AP EAPCET (AP EAMCET) 2025 Question Paper May 23 Shift 2: Download Solutions with Answer Key

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Shivam Yadav

Updated 3+ months ago

The JNTU was conducted the AP EAPCET 2025 Engineering Exam on May 23rd, Shift 2 Exam from 2.00 P.M. to 5.00 P.M. in a CBT Mode and at more than 117 examination centres.

The AP EAPCET 2025 Question paper consists of 160 MCQs, including 80 from mathematics, 40 from both physics and chemistry, with 1 mark for each correct answer and no negative marking.

AP EAPCET 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF May 23 Shift 2

AP EAPCET 2025 May 23 Shift 2 Question Paper with Answer Key Download Check Solution
AP EAPCET 2025 Question Paper May 23 Shift 2 Download MPC Question Paper With Answer Key PDF
Question 1:

Let \( [t] \) denote the greatest integer function and \( [t - m] = [t] - m \) when \( m \in \mathbb{Z} \). If \( k = 2[2x - 1] - 1 \) and \( 3[2x - 2] + 1 = 2[2x - 1] - 1 \), then the range of \( f(x) = [k + 5x] \) is:

  • (1) \(\{7, 8, 9\}\)
  • (2) \(\{4, 5, 6\}\)
  • (3) \(\{5, 6, 7\}\)
  • (4) \(\{6, 7, 8\}\)
Correct Answer: (4) \(\{6, 7, 8\}\)
View Solution

Question 2:

If \( f(x) = (x+1)^2 - 1, x \ge -1 \), then \( \{x \mid f(x) = f^{-1}(x)\} \) is:

1. \( \{0, -1\} \) \\
2. \( \{-1, 0, 1\} \) \\
3. \( \left\{-1, 0, \frac{-3+\sqrt{3}i}{2}, \frac{-3-\sqrt{3}i}{2}\right\} \) \\
4. an empty set

Correct Answer: (1) \( \{0, -1\} \)
View Solution

Question 3:

If \( 11^{12} - 11^2 = k(5 \times 10^9 + 6 \times 10^9 + 33 \times 10^8 + 110 \times 10^7 + \ldots + 33) \), then find the value of \( k \).

  • (1) 20
  • (2) 50
  • (3) 100
  • (4) 200
Correct Answer: (4) 200
View Solution

Question 4:

If \( P = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & \alpha & 3
1 & 3 & 3
2 & 4 & 4 \end{bmatrix} \) is the adjoint of a matrix \( A \) and \( \det(A) = 4 \), then the value of \( \alpha \) is:

  • (1) \(3\)
  • (2) \(22\)
  • (3) \(11\)
  • (4) \(4\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(11\)
View Solution

Question 5:

If \( \alpha \) is a real root of the equation \( x^3 + 6x^2 + 5x - 42 = 0 \), then the determinant of the matrix
\[ \begin{bmatrix} \alpha - 1 & \alpha + 1 & \alpha + 2
\alpha - 2 & \alpha + 3 & \alpha - 3
\alpha + 4 & \alpha - 4 & \alpha + 5 \end{bmatrix} \]

is

 

  • (1) 90
  • (2) 120
  • (3) -105
  • (4) -135
Correct Answer: (2) 120
View Solution

Question 6:

The rank of the matrix \( \begin{bmatrix} 2 & -3 & 4 & 0
5 & -4 & 2 & 1
1 & -3 & 5 & -4 \end{bmatrix} \) is

  • (1) \(0 \)
  • (2) \(3 \)
  • (3) \(2 \)
  • (4) \(1 \)
Correct Answer: (2) \(3 \)
View Solution

Question 7:

If \( z \) is a complex number such that \( \frac{z-1}{z-i} \) is purely imaginary and the locus of \( z \) represents a circle with center \( (\alpha, \beta) \) and radius \( r \), then the value of \( \frac{\alpha}{\beta} + \frac{\beta}{\alpha} \) is:

  • (1) \(4r\)
  • (2) \(r^2\)
  • (3) \(2r^2\)
  • (4) \(4r^2\)
Correct Answer: (4) \(4r^2\)
View Solution

Question 8:

If the least positive integer n satisfying the equation \(\left(\frac{\sqrt{3}+i}{\sqrt{3}-i}\right)^n = -1\) is p and the least positive integer m satisfying the equation \(\left(\frac{1-\sqrt{3}i}{1+\sqrt{3}i}\right)^m = cis\left(\frac{2\pi}{3}\right)\) is q, then \(\sqrt{p^2 + q^2}\) is equal to:

  • (1) \(5\)
  • (2) \(10\)
  • (3) \( \sqrt{13} \)
  • (4) \( \sqrt{17} \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( \sqrt{13} \)
View Solution

Question 9:

The sum of the squares of the imaginary roots of the equation \( z^8 - 20z^4 + 64 = 0 \) is:

  • (1) \(0\)
  • (2) \(-12\)
  • (3) \(-4\)
  • (4) \(-16\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(-12\)
View Solution

Question 10:

Let \((a-3)x^2 + 12x + (a+6) > 0, \forall x \in R and a \in (t, \infty)\). If \(\alpha\) is the least positive integral value of \(a\), then the roots of \((\alpha-3)x^2 + 12x + (\alpha+2) = 0\) are:

  • (1) \(1, 2 \)
  • (2) \(2, 3 \)
  • (3) \(-1, -2 \)
  • (4) \(-2, -3 \)
Correct Answer: (3) \(-1, -2 \)
View Solution

Question 11:

If the roots of the equation \(x^2 + 2ax + b = 0\) are real, distinct and differ utmost by \(2m\), then b lies in the interval

  • (1) \((a^2, a^2 + m^2]\)
  • (2) \((a^2 + m^2, a^2)\)
  • (3) \([a^2, a^2 + 2m^2]\)
  • (4) \([a^2 - m^2, a^2)\)
Correct Answer: (4) \([a^2 - m^2, a^2)\)
View Solution

Question 12:

The cubic equation whose roots are the squares of the roots of the equation \( x^3 - 2x^2 + 3x - 4 = 0 \) is

  • (1) \( x^3 + 2x^2 + 7x - 16 = 0 \)
  • (2) \( x^3 + 2x^2 - 7x - 16 = 0 \)
  • (3) \( x^3 - 2x^2 - 7x + 16 = 0 \)
  • (4) \( x^3 - 2x^2 + 7x + 16 = 0 \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( x^3 + 2x^2 - 7x - 16 = 0 \)
View Solution

Question 13:

If \( \alpha, \beta, \gamma \) are the roots of the equation \( x^3 + px^2 + qx + r = 0 \), then \( \alpha^3 + \beta^3 + \gamma^3 = \)

  • (1) \(p^3 - 3pq + r\)
  • (2) \(p^2 - 2pq + r\)
  • (3) \(3pq - 3r - p^3\)
  • (4) \(3pq + 3r + p^3\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(3pq - 3r - p^3\)
View Solution

Question 14:

If all possible 4-digit numbers are formed by choosing 4 different digits from the given digits \( 1, 2, 3, 5, 8 \), then the sum of all such 4-digit numbers is:

  • (1) \(199980\)
  • (2) \(999990\)
  • (3) \(506616\)
  • (4) \(479952\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(506616\)
View Solution

Question 15:

The number of ways of forming the ordered pairs (p, q) such that p > q by choosing p and q from the first 50 natural numbers is:

  • (1) \(1275 \)
  • (2) \(1250 \)
  • (3) \(1225 \)
  • (4) \(1200 \)
Correct Answer: (3) \(1225 \)
View Solution

Question 16:

The number of ways in which a committee of 7 members can be formed from 6 teachers, 5 fathers and 4 students in such a way that at least one from each group is included and teachers form the majority among them, is:

  • (1) \(1865 \)
  • (2) \(2370 \)
  • (3) \(3050 \)
  • (4) \(4380 \)
Correct Answer: (2) \(2370 \)
View Solution

Question 17:

If \(C_0, C_1, C_2, \dots, C_n\) are the binomial coefficients in the expansion of \((1 + x)^n\), then \((C_0 + C_1) - (C_2 + C_3) + (C_4 + C_5) - (C_6 + C_7) + \dots = \)

  • (1) \(2^{n/2} \left(\cos\left(\frac{n\pi}{4}\right) + i\sin\left(\frac{n\pi}{4}\right)\right)\)
  • (2) \(2^{n/2} \left(\cos\left(\frac{n\pi}{3}\right) + \sin\left(\frac{n\pi}{3}\right)\right)\)
  • (3) \(2^{n/2} \left(\cos\left(\frac{n\pi}{3}\right) + i\sin\left(\frac{n\pi}{3}\right)\right)\)
  • (4) \(2^{n/2} \left(\cos\left(\frac{n\pi}{4}\right) + \sin\left(\frac{n\pi}{4}\right)\right)\)
Correct Answer: (4) \(2^{n/2} \left(\cos\left(\frac{n\pi}{4}\right) + \sin\left(\frac{n\pi}{4}\right)\right)\)
View Solution

Question 18:

\( 1 + \frac{4}{15} + \frac{4 \cdot 10}{15 \cdot 30} + \frac{4 \cdot 10 \cdot 16}{15 \cdot 30 \cdot 45} + \cdots \infty \)

  • (1) \( \left( \frac{3}{5} \right)^{2/3} \)
  • (2) \( \left( \frac{5}{3} \right)^{2/3} \)
  • (3) \( \left( \frac{3}{5} \right)^{3/2} \)
  • (4) \( \left( \frac{5}{3} \right)^{3/2} \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( \left( \frac{5}{3} \right)^{2/3} \)
View Solution

Question 19:

If \( \frac{3x+1}{(x-1)(x^2+2)} = \frac{A}{x-1} + \frac{Bx+C}{x^2+2} \), then \( 5(A-B) = \)

  • (1) \( A + C \)
  • (2) \( 8C \)
  • (3) \( C + 8 \)
  • (4) \( \frac{C}{8} \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( 8C \)
View Solution

Question 20:

\(cosec 48^\circ + cosec 96^\circ + cosec 192^\circ + cosec 384^\circ =\)

Options :

  • (1) \(4\sqrt{3}\)
  • (2) \(-4\sqrt{3}\)
  • (3) \(0\)
  • (4) \(1\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(0\)
View Solution

Question 21:

If \( \sqrt{3}\cos\theta + \sin\theta > 0 \), then the range of \( \theta \) is:

  • (1) \( -\frac{\pi}{2} < \theta < \frac{\pi}{2} \)
  • (2) \( -\frac{\pi}{3} < \theta < \frac{2\pi}{3} \)
  • (3) \( -\frac{2\pi}{3} < \theta < \frac{\pi}{3} \)
  • (4) \( -\frac{\pi}{6} < \theta < \frac{5\pi}{6} \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( -\frac{\pi}{3} < \theta < \frac{2\pi}{3} \)
View Solution

Question 22:

If \(\cos\theta = -\frac{3}{5}\) and \(\theta\) does not lie in second quadrant, then \(\tan\frac{\theta}{2} =\)

  • (1) \(2 \)
  • (2) \(1 \)
  • (3) \(-2 \)
  • (4) \(-1 \)
Correct Answer: (3) \(-2 \)
View Solution

Question 23:

The general solution satisfying both the equations \(\sin x = -\frac{3}{5}\) and \(\cos x = -\frac{4}{5}\) is:

  • (1) \(x = (2n+1)\pi + \operatorname{Tan}^{-1}\left(\frac{3}{4}\right), n \in Z \)
  • (2) \(x = 2n\pi + \operatorname{Tan}^{-1}\left(\frac{3}{4}\right), n \in Z \)
  • (3) \(x = n\pi + \operatorname{Tan}^{-1}\left(\frac{3}{4}\right), n \in Z \)
  • (4) \(x = n\pi \pm \operatorname{Tan}^{-1}\left(\frac{3}{4}\right), n \in Z \)
Correct Answer: (1) \(x = (2n+1)\pi + \operatorname{Tan}^{-1}\left(\frac{3}{4}\right), n \in Z \)
View Solution

Question 24:

The number of solutions of \( \tan^{-1} 1 + \frac{1}{2} \cos^{-1} x^2 - \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{\sqrt{1+x^2} + \sqrt{1-x^2}}{\sqrt{1+x^2} - \sqrt{1-x^2}}\right) = 0 \) is

  • (1) \( 3 \)
  • (2) \( 0 \)
  • (3) \( 1 \)
  • (4) infinitely many ( \(\infty\) )
Correct Answer: (4) infinitely many ( \(\infty\) )
View Solution

Question 25:

\(\operatorname{Tanh}^{-1}(\sin\theta) =\)

  • (1) \(\operatorname{Sinh}^{-1}(\operatorname{cosec}\theta) \)
  • (2) \(\operatorname{Sinh}^{-1}(\sec\theta) \)
  • (3) \(\operatorname{Cosh}^{-1}(\operatorname{cosec}\theta) \)
  • (4) \(\operatorname{Cosh}^{-1}(\sec\theta) \)
Correct Answer: (4) \(\operatorname{Cosh}^{-1}(\sec\theta) \)
View Solution

Question 26:

In \( \triangle ABC \), if \( a = 8 \), \( b = 10 \), \( c = 12 \), then \( \frac{r}{R} = \)

  • (1) \( \frac{8}{15} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{7}{16} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{3}{5} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{5}{8} \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( \frac{7}{16} \)
View Solution

Question 27:

In triangle \( ABC \), if \( a = 13 \), \( b = 8 \), \( c = 7 \), then \( \cos(B+C) = \)

  • (1) \( \frac{11}{13} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{23}{26} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{3}{4} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
View Solution

Question 28:

In a triangle ABC, if \((r_1 - r_3)(r_1 - r_2) - 2r_2r_3 = 0\), then \(a^2 - b^2 =\)

  • (1) \(c^2 + b^2/4 \)
  • (2) \(c^2 \)
  • (3) \(abc \)
  • (4) \((b+a)/c \)
Correct Answer: (2) \(c^2 \)
View Solution

Question 29:

If the median AD of the triangle ABC is bisected at E and BE meets AC in F, then AF : AC =

  • (1) \(1 : 4 \)
  • (2) \(1 : 3 \)
  • (3) \(1 : 2 \)
  • (4) \(3 : 4 \)
Correct Answer: (2) \(1 : 3 \)
View Solution

Question 30:

If \( \overline{a} = 2\overline{i} - 3\overline{j} + 5\overline{k} \) and \( \overline{b} = -\overline{i} + 3\overline{j} + 3\overline{k} \) are two vectors, then the vector of magnitude 28 units in the direction of the vector \( \overline{a} - \overline{b} \) is:

  • (1) \( 3\overline{i} + 6\overline{j} - 2\overline{k} \)
  • (2) \( 12\overline{i} - 24\overline{j} + 8\overline{k} \)
  • (3) \( 3\overline{i} - 6\overline{j} - 2\overline{k} \)
  • (4) \( 12\overline{i} + 24\overline{j} - 8\overline{k} \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( 12\overline{i} - 24\overline{j} + 8\overline{k} \)
View Solution

Question 31:

If \( \overline{a} \) is a unit vector, then \( |\overline{a} \times \overline{i}|^2 + |\overline{a} \times \overline{j}|^2 + |\overline{a} \times \overline{k}|^2 = \)

  • (1) \( 4 \)
  • (2) \( 1 \)
  • (3) \( 0 \)
  • (4) \( 2 \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( 2 \)
View Solution

Question 32:

If \( \overline{a} = \overline{i} - 2\overline{j} - 3\overline{k} \), \( \overline{b} = -2\overline{i} + 3\overline{j} + 4\overline{k} \), \( \overline{c} = 5\overline{i} - 4\overline{j} + 3\overline{k} \), and \( \overline{d} = 3\overline{i} + \overline{j} + 5\overline{k} \) are four vectors, then \( (\overline{a} \times \overline{b}) \cdot (\overline{c} \times \overline{d}) = \)

  • (1) \( 18\overline{i} + 6\overline{j} + 30\overline{k} \)
  • (2) \( 8\overline{i} - 3\overline{j} + 8\overline{k} \)
  • (3) \( 19\overline{i} - 5\overline{j} + 21\overline{k} \)
  • (4) \( 27\overline{i} - 8\overline{j} + 29\overline{k} \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( 18\overline{i} + 6\overline{j} + 30\overline{k} \)
View Solution

Question 33:

If \( 3\overline{i} + \overline{j} + \overline{k} \), \( 2\overline{i} + \overline{k} \), and \( \overline{i} + 5\overline{j} \) are the position vectors of three non-collinear points A, B, C respectively. If the perpendicular drawn from C onto \( \overline{AB} \) meets \( \overline{AB} \) at the point \( a\overline{i} + b\overline{j} + c\overline{k} \), then \( a + b + c = \)

  • (1) \( 5 \)
  • (2) \( 3 \)
  • (3) \( 7 \)
  • (4) \( 9 \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( 7 \)
View Solution

Question 34:

Let \(x_1, x_2, \ldots, x_{11}\) be the observations satisfying \(\sum_{i=1}^{11} (x_i - 4) = 22\) and \(\sum_{i=1}^{11} (x_i - 4)^2 = 154\). If the mean and variance of the observations are \(\alpha\) and \(\beta\), then the quadratic equation having the roots \(\frac{\alpha}{\beta}\) and \(\frac{\beta}{\alpha}\) is:

  • (1) \(15x^2 - 16x + 15 = 0 \)
  • (2) \(15x^2 - 34x + 15 = 0 \)
  • (3) \(x^2 - 16x + 60 = 0 \)
  • (4) \(12x^2 - 25x + 20 = 0 \)
Correct Answer: (2) \(15x^2 - 34x + 15 = 0 \)
View Solution

Question 35:

There are 8 boys and 7 girls in a class room. If the names of all those children are written on paper slips and 3 slips are drawn at random from them, then the probability of getting the names of one boy and two girls or one girl and two boys is

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{4}{5}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(\frac{4}{5}\)
View Solution

Question 36:

A four member committee is to be formed from a group containing 9 men and 5 women. If a committee is formed randomly, then the probability that it contains atleast one woman is

  • (1) \(\frac{125}{143} \)
  • (2) \(\frac{18}{143} \)
  • (3) \(\frac{60}{143} \)
  • (4) \(\frac{65}{143} \)
Correct Answer: (1) \(\frac{125}{143} \)
View Solution

Question 37:

A die is thrown twice. Let A be the event of getting a prime number when the die is thrown first time and B be the event of getting an even number when the die is thrown second time. Then \(P(A/B) =\)

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{2} \)
  • (2) \(\frac{2}{3} \)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{5} \)
  • (4) \(\frac{3}{5} \)
Correct Answer: (1) \(\frac{1}{2} \)
View Solution

Question 38:

A bag contains 5 balls of unknown colors. There are equal chances that out of these five balls, there may be 0 or 1 or 2 or 3 or 4 or 5 red balls. A ball is taken out from the bag at random and is found to be red. The probability that it is the only red ball in the bag is:

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{5} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{6} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{15} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{30} \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( \frac{1}{15} \)
View Solution

Question 39:

If \( X \sim B(9, p) \) is a binomial variate satisfying the equation \( P(X = 3) = P(X = 6) \), then \( P(X < 3) = \)

  • (1) \( \frac{23}{256} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{65}{256} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{5}{256} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{45}{512} \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \frac{23}{256} \)
View Solution

Question 40:

The mean and variance of a binomial distribution are \(x\) and \(5\) respectively. If \(x\) is an integer, then the possible values for \(x\) are

  • (1) \(6, 10, 30 \)
  • (2) \(8, 12, 28 \)
  • (3) \(10, 15, 25 \)
  • (4) \(9, 18, 24 \)
Correct Answer: (1) \(6, 10, 30 \)
View Solution

Question 41:

If the locus of a point which is equidistant from the coordinate axes forms a triangle with the line \(y = 3\), then the area of the triangle is

  • (1) \(18 \)
  • (2) \(9 \)
  • (3) \(6 \)
  • (4) \(3 \)
Correct Answer: (2) \(9 \)
View Solution

Question 42:

After the coordinate axes are rotated through an angle \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) in the anti clockwise direction without shifting the origin, if the equation \(x^2 + y^2 - 2x - 4y - 20 = 0\) transforms to \(ax^2 + 2hxy + by^2 + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0\) in the new coordinate system, then \(\begin{vmatrix} a & h & g
h & b & f
g & f & c \end{vmatrix} =\)

  • (1) \(-20\)
  • (2) \(-25\)
  • (3) \(-30\)
  • (4) \(-35\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(-25\)
View Solution

Question 43:

A\((-2, 3)\) is a point on the line \(4x + 3y - 1 = 0\). If the points on the line that are 10 units away from the point A are \((x_1, y_1)\) and \((x_2, y_2)\), then \((x_1 + y_1)^2 + (x_2 + y_2)^2 =\ ?\)

  • (1) \( 10 \)
  • (2) \( 90 \)
  • (3) \( 180 \)
  • (4) \( 405 \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( 90 \)
View Solution

Question 44:

If \(\alpha\) is the angle made by the perpendicular drawn from origin to the line \(12x - 5y + 13 = 0\) with the positive X-axis in anti-clockwise direction, then \(\alpha =\)

  • (1) \(\operatorname{Tan}^{-1} \frac{5}{12} \)
  • (2) \(2\pi - \operatorname{Tan}^{-1} \frac{5}{12} \)
  • (3) \(\pi - \operatorname{Tan}^{-1} \frac{5}{12} \)
  • (4) \(\pi + \operatorname{Tan}^{-1} \frac{5}{12} \)
Correct Answer: (3) \(\pi - \operatorname{Tan}^{-1} \frac{5}{12} \)
View Solution

Question 45:

If the equation of the pair of lines passing through (1, 1) and perpendicular to the pair of lines \(2x^2 + xy - y^2 - x + 2y - 1 = 0\) is \(ax^2 + 2hxy + by^2 + 2gx + 3y = 0\). then \(\frac{b}{a} =\)

  • (1) \(g/h\)
  • (2) \(2(g+h)\)
  • (3) \(2(g-h)\)
  • (4) \(gh\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(2(g+h)\)
View Solution

Question 46:

If the combined equation of the lines joining the origin to the points of intersection of the curve \( x^2 + y^2 - 2x - 4y + 2 = 0 \) and the line \( x + y - 2 = 0 \) is \( (l_1x + m_1y)(l_2x + m_2y) = 0 \), then \( l_1 + l_2 + m_1 + m_2 = \)

  • (1) \( 16 \)
  • (2) \( -6 \)
  • (3) \( -2 \)
  • (4) \( 10 \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( -2 \)
View Solution

Question 47:

The slope of one of the direct common tangents drawn to the circles \(x^2 + y^2 - 2x + 4y + 1 = 0\) and \(x^2 + y^2 - 4x - 2y + 4 = 0\) is

  • (1) \(0 \)
  • (2) \(\frac{4}{3} \)
  • (3) \(\frac{3}{4} \)
  • (4) \(1 \)
Correct Answer: (2) \(\frac{4}{3} \)
View Solution

Question 48:

If (1, a), (b, 2) are conjugate points with respect to the circle \(x^2 + y^2 = 25\), then \(4a + 2b =\)

  • (1) \(25\)
  • (2) \(50\)
  • (3) \(100\)
  • (4) \(150\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(50\)
View Solution

Question 49:

If the pole of the line \(x + 2by - 5 = 0\) with respect to the circle \(S = x^2 + y^2 - 4x - 6y + 4 = 0\) lies on the line \(x + by + 1 = 0\), then the polar of the point \((b, -b)\) with respect to the circle \(S = 0\) is

  • (1) \(5y - 6 = 0\)
  • (2) \(y - 6 = 0\)
  • (3) \(x + 5y - 6 = 0\)
  • (4) \(5x + y - 6 = 0\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(5y - 6 = 0\)
View Solution

Question 50:

If P(\(\alpha, \beta\)) is the radical centre of the circles \(S=x^2+y^2+4x+7=0\), \(S'=2x^2+2y^2+3x+5y+9=0\) and \(S''=x^2+y^2+y=0\), then the length of the tangent drawn from P to S' = 0 is

  • (1) \(5\)
  • (2) \(8\)
  • (3) \(4\)
  • (4) \(2\)
Correct Answer: (4) \(2\)
View Solution

Question 51:

If the tangents of the parabola \( y^2 = 8x \) passing through the point \( P(1, 3) \) touch the parabola at points \( A \) and \( B \), then the area (in sq. units) of \( \triangle ABC \) is

  • (1) \( 1 \)
  • (2) \( \frac{3}{4} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{4} \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( \frac{1}{4} \)
View Solution

Question 52:

The equation of the normal drawn at the point \((\sqrt{2}+1, -1)\) to the ellipse \(x^2 + 2y^2 - 2x + 8y + 5 = 0\) is

  • (1) \(x+y=\sqrt{2} \)
  • (2) \(x-2y=3+\sqrt{2} \)
  • (3) \(\sqrt{2}x-y=3+\sqrt{2} \)
  • (4) \(2x+y=2\sqrt{2}+1 \)
Correct Answer: (3) \(\sqrt{2}x-y=3+\sqrt{2} \)
View Solution

Question 53:

If \(3x+2\sqrt{2}y+k=0\) is a normal to the hyperbola \(4x^2-9y^2-36=0\) making positive intercepts on both the axes, then \(k=\)

Options :

  • (1) \(13\sqrt{2}\)
  • (2) \(-5\sqrt{2}\)
  • (3) \(-2\sqrt{2}\)
  • (4) \(-13\sqrt{2}\)
Correct Answer: (4) \(-13\sqrt{2}\)
View Solution

Question 54:

If a hyperbola has asymptotes \(3x-4y-1=0\) and \(4x-3y-6=0\), then the transverse and conjugate axes of that hyperbola are

  • (1) \(x+y-5=0, x-y-1=0\)
  • (2) \(4x-3y=0, 3x+4y=0\)
  • (3) \(3x-4y=0, 4x+3y=0\)
  • (4) \(x+2y-1=0, 2x-y+1=0\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(x+y-5=0, x-y-1=0\)
View Solution

Question 55:

If \( A(0, 1, 2) \), \( B(2, -1, 3) \), and \( C(1, -3, 1) \) are the vertices of a triangle, then the distance between its circumcentre and orthocentre is

  • (1) \( \frac{3}{\sqrt{2}} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{3}{2} \)
  • (3) \( 3 \)
  • (4) \( \frac{9}{2} \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \frac{3}{\sqrt{2}} \)
View Solution

Question 56:

If the direction cosines of two lines satisfy the equations \( l - 2m + n = 0 \) and \( lm + 10mn - 2nl = 0 \), and \( \theta \) is the angle between the lines, then \( \cos \theta = \)

  • (1) \( \frac{\pi}{6} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{8}{\sqrt{70}} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\pi}{3} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{20}{3\sqrt{70}} \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( \frac{8}{\sqrt{70}} \)
View Solution

Question 57:

If \((2, -1, 3)\) is the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the origin \((0, 0, 0)\) to a plane then the equation of that plane is

  • (1) \(2x + y - 3z + 6 = 0 \)
  • (2) \(2x - y + 3z - 14 = 0 \)
  • (3) \(2x - y + 3z - 13 = 0 \)
  • (4) \(2x + y + 3z - 10 = 0 \)
Correct Answer: (2) \(2x - y + 3z - 14 = 0 \)
View Solution

Question 58:

Evaluate the limit: \(\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{x^2 \sin^2(3x) + \sin^4(6x)}{(1 - \cos 3x)^2}\)

  • (1) \(\frac{580}{9}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{145}{3}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{580}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{145}{9}\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(\frac{580}{9}\)
View Solution

Question 59:

If a real valued function \(f(x) = \begin{cases} (1 + \sin x)^{\operatorname{cosec} x} & , -\pi/2 < x < 0
a & , x = 0
\frac{e^{2/x} + e^{3/x}}{ae^{2/x} + be^{3/x}} & , 0 < x < \pi/2 \end{cases}\) is continuous at \(x = 0\), then \(ab =\)

  • (1) \(e \)
  • (2) \(e^2 \)
  • (3) \(1 \)
  • (4) \(-1 \)
Correct Answer: (3) \(1 \)
View Solution

Question 60:

Evaluate the limit: \(\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{(\operatorname{cosec} x - \cot x)(e^x - e^{-x})}{\sqrt{3} - \sqrt{{2} + \cos x}}\)

  • (1) \(3\sqrt{2}\)
  • (2) \(2\sqrt{3}\)
  • (3) \(3\sqrt{3}\)
  • (4) \(4\sqrt{3}\)
Correct Answer: (4) \(4\sqrt{3}\)
View Solution

Question 61:

If \(y = \sqrt{\cosh x + \sqrt{\cosh x}}\), then \(\frac{dy}{dx} =\)

  • (1) \(\frac{\sinh x (2y^2 + 2\cosh x + 1)}{4y(y^2 + \cosh x)} \)
  • (2) \(\frac{\sinh x (2y^2 - 2\cosh x - 1)}{4y(y^2 - \cosh x)} \)
  • (3) \(\frac{\sinh x(1-2\sqrt{\cosh x})}{4y\sqrt{\cosh x}} \)
  • (4) \(\frac{\sinh x(1+2\sqrt{\cosh x})}{4y\sqrt{\cosh x}} \)
Correct Answer: (4) \(\frac{\sinh x(1+2\sqrt{\cosh x})}{4y\sqrt{\cosh x}} \)
View Solution

Question 62:

If \( y = \tan^{-1}\sqrt{x^2 - 1} + \sinh^{-1}\sqrt{x^2 - 1} \), \( x > 1 \), then \( \frac{dy}{dx} = \)

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{x\sqrt{x^2 - 1}} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{x+1}{x\sqrt{x^2 - 1}} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{x+1}{x^2\sqrt{x^2 - 1}} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{x}{\sqrt{x^2 - 1}} \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( \frac{x+1}{x\sqrt{x^2 - 1}} \)
View Solution

Question 63:

If \( y = (\log x)^{1/x} + x^{\log x} \), then at \( x = e \), \( \frac{dy}{dx} \) equals:

  • (1) \( 2 + \frac{1}{e} \)
  • (2) \( e^2 + \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{e^2} + 2 \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{2e} + 2 \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( \frac{1}{e^2} + 2 \)
View Solution

Question 64:

The interval in which the function \( f(x) = \tan^{-1}(\sin x + \cos x) \) is an increasing function, is:

  • (1) \( \left(0, \frac{\pi}{2}\right) \)
  • (2) \( \left(-\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2}\right) \)
  • (3) \( \left(-\frac{3\pi}{4}, \frac{\pi}{4} \right) \)
  • (4) \( \left(\frac{\pi}{4}, \frac{\pi}{2} \right) \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( \left(-\frac{3\pi}{4}, \frac{\pi}{4} \right) \)
View Solution

Question 65:

The slope of a tangent drawn at the point \( P(\alpha, \beta) \) lying on the curve \( y = \frac{1}{2x - 5} \) is \(-2\). If \( P \) lies in the fourth quadrant, then \( \alpha - \beta = \)

  • (1) \( 4 \)
  • (2) \( 3 \)
  • (3) \( 2 \)
  • (4) \( 1 \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( 3 \)
View Solution

Question 66:

The function \(f(x) = xe^{-x} \forall x \in \mathbb{R}\) attains a maximum value at \(x = k\), then \(k =\)

  • (1) \(1 \)
  • (2) \(2 \)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{e} \)
  • (4) \(3 \)
Correct Answer: (1) \(1 \)
View Solution

Question 67:

If \( m \) and \( M \) are the absolute minimum and absolute maximum values of the function \( f(x) = 2\sqrt{2} \sin x - \tan x \) in the interval \( \left[0, \frac{\pi}{3} \right] \), then \( m + M = \)

  • (1) \( -1 \)
  • (2) \( 0 \)
  • (3) \( 1 \)
  • (4) \( 2 \)
Correct Answer: (3) \(1\)
View Solution

Question 68:

Evaluate \( \int \frac{\sec^2 x}{\sin^7 x} \, dx - \int \frac{7}{\sin^7 x} \, dx \):

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{\sin^6 x \cos x} + c \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\tan x}{\sin^8 x} + c \)
  • (3) \( \sin^8 x \cos x + c \)
  • (4) \( \sec x \tan^7 x + c \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \frac{1}{\sin^6 x \cos x} + c \)
View Solution

Question 69:

If \( \int \left( x^6 + x^4 + x^2 \right) \sqrt{2x^4 + 3x^2 + 6} \, dx = f(x) + c \), then \( f(3) = \)

  • (1) \( \dfrac{3}{2} (95)^{3/2} \)
  • (2) \( \dfrac{3}{2} (195)^{3/2} \)
  • (3) \( \dfrac{3}{2} (265)^{3/2} \)
  • (4) \( \dfrac{3}{2} (175)^{3/2} \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( \dfrac{3}{2} (195)^{3/2} \)
View Solution

Question 70:

Evaluate: \[ \int \frac{dx}{(x+1)\sqrt{x^2+1}} \]

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}Sinh^{-1}\left(\frac{1+x}{1-x}\right) + c \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}Sinh^{-1}\left(\frac{1-x}{1+x}\right) + c \)
  • (3) \( -\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}Sinh^{-1}\left(\frac{1-x}{1+x}\right) + c \)
  • (4) \( -\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}Sinh^{-1}\left(\frac{1+x}{1-x}\right) + c \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( -\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\text{Sinh}^{-1}\left(\frac{1-x}{1+x}\right) + c \)
View Solution

Question 71:

If \( \int \frac{dx}{2\cos x + 3\sin x + 4} = \frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}f(x) + c \), then \( f\left(\frac{2\pi}{3}\right) = \)

  • (1) \( \frac{\pi}{12} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\pi}{8} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{5\pi}{12} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{5\pi}{8} \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( \frac{5\pi}{12} \)
View Solution

Question 72:

If \(\int \frac{1}{((x+4)^3 (x+1)^5)^{1/4}} dx = A \cdot \left(\frac{x+4}{x+1}\right)^n + c\), then

  • (1) \(n \cdot A = 3 \)
  • (2) \(n + \frac{1}{A} = -\frac{1}{2} \)
  • (3) \(A + n = 1 \)
  • (4) \(A = n \)
Correct Answer: (2) \(n + \frac{1}{A} = -\frac{1}{2} \)
View Solution

Question 73:

\( \int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2} \sin^2 x \cos^2 x (\sin x + \cos x) \, dx = \)

  • (1) \( 0 \)
  • (2) \( \frac{2}{15} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{4}{15} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{2}{5} \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( \frac{4}{15} \)
View Solution

Question 74:

Evaluate the integral \( \displaystyle \int_{1/5}^{1/2} \frac{\sqrt{x - x^2}}{x^3} \, dx \):

  • (1) \( \frac{21}{2} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{14}{3} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{7}{3} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{7}{2} \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( \frac{14}{3} \)
View Solution

Question 75:

Evaluate: \( \int_0^{400\pi} \sqrt{1 - \cos 2x} \, dx \)

  • (1) \( 100\sqrt{2} \)
  • (2) \( 200\sqrt{2} \)
  • (3) \( 400\sqrt{2} \)
  • (4) \( 800\sqrt{2} \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( 800\sqrt{2} \)
View Solution

Question 76:

Area of the region (in sq. units) bounded by the curve \( y = x^2 - 5x + 4 \), \( x = 0 \), \( x = 2 \), and the X-axis is

  • (1) \( \frac{8}{3} \)
  • (2) \( 3 \)
  • (3) \( 5 \)
  • (4) \( \frac{5}{2} \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( 3 \)
View Solution

Question 77:

If the order and degree of the differential equation \(x \frac{d^2 y}{dx^2} = \left(1 + \left(\frac{d^2 y}{dx^2}\right)^2\right)^{-1/2}\) are \(k\) and \(l\) respectively, then \(k, l\) are the roots of

  • (1) \(x^2 - 5x + 6 = 0 \)
  • (2) \(x^2 - 3x + 2 = 0 \)
  • (3) \(x^2 - 7x + 12 = 0 \)
  • (4) \(x^2 - 6x + 8 = 0 \)
Correct Answer: (4) \(x^2 - 6x + 8 = 0 \)
View Solution

Question 78:

The equation of the curve passing through the point \( (0, \pi) \) and satisfying the differential equation \( ydx = (x + y^3 \cos y)dy \) is

  • (1) \( x = y^2 \sin y + y\cos^2 y \)
  • (2) \( x = y^2 \sin y + 2y\cos^2 \frac{y}{2} \)
  • (3) \( x = y^2 \sin y + y\cos^2 \frac{y}{2} \)
  • (4) \( x = y^2 \sin y - y\cos^2 y \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( x = y^2 \sin y + 2y\cos^2 \frac{y}{2} \)
View Solution

Question 79:

The general solution of the differential equation \( \left(x - (x + y)\log(x + y)\right) dx + x\,dy = 0 \) is:

  • (1) \( y \log(x + y) = cx \)
  • (2) \( x \log(x + y) = cy \)
  • (3) \( \log(x + y) = cy \)
  • (4) \( \log(x + y) = cx \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( \log(x + y) = cx \)
View Solution

Question 80:

If the equation for the velocity of a particle at time 't' is \(v = at + \frac{b}{t+c}\), then the dimensions of a, b, c are respectively

  • (1) \(LT^{-2}, L, T \)
  • (2) \(L^2, L, T \)
  • (3) \(LT^{-2}, LT, L \)
  • (4) \(L, LT, L^2 \)
Correct Answer: (1) \(LT^{-2}, L, T \)
View Solution

Question 81:

If a stone thrown vertically upwards from a bridge with an initial velocity of \(5 \operatorname{ms}^{-1}\), strikes the water below the bridge in a time of 3 s, then the height of the bridge above the water surface is (Acceleration due to gravity = \(10 \operatorname{ms}^{-2}\))

  • (1) \(10 \operatorname{m} \)
  • (2) \(26 \operatorname{m} \)
  • (3) \(30 \operatorname{m} \)
  • (4) \(18 \operatorname{m} \)
Correct Answer: (3) \(30 \operatorname{m} \)
View Solution

Question 82:

If \( \alpha \), \( \beta \), and \( \gamma \) are the angles made by a vector with the \( x \)-, \( y \)-, and \( z \)-axes respectively, then find the value of \( \sin^2\alpha + \sin^2\beta \).

  • (1) \( \sin^2\gamma \)
  • (2) \( \cos^2\gamma \)
  • (3) \( 1 + \cos^2\gamma \)
  • (4) \( 1 + \sin^2\gamma \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( 1 + \cos^2\gamma \)
View Solution

Question 83:

A particle moving along a straight line covers the first half of the distance with a speed of \( 3 m s^{-1} \), the other half of the distance is covered in two equal time intervals with speeds of \( 4.5 m s^{-1} \) and \( 7.5 m s^{-1} \) respectively, then the average speed of particle during the motion is

  • (1) \( 4.0 m s^{-1} \)
  • (2) \( 5.0 m s^{-1} \)
  • (3) \( 5.5 m s^{-1} \)
  • (4) \( 4.8 m s^{-1} \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( 4.0 \text{ m s}^{-1} \)
View Solution

Question 84:

Water flowing through a pipe of area of cross-section \( 2 \times 10^{-3} m^2 \) hits a vertical wall horizontally with a velocity of \( 12 m s^{-1} \). If the water does not rebound after hitting the wall, then the force acting on the wall due to water is

  • (1) \( 24 N \)
  • (2) \( 144 N \)
  • (3) \( 288 N \)
  • (4) \( 72 N \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( 288 \text{ N} \)
View Solution

Question 85:

Two blocks A and B of masses 2 kg and 4 kg respectively are kept on a rough horizontal surface. If same force of 20 N is applied on each block, then the ratio of the accelerations of the blocks A and B is (Coefficient of kinetic friction between the surface and the blocks is 0.3 and acceleration due to gravity = \(10 \operatorname{ms}^{-2}\))

  • (1) \(1:1 \)
  • (2) \(7:2 \)
  • (3) \(1:2 \)
  • (4) \(4:3 \)
Correct Answer: (2) \(7:2 \)
View Solution

Question 86:

If a force of \((6x^2 - 4x) \operatorname{N}\) acts on a body of mass 10 kg, then work to be done by the force in displacing the body from \(x = 2 \operatorname{m}\) to \(x = 4 \operatorname{m}\) is

  • (1) \(22 \operatorname{J} \)
  • (2) \(44 \operatorname{J} \)
  • (3) \(66 \operatorname{J} \)
  • (4) \(88 \operatorname{J} \)
Correct Answer: (4) \(88 \operatorname{J} \)
View Solution

Question 87:

A circular well of diameter \(2 \, m\) has water up to the ground level. If the bottom of the well is at a depth of \(14 \, m\), the time taken in seconds to empty the well using a \(1.4 \, kW\) motor is (Acceleration due to gravity = \(10 \, m/s^2\))

  • (1) 1860
  • (2) 2200
  • (3) 2660
  • (4) 3300
Correct Answer: (2) 2200
View Solution

Question 88:

The coordinates of the centre of mass of a uniform L-shaped plate of mass 3 kg shown in the figure is:


  • (1) \( \left( \frac{5}{6} m, \frac{5}{6} m \right) \)
  • (2) \( \left( \frac{3}{2} m, \frac{3}{2} m \right) \)
  • (3) \( \left( \frac{1}{2} m, \frac{1}{2} m \right) \)
  • (4) \( \left( \frac{6}{5} m, \frac{6}{5} m \right) \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \left( \frac{5}{6} \text{ m}, \frac{5}{6} \text{ m} \right) \)
View Solution

Question 89:

A force \( F \) is applied on a body of mass \( m \) so that the body starts moving from rest. The power delivered by the force at time \( t \) is proportional to:

  • (1) \( t \)
  • (2) \( t^2 \)
  • (3) \( t^3 \)
  • (4) \( \sqrt{t} \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( t \)
View Solution

Question 90:

The equations for the displacements of two particles in simple harmonic motion are \( y_1 = 0.1\sin\left(100\pi t + \frac{\pi}{3}\right) \) and \( y_2 = 0.1\cos(\pi t) \) respectively. The phase difference between the velocities of the two particles at a time \( t = 0 \) is

  • (1) \( \frac{\pi}{4} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\pi}{2} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\pi}{6} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{\pi}{3} \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( \frac{\pi}{6} \)
View Solution

Question 91:

A spring is stretched by \( 0.2 m \) when a mass of \( 0.5 kg \) is suspended to it. The time period of the spring when \( 0.5 kg \) mass is replaced with a mass of \( 0.25 kg \) is
(Acceleration due to gravity \( = 10 m s^{-2} \))

  • (1) \( 0.628 s \)
  • (2) \( 6.28 s \)
  • (3) \( 62.8 s \)
  • (4) \( 0.0628 s \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( 0.628 \text{ s} \)
View Solution

Question 92:

An artificial satellite is revolving around a planet of radius \( R \) in a circular orbit of radius \( a \). If the time period of revolution of the satellite, \( T \propto a^{3/2}g^xR^y \), then the values of \( x \) and \( y \) are respectively:

  • (1) \( 1, \dfrac{1}{2} \)
  • (2) \( -\dfrac{1}{2}, 1 \)
  • (3) \( -\dfrac{1}{2}, \dfrac{1}{2} \)
  • (4) \( -\dfrac{1}{2}, -1 \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( -\dfrac{1}{2}, -1 \)
View Solution

Question 93:

If the longitudinal strain of a stretched wire is 0.2% and the Poisson's ratio of the material of the wire is 0.3, then the volume strain of the wire is

  • (1) \(0.12% \)
  • (2) \(0.08% \)
  • (3) \(0.14% \)
  • (4) \(0.26% \)
Correct Answer: (2) \(0.08% \)
View Solution

Question 94:

If two soap bubbles A and B of radii \(r_1\) and \(r_2\) respectively are kept in vaccum at constant temperature, then the ratio of masses of air inside the bubbles A and B is

  • (1) \(r_2^2 : r_1^2 \)
  • (2) \(r_1^2 : r_2^2 \)
  • (3) \(r_1 : r_2 \)
  • (4) \(r_2 : r_1 \)
Correct Answer: (2) \(r_1^2 : r_2^2 \)
View Solution

Question 95:

A small quantity of water of mass 'm' at temperature \( \theta ^\circC \) is mixed with a large mass 'M' of ice which is at its melting point. If 's' is specific heat capacity of water and 'L' is the Latent heat of fusion of ice, then the mass of ice melted is

  • (1) \( \frac{ML}{ms\theta} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{ms\theta}{ML} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{Ms\theta}{L} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{ms\theta}{L} \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( \frac{ms\theta}{L} \)
View Solution

Question 96:

In a Carnot engine, if the absolute temperature of the source is \( 25% \) more than the absolute temperature of the sink, then the efficiency of the engine is

  • (1) \( 25% \)
  • (2) \( 50% \)
  • (3) \( 20% \)
  • (4) \( 40% \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( 20% \)
View Solution

Question 97:

The work done by 6 moles of helium gas when its temperature increases by \( 20^\circ C \) at constant pressure is (Universal gas constant = \( 8.31 \, J mol^{-1} \, K^{-1} \))

  • (1) \( 807.2 \, J \)
  • (2) \( 887.2 \, J \)
  • (3) \( 997.2 \, J \)
  • (4) \( 1007.2 \, J \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( 997.2 \, \text{J} \)
View Solution

Question 98:

If a heat engine and a refrigerator are working between the same two temperatures \(T_1\) and \(T_2\) (\(T_1 > T_2\)), then the ratio of efficiency of heat engine to coefficient of performance of refrigerator is

  • (1) \(\frac{(T_1 - T_2)}{T_1 T_2} \)
  • (2) \(\frac{(T_1 + T_2)}{T_1 T_2} \)
  • (3) \(\frac{(T_1 - T_2)^2}{T_1 T_2} \)
  • (4) \(\frac{(T_1 + T_2)^2}{T_1 T_2} \)
Correct Answer: (3) \(\frac{(T_1 - T_2)^2}{T_1 T_2} \)
View Solution

Question 99:

If the internal energy of 3 moles of a gas at a temperature of 27 °C is 2250R, then the number of degrees of freedom of the gas is (R - Universal gas constant)

  • (1) \(3 \)
  • (2) \(5 \)
  • (3) \(4 \)
  • (4) \(6 \)
Correct Answer: (2) \(5 \)
View Solution

Question 100:

If two progressive sound waves represented by \( y_1 = 3 \sin 250 \pi t \) and \( y_2 = 2 \sin 260 \pi t \) (where displacement is in metre and time is in second) superimpose, then the time interval between two successive maximum intensities is

  • (1) \( 0.1 s \)
  • (2) \( 0.4 s \)
  • (3) \( 0.5 s \)
  • (4) \( 0.2 s \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( 0.2 \text{ s} \)
View Solution

Question 101:

If the least distance of distinct vision for a boy is \( 35 cm \), then the lens to be used by the boy for correcting the defect of his eye is

  • (1) convex lens of focal length \( 35 cm \)
  • (2) concave lens of focal length \( 35 cm \)
  • (3) convex lens of focal length \( 87.5 cm \)
  • (4) concave lens of focal length \( 87.5 cm \)
Correct Answer: (3) convex lens of focal length \( 87.5 \text{ cm} \)
View Solution

Question 102:

In Young's double-slit experiment, if the distance between the slits is increased to 3 times its initial distance, then the ratio of initial and final fringe widths is.

  • (1) \( 1 : 9 \)
  • (2) \( 9 : 1 \)
  • (3) \( 3 : 1 \)
  • (4) \( 1 : 3 \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( 3 : 1 \)
View Solution

Question 103:

A solid of mass 1 kg has \(6 \times 10^{24}\) atoms. If one electron is removed from every one atom of 0.005% of the atoms, then the charge gained by the solid is

  • (1) \(+24 \operatorname{C} \)
  • (2) \(+48 \operatorname{C} \)
  • (3) \(+96 \operatorname{C} \)
  • (4) \(+60 \operatorname{C} \)
Correct Answer: (2) \(+48 \operatorname{C} \)
View Solution

Question 104:

One of the two identical capacitors having the same capacitance C, is charged to a potential \(V_1\) and the other is charged to a potential \(V_2\). If they are connected with their like plates together, then the decrease in the electrostatic potential energy of the combined system is

  • (1) \(\frac{C}{4}(V_1^2 - V_2^2) \)
  • (2) \(\frac{C}{4}(V_1^2 + V_2^2) \)
  • (3) \(\frac{C}{4}(V_1 - V_2)^2 \)
  • (4) \(\frac{C}{4}(V_1 + V_2)^2 \)
Correct Answer: (3) \(\frac{C}{4}(V_1 - V_2)^2 \)
View Solution

Question 105:

If the energy stored in a spherical conductor having a charge of \( 12 \, \muC \) is \( 6 \, J \), then the radius of the spherical conductor is.

  • (1) \( 10.8 \, cm \)
  • (2) \( 0.108 \, cm \)
  • (3) \( 1.08 \, cm \)
  • (4) \( 108 \, cm \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( 10.8 \, \text{cm} \)
View Solution

Question 106:

A part of a circuit is shown in the figure. The ratio of the potential differences between the points A and C, and the points D and E is.


  • (1) \( 4 : 5 \)
  • (2) \( 2 : 3 \)
  • (3) \( 8 : 15 \)
  • (4) \( 11 : 15 \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( 8 : 15 \)
View Solution

Question 107:

A DC supply of \(160\,V\) is used to charge a battery of EMF \(10\,V\) and internal resistance \(1\,\Omega\) by connecting a series resistance of \(24\,\Omega\). The terminal voltage of the battery during charging is:

  • (1) \(8 \operatorname{V} \)
  • (2) \(12 \operatorname{V} \)
  • (3) \(16 \operatorname{V} \)
  • (4) \(4 \operatorname{V} \)
Correct Answer: (3) \(16 \operatorname{V} \)
View Solution

Question 108:

The magnetic moment of an electron moving in a circular orbit of radius R with a time period T is

  • (1) \(\frac{2\pi Re}{T} \)
  • (2) \(\frac{\pi eR}{T} \)
  • (3) \(\frac{\pi eR^2}{T} \)
  • (4) \(\pi R^2 eT \)
Correct Answer: (3) \(\frac{\pi eR^2}{T} \)
View Solution

Question 109:

A solenoid of one meter length and \( 3.55 cm \) inner diameter carries a current of \( 5 A \). If the solenoid consists of five closely packed layers each with \( 700 \) turns along its length, then the magnetic field at its centre is

  • (1) \( 22 mT \)
  • (2) \( 35 mT \)
  • (3) \( 44 mT \)
  • (4) \( 15 mT \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( 22 \text{ mT} \)
View Solution

Question 110:

The work done in rotating a bar magnet which is initially in the direction of a uniform magnetic field through \( 45^\circ \) is \( W \). The additional work to be done to rotate the magnet further through \( 15^\circ \) is.

  • (1) \( \frac{W}{\sqrt{2}} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{W}{2} \)
  • (3) \( W\sqrt{2} \)
  • (4) \( 2W \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \frac{W}{\sqrt{2}} \)
View Solution

Question 111:

When a current of \( 4 \, mA \) passes through an inductor, if the flux linked with it is \( 32 \times 10^{-6} \, Tm^2 \), then the energy stored in the inductor is.

  • (1) \( 64 \times 10^{-9} \, J \)
  • (2) \( 32 \times 10^{-9} \, J \)
  • (3) \( 128 \times 10^{-9} \, J \)
  • (4) \( 96 \times 10^{-9} \, J \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( 64 \times 10^{-9} \, \text{J} \)
View Solution

Question 112:

In a series resonant LCR circuit, for the power dissipated to become half of the maximum power dissipated, the current amplitude is

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\) times its maximum value.
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{2}\) times its maximum value.
  • (3) twice its maximum value.
  • (4) \(\sqrt{2}\) times its maximum value.
Correct Answer: (1) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\) times its maximum value.
View Solution

Question 113:

The waves having maximum wavelength among the following electromagnetic waves is

  • (1) X-rays
  • (2) Radio waves
  • (3) UV waves
  • (4) Visible rays
Correct Answer: (2) Radio waves
View Solution

Question 114:

If the de Broglie wavelength of an electron is \( 2 nm \), then its kinetic energy is nearly
(Planck's constant \( = 6.6 \times 10^{-34} J s \) and mass of electron \( = 9 \times 10^{-31} kg \))

  • (1) \( 0.48 eV \)
  • (2) \( 0.68 eV \)
  • (3) \( 0.38 eV \)
  • (4) \( 0.25 eV \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( 0.38 \text{ eV} \)
View Solution

Question 115:

The ratio of the wavelengths of the spectral lines emitted due to transitions \( 3 \rightarrow 2 \) and \( 2 \rightarrow 1 \) orbits in the hydrogen atom is

  • (1) \( 3:1 \)
  • (2) \( 9:17 \)
  • (3) \( 27:5 \)
  • (4) \( 25:9 \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( 27:5 \)
View Solution

Question 116:

The density (in \(kg m^{-3}\)) of nuclear matter is of the order of

  • (1) \( 10^{21} \)
  • (2) \( 10^{17} \)
  • (3) \( 10^{12} \)
  • (4) \( 10^{8} \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( 10^{17} \)
View Solution

Question 117:

In a common emitter amplifier of a transistor, if the ratio of the voltage gain and current amplification factor is 4, then the ratio of the collector and base resistances is.

  • (1) \( 16 : 1 \)
  • (2) \( 1 : 16 \)
  • (3) \( 1 : 4 \)
  • (4) \( 4 : 1 \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( 4 : 1 \)
View Solution

Question 118:

If three logic gates are connected as shown in the figure, then the correct truth table of the circuit is


  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Question 119:

Ionosphere acts as a reflector for the frequency range of

  • (1) \(3 - 30 \operatorname{kHz} \)
  • (2) \(3 - 30 \operatorname{MHz} \)
  • (3) \(3 - 30 \operatorname{Hz} \)
  • (4) \(3 - 30 \operatorname{GHz} \)
Correct Answer: (2) \(3 - 30 \operatorname{MHz} \)
View Solution

Question 120:

The uncertainty in the velocities of two particles \( A \) and \( B \) are \( 0.03 \) and \( 0.01 \, m/s \), respectively. The mass of \( B \) is four times the mass of \( A \). The ratio of uncertainties in their positions is.

  • (1) \( \frac{4}{3} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{3}{4} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{16}{9} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{9}{16} \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \frac{4}{3} \)
View Solution

Question 121:

The total maximum number of electrons possible in 3d, 6d, 5s and 4f orbitals with \(m_l\) (magnetic quantum number) value -2 is

  • (1) \(6 \)
  • (2) \(8 \)
  • (3) \(10 \)
  • (4) \(12 \)
Correct Answer: (1) \(6 \)
View Solution

Question 122:

The period and group numbers of the element having maximum electronegativity in the long form of periodic table, respectively, are

  • (1) \(2, 17 \)
  • (2) \(3, 17 \)
  • (3) \(1, 18 \)
  • (4) \(2, 16 \)
Correct Answer: (1) \(2, 17 \)
View Solution

Question 123:

Identify the pair of molecules which have the same hybridisation as the hybridisation in Xenon (II) fluoride.

  • (1) \( XeO_3 \), \( SF_4 \)
  • (2) \( BrF_5 \), \( PF_5 \)
  • (3) \( ClF_3 \), \( SF_4 \)
  • (4) \( PCl_3 \), \( NH_3 \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( \text{ClF}_3 \), \( \text{SF}_4 \)
View Solution

Question 124:

Identify the set containing isoelectronic species.

  • (1) \( N_2 \), \( O_2^- \), \( NO^+ \)
  • (2) \( N_2 \), \( CO \), \( NO^+ \)
  • (3) \( F_2 \), \( O_2^- \), \( N_2 \)
  • (4) \( N_2 \), \( O_2^+ \), \( C_2 \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( \text{N}_2 \), \( \text{CO} \), \( \text{NO}^+ \)
View Solution

Question 125:

Choose the incorrect statement from the following

  • (1) At Boyle temperature a real gas obeys ideal gas law over an appreciable range of pressure
  • (2) Critical temperature of CO\(_2\) is 27.5°C
  • (3) Above critical temperature, a real gas behaves like an ideal gas
  • (4) At room temperature and 1 atm pressure the compressibility factor (Z) for H\(_2\) gas is greater than 1
Correct Answer: (3) Above critical temperature, a real gas behaves like an ideal gas
View Solution

Question 126:

An ideal gas mixture of C\(_2\)H\(_6\) and C\(_2\)H\(_4\) occupies a volume of 28 L at 1 atm and 273 K. This mixture reacts completely with 128 g of O\(_2\) to produce CO\(_2\) and H\(_2\)O(\(l\)). What is the mole fraction of C\(_2\)H\(_4\) in the mixture ?

  • (1) \(0.4 \)
  • (2) \(0.8 \)
  • (3) \(0.5 \)
  • (4) \(0.6 \)
Correct Answer: (4) \(0.6 \)
View Solution

Question 127:

Identify the incorrect statements from the following.

I. For an adiabatic process, \( \Delta U = w_{ad} \).


II. Enthalpy is an intensive property.


III. For the process \( H_2O(\ell) \rightarrow H_2O(s) \), the entropy increases.

  • (1) I only
  • (2) I, II, III
  • (3) I, III only
  • (4) II, III only
Correct Answer: (4) II, III only
View Solution

Question 128:

The enthalpies of formation of \( CO_2(g) \), \( H_2O(l) \), and \( C_6H_{12}O_6(s) \) are \( -393 \), \( -286 \), and \( -1170 \, kJ mol^{-1} \), respectively. The quantity of heat liberated when \( 18 \, g \) of \( C_6H_{12}O_6(s) \) is burnt completely in oxygen is.

  • (1) \( 520 \, kJ \)
  • (2) \( 145 \, kJ \)
  • (3) \( 290 \, kJ \)
  • (4) \( 420 \, kJ \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( 290 \, \text{kJ} \)
View Solution

Question 129:

The percentage of ionization of \( 1 \, L \) of \( x \, M \) acetic acid is \( 4.242% \) and is called solution "A". The percentage of ionization of \( 1 \, L \) of \( y \, M \) acetic acid is \( 3% \) and is called solution "B". Solution "A" is mixed with solution "B". What is the concentration of acetic acid in the resultant solution? (\( K_a \) of acetic acid = \( 1.8 \times 10^{-5} \))

  • (1) \( 0.05 \, M \)
  • (2) \( 0.015 \, M \)
  • (3) \( 0.02 \, M \)
  • (4) \( 0.15 \, M \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( 0.015 \, \text{M} \)
View Solution

Question 130:

At 298 K, the value of K\(_p\) for N\(_2\)O\(_4\)(g) \(\rightleftharpoons\) 2NO\(_2\)(g) is 0.113 atm. The partial pressure of N\(_2\)O\(_4\) at equilibrium is 0.2 atm. What is the partial pressure (in atm) of NO\(_2\) at equilibrium ?

  • (1) \(0.05 \)
  • (2) \(0.075 \)
  • (3) \(0.30 \)
  • (4) \(0.15 \)
Correct Answer: (4) \(0.15 \)
View Solution

Question 131:

H\(_2\)O\(_2\) reduces KMnO\(_4\) in acidic medium to 'x' and in basic medium to 'y'. What are x and y?

  • (1) x = MnO\(_2\), y = Mn\(^{2+}\)
  • (2) x = Mn\(^{2+}\), y = MnO\(_2\)
  • (3) x = MnO\(_4^{2-}\), y = Mn\(^{2+}\)
  • (4) x = MnO\(_2\), y = MnO\(_4^{2-}\)
Correct Answer: (2) x = Mn\(^{2+}\), y = MnO\(_2\)
View Solution

Question 132:

Which chloride does not exist as hydrate ?

  • (1) MgCl\(_2\)
  • (2) CaCl\(_2\)
  • (3) LiCl
  • (4) KCl
Correct Answer: (4) KCl
View Solution

Question 133:

Identify the incorrect statement about the group 13 elements

  • (1) Nature of aqueous solution of borax is alkaline
  • (2) Orthoboric acid is a weak tribasic acid
  • (3) Metaboric acid on heating gives an acidic oxide
  • (4) LiBH\(_4\) acts as a reducing agent
Correct Answer: (2) Orthoboric acid is a weak tribasic acid
View Solution

Question 134:

Which of the following statements are correct ?

I) SnF\(_4\) is ionic in nature

II) Stability of dihalides of group 14 elements increases down the group

III) GeCl\(_2\) is more stable than GeCl\(_4\)

  • (1) I, II \& III
  • (2) I \& III only
  • (3) II \& III only
  • (4) I \& II only
Correct Answer: (4) I & II only
View Solution

Question 135:

Which of the following when present in excess in drinking water causes the disease methemoglobinemia ?

  • (1) SO\(_4^{2-}\)
  • (2) NO\(_3^-\)
  • (3) F\(^-\)
  • (4) Pb
Correct Answer: (2) NO\(_3^-\)
View Solution

Question 136:

IUPAC name of the following compound is


  • (1) \( 2-Methyl-4-ethylhexane \)
  • (2) \( 4-Ethyl-2-methylhexane \)
  • (3) \( 5-Methyl-3-ethylhexane \)
  • (4) \( 3-Ethyl-5-methylhexane \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( 4\text{-Ethyl-2-methylhexane} \)
View Solution

Question 137:

The empirical formula weight of 'Z' in the given reaction sequence is
n-propyl bromide \(\xrightarrow{Na}\) X \(\xrightarrow{V_2O_5 773 K}\) Y \(\xrightarrow{Cl_2 UV 500 K}\) Z
Dry ether 20 atm

  • (1) \(47.5 \)
  • (2) \(54.5 \)
  • (3) \(84.5 \)
  • (4) \(48.5 \)
Correct Answer: (4) \(48.5 \)
View Solution

Question 138:

If AgCl is doped with \(1 \times 10^{-4}\) mole percent of CdCl\(_2\), the number of cation vacancies (in mol\(^{-1}\)) is

  • (1) \(6.023 \times 10^{19} \)
  • (2) \(6.023 \times 10^{21} \)
  • (3) \(6.023 \times 10^{17} \)
  • (4) \(6.023 \times 10^{23} \)
Correct Answer: (3) \(6.023 \times 10^{17} \)
View Solution

Question 139:

In an aqueous glucose solution, the mole fraction of water is 40 times the mole fraction of glucose. What is the weight percentage (w/w) of glucose in the solution?

  • (1) \( 40 \)
  • (2) \( 30 \)
  • (3) \( 20 \)
  • (4) \( 10 \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( 20 \)
View Solution

Question 140:

Benzoic acid molecules undergo dimerisation in benzene. 2.44 g of benzoic acid when dissolved in 30 g of benzene caused depression in freezing point of 2 K. What is the percentage of association of it ?

(Given \(K_f (C_6H_6) = 5\operatorname{K kg mol^{-1}}\); molar mass of benzoic acid \(= 122\operatorname{g mol^{-1}}\))

Correct Answer: (1) 80
View Solution

Question 141:

When the lead storage battery is in use (during discharge) the reaction that occurs at the anode is

Correct Answer: (3) Pb(s) + SO\(_4^{2-}\)(aq) \(\longrightarrow\) PbSO\(_4\)(s) + 2e\(^-\)
View Solution

Question 142:

The following equation is obtained for a first order reaction at 300 K.
\(\log_{10} \frac{k}{A} = 0.00174\)
What is the activation energy (in J mol\(^{-1}\)) of the reaction ?

(R = 8.314 J mol\(^{-1}\) K\(^{-1}\))

Correct Answer: (1) 10.0
View Solution

Question 143:

Match the following

\begin{tabular{ll
List-I (colloidal solution) & List-II (use)

\addlinespace
A) Colloidal antimony & I) Eye lotion

B) Argyrol & II) Intramuscular injection

C) Colloidal gold & III) Kalaazar

D) Milk of magnesia & IV) Stomach disorders

\end{tabular


The correct answer is

  • (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
  • (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Correct Answer: (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
View Solution

Question 144:

Adsorption of a gas on solids follows Freundlich adsorption isotherm. The graph drawn between log \(\frac{x}{m}\) (on y-axis) and log p (on x-axis) is a straight line with slope equal to 3 and intercept equal to 0.30. What is the value of \(\frac{x}{m}\) at a pressure of 2 atm ?

(Given; log 2 = 0.3)

  • (1) 48
  • (2) 32
  • (3) 16
  • (4) 8
Correct Answer: (3) 16
View Solution

Question 145:

Nature of two oxides of nitrogen X and Y formed in the reaction of sodium nitrite with hydrochloric acid is

  • (1) Both X and Y are acidic in nature
  • (2) X is acidic and Y is neutral in nature
  • (3) Both X and Y are neutral in nature
  • (4) X is amphoteric and Y is neutral in nature
  • (1) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
  • (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Correct Answer: (2) X is acidic and Y is neutral in nature
View Solution

Question 146:

Identify the complex ion with spin only magnetic moment of 4.90 BM.

Correct Answer: (4) [MnCl\(_6\)]\(^{3-}\)
View Solution

Question 147:

What are \( X \) and \( Y \) in the following reaction?
\(\)
\text{nCl/CH_2 \xrightarrow{X Y \(\)

  • (1) \( Na / NH_3(l) \) - thermosetting polymer
  • (2) \( (C_6H_5COO)_2 \) - thermoplastic polymer
  • (3) \( Na / NH_3(l) \) - condensation polymer
  • (4) \( (C_6H_5COO)_2 \) - Network polymer
Correct Answer: (2) \( (\text{C}_6\text{H}_5\text{COO})_2 \) - thermoplastic polymer 
View Solution

Question 148:

Consider the following

Statement-I: Cane sugar is a disaccharide of \(\alpha\)-D-glucose and \(\beta\)-D-fructose

Statement-II: Milk sugar is a disaccharide of \(\alpha\)-D-glucose and \(\beta\)-D-galactose


Options:

  • (1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
  • (2) Both statement-I and statement-II are not correct
  • (3) Statement-I is correct, but statement-II is not correct
Correct Answer: (3) Statement-I is correct, but statement-II is not correct 
View Solution

Question 149:

The deficiency of vitamin (X) causes convulsions. Source of X is Y. What are X and Y ?

Correct Answer: (4) Pyridoxine, cereals
View Solution

Question 150:

Which of the following is not an example of a synthetic detergent?

  • (1) Cetyltrimethylammonium bromide
  • (2) Sodium stearate
  • (3) Sodium laurylsulfate
  • (4) Sodium dodecylbenzenesulfonate
Correct Answer: (2) Sodium stearate
View Solution

Question 151:

The most reactive compound towards nucleophilic substitution with an aqueous \( NaOH \) is:

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)
Correct Answer: (2) p-Nitrochlorobenzene
View Solution

Question 152:

An alkyl bromide \( X (C_5H_{11}Br) \) undergoes hydrolysis in a two-step mechanism. \( X \) is converted to a Grignard reagent and then reacted with \( CO_2 \) in dry ether followed by acidification gave \( Y \). What is \( Y \)?

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Question 153:

Consider the following sequence of reactions.
\(\operatorname{C}_6\operatorname{H}_5\operatorname{COONa} \xrightarrow{NaOH/CaO, \Delta}\) X \(\xrightarrow{CO+HCl, Anhy. AlCl_3}\) Y \(\xrightarrow{NaOH}\) A + B

If A is the reduction product of Y, what is B ?

  • (1) Sodium formate
  • (2) Sodium phenoxide
  • (3) Sodium salt of benzoic acid
  • (4) Sodium salt of salicylic acid
Correct Answer: (3) Sodium salt of benzoic acid
View Solution

Question 154:

What is \( A \) in the following reaction? \(\)
\text{CH_3-\text{CH=\text{CH-\text{CH_2-\text{CH_2-\text{CN \xrightarrow{(1)\,A(\text{i-Bu)_2{(2)\,\text{H_2\text{O \rightarrow A \(\)

  • (1) \( CH_3-CH=CH-CH_2-CH_2-NH_2 \)
  • (2) \( CH_3-CH_2-CH_2-CH_2-CH_2-CH_2-NH_2 \)
  • (3) \( CH_3-CH=CH-CH_2-CH_2-CHO \)
  • (4) \( CH_3-CH_2-CH_2-CH_2-CH_2-CHO \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \text{CH}_3-\text{CH}=\text{CH}-\text{CH}_2-\text{CH}_2-\text{NH}_2 \)
View Solution

Question 155:

The correct statement regarding X and Y formed in the following reaction is
\((\operatorname{CH}_3)_3\operatorname{COC}_2\operatorname{H}_5 \xrightarrow{HI, \Delta}\) halide(X) + alcohol(Y)

Options:

  • (1) X undergoes substitution by \(\operatorname{S}_{N}2\) mechanism
  • (2) X undergoes substitution with water in two steps
  • (3) Y gets converted to corresponding chloride with conc.HCl at room temperature
  • (4) Reaction of Y with Cu / 573 K gives ketone
Correct Answer: (2) X undergoes substitution with water in two steps
View Solution

Question 156:

Consider the following

Statement-I: In the nitration of aniline, more amount of m-nitroaniline is formed than expected.

Statement-II: In the presence of a strongly acidic medium, aniline is protonated to form anilinium ion, which is meta directing.

  • (1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
  • (2) Both statement-I and statement-II are not correct
  • (3) Statement-I is correct, but statement-II is not correct
  • (4) Statement-I is not correct, but statement-II is correct
Correct Answer: (1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
View Solution

AP EAPCET 2025 Engineering Important Topics

The AP EAPCET 2025 Engineering examination will be held in CBT mode from May 21 to May 27, 2025, and more than 2.5 lakh students are expected to appear in the exam. ]

The examination comprises 160 questions—80 in Mathematics, 40 in Physics, and 40 in Chemistry.

AP EAPCET 2025 Important Topics for Mathematics

Important Topics Why Important?
Algebra They will be asked questions about quadratic equations and polynomials
Calculus This is the most scoring, including the definite & indefinite integration
Coordinate Geometry It will be concept-based, including frequently repeated questions
Trigonometry These are Formula-based and include short calculation questions
Vector Algebra It will be Conceptual and have moderate weightage

AP EAPCET 2025 Important Topics for Chemistry

Important Topics Why Important?
Organic Chemistry (Reactions + Mechanisms) These are mostly asked and are easy to revise, as most of the questions are from the NCERT.
Thermodynamics & Thermochemistry There will be conceptual and numerical-based questions.
Chemical Bonding The questions will be concept-related, including multiple questions.
Equilibrium (Chemical + Ionic) Moderate weightage requires clarity
Coordination Compounds Direct questions based on the NCERT theory

AP EAPCET 2025 Important Topics for Physics

Important Topics Why Important?
Laws of Motion & Work-Energy Frequently asked: core mechanicsThese are the most commonly asked, including core mechanics
Thermodynamics & Kinetic Theory It is Important to score and include concept-based numericals.
Current Electricity It is a high-weightage topic with 2-3 questions.
Ray & Wave Optics It includes Theoretical and diagram-based questions
Oscillations & Waves There are 1–2 questions, often including conceptually tricky questions.

AP EAPCET 2025 Engineering – Expected Difficulty Level

In the AP EAPCET 2025 Engineering exam, candidates can expect a paper pattern similar to that of the previous years. The exam continues to assess both speed and conceptual clarity.

The overall difficulty level is expected to be moderate, with slight variations across shifts.

Subject-Wise Expected Difficulty Level for AP EAPCET 2025

Subject Expected Difficulty Key Characteristics Scoring Potential
Mathematics Moderate to Difficult
  1. Lengthy calculations
  2. Focus on AlgebraCalculus & Vectors
Moderate (55–60/80)
Physics Moderate Concept-based questions from
  • Mechanics
  • Electricity
  • Thermo
Moderate (25–30/40)
Chemistry Easy to Moderate Mostly NCERT-basedOrganic and Physical Chemistry High (30–35/40)

AP EAPCET Questions

  • 1.
    The time period of a simple pendulum on the surface of the earth is T. If the pendulum is taken to a height equal to half of the radius of the earth, then its time period is

      • T/2
      • 3T/2
      • 2T
      • 3T

    • 2.
      Two solid spheres each of radius \( R \) made of same material are placed in contact with each other. If the gravitational force acting between them is \( F \), then

        • \( F \propto R^4 \)
        • \( F \propto R^3 \)
        • \( F \propto R^2 \)
        • \( F \propto R \)

      • 3.
        If the escape velocity of a body from the surface of the earth is 11.2 km/s, then the orbital velocity of a satellite in an orbit which is at a height equal to the radius of the earth is

          • 11.2 km/s
          • 2.8 km/s
          • 22.4 km/s
          • 5.6 km/s

        • 4.
          An artificial satellite is revolving around a planet of radius \( R \) in a circular orbit of radius \( a \). If the time period of revolution of the satellite, \( T \propto a^{3/2}g^xR^y \), then the values of \( x \) and \( y \) are respectively:

            • \( 1, \dfrac{1}{2} \)
            • \( -\dfrac{1}{2}, 1 \)
            • \( -\dfrac{1}{2}, \dfrac{1}{2} \)
            • \( -\dfrac{1}{2}, -1 \)

          • 5.
            In a photoelectric experiment, when the wavelength of the incident light on a metal is λ, the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectron is E. When the wavelength of incident light is \(\frac{\lambda}{3}\), the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectron becomes 4E. The work function of the metal is:

              • $\frac{h c}{\lambda}$
              • $\frac{h c}{3 \lambda}$
              • $\frac{4 h c}{\lambda}$
              • $4 E$

            • 6.
              The ratio of the wavelengths of the spectral lines in the Lyman series of the hydrogen spectrum when the transitions take place from 7th and 9th states to the ground state is:

                • 245 : 243
                • 216 : 293
                • 251 : 236
                • 247 : 224

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