AP EAPCET (AP EAMCET) 2024 Question Paper May 16 Shift 1 : Download BiPC Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

Choose the incorrect statements regarding definition of Living:

• (A) Cell division replaces lost cells in certain tissues
• (B) In living organisms, growth is from outside
• (C) Metabolism is the sum total of all chemical reactions occurring in the living organism
• (D) In unicellular organisms, reproduction is not synonymous with the growth

Choose the correct matching:

• (A) I-A, II-E, III-B, IV-C
• (B) I-E, II-A, III-B, IV-C
• (C) I-D, II-E, III-B, IV-C
• (D) I-D, II-A, III-B, IV-C

The correct sequence of plants which help in production of biofertilizers, medicines and protein food is:

Choose the incorrect statement related to life cycles:

I. Sporophyte generation is represented by a single-celled zygote.
II. Gametophyte is multicellular in Pteridophytes and Gymnosperms.
III. Life cycle is diphlaplontic in Bryophytes.
IV. Life cycle is haplodiplontic in Pteridophytes.

These are the roots in a sequence to absorb moisture, support, water minerals from other plants.

• (1) Nodular roots, Haustorial roots, Stilt roots
• (2) Velamen roots, Stilt roots, Haustorial roots
• (3) Stilt roots, Prop roots, Haustorial roots
• (4) Pneumatophores, Prop roots, Stilt roots

These are placentation types based on the attachment of ovules within the ovary as given below:
Ridge

Inner wall of the ovary

Base of the ovary

In Angiosperms arrange the events of pre-fertilization/post-fertilization in a sequence:

• (1) Sporogenesis — Spores/Gametogenesis — Gametes
• (2) Gametes — Syngamy/Embryo — Endosperm
• (3) Gametogenesis — Gametes transfer/Zygote — Embryo
• (4) Spores — Gametes/Zygote — Embryo

A mother plant having 16 chromosomes produced ovules and underwent megasporogenesis, then the ploidy of the nucleus of A, B, C, D is:

• (1) A:16, B:16, C:8, D:16
• (2) A:16, B:16, C:8, D:8
• (3) A:16, B:32, C:8, D:8
• (4) A:16, B:8, C:16, D:8

The author and classification followed in the below mentioned books:
I- Families of flowering plants
II- Genera plantarum
III- Species plantarum

• (1) I- Hutchinson: Phylogenetic
  II- Bentham \& Hooker: Natural
  III- Linnaeus: Artificial
• (2) I- Linnaeus: Sexual
  II- Hutchinson: Natural
  III- Bentham \& Hooker: Artificial
• (3) I- Theophrastus: Sexual
  II- Linnaeus: Natural
  III- Engler and Prantl: Artificial
• (4) I- decondolle: phylogenetic
  II- Hutchinson: Natural
  III- Linnaeus: Artificial

Identify the cell organelles present in animals and absent in plant cells, present in plant cells and absent in animals, present in only prokaryotes:

• (1) Centriole, Cytoskeleton, Inclusion bodies
• (2) Axoneme, Flagellum, Mesosomes
• (3) Ribosomes, Plasma membrane, Flagellum
• (4) Fimbriae, Flagellum, Mesosomes

Assertion (A): Satellite is a small fragment-like structure found in some chromosomes.
Reason (R): It is a non-staining secondary construction at a constant location.

• (1) A and R are correct. R is the correct explanation of A
• (2) A and R are correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
• (3) A is correct but R is incorrect
• (4) A is incorrect but R is correct

The number of Guanines and Adenines present in the DNA molecule of pitch at 170° with 130 Hydrogen bonds between base pairs:

• (1) 20, 10
• (2) 10, 30
• (3) 20, 30
• (4) 30, 20

The total number of meiotic divisions that occurred in a flower of malvaceae, which has 60 stamens with 25 microspore mother cells in each sporangium and 25 ovules in each carpel:

• (1) 200
• (2) 3125
• (3) 3400
• (4) 265

Assertion (A): Buds present in the axils of leaves are capable of forming a branch or a flower.
Reason (R): Axillary buds are constituted by the shoot apical meristems.

• (1) A and R are correct. R is the correct explanation of A
• (2) A and R are correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
• (3) A is correct but R is incorrect
• (4) A is incorrect but R is correct

Match the following:

• (1) I-E, II-B, III-C, IV-A
• (2) I-E, II-C, III-B, IV-A
• (3) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A
• (4) I-D, II-B, III-C, IV-E

Identify the Anatomical structures based on these following characters given in a series:
Lysigenous cavities in the vascular bundles
Conjoint, open and endarch protoxylem in vascular bundles
More number of stomata in abaxial epidermis

• (A) Monocot stem, Dicot stem, Dicot Leaf
• (B) Monocot root, Dicot root, Dicot Leaf
• (C) Monocot Leaf, Dicot Leaf, Dicot stem
• (D) Monocot stem, Dicot root, Monocot Leaf

Match the following:

• (1) I-D, II-A, III-B, IV-C
• (2) I-D, II-E, III-D, IV-C
• (3) I-D, II-B, III-E, IV-C
• (4) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-E

Assertion [A]: The species that invade a bare area are pioneer species

Reason [R]: In primary succession, lichens or Phytoplanktons invade rocks and water respectively

• (A) A and R are correct. R is the correct explanation of A
• (B) A and R are correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
• (C) A is correct but R is incorrect
• (D) A is incorrect but R is correct

Study the comparison of different transport mechanisms to pick out the correct pair in the following format:

• (1)
• (2)
• (3)
• (4)

Correct equation of water potential of a cell:

• (1) \( \Psi_w = \Psi_p + \Psi_{mp} \)
• (2) \( \Psi_w = \Psi_s - \Psi_p \)
• (3) \( \Psi_w = \Psi_s + \Psi_p \)
• (4) \( \Psi_w = \Psi_s + \Psi_{mp} \)

Essential elements like Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium are supplied to plants growing in soil through:

• (1) Irrigation
• (2) Root exudates
• (3) Fertilizers
• (4) Atmospheric deposition

The element which is important in determining solute concentration and oxygen evolution:

• (1) Zinc
• (2) Boron
• (3) Nickel
• (4) Chlorine

Identify enzyme "X" in the reaction \( CO_2 + H_2O \xrightarrow{X} H_2CO_3 \):

• (1) Carbonic kinase
• (2) Carbonic anhydrase
• (3) Carbonic peroxidase
• (4) Carbonic catase

In the Calvin cycle, the ratio of trioses formed, net gain, and used to regenerate RUBP is:

• (1) 2 : 3 : 2
• (2) 10 : 2 : 6
• (3) 6 : 1 : 5
• (4) 5 : 1 : 6

Identify A, B, and C in the given Hatch and Slack pathway diagram:

• (1) A – Fixation, B – Regeneration, C – Decarboxylation
• (2) A – Regeneration, B – Fixation, C – Decarboxylation
• (3) A – Decarboxylation, B – Regeneration, C – Fixation
• (4) A – Fixation, B – Decarboxylation, C – Regeneration

Ratio of ATP:NADH:FADH2 produced in Krebs' cycle per one acetyl Co-A molecule by substrate level phosphorylation is:

• (1) 2 : 3 : 2
• (2) 1 : 9 : 2
• (3) 2 : 9 : 2
• (4) 2 : 2 : 9

In plants, growth rate is expressed in Arithmetic and Geometric growth equations. Which equation is correct?

• (1) \(L_0 = W_1 e^{rt}\)
• (2) \(W_1 = W_0 e^{rt}\)
• (3) \(W_0 = W_1 e^{rt}\)
• (4) \(W_0 = L_0 + e^{rt}\)

Assertion (A): Nitrosomonas is a Chemoautotrophic bacteria.

Reason (R): Chemoautotrophs derive energy from sunlight and carbon from CO\(_2\).

• (1) A and R are Correct and R is the Correct explanation of A
• (2) A and R are Correct and R is not the Correct explanation of A
• (3) A is Correct but R is incorrect
• (4) A is incorrect but R is correct

The genetic nature of TMV (Tobacco Mosaic Virus) as RNA was confirmed by:

• (1) Stanley
• (2) Beijerinck
• (3) Frankel Conrot
• (4) Iwanowski

Choose the correct pair from the following:

• (1) I, III
• (2) II, IV
• (3) I, II
• (4) III, IV

The number of recombinants in the 1280 progeny obtained through a dihybrid cross of Mendel in the F\textsubscript{2} generation.

• (1) 240
• (2) 360
• (3) 720
• (4) 480

Diagram represents central dogma of molecular biology. Choose the correct labelling of "X" and "Y":

• (1) Translation and Transcription
• (2) Translocation and Transcription
• (3) Transcription and Translation
• (4) Transcription and Replication

Identify A and B in the diagram given below:

• (1) Valine and Lysine
• (2) Serine and Glycine
• (3) Serine and Tyrosine
• (4) Proline and Serine

Assertion (A): Primers are used in polymerase chain reaction technique. Reason (R): Primers is used for the addition of new DNA nucleotides.

• (1) A and R are correct. R is the correct explanation of A
• (2) A and R are correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
• (3) A is correct but R is incorrect
• (4) A is incorrect but R is correct

Arrange the following in correct order in polymerase chain reaction cycle:

I Deannealing

II Denaturation

III Extension

IV Annealing

• (1) II - III - IV
• (2) I - II - III
• (3) I - III - IV
• (4) II - IV - III

Identify the wrong statement from the following:

• (1) Bt. Cotton shows resistance to viruses.
• (2) Transgenic Potato shows resistance to Phytophthora.
• (3) Transgenic Papaya shows resistance to Ring Spot Virus.
• (4) Transgenic Tomato shows resistance to Pseudomonas.

Bacteria used to produce human insulin chains is:

• (1) S. typhimurium
• (2) E. coli
• (3) A. tumefaciens
• (4) B. thuringiensis

Identify the correct pair of variety crop developed for resistance to the disease:

• (1) Pusa Komal - Bacterial blight
• (2) Pusa Sadabahar - White rust
• (3) Pusa Swarnim - Tobacco mosaic virus
• (4) Pusa Subhra - Chilly mosaic virus

Assertion (A): By mutations genetic variations are created resulting in a new trait not found in the parental type.

Reason (R): Plants having desirable characters will be selected after inducing mutations with chemicals or radiation.

• (1) A and R are correct. R is the correct explanation of A
• (2) A and R are correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
• (3) A is correct but R is incorrect
• (4) A is incorrect but R is correct

Match the following:

• (1) I-D, II-A, III-B, IV-C
• (2) I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A
• (3) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A
• (4) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B

The term Organic Evolution was coined by:

• (1) Charles Darwin
• (2) Lamarck
• (3) Herbert Spencer
• (4) Linnaeus

It is the measure of the overall diversity for different ecosystems within an ecological region.

• (1) Gamma Diversity
• (2) Beta Diversity
• (3) Alpha Diversity
• (4) Delta Diversity

Assertion (A): Circulatory system of arthropods and molluscs is mainly open type. Reason (R): Blood pumped out by the heart is circulated through a series of blood vessels in them.

• (1) Both A and R are true. R is the correct explanation for A
• (2) Both A and R are true. But R is not the correct explanation for A
• (3) A is true. But R is false
• (4) A is incorrect but R is true

Pick up the correct answer regarding the enterocoelomates.

• (1) Enterocoelomates are deuterostomes and they show radial and indeterminate cleavages
• (2) All enterocoelomates are protostomes and they exhibit radial and indeterminate cleavages
• (3) All enterocoelomates are deuterostomes and they exhibit spiral and indeterminate cleavages
• (4) All enterocoelomates are deuterostomes and they exhibit spiral and determinate cleavages

Match the following:

• (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
• (2) A-V, B-I, C-IV, D-II
• (3) A-V, B-I, C-III, D-II
• (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-V

Statement I: Crystalline style present in stomach of pelecypods help in digestion of starches.

Statement II: Larva of sea cucumbers is auricularia.

• (1) Both statements I and II are correct
• (2) Both statements I and II are false
• (3) Statement I is true. But II is false
• (4) Statement I is false. But II is true

Study the following and pick the correct combinations:

• (1) II, II
• (2) III, IV
• (3) I, IV
• (4) II, III

Hatchlings are precocial in:

• (1) Struthio, Rhea and Dromaeus
• (2) Psittacula, Columba and Struthio
• (3) Rhea, Aptenodytes and Corvus
• (4) Coracias, Dromaeus and Struthio

Match the following:

• (1) A-II, B-IV, C-V, D-III
• (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
• (3) A-V, B-IV, C-III, D-I
• (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Study the following and pick up the correct statements:


I. As the binary fission in Paramecium occurs parallel to longitudinal axis of the body, it is called homotheogenic fission.

II. As the daughter Paramecia formed after binary fission are like mirror images, the fission is called symmetrogenic fission.

III. Multiple fission in Amoeba is called sporulation.

IV. Union of pronuclei of the gametes is called amphimixis.

• (1) I, II
• (2) II, III
• (3) III, IV
• (4) I, III

Pseudopodia in Actinophrys are of this type:

• (1) Lobopodia
• (2) Filopodia
• (3) Reticulopodia
• (4) Helioipodia

Assertion (A): Nosima is a hyperparasite.

Reason (R): It lives in the body of another parasite.

• (1) A and R are true. R is correct explanation for A
• (2) A and R are true. But R is not correct explanation for A
• (3) A is true. But R is false
• (4) A is false. But R is true

Match the following:

• (1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-V
• (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-V
• (3) A-V, B-I, C-IV, D-II
• (4) A-IV, B-V, C-I, D-III

In these days, some sports people misuse these drugs.

• (1) Opioids
• (2) Cannabinoids
• (3) Coca alkaloids
• (4) Snack

Chemoreceptors in Periplaneta are of this type:

• (1) Ommatidia
• (2) Sensillae
• (3) Scolopidia
• (4) Tympanal organs

Location of Malpighian tubules in Periplaneta:

• (1) Foregut - Hindgut
• (2) Midgut - Foregut
• (3) Hindgut - Midgut
• (4) Stomodeum - Proctodeum

Wave length of UV-A Rays:

• (1) 50 nm – 100 nm
• (2) 100 nm – 280 nm
• (3) 280 nm – 320 nm
• (4) 320 nm – 380 nm

Identify the incorrect statement:

• (1) Both the species are benefitted in mutualism
• (2) Both species are not benefitted in parasitism
• (3) Both species get harm in competition
• (4) One species is benefitted and the other is neither benefitted nor harmed in commensalism

Match the following:

• (1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-II
• (2) A-I, B-I, C-III, D-II
• (3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
• (4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

An infant is suffering from indigestion. The enzyme lacking is:

• (1) Amylase
• (2) Rennin
• (3) Trypsin
• (4) Lipase

Inspiratory capacity is:

• (1) TV + IRV + ERV
• (2) TV + IRV
• (3) VC + RV
• (4) ERV + RV

Which one of the following is a highly toxic nitrogenous substance?

• (1) Ammonia
• (2) Urea
• (3) Uric acid
• (4) Hippuric acid

Identify the incorrect statement in relation to coronary artery disease (CAD):

• (1) Accumulation of calcium, fat, cholesterol in coronary artery
• (2) Death of myocardial cells
• (3) Associated with smoking
• (4) Angina pectoris is a warning signal

In skeletal muscle, the central part of the dark band without the thin filaments is called:

• (1) Z line
• (2) Sarcomere
• (3) Hensen’s disc
• (4) Krause’s membrane

Organ of Corti is located on the:

• (1) Tectorial membrane
• (2) Basilar membrane
• (3) Reissner's membrane
• (4) Tympanic membrane

Match the following:

• (1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
• (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
• (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
• (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Hormone that maintains the normal rhythms of the sleep-wake cycle.

• (1) Adrenaline
• (2) Cortisol
• (3) Melatonin
• (4) Thyroxine

Hormone that stimulates the reabsorption of calcium ions by renal tubules and increases the absorption of Ca\(^{2+}\) from the gut.

• (1) Parathormone
• (2) Renin
• (3) Angiotensin
• (4) Vasopressin

These are involved in cell mediated immunity.

• (1) T-cells
• (2) B-cells
• (3) Interferons
• (4) Interleukins

The term 'yellow body' refers to.

• (1) Corpus luteum
• (2) Corpus albicans
• (3) Graffian follicle
• (4) Trophoblast

Human chorionic gonadotropic hormone resembles this hormone in its function:

• (1) Oxytocin
• (2) Vasopressin
• (3) Somatotropin
• (4) Luteinizing hormone

Trichomoniasis is caused by:

• (1) Bacteria
• (2) Fungus
• (3) Protozoan
• (4) Virus

Identify the incorrect statements regarding blood groups:
(1) The mother with Rh\(^{-}\) blood group develops passive immunity on administering IgM antibodies.

(2) Isoagglutinogens are sugar polymers bound to fatty acids on the RBC membrane.

(3) The alleles for Rh factor are located on three different loci on chromosome pair 9.

(4) The expression of ABO blood types in man is by three alleles of a single gene.

• (2) I, II
• (3) I, III
• (4) II, III

Assertion: The male ants are developed by parthenogenesis from unfertilized eggs.
Reason: The sex of offspring depends on the type of sperm that fertilizes the ovum, which is not relevant since male ants develop through haploid parthenogenesis, which does not involve fertilization.

• (1) A and R are true. R is correct explanation for A
• (2) A and R are true. But R is not correct explanation for A
• (3) A is true. But R is false
• (4) A is false. But R is true

Identify correct statements regarding the Human Genome Project:
I. The method of DNA sequencing was developed by Jeffreys.

II. Identification of genes that express as RNA is referred to as Expressed Sequence Annotation.

III. About 1.4 million locations where single base DNA differences occur in humans.

IV. Y-chromosome has 231 genes.

• (1) I, III
• (2) II, IV
• (3) III, IV
• (4) II, III

(1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-II
(2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

Consider the following statements about prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells:

Statement I: Some prokaryotes evolved into mitochondria and plastids in the bodies of ancestral eukaryotes.

Statement II: The endomembrane system of eukaryotes might have evolved by infolding of the plasma membrane.

Which of the following is correct?

• (1) Both the statements I and II are true.
• (2) Both the statements I and II are false.
• (3) Statement I is true, but II is false.
• (4) Statement I is false, but II is true.

• (1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-V
• (2) A-II, B-IV, C-V, D-I
• (3) A-III, B-V, C-I, D-II
• (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  \textbf{Correct Answer:} (3) A-III, B-V, C-I, D-II

Choose the correct statements among the following:

I. Bird flu is a fungal disease affecting poultry.

II. Propolis is bee glue used to seal the cracks in the honeycomb.

III. The world's livestock population in India and China together is more than 70%, but their contribution to world's farm produce is 25%.

IV. Inactivated whole agent vaccine acts against typhoid.

Which combination of statements is correct?

• (1) I, III
• (2) II, IV
• (3) II, III
• (4) I, IV

• (1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
• (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
• (3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
• (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  \textbf{Correct Answer:} (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

If the work done \(W\), length \(L\) and time \(T\) are considered as the fundamental quantities, the dimensional formula for mass is:

• (1) \([W^1L^{-2}T^{-2}]\)
• (2) \([W^{-1}L^2T^2]\)
• (3) \([W^1L^2T^{-2}]\)
• (4) \([W^{-1} L^{-2} T^{-2}]\)

A body falling freely under gravity from rest from a certain height reaches the ground in \(5\) seconds. The distance travelled by the body in the last two seconds of its motion is:

• (1) \(98 \, m\)
• (2) \(44.1 \, m\)
• (3) \(58.8 \, m\)
• (4) \(78.4 \, m\)

A body is thrown with a velocity \( (5\hat{i} + 6\hat{j}) \, m/s \). Its maximum height is (given that acceleration due to gravity = \(10 \, m/s^{-2}\)):

• (1) \(12.5 \, m\)
• (2) \(1.8 \, m\)
• (3) \(1.25 \, m\)
• (4) \(0.9 \, m\)

The motion of a particle is given by \(X = a \cos t\), \(Y = a \sin t\) and \(Z = t\). The trajectory traced by the particle as a function of time is:

• (1) Helix
• (2) Circular
• (3) Elliptical
• (4) Straight line

A block of mass \(m\) is placed in equilibrium on a moving horizontal plank. The maximum horizontal acceleration of the plank for \(\mu = 0.2\) is (Acceleration due to gravity = \(10 \, ms^{-2}\)).

• (1) 2 ms\(^{-2}\)
• (2) 3 ms\(^{-2}\)
• (3) 4 ms\(^{-2}\)
• (4) 5 ms\(^{-2}\)

A body of mass \(2 \, kg\) is placed on a smooth horizontal surface. Two forces \(F_1 = 20 \, N\) and \(F_2 = 10\sqrt{3} \, N\) are acting on the body in the directions making angles of \(30^\circ\) and \(60^\circ\) to the surface. The reaction of the surface on the body is:

• (1) \(20 \, N\)
• (2) \(25 \, N\)
• (3) \(5 \, N\)
• (4) Zero

A running man has half the kinetic energy of a boy of half his mass. The man speeds up by \(1 \, m/s^{-1}\) to have the same kinetic energy as the boy. The initial speed of the man is:

• (1) \(\sqrt{2} \, m/s^{-1}\)
• (2) \((\sqrt{2} - 1) \, m/s^{-1}\)
• (3) \(\frac{1}{(\sqrt{2} - 1)} \, m/s^{-1}\)
• (4) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \, m/s^{-1}\)

In a hydroelectric power station, the water is flowing at \(2 \, ms^{-1}\) in the river which is \(100 \, m\) wide and \(5 \, m\) deep. The maximum power output from the river is:

• (1) \(1.5 \, MW\)
• (2) \(2 \, MW\)
• (3) \(2.5 \, MW\)
• (4) \(3 \, MW\)

Three point masses \(m_1, m_2, m_3\) are located at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side 'a'. The moment of inertia of the system about an axis along the altitude of the triangle passing through \(m_1\) is:

• (1) \((m_2 + m_3)a^2\)
• (2) \((m_1 + m_2 + m_3)a^2\)
• (3) \((m_2 + m_3)\frac{a^2}{9}\)
• (4) \((m_2 + m_3)\frac{a^2}{4}\)

A cockroach of mass \( m \) is moving with a velocity \( v \) in the anticlockwise direction on the rim of a disc of radius \( R \). The moment of inertia of the disc about the axis is \( I \) and it is rotating in a clockwise direction with an angular velocity \( \omega \). If the cockroach stops moving, the angular velocity of the disc will be:

• (1) \(\frac{I\omega + mR^2}{I + mR^2}\)
• (2) \(\frac{I\omega + mRv}{I + mR^2}\)
• (3) \(\frac{I\omega - mRv}{I + mR^2}\)
• (4) \(\frac{I\omega - mRv}{I}\)

The displacement of a particle executing SHM is given by \( X = 0.01 \sin 100\pi (t + 0.05) \). The time period of the particle is:

• (1) \(0.1 \, s\)
• (2) \(0.01 \, s\)
• (3) \(0.2 \, s\)
• (4) \(0.02 \, s\)

The vertical extension in a light spring by a weight of 1 kg suspended from the lower end is 9.8 cm. The time period of oscillation of the spring is:

• (1) \(10\pi \, s\)
• (2) \(\frac{\pi}{5} \, s\)
• (3) \(\frac{5\pi}{8} \, s\)
• (4) \(\frac{\pi}{10} \, s\)

An unknown gas in which each molecule has mass \(0.69 \times 10^{-26} \, kg\) escaped from a planet at a temperature \(T\). The radius of the planet is \(18 \times 10^5 \, m\), acceleration due to gravity is \(10 \, ms^{-2}\), and Boltzmann constant is \(1.38 \times 10^{-23} \, J/K^{-1}\). The temperature \(T\) is:

• (1) \(4.5 \times 10^3 \, K\)
• (2) \(4.8 \times 10^3 \, K\)
• (3) \(5.4 \times 10^3 \, K\)
• (4) \(6 \times 10^3 \, K\)

When a tension of \(F_1\) is applied on a metal wire its length is \(L_1\), if the tension is \(F_2\), length becomes \(L_2\). Then the original length of the wire is:

• (1) 2\( \frac{F_2 - F_1}{F_1 + F_2}L_2 \)
• (2) \( \frac{F_2 L_1 - F_1 L_2}{F_2 - F_1} \)
• (3) \( F_1 L_1 - F_2 L_2 \)
• (4) \( (F_1 - F_2) L_2 \)

Two soap bubbles of radii \(R_1\) and \(R_2\) are kept in vacuum at constant temperature, the ratio of masses of air inside them are:

• (1) \( \frac{m_1}{m_2} = \frac{R_1}{R_2} \)
• (2) \( \frac{m_1}{m_2} = \frac{R_2}{R_1} \)
• (3) \( \frac{m_1}{m_2} = \frac{R_2^2}{R_1^2} \)
• (4) \( \frac{m_1}{m_2} = \frac{R_1^2}{R_2^2} \)

The rate of emission of radiation of a black body at 27°C is \(E_1\). If the temperature increased to 327°C the emission is \(E_2\), then \(E_2\) is:

• (1) \(4 E_1\)
• (2) \(8 E_1\)
• (3) \(16 E_1\)
• (4) \(24 E_1\)

Two samples of same gas (\(\gamma = \frac{3}{2}\)) have equal volume. If their volumes are doubled by adiabatic and isothermal processes respectively for sample 1 and 2. Their final pressures are now equal. The ratio of initial pressures is:

• (1) \(\sqrt{2}\)
• (2) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
• (3) \(\frac{3}{\sqrt{2}}\)
• (4) \(\frac{\sqrt{2}}{3}\)

A gas is initially at a state of \( (P_0, V_0, T_0) \). If \( W_1 \) is work done in isobaric expansion to volume \( V \) and \( W_2 \) is the work done in isothermal expansion to volume \( V \), then:

• (1) \( W_1 = W_2 \)
• (2) \( W_1 < W_2 \)
• (3) \( W_1 > W_2 \)
• (4) \( W_1 - W_2 = R \)

Heat is supplied at constant pressure to a diatomic gas. The part of this heat that was utilized to increase its internal energy is:

• (1) \( \frac{4}{5} \)
• (2) \( \frac{5}{7} \)
• (3) \( \frac{3}{5} \)
• (4) \( \frac{5}{6} \)

Two ideal gases at absolute temperature \(T_1\) and \(T_2\) are mixed. In this process there is no loss of energy. If the molecular masses are \(m_1\) and \(m_2\), and mole number of the gases are \(n_1\) and \(n_2\), then the final temperature of the mixture is:

• (1) \( \frac{n_1T_1 + n_2T_2}{n_1 + n_2} \)
• (2) \( \frac{m_1T_1 + m_2T_2}{n_1 + n_2} \)
• (3) \( \frac{n_1T_1 + n_2T_2}{m_1 + m_2} \)
• (4) \( T = \sqrt{T_1 + T_2} \)

Two vibrating strings of same length, same cross-sectional area and stretched to same tension are made of material with densities \(\rho\) and \(2\rho\). Each string is fixed at both ends. If \(V_1\) and \(V_2\) are speeds of transverse waves in the strings with densities \(\rho\) and \(2\rho\) respectively, then \(\frac{V_1}{V_2}\) is:

• (1) \(1:2\)
• (2) \(2:1\)
• (3) \(\sqrt{2}:1\)
• (4) \(1:\sqrt{2}\)

If a ray of light takes \(t_1\) and \(t_2\) times in two media of absolute refractive indices \(\mu_1\) and \(\mu_2\) respectively to travel same distance, then the relation between the times and refractive indices is:

• (1) \(\mu_1 t_1 = \mu_2 t_2\)
• (2) \(\mu_1 t_2 = \mu_2 t_1\)
• (3) \(t_1 \sqrt{\mu_1} = t_2 \sqrt{\mu_2}\)
• (4) \(\sqrt{\mu_1} t_1 = \sqrt{\mu_2} t_2\)

If \(m_1\) and \(m_2\) (\(m_1 \geq m_2\)) are the magnification for two positions of the lens between the object and the screen, and \(d\) is the distance between the two positions of the lens, the focal length of the lens is:

• (1) \(\frac{m_1 - m_2}{d}\)
• (2) \(\frac{m_1 m_2}{d}\)
• (3) \((m_1 - m_2)d\)
• (4) \(\frac{d}{m_1 - m_2}\)

A particle of mass 'm' having charge '(-q)' moves in a circular orbit of radius 'r' around a fixed charge '(+Q)'. The relation between time period \(T\) and radius of the orbit 'r' is:

• (1) \(r^2 = \frac{Qq}{4\pi \epsilon_0 m T^3}\)
• (2) \(r^3 = \frac{Qq}{16\pi^3 \epsilon_0 m T^2}\)
• (3) \(r^3 = \frac{Qq}{16\pi^3 \epsilon_0 m T}\)
• (4) \(r = \frac{Qq}{16\pi^2 m \epsilon_0 T^2}\)

Electric field intensity and electric potential at a point due to a point charge are 600 V/m and -3600 V respectively. The distance of the point from the charge and the magnitude of the charge are:

• (1) \(7 \, m, 3 \, \muC\)
• (2) \(8 \, m, 4 \, \muC\)
• (3) \(6 \, m, 2.4 \, \muC\)
• (4) \(4 \, m, 6 \, \muC\)

A parallel plate capacitor has two square plates of side 5 cm separated by 15 mm. A Pyrex glass slab of dielectric constant \(K = 4.5\) and thickness 10 mm is placed between the plates. The capacitance of the capacitor is:

• (1) \(3.11 \times 10^{-12} \, F\)
• (2) \(311 \, \muF\)
• (3) \(311 \, pF\)
• (4) \(3.11 \, nF\)

The Wheatstone bridge is balanced when \(R_3 = 144 \, \Omega\). If \(R_2\) and \(R_1\) are interchanged, the bridge balances for \(R_3 = 169 \, \Omega\). The value of \(R_4\) is:

• (1) \(136 \, \Omega\)
• (2) \(152 \, \Omega\)
• (3) \(146 \, \Omega\)
• (4) \(156 \, \Omega\)

Four identical cells, each with internal resistance 1 \(\Omega\) and emf 10 V are connected in series to a resistance R and they are connected in parallel and then to an external resistance R in series. For what value of R the current in series and in parallel combination is the same?

• (1) \(1 \, \Omega\)
• (2) \(4 \, \Omega\)
• (3) \(2 \, \Omega\)
• (4) \(6 \, \Omega\)

A coil of two turns is made of a wire length L and another coil of four turns is made from same length L. When the same current is flowing in two coils, then the ratio of magnetic inductions at their centres is:

• (1) \(8:1\)
• (2) \(1:4\)
• (3) \(9:1\)
• (4) \(2:7\)

A wire of 60 cm length and mass 10 g is suspended by a pair of flexible leads in a magnetic field of 0.60 T as shown in the figure. The magnitude of the current required to remove the tension in the supporting leads is:

• (1) \(0.47 \, A\)
• (2) \(0.17 \, A\)
• (3) \(0.27 \, A\)
• (4) \(0.32 \, A\)

A bar magnet of moment \(0.4 \times 10^{-3} \, Am^2\) is kept in a magnetic field of \(2\pi \times 10^{-3} \, T\). The magnet makes an angle of \(45^\circ\) with the direction of magnetic field. The torque acting on the magnet is:

• (1) \(7.65 \pi \times 10^{-7} \, Nm\)
• (2) \(6.55 \pi \times 10^{-4} \, Nm\)
• (3) \(5.65 \times 10^{-2} \, Nm\)
• (4) \(5.65 \times 10^{-7} \, Nm\)

Eddy currents are produced when

• (1) Large piece of conductors are placed in changing magnetic flux
• (2) Large piece of conductors are placed in constant magnetic flux
• (3) A circular coil is placed in a magnetic field
• (4) Current should be passed through circular coil

In the given LCR series circuit the quality factor is

• (1) \(54.6\)
• (2) \(64\)
• (3) \(48\)
• (4) \(50\)

An electromagnetic wave travels in a medium of relative permeability \(1.3\) and relative permittivity \(2.3\). Then the speed of an electromagnetic wave in that medium is

• (1) \(3 \times 10^8 \, m/s\)
• (2) \(\sqrt{3} \times 10^8 \, m/s\)
• (3) \(2.2 \times 10^8 \, m/s\)
• (4) \(\sqrt{2} \times 10^8 \, m/s\)

When a metal surface is illuminated by a light of wavelength \( \lambda \), the stopping potential is \( V \). If the same surface is illuminated by light of wavelength \( 2\lambda \), the stopping potential is \( \frac{V}{4} \), the threshold wavelength is:

• (1) \( \lambda \)
• (2) \( 2\lambda \)
• (3) \( 3\lambda \)
• (4) \( \frac{\lambda}{2} \)

In the hydrogen spectrum, the difference in frequencies of first and second Lyman lines is equal to the frequency of the second Balmer line. This corresponds to:

• (1) Fourth Lyman line
• (2) Third Lyman line
• (3) Second Balmer line
• (4) First Balmer line

A radioactive sample of half-life \( T \) releases an energy of 8 MeV per disintegration. If the initial number of atoms is \( 16 \times 10^{20} \), the total energy released in a time of \( 3T \) is:

• (1) \( 17.92 \times 10^8 \, J \)
• (2) \( 8.96 \times 10^8 \, J \)
• (3) \( 35.84 \times 10^8 \, J \)
• (4) \( 4.48 \times 10^8 \, J \)

Semiconductors suitable for solar cell fabrication have a band gap nearby:

• (1) \( 0.015 \, eV \)
• (2) \( 1.5 \, eV \)
• (3) \( 15 \, eV \)
• (4) \( 150 \, eV \)

In the given figure of logic gates, if the inputs are \( A = 1 \) and \( B = 0 \) then the values of \( y_1, y_2, \) and \( y_3 \) respectively are:

• (1) 1, 0, 0
• (2) 1, 1, 0
• (3) 1, 0, 1
• (4) 0, 0, 1

If the radio horizon of a transmitting antenna is 21.6 km, the height of the antenna is:

• (1) \( 42.25 \, m \)
• (2) \( 54.25 \, m \)
• (3) \( 18.45 \, m \)
• (4) \( 36.45 \, m \)

A spectral line in the hydrogen spectrum is due to an electron transition between energy levels whose sum and difference are respectively 5 and 3. The wavelength of it (in cm) is:

• (1) \( \frac{16}{15R} \)
• (2) \( \frac{15}{16R} \)
• (3) \( \frac{16}{15} \)
• (4) \( \frac{15}{16R} \)

A light of frequency \( x \) Hz when falls on a metal plate emits electrons that have double the kinetic energy compared to when light of frequency \( y \) Hz falls on the same plate. The threshold frequency of the metal in Hz is:

• (1) \( y - x \)
• (2) \( x - y \)
• (3) \( x - 2y \)
• (4) \( 2y - x \)

The atomic radius in pm of Mg, P, Si, Al respectively is:

• (1) \( 160, 143, 117, 110 \)
• (2) \( 110, 117, 143, 160 \)
• (3) \( 160, 110, 117, 143 \)
• (4) \( 110, 160, 143, 117 \)

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Diamagnetic \(li_2\) molecules are known to exist in the vapour phase.
Statement II: According to MO theory, double bond in \(C_2\) consists of both \( \pi \) bonds. The correct option is:

• (1) Both statements I and II are correct.
• (2) Both statements I and II are not correct.
• (3) Statement I is correct, but statement II is not correct.
• (4) Statement II is correct, but statement I is not correct.

Identify the sets of species having the same bond order:

(i) \( F_2, O_2^{2-} \)

(ii) CO, NO\(^{+}\)

(iii) \(N_2\), \(O_2\)

(iv) \(H_2\), \(B_2\)

The correct option is:

• (1) ii only
• (2) i, ii, iv only
• (3) ii, iv only
• (4) i, ii, iii only

The square of the average speed of the argon gas at 27 \(^\circ\)C is (in m\(^2\)s\(^{-2}\)?):

 \( R = 8.314 \, J K^{-1}mol^{-1} \), \text{Atomic weight of Ar = 40 u

At \( T(K) \), in a closed vessel, a gas obeying the kinetic theory of gases has two molecules. The kinetic energy of these molecules is \( x_1 \) J and \( x_2 \) J respectively. After a few collisions, their kinetic energy is \( y_1 \) J and \( y_2 \) J respectively. Identify the correct relationship/s:

(1) \( x_1 = y_1 \)

(2) \( \frac{x_1 + x_2}{2} = \frac{y_1 + y_2}{2} \)

(3) \( x_2 = y_2 \)

(4) \( (x_1 - x_2)^2 = (y_1 - y_2)^2 \)

• (1) \( I, II, III \) only
• (2) \( I, II, III \) only
• (3) \( II, IV \) only
• (4) \( II \) only

Which of the following reactions is not a metal displacement reaction?

• (1) \(2 Mg(s) + TiCl_4(l) \rightarrow 2 MgCl_2(s) + Ti(s)\)
• (2) \(2 Al(s) + Cr_2O_3(s) \rightarrow Al_2O_3(s) + 2 Cr(s)\)
• (3) \(5 Ca(s) + V_2O_5(s) \rightarrow 5 CaO(s) + 2 V(s)\)
• (4) \(2 Fe(s) + 3 H_2O(l) \rightarrow Fe_2O_3(s) + 3 H_2(g)\)

Consider the reaction: \(C_2H_5Cl(g) \rightarrow 2C(g) + 5H(g) + Cl(g)\),
where \(\Delta H = 3047 \, kJ mol^{-1}\). The bond dissociation enthalpy (\(\Delta_{bond} H\)) values of C–Cl and C=C bonds are 431 and 414 kJ mol\(^{-1}\), respectively. What is the average bond enthalpy of C–H in kJ mol\(^{-1}\)?

• (1) \(436\)
• (2) \(431\)
• (3) \(357.6\)
• (4) \(446\)

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The entropy of pure crystalline solid approaches zero as the temperature approaches absolute zero value.

Statement II: For a reaction at equilibrium, \(\Delta G\) is zero.

• (1) Both statements I and II are correct.
• (2) Both statements I and II are not correct.
• (3) Statement I is correct, but statement II is not correct.
• (4) Statement I is not correct, but statement II is correct.

At T(K), 3 moles of ethyl alcohol is mixed with 3 moles of acetic acid in a 1L vessel. At equilibrium, 2 moles of ester are formed. Calculate the equilibrium constant for the reaction.

• (1) 4
• (2) 2/9
• (3) 2
• (4) 4/9

40 mL of 0.2 M \(\mathrm{CH_3COOH}\) is titrated with 0.2 M NaOH solution. How many mL of NaOH should be added to form a buffer solution with maximum buffer capacity?

• (1) 20 mL
• (2) 40 mL
• (3) 10 mL
• (4) 5 mL

What happens when \(\mathrm{H_2O_2}\) is added to an aqueous solution of ferrous sulphate in an acidic medium?

• (1) Only \(\mathrm{H_2O_2}\) is evolved
• (2) \(\mathrm{Fe}^{2+}\) is reduced
• (3) \(\mathrm{Fe}^{2+}\) is oxidized
• (4) \(\mathrm{H_2O_2}\) is evolved and \(\mathrm{Fe}^{2+}\) is oxidized

Identify the products formed when zinc reacts with sodium hydroxide solution.

Options:

• (1) \( Na_2ZnO_2 + H_2O \)
• (2) \( Na_2ZnO_2 + H_2 \)
• (3) \( Na_3ZnO_3 + H_2O \)
• (4) \( Na_3ZnO_3 + H_2 \)

The hybridization of aluminum in the complexes X and Y respectively is:

• (1) \( sp^2, sp^3 \)
• (2) \( sp^3, sp^3d \)
• (3) \( sp^3, sp^3 \)
• (4) \( sp^3, sp^3d^2 \)

Identify the correct statements about group 14 elements:


Sn in +2 state is a reducing agent and Pb in +4 state is a strong oxidising agent.
Thermodynamically most stable allotrope of carbon is diamond.
SiCl\(_4\) on hydrolysis gives silicic acid.
Sn has a higher melting point than Pb.

• (2) II, III only
• (3) I, IV only
• (4) II, IV only

Identify the non-biodegradable wastes from the following:

[I.] Thermal power plants which produce fly ash
[II.] Wastes generated by cotton mills
[III.] Wastes produced by food processing units
[IV.] Slag produced from blast furnace

• (1) I \& IV only
• (2) II \& III only
• (3) I \& III only
• (4) II \& IV only

\( x \) g of an organic compound was analysed by Kjeldahl’s method for the estimation of nitrogen. The ammonia gas evolved from the compound was passed into 100 mL of 0.2 M H\(_2\)SO\(_4\). The excess of acid required 40 mL of 0.5 M NaOH solution for complete neutralisation. What is \( x \) when the percentage of nitrogen in it is 46%?

• (2) 0.408 g
• (3) 0.608 g
• (4) 0.808 g

The number of \(\sigma\) bonds, \(\pi\)-bonds, and lone pairs of electrons present in the product Z in the given reaction sequence are respectively:

• (1) 9, 1, 0
• (2) 9, 0, 2
• (3) 8, 2, 1
• (4) 9, 1, 2

The number of unit cells present in 5.85 g of a cube-shaped crystal of sodium chloride is \( x \times 10^y \). \( x \) and \( y \) respectively are (Na = 23 u, Cl = 35.5 u)
\[ (N_A = 6 \times 10^{23} mol^{-1}) \]

• (1) 15, 21
• (2) 15, 22
• (3) 30, 23
• (4) 15, 23

At 27 °C, \(x \, g\) of \( CaCl_2 \) was dissolved in 2.5 L of water. The osmotic pressure of the resultant solution is 0.82 atm. What is \(x\) in grams? (Given \(i = 2.5\), \(R = 0.082 \, L atm mol^{-1}K^{-1}\))

• (1) \(37\)
• (2) \(1.85\)
• (3) \(3.7\)
• (4) \(18.5\)

The molar depression constant of water (\(K_f\)) is 1.86 K kg mol\(^{-1}\). What is the approximate \( \Delta H_{fus} \) (in kJ mol\(^{-1}\)) of water if it freezes at 273 K?

• (1) \(3\)
• (2) \(6\)
• (3) \(9\)
• (4) \(12\)

At 27 °C, the pH of 1 L of aqueous copper sulfate is 5.5. This solution was electrolyzed using two Pt electrodes for some time. What is the pH of remaining copper sulfate solution?

• (1) \(5.5\)
• (2) More than 5.5 but less than 7.0
• (3) \(7.5\)
• (4) Less than 5.5 but more than zero

A \(\rightarrow\) P is a first-order reaction. At 27°C, the time taken for the completion of 20% of the reaction is \( t_1 \) min. The time taken for the completion of 80% of the reaction is \( t_2 \) min at the same temperature. What is the value of \( \frac{t_2}{t_1} \)?

• (1) \(\frac{1}{7}\)
• (2) \(7\)
• (3) \(\frac{3}{7}\)
• (4) \(14\)

Which of the following is not correct about the adsorption?

• (1) Physical adsorption is not specific in nature.
• (2) In adsorption, \(\Delta G\), \(\Delta S\) and \(\Delta H\) are negative.
• (3) \(\mathrm{C_2H_5OH}\) acts as an auto catalyst in the hydrolysis of ethyl acetate.
• (4) In Freundlich adsorption isotherm \(\frac{x}{m} = k P^{\frac{1}{n}}\), the value of \(-\frac{1}{n}\) is between 0 to 1.

The Tyndall effect is observed only when the following conditions are satisfied:

[(A)] The diameter of the dispersed particle is much smaller than the wavelength of the light used.
[(B)] The diameter of the dispersed particle is not much smaller than the wavelength of the light used.
[(C)] The refractive indices of the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium differ greatly in magnitude.
[(D)] The refractive indices of the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are almost similar in magnitude.

• (1) \(A\) and \(C\)
• (2) \(A\) and \(D\)
• (3) \(B\) and \(C\)
• (4) \(B\) and \(D\)

The correct statements regarding Hall-Héroult process are:

[i.] Steel vessel with lining of carbon acts as anode.
[ii.] Purified Al\(_2\)O\(_3\) is mixed with cryolite.
[iii.] The overall reaction is 2Al\(_2\)O\(_3\) + 3C \(\rightarrow\) 4Al + 3CO\(_2\).

• (1) \(i\), \(ii\), \(iii\)
• (2) \(ii\), \(iii\) only
• (3) \(i\), \(iii\) only
• (4) \(i\), \(ii\) only

Which of the following reactions is not correct with respect to products formed?

• (1) \(3Cu + 8HNO_3 (dilute) \rightarrow 3Cu(NO_3)_2 + N_2O + 4H_2O\)
• (2) \(4Zn + 10HNO_3 (dilute) \rightarrow 4Zn(NO_3)_2 + N_2O + 5H_2O\)
• (3) \( Cu + 4HNO_3 (conc) \rightarrow Cu(NO_3)_2 + 2NO_2 + 2H_2O\)
• (4) \( Zn + 4HNO_3 (conc) \rightarrow Zn(NO_3)_2 + 2NO_2 + 2H_2O\)

Identify the correct statement from the following:

UK 'copper' coins are Cu/Ni alloy.
AgBr has special light-sensitive properties.
Ti\(^{2+}\), V\(^{2+}\), Cr\(^{2+}\) are strong oxidising agents.
The magnetic moment of V\(^{2+}\) is 2.84 BM.

• (1) UK 'copper' coins are Cu/Ni alloy
• (2) AgBr has special light-sensitive properties
• (3) Ti\(^{2+}\), V\(^{2+}\), Cr\(^{2+}\) are strong oxidising agents
• (4) The magnetic moment of V\(^{2+}\) is 2.84 BM

[Ni(H\(_2\)O)\(_4\)]\(^{2+}\) on reaction with ethane-1,2-diamine forms violet color complex. Its formula and magnetic property respectively are

• (1) [Ni(H\(_2\)O)\(_4\)(en)\(_2\)]\(^{2+}\), Paramagnetic nature
• (2) [Ni(H\(_2\)O)\(_2\)(en)\(_2\)]\(^{2+}\), Diamagnetic nature
• (3) [Ni(en)\(_3\)]\(^{2+}\), Paramagnetic nature
• (4) [Ni(H\(_2\)O)\(_2\)(en)\(_2\)]\(^{2+}\), Paramagnetic nature

Which of the following polymer used in the manufacture of paints and lacquers?

• (1) Melamine
• (2) Glyptal
• (3) Nylon 6
• (4) Nylon 6,6

Which of the following molecules is not having glycosidic linkage?

• (1) Sucrose
• (2) Glucose
• (3) Maltose
• (4) Cellulose

Which of the following represents double stranded helix structure of DNA?

1.


2.


3.


4.

Which of the following is insoluble in water?

• (1) \( CH_3(CH_2)_{10}CH_2OSO_3Na \)
• (2) \( [CH_3(CH_2)_{15} - N(CH_3)_3]Br \)
• (3) \( C_{17}H_{35}COONa \)
• (4) \( (C_{17}H_{35}COO)_2Ca \)

The product of Finkelstein reaction X, is not used in which of the following named reaction?

• (1) Wurtz reaction
• (2) Wurtz-Fittig reaction
• (3) Williamson reaction
• (4) Fittig reaction

What are X, Y and Z in the given reaction sequence?

Cumene on oxidation in the presence of air gives a compound X. This in the presence of dilute acid gives Y and Z. The total number of \( sp^2 \) carbons in Y and Z is:

• (1) 8
• (2) 6
• (3) 7
• (4) 9

What are the reagents X and Y respectively used in the following reaction sequence to convert a nitrile to a methyl group?

• (1) ZnCl\(_2\); Conc. HCl : (i) SnCl\(_2\), HCl (ii) H\(_3\)O\(^+\)
• (2) (i) SnCl\(_2\), HCl (ii) H\(_3\)O\(^+\) : Zn - Hg|Conc. HCl
• (3) LiAlH\(_4\) : NaBH\(_4\)
• (4) (i) DIBAL-H (ii) H\(_2\)O : LiAlH\(_4\)

Identify Z in the following reaction sequence.

Aniline on direct nitration at 288 K gives 51% (A), 47% (B) and 2% (C). ‘B’ on diazotisation, followed by reaction with CuCN | KCN gives a compound X. The percentage of nitrogen in X is:

• (1) 28.92
• (2) 18.92
• (3) 38.92
• (4) 48.92