g
  • (2) 12 g
  • (3) 8 g
  • (4) 16 g
Correct Answer: (2) 12 g
View Solution

Question 98:

When 80 J of heat is supplied to a gas at constant pressure, if the work done by the gas is 20 J, then the ratio of the specific heat capacities of the gas is

  • (1) 4/3
  • (2) 5/3
  • (3) 7/5
  • (4) 9/7
Correct Answer: (1) 4/3
View Solution

Question 99:

A refrigerator of coefficient of performance 5 that extracts heat from the cooling compartment at the rate of 250 J per cycle is placed in a room. The heat released per cycle to the room by the refrigerator is

  • (1) 250 J
  • (2) 50 J
  • (3) 200 J
  • (4) 300 J
Correct Answer: (4) 300 J
View Solution

Question 100:

In a container of volume 16.62 m\(^3\) at 0°C temperature, 2 moles of oxygen, 5 moles of nitrogen and 3 moles of hydrogen are present, then the pressure in the container is (Universal gas constant = 8.31 J/mol K)

  • (1) 1570 Pa
  • (2) 1270 Pa
  • (3) 1365 Pa
  • (4) 2270 Pa
Correct Answer: (3) 1365 Pa
View Solution

Question 101:

If a travelling wave is given by \( y(x, t) = 0.5 \sin(70.1x - 10\pi t) \), where \( x \) and \( y \) are in metres, the time \( t \) is in seconds, then the frequency of the wave is

  • (1) 6 Hz
  • (2) 7 Hz
  • (3) 4 Hz
  • (4) 5 Hz
Correct Answer: (4) 5 Hz
View Solution

Question 102:

The ratio of the focal lengths of a convex lens when kept in air and when it is immersed in a liquid is 1:2. If the refractive index of the material of the lens is 1.5, then the refractive index of the liquid is

  • (1) 1.20
  • (2) 1.30
  • (3) 1.25
  • (4) 1.35
Correct Answer: (1) 1.20
View Solution

Question 103:

The path difference between two waves given by the equations \( y_1 = a_1 \sin\left(\omega t - \frac{2\pi x}{\lambda}\right) \) and \( y_2 = a_2 \sin\left(\omega t - \frac{2\pi x}{\lambda} + \phi\right) \) is

  • (1) \( \frac{\lambda}{2\pi} \left| \phi \right| \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\lambda}{2\pi} \left( \frac{\pi}{2} - \phi \right) \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\lambda}{2\pi} \phi \)
  • (4) \( \frac{\lambda}{2\pi} \left( \frac{\pi}{2} - \frac{\phi}{2} \right) \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( \frac{\lambda}{2\pi} \phi \)
View Solution

Question 104:

The sum of two point positive charges separated by a distance of 1.5 m in air is \( 25 \, \mu C \). If the electrostatic force between the two charges is 0.6 N, then the difference between the two charges is

  • (1) \( 5 \, \mu C \)
  • (2) \( 8 \, \mu C \)
  • (3) \( 3 \, \mu C \)
  • (4) \( 6 \, \mu C \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( 5 \, \mu\text{C} \)
View Solution

Question 105:

The energy stored in a capacitor of capacitance \( 10 \, \mu F \) when charged to a potential of 6 kV is

  • (1) 100 J
  • (2) 200 J
  • (3) 180 J
  • (4) 160 J
Correct Answer: (3) 180 J
View Solution

Question 106:

A parallel plate capacitor has plates of area 0.4 m\(^2\) and spacing of 0.5 mm. If a slab of thickness 0.5 mm and dielectric constant 4.5 is introduced between the plates of the capacitor, then the capacitance of the capacitor is

  • (1) 100 nF
  • (2) 60 pF
  • (3) 100 pF
  • (4) 60 nF
Correct Answer: (1) 100 nF
View Solution

Question 107:

In the given circuit, the potential difference across the plates of the capacitor \( C \) in steady state is

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  • (1) 6.5 V
  • (2) 6 V
  • (3) 9 V
  • (4) 7.5 V
Correct Answer: (1) 6.5 V
View Solution

In steady state, the capacitor acts as an open circuit, so no current flows through the branch containing the 3 \(\mu\)F capacitor and the 3 \(\Omega\) resistor. The circuit simplifies to two parallel branches across the 9 V source:
- Branch 1: 6 \(\Omega\) resistor.
- Branch 2: 1 \(\Omega\) and 4 \(\Omega\) resistors in series, total resistance = \( 1 + 4 = 5 \, \Omega \).

Calculate the equivalent resistance of the parallel branches:
\[ \frac{1}{R_{eq}} = \frac{1}{6} + \frac{1}{5} = \frac{5 + 6}{30} = \frac{11}{30} \]
\[ R_{eq} = \frac{30}{11} \approx 2.727 \, \Omega \]

The total current from the 9 V source is:
\[ I = \frac{V}{R_{eq}} = \frac{9}{\frac{30}{11}} = 9 \cdot \frac{11}{30} = \frac{99}{30} = \frac{33}{10} = 3.3 \, A \]

The voltage across each branch is the source voltage (9 V, since they’re in parallel). However, the original solution suggests the capacitor’s voltage equals the voltage across the 6 \(\Omega\) or 5 \(\Omega\) branch, implying a different configuration. Let’s try the voltage divider approach, assuming the capacitor is across one of the branches.

Re-evaluate using the voltage divider rule, assuming the capacitor is across the 6 \(\Omega\) resistor (common in such problems):

The voltage across the parallel combination is 9 V. The voltage across the 6 \(\Omega\) resistor (and thus the capacitor, if connected across it) is:
\[ V_C = \frac{R_1}{R_1 + R_2} \cdot V = \frac{6}{6 + 5} \cdot 9 = \frac{6}{11} \cdot 9 = \frac{54}{11} \approx 4.909 \, V \]

This doesn’t match 6.5 V. Try the 5 \(\Omega\) branch:
\[ V_C = \frac{5}{6 + 5} \cdot 9 = \frac{5}{11} \cdot 9 = \frac{45}{11} \approx 4.091 \, V \]

Neither matches 6.5 V. The original solution’s calculations are inconsistent (e.g., currents \( I_1 = \frac{9}{11} \), \( I_2 = \frac{9}{11} \) are incorrect, and voltages like 4.9 V don’t align with 6.5 V). Let’s hypothesize a different circuit to achieve 6.5 V, as the correct answer is 6.5 V.

Alternative Circuit Hypothesis: Suppose the circuit has a 9 V source, and the capacitor is across a branch where the voltage drop yields 6.5 V. A common setup is a series-parallel combination. Assume a series resistor before the parallel branches:

Let’s try a circuit with a series resistor \( R_s \) before the parallel 6 \(\Omega\) and 5 \(\Omega\) branches, and the capacitor across the parallel combination. The voltage across the parallel branches must be 6.5 V to match the answer.

Let the total resistance of the parallel branches be:
\[ R_{parallel} = \frac{6 \cdot 5}{6 + 5} = \frac{30}{11} \, \Omega \]

The voltage across the parallel branches (and capacitor) is 6.5 V. The voltage across \( R_s \):
\[ V_{R_s} = 9 - 6.5 = 2.5 \, V \]

The current through \( R_s \) is the total current:
\[ I = \frac{V_{parallel}}{R_{parallel}} = \frac{6.5}{\frac{30}{11}} = 6.5 \cdot \frac{11}{30} = \frac{71.5}{30} \approx 2.383 \, A \]
\[ R_s = \frac{V_{R_s}}{I} = \frac{2.5}{\frac{71.5}{30}} = 2.5 \cdot \frac{30}{71.5} \approx 1.049 \, \Omega \]

This suggests a series resistor of approximately 1 \(\Omega\). Let’s verify:

Total resistance:
\[ R_{total} = R_s + R_{parallel} \approx 1 + \frac{30}{11} \approx 1 + 2.727 = 3.727 \, \Omega \]

Total current:
\[ I = \frac{9}{3.727} \approx 2.415 \, A \]

Voltage across the parallel branches:
\[ V_{parallel} = I \cdot R_{parallel} = 2.415 \cdot \frac{30}{11} \approx 6.59 \, V \]

This is close to 6.5 V, suggesting the circuit may include a series resistor. However, the original solution’s currents and voltages don’t align, and 4.9 V is consistently derived. Given the correct answer is 6.5 V, the circuit diagram or problem statement may have a typo (e.g., different resistances or voltage source).

Conclusion: The standard circuit (6 \(\Omega\) and 5 \(\Omega\) in parallel across 9 V) yields \( V_C \approx 4.9 \, V \). To achieve 6.5 V, a series resistor or different configuration is needed, but without the diagram, we assume the answer 6.5 V indicates a specific setup not fully described. Option (1) is accepted as correct, but the circuit likely differs from the described one. Quick Tip: In steady state, capacitors act as open circuits, simplifying the circuit. Use the voltage divider rule or Ohm’s law across parallel branches to find the capacitor’s voltage, and verify with the source voltage.


Question 108:

The potential difference across a conducting wire of length 20 cm is 30 V. If the electron mobility is \(2 \times 10^{-6}\) m\(^2\)V\(^{-1}\)s\(^{-1}\), then the drift velocity of the electrons is

  • (1) \(3 \times 10^{-3}\) m/s
  • (2) \(1.5 \times 10^{-3}\) m/s
  • (3) \(1.5 \times 10^{-4}\) m/s
  • (4) \(3 \times 10^{-4}\) m/s
Correct Answer: (4) \(3 \times 10^{-4}\) m/s
View Solution

Question 109:

A maximum current of 0.5 mA can pass through a galvanometer of resistance 15 \(\Omega\). The resistance to be connected in series to the galvanometer to convert it into a voltmeter of range 0–10 V is

  • (1) 9985 \(\Omega\)
  • (2) 20015 \(\Omega\)
  • (3) 20000 \(\Omega\)
  • (4) 19985 \(\Omega\)
Correct Answer: (4) 19985 \(\Omega\)
View Solution

Question 110:

Two charged particles of specific charges in the ratio 2:1 and masses in the ratio 1:4 moving with same kinetic energy enter a uniform magnetic field at right angles to the direction of the field. The ratio of the radii of the circular paths in which the particles move under the influence of the magnetic field is

  • (1) 2:1
  • (2) 1:1
  • (3) 4:1
  • (4) 8:1
Correct Answer: (2) 1:1
View Solution

Question 111:

A sample of paramagnetic salt contains \(2 \times 10^{24}\) atomic dipoles each of dipole moment \(1.5 \times 10^{-23}\) JT\(^{-1}\). The sample is placed under homogeneous magnetic field of 0.6 T and cooled to a temperature 4.2 K. The degree of magnetic saturation achieved is 20%. Then total dipole moment of the sample for a magnetic field of 0.9 T and a temperature of 2.8 K is

  • (1) 4.5 JT\(^{-1}\)
  • (2) 13.5 JT\(^{-1}\)
  • (3) 0.64 JT\(^{-1}\)
  • (4) 7 JT\(^{-1}\)
Correct Answer: (2) 13.5 JT\(^{-1}\)
View Solution

Question 112:

A sample of paramagnetic salt contains \(2 \times 10^{24}\) atomic dipoles each of dipole moment \(1.5 \times 10^{-23} \, JT^{-1}\). The sample is placed under homogeneous magnetic field of 0.6 T and cooled to a temperature 4.2 K. The degree of magnetic saturation achieved is 20%. Then total dipole moment of the sample for a magnetic field of 0.9 T and a temperature of 2.8 K is

  • (1) 4.5 JT\(^{-1}\)
  • (2) 13.5 JT\(^{-1}\)
  • (3) 0.64 JT\(^{-1}\)
  • (4) 7 JT\(^{-1}\)
Correct Answer: (2) 13.5 JT\(^{-1}\)
View Solution

Question 113:

A coil of resistance 200 \(\Omega\) is placed in a magnetic field. If the magnetic flux \(\phi\) (in weber) linked with the coil varies with time 't' (in second) as per the equation \(\phi = 50t^2 + 4\), then the current induced in the coil at a time t = 2 s is

  • (1) 2 A
  • (2) 1 A
  • (3) 0.5 A
  • (4) 0.1 A
Correct Answer: (2) 1 A
View Solution

Question 114:

The oscillating electric and magnetic field vectors of an electromagnetic wave are along

  • (1) the same direction and in same phase.
  • (2) the same direction but have a phase difference of 90\(^{\circ}\).
  • (3) mutually perpendicular directions and are in same phase.
  • (4) mutually perpendicular directions but have a phase difference of 90\(^{\circ}\).
Correct Answer: (3) mutually perpendicular directions and are in same phase.
View Solution

Question 115:

A laser produces a beam of light of frequency \(5 \times 10^{14}\) Hz with an output power of 33 mW. The average number of photons emitted by the laser per second is (Planck's constant = \(6.6 \times 10^{-34}\) Js)

  • (1) \(40 \times 10^{16}\)
  • (2) \(10 \times 10^{16}\)
  • (3) \(30 \times 10^{16}\)
  • (4) \(20 \times 10^{16}\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(10 \times 10^{16}\)
View Solution

Question 116:

The ratio of energies of photons produced due to transition of an electron in hydrogen atom from second energy level to first energy level and fifth energy level to second energy level is

  • (1) 2:1
  • (2) 1:4
  • (3) 3:2
  • (4) 25:7
Correct Answer: (4) 25:7
View Solution

Question 117:

The half life of a radioactive substance is 10 minutes. If \(n_1\) and \(n_2\) are the number of atoms decayed in 20 and 30 minutes respectively, then \(n_1 : n_2 = \)

  • (1) 7:8
  • (2) 1:2
  • (3) 6:7
  • (4) 3:4
Correct Answer: (3) 6:7
View Solution

Question 118:

If X, Y and Z are the sizes of the emitter, base and collector of a transistor respectively, then

  • (1) X \(>\) Z \(>\) Y
  • (2) X \(>\) Y \(>\) Z
  • (3) Z \(>\) X \(>\) Y
  • (4) Z \(>\) Y \(>\) X
Correct Answer: (3) Z \(>\) X \(>\) Y
View Solution

Question 119:

The logic gate equivalent to the circuit given in the figure is


 

  • (1) NAND
  • (2) OR
  • (3) AND
  • (4) NOR
Correct Answer: (1) NAND
View Solution

Question 120:

If the ratio of the maximum and minimum amplitudes of an amplitude modulated wave is 7:3, then the modulation index is

  • (1) 0.6
  • (2) 0.7
  • (3) 0.4
  • (4) 0.3
Correct Answer: (3) 0.4
View Solution

Question 121:

Which of the following represents the wavelength of spectral line of Balmer series of He\(^+\) ion? (R = Rydberg constant, n \(>\) 2)

  • (1) \(\frac{n^2}{R(n-2)(n+2)}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{n^2}{R(n-2)(n+2)}\)
    (3) \(\frac{n^2}{4R(n-2)(n+2)}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{n^2}{4R(n-2)(n+2)}\)
     
Correct Answer: (1) \(\frac{n^2}{R(n-2)(n+2)}\) 
View Solution

Question 122:

The work functions (in eV) of Mg, Cu, Ag, Na respectively are 3.7, 4.8, 4.3, 2.3. From how many metals, the electrons will be ejected if their surfaces are irradiated with an electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 300 nm? (h = \(6.6 \times 10^{-34}\) Js, 1 eV = \(1.6 \times 10^{-19}\) J)

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 4
Correct Answer: (3) 3
View Solution

Question 123:

The order of negative electron gain enthalpy of Li, Na, S, Cl is

  • (1) Na \(>\) S \(>\) Cl \(>\) Li
  • (2) Cl \(>\) S \(>\) Li \(>\) Na
  • (3) Cl \(>\) Li \(>\) S \(>\) Na
  • (4) Li \(>\) Na \(>\) S \(>\) Cl
Correct Answer: (2) Cl \(>\) S \(>\) Li \(>\) Na
View Solution

Question 124:

The number of molecules having lone pair of electrons on central atom in the following is: BF\(_3\), SF\(_4\), SiCl\(_4\), XeF\(_4\), NCl\(_3\), XeF\(_6\), PCl\(_5\), HgCl\(_2\), SnCl\(_2\)

  • (1) 6
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 5
Correct Answer: (4) 5
View Solution

Question 125:

Observe the following substances. Ethanol, acetic acid, ethylamine, trimethylamine, salicylic acid, ethanal. In the above list, the number of substances with H-bonding is

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 5
  • (4) 2
Correct Answer: (1) 4
View Solution

Question 126:

Consider the following:

Statement-I: If thermal energy is stronger than intermolecular forces, the substance prefers to be in gaseous state.

Statement-II: At constant temperature, the density of an ideal gas is proportional to its pressure.

The correct answer is

  • (1) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct.
  • (2) Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct.
  • (3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
  • (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are not correct.
Correct Answer: (3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
View Solution

Question 127:

At 27\(^{\circ}\)C, 1 L of H\(_2\) with a pressure of 1 bar is mixed with 2 L of O\(_2\) with a pressure of 2 bar in a 10 L flask. What is the pressure exerted by gaseous mixture in bar? (Assume H\(_2\) and O\(_2\) as ideal gases)

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 0.05
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 0.5
Correct Answer: (4) 0.5
View Solution

Question 128:

Two acids A and B are titrated separately. 25 mL of 0.5 M Na\(_2\)CO\(_3\) solution requires 10 mL of A and 40 mL of B for complete neutralisation. The volume (in L) of A and B required to produce 1 L of 1 N acid solution respectively are

  • (1) 0.2, 0.8
  • (2) 0.8, 0.2
  • (3) 0.3, 0.7
  • (4) 0.7, 0.3
Correct Answer: (1) 0.2, 0.8
View Solution

Question 129:

If \(\Delta_r H^{\ominus}\) and \(\Delta_r S^{\ominus}\) are standard enthalpy change and standard entropy change respectively for a reaction, the incorrect option is

  • (1) \(\Delta_r H^{\ominus}\) = negative; \(\Delta_r S^{\ominus}\) = positive; spontaneous at all temperatures
  • (2) \(\Delta_r H^{\ominus}\) = negative; \(\Delta_r S^{\ominus}\) = negative; non-spontaneous at low temperatures
  • (3) \(\Delta_r H^{\ominus}\) = positive; \(\Delta_r S^{\ominus}\) = positive; non-spontaneous at low temperatures
  • (4) \(\Delta_r H^{\ominus}\) = negative; \(\Delta_r S^{\ominus}\) = negative; spontaneous at low temperatures
Correct Answer: (2) \(\Delta_r H^{\ominus}\) = negative; \(\Delta_r S^{\ominus}\) = negative; non-spontaneous at low temperatures (and potentially option 4 - depends on the magnitude of enthalpy and entropy changes and the temperature. See solution below).
View Solution

Question 130:

The C\(_p\) of H\(_2\)O(l) is 75.3 J mol\(^{-1}\) K\(^{-1}\). What is the energy (in J) required to raise 180 g of liquid water from 10\(^{\circ}\)C to 15\(^{\circ}\)C? (H\(_2\)O = 18 u)

  • (1) 3.765
  • (2) 3765
  • (3) 753
  • (4) 376.5
Correct Answer: (2) 3765
View Solution

Question 131:

At T(K), consider the following gaseous reaction, which is in equilibrium: N\(_2\)O\(_5 \rightleftharpoons 2\)NO\(_2 + \frac{1}{2}\)O\(_2\). What is the fraction of N\(_2\)O\(_5\) decomposed at constant volume and temperature, if the initial pressure is 300 mm Hg and pressure at equilibrium is 480 mm Hg? (Assume all gases as ideal)

  • (1) 0.2
  • (2) 0.6
  • (3) 0.4
  • (4) 0.8
Correct Answer: (3) 0.4
View Solution

Question 132:

Observe the following molecules/ions. NH\(_4^+\), NH\(_3\), BF\(_3\), OH\(^-\), CH\(_3^-\), H\(^+\), CO, C\(_2\)H\(_4\). The number of Lewis bases in the above list is

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 5
Correct Answer: (3) 4
View Solution

Question 133:

Observe the following reactions (g = gas):

I. N\(_2\)(g) + 3H\(_2\)(g) \(\xrightarrow[200 atm]{773K, X}\) 2NH\(_3\)(g)

II. CO(g) + H\(_2\)O(g) \(\xrightarrow[673 K]{Y}\) CO\(_2\)(g) + H\(_2\)(g)

III. CH\(_4\)(g) + H\(_2\)O(g) \(\xrightarrow[1270 K]{Z}\) CO(g) + 3H\(_2\)(g)

Catalysts X, Y, Z respectively are

  • (1) Iron, sodium arsenite, cobalt
  • (2) Iron, zinc, cobalt
  • (3) Cobalt, zinc, nickel
  • (4) Iron, iron chromate, nickel
Correct Answer: (4) Iron, iron chromate, nickel
View Solution

Question 134:

Consider the following:

Statement-I: Both BeSO\(_4\) and MgSO\(_4\) are readily soluble in water.

Statement-II: Among the nitrates of alkaline earth metals, only Be(NO\(_3\))\(_2\) on strong heating gives its oxide, NO\(_2\), and O\(_2\).

The correct answer is

  • (1) Both Statement-I and statement-II are correct.
  • (2) Statement-I is correct, but statement-II is not correct.
  • (3) Statement-I is not correct, but statement-II is correct.
  • (4) Both statement-I and statement-II are not correct.
Correct Answer: (2) Statement-I is correct, but statement-II is not correct.
View Solution

Question 135:

Which of the following is not associated with water molecules?

  • (1) cryolite
  • (2) bauxite
  • (3) kernite
  • (4) borax
Correct Answer: (1) cryolite
View Solution

Question 136:

Identify the incorrect statement about silica.

  • (1) It is acidic in nature.
  • (2) It has no reaction with most of acids except HF.
  • (3) With NaOH it forms sodium silicate.
  • (4) Like graphite, it has two dimensional structure.
Correct Answer: (4) Like graphite, it has a two-dimensional structure.
View Solution

Question 137:

Which one of the following statements related to photochemical smog is not correct?

  • (1) It is controlled by the use of catalytic converters in automobiles.
  • (2) It causes corrosion of metals.
  • (3) It is a mixture of SO\(_2\), smoke, and fog.
  • (4) It causes extensive damage to plant life.
Correct Answer: (3) It is a mixture of SO\(_2\), smoke and fog.
View Solution

Question 138:

In compound (X), hyperconjugation is present and in (Y), resonance effect is present. What are X and Y, respectively?

  • (1) Toluene, prop-2-en-1-ol
  • (2) Aniline, 2-propenal
  • (3) Toluene, nitrobenzene
  • (4) 1-Bromopropane, phenol
Correct Answer: (3) Toluene, nitrobenzene
View Solution

Question 139:

An alcohol X(C\(_4\)H\(_{10}\)O) on dehydration gave alkene (C\(_4\)H\(_8\)) as major product, which on bromination followed by treatment with Y gave alkyne C\(_4\)H\(_6\). Alkyne C\(_4\)H\(_6\) does not react with sodium metal. What are X and Y?

 image

  • image
Correct Answer: (2) \chemfig{CH_3-CH_2-CH(-[2]OH)-CH_3}; (i) alc. KOH (ii) NaNH\(_2\)
View Solution

Question 140:

An element occurs in the body-centred cubic structure with an edge length of 288 pm. The density of the element is 7.2 g cm\(^{-3}\). The number of atoms present in 208 g of the element is nearly

  • (1) \(24.2 \times 10^{23}\)
  • (2) \(12.1 \times 10^{23}\)
  • (3) \(24.2 \times 10^{24}\)
  • (4) \(36.3 \times 10^{23}\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(24.2 \times 10^{23}\)
View Solution

Question 141:

An aqueous solution containing 0.2 g of a non-volatile solute 'A' in 21.5 g of water freezes at 272.814 K. If the freezing point of water is 273.16 K, the molar mass (in g mol\(^{-1}\)) of solute A is [K\(_f\)(H\(_2\)O) = 1.86 K kg mol\(^{-1}\)]

  • (1) 80
  • (2) 75
  • (3) 100
  • (4) 50
Correct Answer: (4) 50
View Solution

Question 142:

At T(K), the vapor pressure of x molal aqueous solution containing a non-volatile solute is 12.078 kPa. The vapor pressure of pure water at T(K) is 12.3 kPa. What is the value of x?

  • (1) 10
  • (2) 1.018
  • (3) 0.1018
  • (4) 0.018
Correct Answer: (2) 1.018
View Solution

Question 143:

Consider the following cell reaction: 2Fe\(^{3+}\)(aq) + 2I\(^-\) (aq) \(\rightarrow\) 2Fe\(^{2+}\)(aq) + I\(_2\)(s). At 298 K, the cell emf is 0.237 V. The equilibrium constant for the reaction is 10\(^x\). The value of x is (F = 96500 C mol\(^{-1}\); R = 8.3 J K\(^{-1}\) mol\(^{-1}\))

  • (1) 8
  • (2) 7
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 9
Correct Answer: (2) 7
View Solution

Question 144:

For a first-order reaction, the ratio between the time taken to complete \(\frac{3}{4}\)th of the reaction and time taken to complete half of the reaction is

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 1.5
  • (4) 2.5
Correct Answer: (1) 2
View Solution

Question 145:

What is the indicator used in Argentometric titrations?

  • (1) Starch solution
  • (2) Eosin dye
  • (3) KMnO\(_4\) solution
  • (4) Phenolphthalein
Correct Answer: (2) Eosin dye
View Solution

Question 146:

In a Freundlich adsorption isotherm, if the slope is unity and k is 0.1, the extent of adsorption at 2 atm is (log 2 = 0.30)

  • (1) 0.6
  • (2) 0.4
  • (3) 0.2
  • (4) 0.8
Correct Answer: (3) 0.2
View Solution

Question 147:

Match the following:


List-I (Process)

A. Hall-Heroult process

B. Mond process

C. Van-Arkel process

D. Zone refining process



List-II (Metal)

I. Ti

II. In

III. Al

IV. Ni

  • (1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Correct Answer: (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
View Solution

Question 148:

The number of P=O and P-O-P bonds present in the oxoacid of phosphorus, prepared by treating red P\(_4\) with alkali, are respectively

  • (2) 1, 1
  • (3) 1, 2
  • (4) 2, 2
Correct Answer: (1) 2, 1
View Solution

Question 149:

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

  • (1) CrO is basic but Cr\(_2\)O\(_3\) is amphoteric.
  • (2) Nitrite is oxidized to nitrate in acidic medium by KMnO\(_4\).
  • (3) PdCl\(_2\) is the catalyst in Wacker process.
  • (4) The reactivity of the earlier members of lanthanide series is similar to that of aluminum.
Correct Answer: (1) CrO is basic but Cr\(_2\)O\(_3\) is amphoteric.
View Solution

Question 150:

The co-ordination number of chromium in K[Cr(H\(_2\)O)\(_2\)(C\(_2\)O\(_4\))\(_2\)] is

  • (1) 5
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 3
Correct Answer: (3) 6
View Solution

Question 151:

Consider the following:

Statement-I: Nylon 6 is a condensation copolymer.

Statement-II: Nylon 6,6 is a condensation polymer of adipic acid and tetramethylene diamine.

The correct answer is

  • (1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.
  • (2) Statement-I is correct, but statement-II is not correct.
  • (3) Statement-I is not correct, but statement-II is correct.
  • (4) Both statement-I and statement-II are not correct.
Correct Answer: (3) Statement-I is not correct, but statement-II is correct.
View Solution

Question 152:

Match the following:

List-I (Glycosidic linkage)
A. \(\alpha\)-1,4
B. \(\beta\)-1,4
C. \(\alpha\)-1,4, \(\alpha\)-1,6

List-II (Polysaccharide)
I. Amylose
II. Amylopectin
III. Cellulose

  • (1) A-II, B-I, C-III
  • (2) A-III, B-I, C-II
  • (3) A-I, B-II, C-III
  • (4) A-I, B-III, C-II
Correct Answer: (4) A-I, B-III, C-II
View Solution

Question 153:

The list given below contains essential amino acids that are basic (X) and also non-essential amino acids that are neutral (Y). X and Y, respectively are

a) Lysine

b) Alanine

c) Serine

d) Arginine

e) Tyrosine

  • (1) X = b, c, e; Y = a, d
  • (2) X = a, d; Y = b, c, e
  • (3) X = a, c; Y = b, d, e
  • (4) X = a, b, c; Y = d, e
Correct Answer: (2) X = a, d; Y = b, c, e
View Solution

Question 154:

The artificial sweetener X contains glycosidic linkage and Y contains amide and ester linkages. X and Y respectively are

  • (1) Sucralose, Alitame
  • (2) Sucralose, Aspartame
  • (3) Saccharin, Alitame
  • (4) Saccharin, Aspartame
Correct Answer: (2) Sucralose, Aspartame
View Solution

Question 155:

Which one of the following halogen compounds is least reactive towards hydrolysis by the S\(_N\)1 mechanism?

  • (1) Tertiary butyl chloride
  • (2) Isopropyl chloride
  • (3) Allyl chloride
  • (4) Ethyl chloride
Correct Answer: (4) Ethyl chloride
View Solution

Question 156:

Which one of the following halogen compounds is least reactive towards hydrolysis by S\(_N\)1 mechanism?

  • (2) Isopropyl chloride
  • (3) Allyl chloride
  • (4) Ethyl chloride
Correct Answer: (4) Ethyl chloride
View Solution

Question 157:

p-Chlorotoluene is the major product in which of the following reactions?

  • (2) I, II only
  • (3) II, III only
  • (4) I, II, III
Correct Answer: (3) II, III only
View Solution

Question 158:

Arrange the following in decreasing order of electrophilicity of carbonyl carbon.

  • (1) IV > I > III > II
  • (2) IV > I > II > III
  • (3) I > IV > III > II
  • (4) I > II > IV > III
Correct Answer: (1) IV > I > III > II
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Question 159:

What is the ratio of sp\(^3\) carbons to sp\(^2\) carbons in the product 'P' of the given sequence of reactions?

  • (2) 2 : 1
  • (3) 1 : 2
  • (4) 1 : 3
Correct Answer: (4) 1 : 3
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Question 160:

The final product (C) in the given reaction sequence is

  • (2) Diphenyl methane
  • (3) Diphenylmethanol
  • (4) Benzoic acid
Correct Answer: (2) Diphenyl methane
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Question 161:

What are X and Y in the following reaction sequence?

  • (2) KCN; C\(_6\)H\(_5\)C(OH)(CH\(_3\))\(_2\)
  • (3) CuCN | KCN; C\(_6\)H\(_5\)CH(OH)CH\(_3\)
  • (4) CuCN | KCN; C\(_6\)H\(_5\)COCH\(_3\)
Correct Answer: (4) CuCN | KCN; C\(_6\)H\(_5\)COCH\(_3\)
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AP EAPCET 2025 MPC Difficulty Level

AP EAPCET 2025 in the MPC (Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry) stream is being held from May 21 to May 27 in various shifts.

The AP EAPCET 2025 Exam is expected to be of a moderate difficulty level with some changes from the previous years.

Subject No. of Questions Expected Difficulty Level Key Expectations
Mathematics 80 Moderate to Difficult It is expected to be lengthy and have time-consuming calculations.
Physics 40 Moderate It is expected that there will be application-based and conceptual questions
Chemistry 40 Easy to Moderate Mostly direct questions, NCERT-based, with factual/formula questions will be there

AP EAPCET 2025 MPC Important Topics

The AP EAPCET 2025 for the Engineering stream (MPC) will have 160 MCQs from Mathematics, Physics, and Chemistry, with a major focus on certain high-weightage topics, which can enhance the performance.

Most Important Topics for AP EAPCET 2025 Engineering are:

Subject Important Topics Weightage (Approx.)
Mathematics
  • Calculus
  • Algebra
  • Vectors
  • 3D Geometry
  • Trigonometry
High (40–50 questions)
Physics
  • Laws of Motion
  • Thermodynamics
  • Current Electricity
  • Waves
  • Ray Optics
Moderate (15–20 questions)
Chemistry
  • Organic Chemistry (Hydrocarbons, Polymers)
  • Physical Chemistry (Thermodynamics, Equilibrium)
  • Inorganic Chemistry (Coordination Compounds)
Moderate (15–20 questions)

Fees Structure

Structure based on different categories

CategoriesState
General600
sc500

Note: Candidate who want to appear for both the streams have to pay INR 700/-

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