Bihar Board Class 12 Psychology Question Paper 2024 with Answer Key pdf is available for download here. The exam was conducted by Bihar School Examination Board (BSEB). The question paper comprised a total of 96 questions divided among 2 sections.

Bihar Board Class 12 Psychology Question Paper 2024 with Answer Key

Bihar Board Class 12 Psychology Question Paper 2024 PDF Bihar Board Class 12 Psychology Answer Key 2024 PDF
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Question 1:

Which of the following is not a factor theory of intelligence?

  • (A) Spearman theory
  • (B) Thurstone theory
  • (C) Thorndike theory
  • (D) Piaget theory
Correct Answer: (D) Piaget theory
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify which theory is not a "factor theory" of intelligence.

Factor theories are psychometric approaches that use a statistical method called factor analysis to identify the underlying dimensions or "factors" that constitute intelligence.

These theories attempt to break down intelligence into its core components.




Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Spearman's theory is a foundational factor theory. He proposed the Two-Factor Theory, which posits a general intelligence factor ('g' factor) that influences performance on all cognitive tasks, and specific factors ('s' factors) unique to each task.

(B) Thurstone's theory is a multiple-factor theory. He argued against a single 'g' factor and identified seven independent "Primary Mental Abilities," such as verbal fluency, spatial visualization, and perceptual speed.

(C) Thorndike's theory is also a multifactor theory. He suggested that intelligence is not one single ability but a combination of many specific stimulus-response connections.

(D) Piaget's theory is a theory of cognitive development, not a factor theory. It describes the qualitative changes in thinking and reasoning as a child progresses through four distinct developmental stages (Sensorimotor, Preoperational, Concrete Operational, Formal Operational). It focuses on the process of cognitive growth rather than identifying static factors of intelligence.




Step 3: Final Answer:

The theories of Spearman, Thurstone, and Thorndike are all considered factor theories because they aim to identify the basic components of intelligence. In contrast, Piaget's theory explains the stages of cognitive development. Therefore, Piaget's theory is not a factor theory of intelligence.
Quick Tip: To differentiate these theories, remember that \(\textbf{factor theories}\) ask "What are the components of intelligence?" while \(\textbf{developmental theories}\) like Piaget's ask "How does intelligence develop and change over a lifetime?"


Question 2:

Which one among the following is not the stage of creative thinking?

  • (A) Verification
  • (B) Incubation
  • (C) Retention
  • (D) Preparation
Correct Answer: (C) Retention
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question refers to the widely accepted model of the creative process, most famously articulated by Graham Wallas in 1926. The task is to identify the option that is not one of the stages in this model.




Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Graham Wallas proposed a four-stage model of the creative thinking process:

1. Preparation: The initial stage where the problem is investigated from all directions. The creator gathers information, resources, and consciously works on the problem.

2. Incubation: A period where the problem is set aside, and no conscious work is done. The mind continues to process the information subconsciously.

3. Illumination: The "Aha!" or "Eureka!" moment. A sudden insight or idea flashes into the creator's mind, often when they are relaxed or engaged in an unrelated activity.

4. Verification: The final stage where the new idea is tested, elaborated, and applied to see if it works.


The option (C) Retention is a stage in the process of memory, which includes encoding, storage (retention), and retrieval. While memory is crucial for creativity, retention itself is not considered a distinct stage of the creative thinking process as defined by Wallas.




Step 3: Final Answer:

The stages of creative thinking are Preparation, Incubation, Illumination, and Verification. Retention is a stage of memory, not creative thinking. Therefore, Retention is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: Use the mnemonic \(\textbf{PIIV}\) to remember the four stages: \(\textbf{P}\)reparation, \(\textbf{I}\)ncubation, \(\textbf{I}\)llumination, and \(\textbf{V}\)erification. This will help you quickly spot an option that doesn't fit.


Question 3:

Who was the first psychologist to start testing of intelligence?

  • (A) Cattell
  • (B) Binet
  • (C) Weschler
  • (D) Simon
Correct Answer: (B) Binet
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the pioneer of modern intelligence testing, specifically the psychologist credited with creating the first practical and systematic intelligence test.




Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

In 1905, French psychologist Alfred Binet, along with his collaborator Théodore Simon, developed the Binet-Simon Scale. This was commissioned by the French Ministry of Education to identify children who required special schooling.

This scale was revolutionary because it was the first to use a series of age-graded tasks to measure cognitive abilities like judgment, reasoning, and problem-solving. It introduced the concept of "mental age," which could be compared to a child's "chronological age."

While Théodore Simon (D) was a vital partner, Alfred Binet is universally recognized as the leader of the project and the principal founder of intelligence testing.

James McKeen Cattell (A) coined the term "mental tests" earlier, but his tests focused more on sensory and motor functions. David Wechsler (C) developed his influential intelligence scales (WAIS, WISC) much later, building on the foundation Binet had laid.




Step 3: Final Answer:

Alfred Binet is credited as the first psychologist to develop and start the systematic testing of intelligence with the creation of the Binet-Simon Scale.
Quick Tip: Associate \(\textbf{Binet}\) with the \(\textbf{Beginning}\) of IQ testing. Remember that the first practical test was the Binet-Simon Scale, making Binet the primary figure.


Question 4:

Who propounded 'C' type of personality?

  • (A) Allport
  • (B) Friedman
  • (C) Freud
  • (D) Morris
Correct Answer: (D) Morris
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the proponent of the 'Type C' personality construct. This is part of a typology that categorizes personality patterns, often in relation to health outcomes.




Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The concept of Type A and Type B personalities was popularized by cardiologists Meyer Friedman and Ray Rosenman in the 1950s to describe patterns of behavior related to heart disease.

The Type C personality construct was introduced later. It describes a person who is patient, passive, cooperative, unassertive, and tends to suppress negative emotions (especially anger). This pattern was initially studied in relation to cancer proneness.

This concept was developed and propounded by researchers Lydia Temoshok and also by Steven Greer and Tina Morris in the late 1970s and 1980s. Given the options, Morris is the correct choice, representing this line of research.

(A) Gordon Allport was a prominent trait theorist.

(B) Meyer Friedman is associated with Type A/B personalities.

(C) Sigmund Freud was the founder of psychoanalysis.




Step 3: Final Answer:

The Type C personality construct was propounded by researchers including Tina Morris. Therefore, Morris is the correct answer among the given options.
Quick Tip: Remember the key associations for health-related personality types:
\(\textbf{Type A/B}\) (Cardiovascular disease): \(\textbf{Friedman}\) & Rosenman
\(\textbf{Type C}\) (Cancer-prone): Temoshok, Greer & \(\textbf{Morris}\)
\(\textbf{Type D}\) (Distressed/Negative affectivity): Johan Denollet


Question 5:

Who developed M. M. P. I. inventory?

  • (A) Hathaway and Mckinley
  • (B) Allport
  • (C) Eysenck
  • (D) Cattell
Correct Answer: (A) Hathaway and Mckinley
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the creators of the MMPI. The MMPI stands for the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory, one of the most widely used psychometric tests for assessing personality and psychopathology.




Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The original MMPI was developed in the late 1930s and published in 1943 at the University of Minnesota. The test was created by clinical psychologist Starke R. Hathaway and neuropsychiatrist J. C. McKinley.

They designed it as an objective tool to help in the diagnosis of psychiatric disorders.

The other psychologists listed are known for different major contributions to personality psychology:

(B) Gordon Allport: Trait theory of personality.

(C) Hans Eysenck: Three-factor model of personality (PEN: Psychoticism, Extraversion, Neuroticism).

(D) Raymond Cattell: 16 Personality Factor Questionnaire (16PF).




Step 3: Final Answer:

The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) was developed by Starke R. Hathaway and J. C. McKinley.
Quick Tip: The first \(\textbf{M}\) in \(\textbf{MMPI}\) stands for \(\textbf{Minnesota}\). This can serve as a reminder that the test was developed at the University of Minnesota, which is where \(\textbf{McKinley}\) and Hathaway worked.


Question 6:

Kretschmer divided personality into

  • (A) Three types
  • (B) Four types
  • (C) Five types
  • (D) Two types
Correct Answer: (B) Four types
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question is about the personality classification system developed by Ernst Kretschmer, a German psychiatrist. His theory, known as a constitutional theory, linked an individual's physical body type (physique) to their personality temperament and predisposition to certain mental disorders.




Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Kretschmer proposed four main types based on body build:

1. Pyknic: Characterized by a short, stout physique. Temperamentally, they were seen as sociable and cheerful (cyclothymic), with a predisposition to manic-depressive illness.

2. Asthenic (or Leptosomic): Characterized by a tall, thin build. Temperamentally, they were seen as reserved and shy (schizothymic), with a predisposition to schizophrenia.

3. Athletic: Characterized by a muscular, well-proportioned body. They were considered energetic and aggressive.

4. Dysplastic: A mixed category for individuals whose body types were disproportionate or did not fit into the other three clear-cut categories.

Therefore, Kretschmer's classification system consists of four types.




Step 3: Final Answer:

Ernst Kretschmer divided personality into four types.
Quick Tip: Don't confuse Kretschmer's four types with Sheldon's three somatotypes (Endomorph, Mesomorph, Ectomorph). Remember that Kretschmer included a fourth, "Dysplastic" category for mixed types.


Question 7:

Another name of unipolar disorder is

  • (A) Depressive disorder
  • (B) Manic
  • (C) Manic-depressive disorder
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Depressive disorder
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for an alternative name for "unipolar disorder." The terms "unipolar" and "bipolar" describe the nature of major mood disorders. The prefix "uni-" means one, and "bi-" means two, referring to the number of emotional "poles" (extremes) experienced.




Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Unipolar disorder means the individual experiences mood disturbances at only one pole, which is the depressive pole (i.e., feelings of sadness, hopelessness, loss of interest). Therefore, unipolar disorder is another name for Depressive Disorder, such as Major Depressive Disorder (MDD). The defining feature is the presence of one or more major depressive episodes without any history of manic or hypomanic episodes.

(B) Manic is a state or episode of elevated mood; it is not a disorder itself but a component of bipolar disorder.

(C) Manic-depressive disorder is the older term for Bipolar Disorder. It is called "bipolar" because individuals experience shifts between two poles: depression (the low pole) and mania (the high pole).




Step 3: Final Answer:

Since unipolar disorder involves only the single pole of depression, its other name is depressive disorder.
Quick Tip: Remember the prefixes to avoid confusion: \(\textbf{Uni}\) = one pole (only depression). \(\textbf{Bi}\) = two poles (depression AND mania). This makes it easy to link "unipolar" directly to "depressive disorder."


Question 8:

Which is not a type of Schizophrenia ?

  • (A) Paranoid Schizophrenia
  • (B) Disorganized Schizophrenia
  • (C) Defiant Schizophrenia
  • (D) Undifferentiated Schizophrenia
Correct Answer: (C) Defiant Schizophrenia
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify which of the given options is not a recognized subtype of Schizophrenia. Schizophrenia is a serious mental disorder in which people interpret reality abnormally. Historically, it was classified into several subtypes based on the predominant symptoms.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze the options provided:

(A) Paranoid Schizophrenia: This was historically the most common subtype, characterized by prominent delusions and auditory hallucinations.

(B) Disorganized Schizophrenia: Also known as hebephrenic schizophrenia, this subtype is characterized by disorganized speech and behavior, as well as flat or inappropriate affect.

(D) Undifferentiated Schizophrenia: This diagnosis was used when a person exhibited symptoms of schizophrenia that did not fit neatly into the paranoid, disorganized, or catatonic subtypes.

(C) Defiant Schizophrenia: This is not a recognized clinical subtype of schizophrenia in any major diagnostic system like the DSM (Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders) or ICD (International Classification of Diseases). Defiance is a behavior, but it does not define a subtype of schizophrenia.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Based on the recognized classifications of schizophrenia, Defiant Schizophrenia is not a valid subtype. Therefore, it is the correct answer. It's worth noting that the DSM-5, published in 2013, eliminated the subtypes of schizophrenia from its classification, but these terms are still widely used for descriptive purposes.
Quick Tip: For questions about classifications of disorders, focus on the major, historically recognized categories. Terms that describe general behaviors (like 'defiant') are less likely to be formal diagnostic subtypes compared to terms describing core psychotic symptoms (like 'paranoid' or 'disorganized').


Question 9:

The term 'Stress' in English has been derived from which language?

  • (A) Hindi
  • (B) German
  • (C) Latin
  • (D) Greek
Correct Answer: (C) Latin
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the linguistic origin (etymology) of the English word 'stress'.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The English word 'stress' originates from Middle English 'stresse', which means hardship or adversity. This was a shortened form of the word 'distress'. 'Distress' itself came from Old French 'estrece', meaning "narrowness, oppression". The French term traces back to the Latin word 'strictus', which means "tight, compressed, drawn together", the past participle of the verb 'stringere', meaning "to draw tight".

Therefore, the ultimate root of the word 'stress' is in Latin.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The term 'stress' has its origins in the Latin words 'strictus' and 'stringere'. Hence, Latin is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: Many English words related to science, medicine, and psychology have Latin or Greek roots. When in doubt about a technical term's origin, Latin and Greek are often the most likely candidates.


Question 10:

Which of the following is not a stage of Psychoanalysis?

  • (A) Modelling
  • (B) Resistance
  • (C) Free Association
  • (D) Transference
Correct Answer: (A) Modelling
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify which of the given options is not a concept or technique associated with psychoanalysis, the therapeutic approach developed by Sigmund Freud.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's examine the options in the context of psychological theories:

(B) Resistance: In psychoanalysis, resistance refers to the unconscious blocking of memories and insights from consciousness because they are painful or threatening. It is a key concept that the therapist helps the patient overcome.

(C) Free Association: This is a core psychoanalytic technique where the patient is encouraged to say whatever comes to mind, no matter how trivial or embarrassing, to reveal unconscious thoughts and feelings.

(D) Transference: This is a fundamental concept in psychoanalysis where the patient unconsciously redirects feelings and desires from important childhood figures onto the therapist.

(A) Modelling: Modelling is a concept from social learning theory, most famously associated with Albert Bandura. It refers to the process of learning by observing and imitating others' behavior. It is not a technique or stage of psychoanalysis.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Resistance, Free Association, and Transference are all central concepts in psychoanalytic theory and practice. Modelling, however, belongs to a different school of thought (social learning theory). Therefore, Modelling is not a stage or technique of Psychoanalysis.
Quick Tip: Associate key terms with their respective psychological schools of thought. Psychoanalysis (Freud) is linked to concepts like the unconscious, transference, and free association. Social Learning/Cognitive theory (Bandura) is linked to modelling and observational learning.


Question 11:

Which Indian genius has propounded eight-fold path of yoga for good health?

  • (A) Gautam Buddha
  • (B) Patanjali
  • (C) Socrates
  • (D) None of them
Correct Answer: (B) Patanjali
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the Indian sage who systematized the "eight-fold path of yoga" (Ashtanga Yoga).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(B) Patanjali: The sage Patanjali is credited with compiling the Yoga Sutras, a foundational text of yoga philosophy. In this work, he outlines the Ashtanga Yoga, or the eight-limbed path, as a systematic method to attain the final goal of God-realization or liberation (Moksha). The eight limbs are Yama (abstinences), Niyama (observances), Asana (postures), Pranayama (breath control), Pratyahara (withdrawal of senses), Dharana (concentration), Dhyana (meditation), and Samadhi (absorption).

(A) Gautam Buddha: Gautam Buddha also taught an "Eightfold Path" (Āryāṣṭāṅgamārga), but it is a central concept in Buddhism for achieving Nirvana and is distinct from the yogic path of Patanjali. The Buddhist path consists of Right Understanding, Right Thought, Right Speech, Right Action, Right Livelihood, Right Effort, Right Mindfulness, and Right Concentration.

(C) Socrates: Socrates was an ancient Greek philosopher and is not associated with the philosophy of yoga.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The eight-fold path of yoga was systematically presented by the sage Patanjali in his Yoga Sutras. Therefore, Patanjali is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: Be careful to distinguish between Patanjali's "Eight Limbs of Yoga" and the Buddha's "Noble Eightfold Path". Although both are spiritual paths with eight components, they originate from different philosophical traditions (Yoga and Buddhism, respectively) and have different specific components.


Question 12:

Which of the following is not a secondary group?

  • (A) Family
  • (B) Political party
  • (C) Industrial organization
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Family
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question requires understanding the sociological distinction between primary and secondary groups.

Primary groups are small, characterized by close, personal, and enduring relationships. These relationships are ends in themselves and involve a deep sense of belonging and emotional connection. Examples include family and close friends.

Secondary groups are larger, more impersonal, and goal-oriented. Relationships in these groups are often temporary and based on a specific purpose or activity. Examples include coworkers, political parties, and classmates.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Family: A family is the quintessential example of a primary group. It is characterized by intimate, long-lasting emotional bonds and plays a fundamental role in an individual's socialization and identity formation.

(B) Political party: A political party is a secondary group. Members are united by a common political goal or ideology, and interactions are typically formal and impersonal.

(C) Industrial organization: An industrial organization (a workplace) is also a secondary group. People come together for the purpose of work and earning a wage, and their relationships are primarily professional and task-oriented.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Since a family is a primary group, it is not a secondary group. Therefore, "Family" is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: To differentiate between primary and secondary groups, think about the nature of the relationships. Primary = Personal, long-term, emotional (e.g., family). Secondary = Impersonal, temporary, goal-oriented (e.g., workplace).


Question 13:

Which of the following is not the technique of counselling?

  • (A) Non-directive counselling
  • (B) Directive counselling
  • (C) Encouragement counselling
  • (D) Elective counselling
Correct Answer: (C) Encouragement counselling
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the term that is not a recognized major type or technique of counselling. Counselling techniques refer to the theoretical approaches or frameworks that counsellors use to help clients.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Non-directive counselling: This is a well-established approach, also known as client-centered or person-centered therapy, developed by Carl Rogers. The client leads the conversation, and the counsellor's role is to listen and support without giving direct advice.

(B) Directive counselling: In this approach, the counsellor takes a more active role in guiding the client, suggesting courses of action, and providing advice.

(D) Eclectic counselling: This term (likely intended by "Elective counselling" which is a common misspelling) refers to an approach where the counsellor integrates various techniques and theories from different counselling schools to best suit the client's needs. It is a widely practiced approach.

(C) Encouragement counselling: Encouragement is an important element or skill used in virtually all forms of counselling. However, "Encouragement counselling" is not recognized as a distinct, standalone theoretical approach or technique in the same way as directive, non-directive, or eclectic counselling are. It is a component of the therapeutic relationship, not a school of thought itself.


Step 3: Final Answer:

While encouragement is a vital part of the counselling process, it is not a formal technique or type of counselling. Therefore, "Encouragement counselling" is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: In psychology questions, distinguish between a specific, named therapeutic approach (like Directive or Non-directive counselling) and a general skill or element used within therapy (like encouragement, empathy, or listening). The question is asking for a formal technique.


Question 14:

Which type of skill is time management?

  • (A) Collective
  • (B) Personal
  • (C) Religious
  • (D) Political
Correct Answer: (B) Personal
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to classify the skill of time management. Time management is the process of planning and controlling how to divide your time between specific activities to increase effectiveness and productivity.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(B) Personal: Time management is fundamentally a personal skill. It involves an individual's ability to organize their own schedule, prioritize their own tasks, set personal goals, and manage their own productivity. While it can be applied in a group or organizational setting, the core ability to manage time resides within the individual.

(A) Collective: A collective skill would be one that is an attribute of a group as a whole, rather than individuals. While a team can manage a project timeline collectively, this relies on the personal time management skills of its members.

(C) Religious: Time management is not inherently a religious skill, although some religions may have principles regarding the use of time.

(D) Political: Time management is not a political skill, though politicians, like any professional, need good time management.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Time management is a skill that an individual develops and applies to their own life and work. Therefore, it is classified as a personal skill.
Quick Tip: Think about where the skill is primarily exercised. Time management begins with how you, as an individual, plan and use your own time. This makes it a personal skill, even when used for group projects.


Question 15:

Stereotype is

  • (A) Negative and unpleasant values
  • (B) Positive and pleasant values
  • (C) Legal judgement
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (A) Negative and unpleasant values
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

A stereotype is a fixed, over-generalized belief about a particular group or class of people. It is a cognitive shortcut that simplifies social information. The question asks to define what a stereotype is based on the given options.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze the nature of stereotypes and the provided options:

Stereotypes can be negative (e.g., assuming a particular group is lazy or unintelligent).
Stereotypes can also be positive (e.g., assuming all members of a certain ethnic group are good at math, or that women are inherently more nurturing).
They can also be neutral.
A stereotype is a social-psychological belief, not a legal judgement.

Now let's evaluate the options:

(A) Negative and unpleasant values: This is a common form of stereotype and is often the focus of discussions on prejudice.

(B) Positive and pleasant values: This is also a possible form of stereotype.

(C) Legal judgement: This is incorrect. Stereotypes are social beliefs, not legal decisions.

(D) All of these: This option is incorrect because it includes (C) "Legal judgement".



Step 3: Final Answer:

Although stereotypes can be positive, the most common and socially significant form is negative. Given the choices, "Negative and unpleasant values" is the best answer, as "All of these" is invalidated by the inclusion of "Legal judgement".
Quick Tip: Recognize that stereotypes can be positive, negative, or neutral. However, if a multiple-choice question forces a limited definition, consider the most common context. The harmful, negative aspect of stereotypes is what makes them a significant topic in psychology and sociology.


Question 16:

Which of the following is not a process of social influence ?

  • (A) Conformity
  • (B) Obedience
  • (C) Compliance
  • (D) Social loafing
Correct Answer: (D) Social loafing
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Social influence refers to the ways in which individuals change their behavior to meet the demands of a social environment. The question asks to identify which option is not a primary process of social influence. The three main types of social influence are conformity, compliance, and obedience.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Conformity: This is changing one's behavior or beliefs to match those of a group, often due to unspoken group pressure.

(B) Obedience: This is changing one's behavior in response to a direct order from an authority figure.

(C) Compliance: This involves changing one's behavior in response to a direct request from another person or group.

(D) Social loafing: This is a phenomenon where individuals exert less effort on a task when they are working in a group compared to when they are working alone. It is a form of group dynamics or a social effect, but it is not a process by which one person or group actively influences another to change their behavior, unlike the other three options. It is a reduction of effort, not an adoption of a new behavior due to influence.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Conformity, obedience, and compliance are the core processes of social influence. Social loafing is a different concept related to group performance. Therefore, "Social loafing" is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: Remember the "Big Three" of social influence: Conformity (going along with a group), Compliance (agreeing to a request), and Obedience (following a command). Any term outside this trio is likely the correct answer in a "which is not" question.


Question 17:

Which of the following is a characteristic of type 'A' personality?

  • (A) Aggression
  • (B) Competitive feeling
  • (C) Impatience
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the characteristics of a Type 'A' personality. The Type A personality theory was developed by cardiologists Meyer Friedman and Ray Rosenman in the 1950s. It describes a pattern of behavior and personality traits.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Type 'A' personality is characterized by a collection of traits. Let's examine the options provided:

(A) Aggression: People with a Type A personality can exhibit aggression, hostility, and are easily angered or irritated.

(B) Competitive feeling: A strong sense of competitiveness and ambition are hallmark traits of the Type A personality. They are often high-achieving and goal-oriented.

(C) Impatience: A sense of time urgency and impatience are core features. Individuals with Type A personalities often feel rushed, get frustrated by delays, and tend to do multiple things at once.

(D) All of these: Since aggression, competitiveness, and impatience are all well-documented characteristics of the Type 'A' personality, this option is the most comprehensive and correct answer.


Step 3: Final Answer:

All the listed traits—aggression, competitive feeling, and impatience—are characteristic of a Type 'A' personality. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of these".
Quick Tip: To remember Type A personality traits, think of the "3 C's and an H": Competitiveness, Clock-watching (impatience), Control-obsession, and Hostility (aggression). If multiple options fit these categories, "All of these" is a strong possibility.


Question 18:

Who propounded Humanistic theory?

  • (A) Maslow
  • (B) Allport
  • (C) Jung
  • (D) None of them
Correct Answer: (A) Maslow
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the key figure associated with the founding of Humanistic psychology. Humanistic theory, often called the "third force" in psychology, emphasizes individual free will, personal growth, and self-actualization, as a response to the perceived limitations of psychoanalysis and behaviorism.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Abraham Maslow: Maslow is one of the primary founders of humanistic psychology. He is best known for his hierarchy of needs, a theory of psychological health predicated on fulfilling innate human needs in priority, culminating in self-actualization.

(B) Gordon Allport: Allport was a prominent trait theorist who focused on identifying and measuring personality traits. His work is distinct from the humanistic school.

(C) Carl Jung: Jung was a psychoanalytic theorist who founded analytical psychology. While some of his ideas about self-realization overlap with humanistic concepts, he is firmly rooted in the psychodynamic tradition, not the humanistic one.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Abraham Maslow, along with Carl Rogers, is considered a principal founder of the humanistic school of thought. Therefore, he is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: Associate key psychologists with their schools of thought: Maslow and Rogers with Humanism, Freud and Jung with Psychoanalysis, Skinner and Watson with Behaviorism, and Allport and Cattell with Trait Theory.


Question 19:

Which of the following cannot be considered as an element of emotional intelligence ?

  • (A) Keeping information about your emotions in the right and proper place
  • (B) Motivating self
  • (C) Threatening others
  • (D) Recognizing other's emotions
Correct Answer: (C) Threatening others
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Emotional intelligence (EI) is the ability to perceive, use, understand, manage, and handle emotions. It involves self-awareness, self-regulation, motivation, empathy, and social skills. The question asks to identify an action that is contrary to the principles of emotional intelligence.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Keeping information about your emotions in the right and proper place: This phrasing, although slightly awkward, refers to emotional self-regulation—managing your emotional responses appropriately. This is a core component of EI.

(B) Motivating self: The ability to motivate oneself and persist in the face of setbacks is a key element of EI.

(D) Recognizing other's emotions: This is empathy, the ability to understand the emotions of others, which is fundamental to emotional intelligence.

(C) Threatening others: This is an antisocial and destructive behavior. It demonstrates a lack of emotional regulation and empathy, and it is the opposite of using emotions intelligently to foster positive social interactions.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Threatening others is a behavior that goes against the core principles of emotional intelligence, which focuses on constructive emotional management and positive social skills.
Quick Tip: Emotional intelligence is about using emotions constructively and building positive relationships. Any option that describes a destructive or antisocial behavior will not be an element of EI.


Question 20:

Which of the following is not a neurotic disorder?

  • (A) Schizophrenia
  • (B) Anxiety disorder
  • (C) Compulsion disorder
  • (D) Phobia
Correct Answer: (A) Schizophrenia
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question uses the historical distinction between neurotic disorders (neuroses) and psychotic disorders (psychoses). Neurotic disorders are characterized by significant emotional distress and anxiety, but the individual remains in touch with reality. Psychotic disorders involve a loss of contact with reality, often including delusions or hallucinations.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(B) Anxiety disorder: A classic example of a neurotic disorder, characterized by excessive worry and fear, but reality testing is intact.

(C) Compulsion disorder: This refers to the compulsive component of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD), which has traditionally been classified as a neurosis.

(D) Phobia: A specific type of anxiety disorder characterized by an irrational fear of an object or situation. It is also a neurotic disorder.

(A) Schizophrenia: This is the archetypal psychotic disorder. It is characterized by fundamental distortions in thinking, perception, and emotion, including positive symptoms like hallucinations and delusions, which represent a break from reality.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Anxiety disorders, compulsions, and phobias fall under the category of neurotic disorders. Schizophrenia is a psychotic disorder. Therefore, schizophrenia is not a neurotic disorder.
Quick Tip: The key difference to remember is: \(\textbf{Neurosis}\) = high distress, but in touch with reality. \(\textbf{Psychosis}\) = loss of contact with reality. Schizophrenia is the most well-known psychotic disorder.


Question 21:

Mental disorder in which a person suffers from delusion is called

  • (A) Paranoia
  • (B) Delusional disorder
  • (C) Paranoid state
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

A delusion is a fixed, false belief that is resistant to reason or confrontation with actual fact. The question asks for the term that describes a mental disorder characterized by delusions.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Paranoia: This term is often used to describe a specific type of delusion involving intense and irrational suspicion or mistrust of others (persecutory delusions). It describes a condition characterized by delusions.

(B) Delusional disorder: This is a formal psychiatric diagnosis (from the DSM-5) for a condition where the primary symptom is the presence of one or more delusions for at least a month, without other schizophrenic symptoms.

(C) Paranoid state: This is a more general, descriptive term for a mental condition characterized by paranoid delusions.

(D) All of these: Since paranoia is a state involving delusions, delusional disorder is the formal name for it, and paranoid state is a descriptive term for it, all three options refer to a mental disorder where a person suffers from delusions.


Step 3: Final Answer:

All the terms provided describe a mental disorder or state in which delusions are a primary feature. Therefore, "All of these" is the correct and most comprehensive answer.
Quick Tip: When several options are closely related terms describing the same core symptom (in this case, delusions), the "All of these" option is often the correct choice.


Question 22:

Example of natural disaster is

  • (A) Flood
  • (B) Earthquake
  • (C) Cyclone
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

A natural disaster is a major adverse event resulting from natural processes of the Earth. The question asks to identify examples of natural disasters from the given list.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Flood: An overflow of a large amount of water beyond its normal limits, especially over what is normally dry land. It is a natural disaster.

(B) Earthquake: A sudden violent shaking of the ground, typically causing great destruction, as a result of movements within the earth's crust or volcanic action. It is a natural disaster.

(C) Cyclone: A large-scale air mass that rotates around a strong center of low atmospheric pressure. It is a severe weather event and a natural disaster.

(D) All of these: Since floods, earthquakes, and cyclones are all examples of natural disasters, this option is the correct one.


Step 3: Final Answer:

All the given options are well-known examples of natural disasters. Therefore, "All of these" is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: For classification questions, read all options first. If every single option correctly fits the category provided in the question, then "All of these" is the answer.


Question 23:

Interview is placed in which of the following categories ?

  • (A) Projection
  • (B) Observation
  • (C) Conversation
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Conversation
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to classify the fundamental nature of an interview. An interview is a structured meeting between two or more people to exchange information through questions and answers.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(C) Conversation: At its core, an interview is a form of conversation. It is a purposeful and structured dialogue, but it still falls under the general category of conversation.

(A) Projection: This is a psychological defense mechanism where one attributes their own unwanted thoughts or feelings to another person. It is not a category for an interview.

(B) Observation: While an interviewer does observe the interviewee (and vice versa), observation is a method that can be part of an interview, not the category the interview itself belongs to. The primary activity is talking and listening, which defines a conversation.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The most accurate and fundamental category for an interview is a conversation, as it is primarily a verbal exchange between people.
Quick Tip: For definition-based questions, choose the option that describes the most essential and defining characteristic of the term. An interview's essence is the verbal exchange, making it a conversation.


Question 24:

Counsellor is a trained

  • (A) Doctor
  • (B) Teacher
  • (C) Guardian
  • (D) Psychologist
Correct Answer: (D) Psychologist
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks about the professional training background of a counsellor. Counselling is a professional activity that helps individuals, couples, or groups address emotional, social, and personal challenges.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(D) Psychologist: The field of counselling psychology is a specialty within professional psychology. Counsellors are trained in psychological theories, therapeutic techniques, ethics, and human development. Therefore, a professional counsellor is a trained psychologist or has training rooted in psychology.

(A) Doctor: This usually refers to a medical doctor (M.D.). A psychiatrist is a medical doctor specializing in mental health, but not all counsellors are psychiatrists. The general term "counsellor" does not imply a medical degree.

(B) Teacher: While a counsellor may educate clients, their primary training and role are therapeutic, not pedagogical in the academic sense.

(C) Guardian: A guardian is a legal role. While a counsellor provides support, they are not a legal guardian.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The most accurate description of a counsellor's professional training and field is that of a psychologist.
Quick Tip: When considering professional roles, think about the academic discipline they belong to. Counselling is an applied field of psychology.


Question 25:

Who said that intelligence is global capacity?

  • (A) Wechsler
  • (B) Binet
  • (C) Gardner
  • (D) None of them
Correct Answer: (A) Wechsler
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the psychologist who defined intelligence as a "global capacity." This is one of the most famous and influential definitions of intelligence.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) David Wechsler: Wechsler, the creator of the widely used Wechsler intelligence scales (e.g., WAIS, WISC), famously defined intelligence as "the global capacity of the individual to act purposefully, to think rationally and to deal effectively with his environment." This definition emphasizes that intelligence is a broad, multifaceted ability.

(B) Alfred Binet: Binet was a pioneer in intelligence testing, developing the concept of mental age. His focus was more on practical measures of cognitive abilities needed for academic success, rather than a broad, global definition.

(C) Howard Gardner: Gardner proposed the theory of multiple intelligences, arguing against the idea of a single "global" intelligence. He suggested that there are several distinct types of intelligence (e.g., linguistic, logical-mathematical, musical).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The definition of intelligence as a "global capacity" is attributed to David Wechsler.
Quick Tip: Associate key definitions with theorists: \(\textbf{Wechsler}\) = "global capacity", \(\textbf{Gardner}\) = "multiple intelligences", \(\textbf{Binet}\) = "mental age", \(\textbf{Spearman}\) = "g factor" (general intelligence).


Question 26:

Mental age is a measure of

  • (A) Actual age
  • (B) Absolute level of intelligence
  • (C) Chronological age
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Absolute level of intelligence
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The concept of "mental age" (MA) was developed by Alfred Binet. It represents a person's level of intellectual functioning. The question asks what mental age actually measures.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(B) Absolute level of intelligence: Mental age indicates the age at which a typical individual achieves a certain level of cognitive performance. For example, if a 6-year-old child can solve problems that an average 8-year-old can solve, their mental age is 8. This "age" of 8 represents their measured level of intellectual performance, or their absolute level of intelligence at that moment.

(A) Actual age and (C) Chronological age: These two options are synonymous. Mental age is compared to chronological age (CA) to calculate an Intelligence Quotient (IQ), using the formula IQ = (MA/CA) x 100. However, mental age is not a measure of chronological age; it is a measure of intellectual development.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Mental age is a score that represents a person's level of intellectual performance, which corresponds to the average performance of a specific age group. Therefore, it is a measure of the absolute level of intelligence.
Quick Tip: Remember the IQ formula: IQ = (Mental Age / Chronological Age) x 100. This shows that Mental Age is the measure of intelligence, which is then contextualized by the Chronological Age.


Question 27:

Raven's Progressive Matrices test is a

  • (A) Non-verbal test
  • (B) Group test
  • (C) Individual test
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Non-verbal test
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to classify Raven's Progressive Matrices, a widely used psychometric test. We need to identify its most defining characteristic from the given options.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Non-verbal test: This is the most fundamental characteristic of Raven's test. It is composed of visual geometric designs (matrices) from which a section has been removed. The test-taker must choose the missing piece from a set of options. This design deliberately minimizes the influence of language and cultural knowledge, making it a premier non-verbal measure of fluid intelligence.

(B) Group test and (C) Individual test: Raven's Progressive Matrices can be administered both to groups and to individuals. Since it can be either, neither of these options is its single defining feature. Its non-verbal nature is constant regardless of the administration format.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The most accurate and defining classification for Raven's Progressive Matrices is that it is a non-verbal test.
Quick Tip: When you see "Raven's Progressive Matrices," immediately think of patterns, shapes, and puzzles. This should lead you to its core identity as a non-verbal test designed to measure reasoning ability (fluid intelligence).


Question 28:

Who proposed the Introversion-Extroversion dimension of Personality?

  • (A) Jung
  • (B) Cattel
  • (C) Eysenck
  • (D) Allport
Correct Answer: (A) Jung
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the theorist who originally introduced the concepts of introversion and extroversion as a central dimension of personality.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Carl Jung: In his book "Psychological Types" (1921), Carl Jung introduced introversion and extroversion as the two major attitudes or orientations of personality. He described extroversion as an outward turning of psychic energy (libido) and introversion as an inward turning. This was a foundational concept in his theory of analytical psychology.

(C) Hans Eysenck: Eysenck later developed a major personality theory that included Introversion-Extroversion as one of its three superfactors (along with Neuroticism and Psychoticism). However, he built upon Jung's original concept, he did not propose it first.

(B) Raymond Cattell: Cattell's theory is known for the 16 Personality Factors (16PF), which includes a factor related to introversion/extroversion but he did not originate the dimension itself.

(D) Gordon Allport: Allport was a trait theorist known for his concept of cardinal, central, and secondary traits.


Step 3: Final Answer:

While Eysenck's work heavily features this dimension, Carl Jung was the one who originally proposed the introversion-extroversion dimension of personality.
Quick Tip: Remember the originator of the concept. Jung first proposed Introversion-Extroversion. Eysenck later incorporated it into his dimensional model. If the question asks who "proposed" or "originated" the idea, the answer is Jung.


Question 29:

Symptoms of Schizophrenia are

  • (A) Positive symptoms
  • (B) Negative symptoms
  • (C) Psychomotor symptoms
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the categories of symptoms found in schizophrenia. Schizophrenia is a complex mental disorder with a wide range of symptoms that are typically grouped into several categories.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Positive symptoms: These refer to an excess or distortion of normal functions. They include symptoms like hallucinations (perceiving things that aren't there) and delusions (fixed false beliefs).

(B) Negative symptoms: These refer to a decrease or loss of normal functions. They include symptoms like flat affect (reduced emotional expression), alogia (poverty of speech), and avolition (lack of motivation).

(C) Psychomotor symptoms: These relate to movement and behavior. They can range from disorganized or bizarre behavior to catatonia, where the person may remain motionless for long periods or exhibit repetitive, purposeless movements.

(D) All of these: Since positive, negative, and psychomotor symptoms are all recognized categories of symptoms in schizophrenia, this is the correct answer.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The symptoms of schizophrenia are broadly classified into positive, negative, and psychomotor/disorganized categories. Therefore, "All of these" is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: Remember the symptom categories for schizophrenia: \(\textbf{Positive}\) (addition of abnormal behaviors), \(\textbf{Negative}\) (absence of normal behaviors), and \(\textbf{Disorganized/Psychomotor}\) (disordered thought, speech, and movement).


Question 30:

Drug dependence refers to

  • (A) Psychological dependence
  • (B) Physiological dependence
  • (C) Psychological and physiological dependence
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Psychological and physiological dependence
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Drug dependence is a state where an individual needs a drug to function normally. It has two distinct but often co-occurring components.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Psychological dependence: This involves emotional and motivational symptoms, such as a strong craving for the drug and compulsive use despite harmful consequences. The user feels they need the drug to feel good or normal.

(B) Physiological dependence: This occurs when the body adapts to the presence of the drug, leading to tolerance (needing more of the drug to get the same effect) and withdrawal symptoms (negative physical and psychological effects when the drug is stopped or reduced).

(C) Psychological and physiological dependence: The clinical concept of drug dependence encompasses both the mental cravings (psychological) and the physical adaptation (physiological). A complete definition must include both aspects.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Drug dependence is a broad term that correctly refers to the combination of both psychological and physiological dependence.
Quick Tip: Think of dependence as having two parts: the mind's craving (\(\textbf{psychological}\)) and the body's reaction (\(\textbf{physiological}\) - tolerance and withdrawal). A complete answer includes both.


Question 31:

Who has propounded the idea of General Adaptation syndrome?

  • (A) Hans Selye
  • (B) Martin Seligman
  • (C) Holmes
  • (D) Lazarus
Correct Answer: (A) Hans Selye
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS) is a model that describes the physiological changes the body goes through when under stress. The question asks to identify the researcher who developed this model.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Hans Selye: An endocrinologist, Hans Selye is known as the "father of stress research." Through his work with rats in the 1930s, he was the first to identify and document the body's predictable, three-stage response to stressors, which he named the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS). The three stages are Alarm, Resistance, and Exhaustion.

(B) Martin Seligman: Known for his work on learned helplessness and as a founder of positive psychology.

(C) Holmes: Thomas Holmes, along with Richard Rahe, developed the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (SRRS) to measure stress based on life events.

(D) Richard Lazarus: Known for his theory of cognitive appraisal, which states that our emotional response to a stressor depends on how we interpret it (primary and secondary appraisal).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The idea of the General Adaptation Syndrome was propounded by Hans Selye.
Quick Tip: Create mental links for stress researchers: \(\textbf{Selye}\) = \(\textbf{S}\)yndrome (GAS), \(\textbf{Lazarus}\) = \(\textbf{L}\)ooking (appraisal), \(\textbf{Holmes}\) & Rahe = \(\textbf{H}\)appenings (life events).


Question 32:

Opposite state of stress is called

  • (A) Relaxation
  • (B) Conditioning
  • (C) Thinking
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Relaxation
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Stress is a physiological and psychological response to demands or threats, characterized by a state of heightened arousal (the "fight-or-flight" response). The question asks for the term that describes the opposite state.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Relaxation: The relaxation response is the physiological opposite of the stress response. It is a state of deep rest that is characterized by decreased heart rate, blood pressure, and muscle tension. It is associated with the parasympathetic nervous system (the "rest and digest" system).

(B) Conditioning: This is a process of learning associations between stimuli and behaviors (e.g., classical and operant conditioning). It is a learning mechanism, not a state of arousal.

(C) Thinking: This is a general cognitive process. While stressful thoughts can induce stress and calm thoughts can induce relaxation, thinking itself is not the opposite state of stress.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The physiological and psychological state opposite to stress is relaxation.
Quick Tip: Think in terms of the autonomic nervous system. Stress activates the sympathetic nervous system (fight-or-flight). Relaxation activates the parasympathetic nervous system (rest-and-digest). They are direct opposites.


Question 33:

Who is the founder of Cognitive-Behaviour therapy ?

  • (A) Beck
  • (B) Rice
  • (C) Ellis
  • (D) Bandura
Correct Answer: (A) Beck
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy (CBT) is a major school of psychotherapy. The question asks to identify its founder. While CBT has roots in several theories, two figures are most prominent: Aaron Beck and Albert Ellis.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Aaron Beck: In the 1960s, psychiatrist Aaron T. Beck developed what he called Cognitive Therapy (CT). His work focused on identifying and changing distorted or unhelpful thinking patterns (automatic thoughts, cognitive distortions) and their associated behaviors. CT is the direct foundation of modern CBT. For this reason, Beck is widely regarded as the father of Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy.

(C) Albert Ellis: Ellis developed Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy (REBT) in the 1950s. REBT is considered a precursor and a form of CBT, focusing on identifying and challenging irrational beliefs. While a pioneer, Beck's CT is more directly associated with the term and structure of modern CBT.

(D) Albert Bandura: Bandura's social learning theory contributed to the behavioral side of CBT but he did not found the therapy itself.

(B) Rice: This is not a recognized founder in this context.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Given the options, Aaron Beck is the most appropriate answer for the founder of Cognitive Therapy, which is the cornerstone of Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy.
Quick Tip: For questions on the founding of CBT, the two main names are Beck and Ellis. \(\textbf{Beck}\) is most directly associated with Cognitive Therapy (CBT), focusing on automatic thoughts. \(\textbf{Ellis}\) is associated with REBT, focusing on irrational beliefs. Beck is the most common answer for the "founder of CBT."


Question 34:

Which technique is used by Bandura to remove phobia?

  • (A) Modelling
  • (B) Aversive conditioning
  • (C) Token economy
  • (D) Systematic desensitization
Correct Answer: (A) Modelling
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the therapeutic technique associated with Albert Bandura for treating phobias. Bandura is the primary theorist behind Social Learning Theory, which emphasizes observational learning.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Modelling: Bandura's research famously demonstrated that phobias could be overcome through vicarious learning or modelling. This involves having the phobic individual observe a model (another person) interacting calmly and safely with the feared object or situation. This observation helps to extinguish the fear response.

(B) Aversive conditioning: This is a behavioral technique that associates an unpleasant stimulus with an unwanted behavior. It is not associated with Bandura.

(C) Token economy: This is a behavioral technique based on operant conditioning where desired behaviors are rewarded with tokens that can be exchanged for goods or privileges.

(D) Systematic desensitization: This is a behavioral technique developed by Joseph Wolpe, which involves pairing relaxation with a hierarchy of fear-provoking stimuli to gradually eliminate a phobia.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The technique directly associated with Albert Bandura's work and used to treat phobias is modelling.
Quick Tip: Always associate Albert Bandura with Social Learning Theory, the Bobo doll experiment, and the concept of \(\textbf{modelling}\) or observational learning.


Question 35:

Which skill is not essential for communication skill?

  • (A) Effective speaking
  • (B) Effective listening
  • (C) Non-verbal communication
  • (D) Emotional stability
Correct Answer: (D) Emotional stability
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify which of the options is not a core skill of communication. Communication involves the process of sending and receiving messages.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Effective speaking: This is the skill of encoding and transmitting a verbal message clearly and effectively. It is an essential communication skill.

(B) Effective listening: This is the skill of accurately receiving and interpreting messages in the communication process. It is a crucial part of communication.

(C) Non-verbal communication: This includes body language, gestures, facial expressions, and tone of voice. It is a vital skill that often conveys more meaning than words alone.

(D) Emotional stability: This is a personality trait, not a communication skill itself. While being emotionally stable can greatly enhance one's ability to communicate effectively (e.g., by preventing emotional outbursts that derail a conversation), it is a personal characteristic rather than a direct technique or skill used in the act of communicating. One can possess communication skills without having perfect emotional stability.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Effective speaking, listening, and non-verbal communication are essential skills of communication. Emotional stability is a personality trait that influences communication but is not a core communication skill itself.
Quick Tip: Distinguish between communication skills (actions like speaking, listening, gesturing) and personality \(\textbf{traits}\) (enduring characteristics like emotional stability, introversion, or agreeableness) that can affect how those skills are used.


Question 36:

Modelling is a type of

  • (A) Psychodynamic therapy
  • (B) Behaviour therapy
  • (C) Humanistic-existential therapy
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Behaviour therapy
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to classify "modelling" within the major schools of psychotherapy. Modelling is a therapeutic technique where a client learns new behaviors by observing and imitating a model (either the therapist or another person).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Modelling is a core concept of Albert Bandura's Social Learning Theory, which is a cornerstone of behaviorism and behavior therapy. The theory posits that learning can occur through observation, imitation, and modelling, without direct reinforcement. Because it focuses on observable behaviors and learning principles, it falls squarely under the umbrella of Behaviour Therapy.

(A) Psychodynamic therapy focuses on unconscious conflicts and insight.

(C) Humanistic-existential therapy emphasizes self-awareness, free will, and personal growth.

Neither of these approaches uses modelling as a primary technique.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Modelling is a technique rooted in learning theory and is therefore a type of Behaviour therapy.
Quick Tip: Associate key techniques with their therapeutic approaches. Modelling and observational learning are strongly linked to Albert Bandura and Behaviour Therapy. Insight and free association are linked to Psychodynamic Therapy. Unconditional positive regard is linked to Humanistic Therapy.


Question 37:

World Mental Health Day is celebrated on

  • (A) 10th October
  • (B) 21st October
  • (C) 31st August
  • (D) 21st November
Correct Answer: (A) 10th October
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a general knowledge question asking for the specific date on which World Mental Health Day is observed globally.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

World Mental Health Day is an international day for global mental health education, awareness, and advocacy against social stigma. It is observed annually on the 10th of October. The day was first celebrated in 1992 at the initiative of the World Federation for Mental Health.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct date for the celebration of World Mental Health Day is 10th October.
Quick Tip: Some important health-related dates are useful to remember for general knowledge sections. World Health Day is April 7th, while World Mental Health Day is October 10th.


Question 38:

Who proposed Insight theory of aggression ?

  • (A) Freud
  • (B) Dollard
  • (C) Bandura
  • (D) None of them
Correct Answer: (D) None of them
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the proponent of the "Insight theory of aggression." It's important to analyze what each listed psychologist is known for in the context of aggression.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


Insight Learning Theory: The concept of "insight" in psychology is most famously associated with Wolfgang Köhler's experiments with chimpanzees, which demonstrated sudden problem-solving. This is known as the "Insight Learning Theory," and it relates to cognition and problem-solving, not aggression.
Theories of Aggression:

(A) Sigmund Freud proposed an instinct theory of aggression, suggesting that aggression stems from an innate death instinct (Thanatos).
(B) John Dollard (along with Neal Miller) proposed the Frustration-Aggression Hypothesis, which posits that aggression is always a consequence of frustration.
(C) Albert Bandura proposed the Social Learning Theory of aggression, arguing that aggression is learned through observation and imitation (modelling).


There is no prominent psychological theory known as the "Insight theory of aggression." The term appears to be a conflation of Köhler's learning theory with the topic of aggression.


Step 3: Final Answer:

None of the listed psychologists, nor any other major psychologist, is credited with an "Insight theory of aggression." Therefore, the correct option is "None of them".
Quick Tip: Be cautious of questions that combine terms from different psychological domains (like "insight" from cognitive/learning theory and "aggression" from social/personality theory). If the combined term seems unfamiliar, it's possible that no such theory exists.


Question 39:

Aim of counselling is

  • (A) Therapeutic
  • (B) Preventive
  • (C) Developmental
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the primary aims of psychological counselling. Counselling is a professional relationship that empowers diverse individuals, families, and groups to accomplish mental health, wellness, education, and career goals.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Therapeutic: This is a primary aim. Counselling helps individuals overcome existing problems, such as anxiety, depression, or relationship issues. It aims to heal emotional distress.

(B) Preventive: Counselling also aims to prevent problems before they become severe. For example, pre-marital counselling can help prevent future marital conflicts, and stress management workshops can prevent burnout.

(C) Developmental: Counselling supports personal growth and development throughout the lifespan. This includes helping people navigate life transitions, improve self-esteem, enhance communication skills, and achieve their full potential.

(D) All of these: Since counselling encompasses healing existing problems (therapeutic), preventing future ones (preventive), and fostering personal growth (developmental), all listed options are valid aims.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The aims of counselling are comprehensive and include therapeutic, preventive, and developmental goals. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of these".
Quick Tip: Think of counselling in a broad sense. It's not just for "fixing problems" (therapeutic), but also for "building resilience" (preventive) and "achieving potential" (developmental).


Question 40:

Individual physical appearance is the skill of which of the following categories ?

  • (A) Counselling skill
  • (B) Interview skill
  • (C) Psychological testing skill
  • (D) Communication skill
Correct Answer: (D) Communication skill
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question, though slightly ill-phrased by calling physical appearance a "skill," asks where the management of one's appearance fits as a professional competency. Physical appearance is a form of non-verbal communication.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(D) Communication skill: Physical appearance—including dress, grooming, and posture—sends powerful non-verbal messages. It influences how others perceive us (e.g., as professional, trustworthy, careless). Therefore, consciously managing one's appearance to convey a desired message is a component of the broader category of communication skills.

(A) Counselling skill and (B) Interview skill: In both counselling and interviews, managing one's appearance is important as a part of effective communication, but it is not a standalone skill for those specific categories. It's a sub-component of the universal communication skills needed for both.

(C) Psychological testing skill: This relates to the ability to administer and interpret psychological tests, which is unrelated to physical appearance.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Managing one's physical appearance is an aspect of non-verbal communication, which is a key part of overall Communication skill.
Quick Tip: When a question asks where a personal attribute fits professionally, consider its function. Physical appearance functions as a non-verbal cue, which is a fundamental part of communication.


Question 41:

Which of the following is an example of Primary group?

  • (A) Family
  • (B) Political party
  • (C) Class
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Family
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Sociologist Charles Horton Cooley introduced the distinction between primary and secondary groups.

Primary groups are small social groups whose members share close, personal, enduring relationships. These relationships are marked by mutual concern, and they are ends in themselves.

Secondary groups are large, impersonal groups whose members pursue a specific goal or activity. Relationships are often temporary and instrumental.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Family: The family is the archetypal primary group. It is characterized by intimate, face-to-face, long-lasting relationships based on emotional connection.

(B) Political party: This is a secondary group. Members are united by a common ideology or goal, and interactions are typically formal and impersonal.

(C) Class: A school class is a secondary group. Students and the teacher come together for the specific, instrumental purpose of education.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The family is the best example of a primary group among the choices provided.
Quick Tip: Remember: \(\textbf{Primary}\) = Personal, Permanent (long-term), Precious (emotional). \(\textbf{Secondary}\) = Superficial, Short-term, Specific purpose. A family fits the primary category perfectly.


Question 42:

Key determinant of attitude formation is

  • (A) Additional information
  • (B) Need
  • (C) Feeling of insecurity
  • (D) Primary socialization
Correct Answer: (D) Primary socialization
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Attitude formation is the process by which individuals develop their feelings, beliefs, and behaviors towards various objects, people, and events. The question asks for the "key determinant" among the choices.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(D) Primary socialization: This is the process of learning cultural norms, values, and attitudes during childhood, primarily from family and close community members. This is the most fundamental and comprehensive determinant of attitude formation, as it is through this process that we first learn what to like, dislike, believe, and value.

(A), (B), and (C) are all factors that contribute to attitude formation or change, but they are often shaped by or occur within the context of primary socialization. For instance, our needs, feelings of insecurity, and how we interpret additional information are heavily influenced by what we learned from our family and culture early in life. Primary socialization is the foundational context in which other determinants operate.


Step 3: Final Answer:

While all options can influence attitudes, primary socialization is the most fundamental and key determinant of initial attitude formation.
Quick Tip: When asked for a "key" or "main" determinant, look for the broadest and most foundational option. Primary socialization (learning from family/culture in childhood) is the bedrock upon which most of our initial attitudes are built.


Question 43:

The other name of Dementia Precox is

  • (A) Schizophrenia
  • (B) Paranoia
  • (C) Manic Depressive
  • (D) Involutional Melancholia
Correct Answer: (A) Schizophrenia
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question pertains to the history of psychiatric nosology (the classification of diseases). It asks for the modern term for a historical diagnosis.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

In 1893, German psychiatrist Emil Kraepelin identified a new mental illness which he called "dementia praecox" (meaning "premature dementia"). He used this term to describe a disorder characterized by a long-term, deteriorating course that often began in young adulthood.

Later, in 1908, Swiss psychiatrist Eugen Bleuler challenged Kraepelin's view that the disorder always led to dementia. He proposed the term "schizophrenia" (meaning "splitting of the mind") to better describe the fragmentation of mental functions he observed in patients. Bleuler's term eventually replaced Kraepelin's.

(C) "Manic Depressive" was Kraepelin's term for what is now known as Bipolar Disorder.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The historical term "Dementia Precox" was replaced by the modern term "Schizophrenia".
Quick Tip: Remember these historical pairings in psychiatry: \(\textbf{Dementia Praecox}\) = Kraepelin -> \(\textbf{Schizophrenia}\) = Bleuler. \(\textbf{Manic Depressive}\) = Kraepelin -> \(\textbf{Bipolar Disorder}\).


Question 44:

Which of the following is not a projective test?

  • (A) R. T.
  • (B) M. M. P. I.
  • (C) T. A. T.
  • (D) P. F. T.
Correct Answer: (B) M. M. P. I.
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question requires differentiating between projective and objective personality tests.

Projective tests present ambiguous stimuli to which the individual responds. The idea is that the individual "projects" their unconscious thoughts, feelings, and conflicts onto the stimuli.

Objective tests (or self-report inventories) present structured items (like true/false questions or rating scales) and have standardized scoring.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's identify the tests by their abbreviations:

(A) R. T.: Rorschach Test. This is the classic inkblot test, a prime example of a projective test.

(B) M. M. P. I.: Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory. This is a widely used objective test consisting of hundreds of true/false statements. It is not a projective test.

(C) T. A. T.: Thematic Apperception Test. This test uses ambiguous pictures, and the individual has to tell a story about them. It is a projective test.

(D) P. F. T.: Picture-Frustration Test (e.g., Rosenzweig's P-F Study). This test presents cartoon-like pictures of frustrating situations, and the individual fills in a response. It is a projective technique.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The Rorschach Test, T.A.T., and P.F.T. are all projective tests. The M.M.P.I. is an objective personality inventory. Therefore, the M.M.P.I. is not a projective test.
Quick Tip: The key difference: Projective tests involve interpreting something ambiguous (inkblots, pictures). Objective tests involve answering direct questions (True/False, Agree/Disagree). The MMPI is the most famous objective personality test.


Question 45:

Who is the founder of Behaviour therapy ?

  • (A) Hull
  • (B) Skinner
  • (C) Freud
  • (D) None of them
Correct Answer: (B) Skinner
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the founder of Behaviour Therapy. Behaviour therapy is a broad term for psychotherapies that treat mental health disorders by focusing on changing maladaptive behaviors. It is rooted in the principles of behaviorism.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

While Behaviour Therapy has many contributors (like Ivan Pavlov, John B. Watson, and Joseph Wolpe), B.F. Skinner's work on operant conditioning is a fundamental pillar of the field. His principles of reinforcement, punishment, and shaping form the basis of many behavioral techniques, especially Applied Behavior Analysis (ABA).

(A) Clark Hull was an influential behaviorist, but his work was more theoretical and less directly translated into therapeutic techniques than Skinner's.

(C) Sigmund Freud founded psychoanalysis, which is fundamentally different from and often contrasted with behavior therapy.

Given the choices, B.F. Skinner is the most appropriate answer as his foundational work in operant conditioning is central to the development and practice of behavior therapy.


Step 3: Final Answer:

B.F. Skinner is considered a key founder and influential figure in the development of behaviorism and its application in Behaviour Therapy.
Quick Tip: For questions about the founders of psychological schools: \(\textbf{Freud}\) = Psychoanalysis; \(\textbf{Skinner/Watson}\) = Behaviorism; \(\textbf{Maslow/Rogers}\) = Humanism; \(\textbf{Beck/Ellis}\) = Cognitive Therapy.


Question 46:

Attitude is

  • (A) Permanent
  • (B) Static
  • (C) Dynamic
  • (D) Non-directive
Correct Answer: (C) Dynamic
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

An attitude is a learned tendency to evaluate something (a person, issue, or object) in a certain way. The question asks about the nature of attitudes over time.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(C) Dynamic: Attitudes are considered dynamic because they can and do change over time. They are learned through experience and socialization, and they can be modified by new information, personal experiences, persuasion, or cognitive dissonance.

(A) Permanent and (B) Static: These are incorrect. While some core attitudes can be stable and resistant to change, they are not inherently permanent or static.

(D) Non-directive: This term describes a style of therapy (e.g., Rogerian therapy) and is not used to describe the nature of an attitude.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Attitudes are not fixed; they are subject to change and influence. Therefore, they are best described as dynamic.
Quick Tip: Think about your own attitudes towards things like music, politics, or food. Have they changed since you were a child? The fact that attitudes can change makes them dynamic, not static or permanent.


Question 47:

The theory of Cognitive Dissonance was propounded by

  • (A) Heider
  • (B) Katz
  • (C) Festinger
  • (D) None of them
Correct Answer: (C) Festinger
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a knowledge-based question asking to identify the psychologist who developed the theory of cognitive dissonance.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(C) Leon Festinger: In 1957, social psychologist Leon Festinger proposed the theory of cognitive dissonance. The theory states that individuals experience psychological discomfort (dissonance) when they hold two or more conflicting beliefs, ideas, or values, or when their beliefs are inconsistent with their actions. To reduce this discomfort, people are motivated to change their attitudes, beliefs, or behaviors.

(A) Fritz Heider is known for Balance Theory and Attribution Theory.

(B) Daniel Katz is known for the functionalist theory of attitudes.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The theory of Cognitive Dissonance was propounded by Leon Festinger.
Quick Tip: Associate key social psychology theories with their creators: \(\textbf{Festinger}\) = Cognitive Dissonance; \(\textbf{Heider}\) = Balance Theory; \(\textbf{Milgram}\) = Obedience; \(\textbf{Asch}\) = Conformity.


Question 48:

In which type of group is the feeling of unity mostly found ?

  • (A) Primary group
  • (B) Secondary group
  • (C) Both (A) and (B)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Primary group
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks where the strongest sense of unity (or group cohesiveness) is found. This requires understanding the difference between primary and secondary groups.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Primary group: These groups (e.g., family, close friends) are defined by their strong emotional ties, personal intimacy, and a sense of "we-ness" or unity. The relationships are ends in themselves, fostering a powerful sense of belonging and solidarity.

(B) Secondary group: These groups (e.g., a corporation, a college class) are larger, more impersonal, and organized around a specific task or goal. While some unity is necessary for the group to function, it is typically less intense and emotionally based than in a primary group. The feeling of unity is instrumental to achieving a goal, not an end in itself.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The feeling of unity is a defining characteristic of primary groups and is found most strongly there.
Quick Tip: Unity and a strong sense of "we" are the hallmarks of primary groups. Think of the loyalty and connection within a family versus the connection among coworkers at a large company.


Question 49:

Main cause of accident is

  • (A) Intense light
  • (B) Accident proneness
  • (C) Noise
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Accident proneness
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the "main cause" of accidents from a psychological or individual-focused perspective, as suggested by the options. While most accidents are caused by "human error" in a general sense, the options provide more specific potential causes.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Intense light and (C) Noise: These are environmental factors or distractors that can contribute to accidents, but they are situational and not a universal "main cause".

(B) Accident proneness: This is a theory suggesting that certain individuals, due to specific personality traits or stable personal characteristics (like risk-taking, impulsivity, or lower cognitive ability), are more likely to be involved in accidents than others. In industrial and organizational psychology, identifying individual factors that predict accidents is a major area of study. From this perspective, stable individual differences are considered a primary root cause, as opposed to transient environmental factors.

While the theory of a single "accident-prone personality" is debated, the idea that individual factors are a main cause of accidents is widely accepted.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Among the given choices, "Accident proneness" represents the concept of stable individual characteristics being a main cause of accidents, which is a significant focus in safety psychology.
Quick Tip: In psychology questions about causes of behavior (like accidents), look for answers that relate to the individual (personality, traits, abilities) versus those that relate to the environment. "Accident proneness" points to individual factors as the cause.


Question 50:

Bandwagon effect is the cause of

  • (A) Group cohesiveness
  • (B) Group norm
  • (C) Group polarisation
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (B) Group norm
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The bandwagon effect is a cognitive bias whereby individuals are more likely to adopt a certain behavior, style, or attitude because it is popular and others are doing it. The question asks what this effect causes in a group context.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(B) Group norm: A group norm is an unwritten rule about acceptable behavior within a group. The bandwagon effect directly contributes to the establishment and reinforcement of group norms. As more people adopt a behavior (get on the bandwagon), that behavior becomes the expected or normal way to act within the group. People conform to this emerging norm partly because of the bandwagon effect.

(A) Group cohesiveness (the sense of unity) can be enhanced by shared norms, but the bandwagon effect doesn't directly cause cohesiveness itself.

(C) Group polarisation (groups making more extreme decisions) can be influenced by the bandwagon effect as people shift towards the perceived popular opinion, but the most direct outcome is conformity to a norm.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The bandwagon effect is a mechanism of conformity that causes individuals to adopt and thereby strengthen a group norm.
Quick Tip: Think of the bandwagon effect as a "popularity contest" for behaviors. The winning behavior becomes the "rule" or the "norm" for the group.


Question 51:

What is the meaning of individual difference?

  • (A) Difference in individual's characteristics
  • (B) Difference in individual's behaviour pattern
  • (C) Both (A) and (B)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Both (A) and (B)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The field of individual differences in psychology studies the ways in which people differ from one another. The question asks for a comprehensive definition.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Difference in individual's characteristics: This refers to enduring traits and attributes such as personality (e.g., introversion vs. extroversion), intelligence, abilities, values, and physical traits. This is a core part of individual differences.

(B) Difference in individual's behaviour pattern: This refers to the observable ways people act and react in various situations. These behavioral patterns are often the expression of the underlying characteristics mentioned in (A).

(C) Both (A) and (B): Since individual differences encompass both the underlying psychological characteristics and the resulting observable patterns of behavior, a complete definition must include both aspects. Differences in characteristics lead to differences in behavior.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The meaning of individual difference includes variation in both internal characteristics and external behavior patterns. Therefore, "Both (A) and (B)" is the most accurate answer.
Quick Tip: When defining broad psychological concepts, look for the most inclusive answer. Individual differences cover everything that makes one person distinct from another, including internal traits and external actions.


Question 52:

Sheldon's ectomorphy type personality is similar to which type of personality of kretschmer?

  • (A) Pyknic type
  • (B) Asthetic type
  • (C) Athletic type
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Asthetic type
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question compares two "constitutional" theories of personality, which link body type (physique) to temperament. We need to match Sheldon's "ectomorph" with its equivalent in Kretschmer's system. (Note: "Asthetic" is a common misspelling of "Asthenic").


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's compare the typologies:


William Sheldon's Somatotypes:

Ectomorph: Thin, linear, fragile body. Associated with cerebrotonic temperament (introverted, anxious, thoughtful).
Mesomorph: Muscular, athletic body. Associated with somatotonic temperament (assertive, adventurous).
Endomorph: Round, soft body. Associated with viscerotonic temperament (sociable, relaxed).

Ernst Kretschmer's Types:

Asthenic (or Leptosomic): Thin, lean, narrow body. This is the direct parallel to Sheldon's ectomorph.
Athletic: Muscular body. Corresponds to mesomorph.
Pyknic: Plump, round body. Corresponds to endomorph.


Based on this comparison, Sheldon's ectomorph (thin build) is similar to Kretschmer's asthenic type.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Sheldon's ectomorphy type corresponds to Kretschmer's asthenic (asthetic) type.
Quick Tip: Remember the pairings by body shape: \(\textbf{Thin/Linear}\) (Ectomorph = Asthenic); \(\textbf{Muscular}\) (Mesomorph = Athletic); \(\textbf{Round/Soft}\) (Endomorph = Pyknic). These theories are now considered outdated but are historically important.


Question 53:

Which of the following is not the biological cause of abnormality?

  • (A) Heredity
  • (B) Early deprivation
  • (C) Physique
  • (D) Endocrine glands
Correct Answer: (B) Early deprivation
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question requires distinguishing between biological and environmental (or psychosocial) causes of abnormal behavior. Biological causes stem from the physical and genetic makeup of an individual. Environmental causes stem from experiences and social context.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Heredity: This refers to genetic inheritance from parents. Genetic predispositions are a primary biological cause of many mental disorders.

(C) Physique: This refers to body structure and constitution. While largely outdated, theories linking physique to abnormality are based on biological factors.

(D) Endocrine glands: These glands produce hormones. Hormonal imbalances (e.g., thyroid problems, cortisol dysregulation) are a well-established biological cause of psychological symptoms.

(B) Early deprivation: This refers to a lack of necessary environmental inputs during childhood, such as emotional care, nutrition, or social stimulation. It can also include trauma or abuse. This is an environmental or psychosocial cause, not a biological one, although it can lead to biological changes in the brain. The origin of the cause is in the environment.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Heredity, physique, and endocrine glands are all considered biological factors. Early deprivation is an environmental/psychosocial factor. Therefore, it is not a biological cause of abnormality.
Quick Tip: To distinguish causes of abnormality, ask "Is this something the person is born with or part of their body's internal functioning (biological), or is it something that happened to them from the outside world (environmental/psychosocial)?" Early deprivation clearly falls into the second category.


Question 54:

Which one among the following is not the topographical aspect of mind?

  • (A) Conscious
  • (B) Unconscious
  • (C) Ego
  • (D) Subconscious
Correct Answer: (C) Ego
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Sigmund Freud proposed two models of the mind: the topographical model and the structural model.

The Topographical Model describes the levels of consciousness, like a map of the mind. It consists of:


Conscious: What we are currently aware of.
Preconscious (or Subconscious): Thoughts and memories that are not currently in consciousness but can be easily brought to mind.
Unconscious: A reservoir of feelings, thoughts, urges, and memories that are outside of our conscious awareness, often because they are unacceptable or unpleasant.

The Structural Model describes the "parts" or functions of the personality. It consists of:


Id: The primitive, instinctual part.
Ego: The realistic part that mediates between the Id and the Superego.
Superego: The moral conscience.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The question asks which option is NOT a topographical aspect. Conscious, Unconscious, and Subconscious are all parts of the topographical model. The Ego, however, is a part of the structural model.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The Ego is a component of Freud's structural model of the mind, not the topographical model.
Quick Tip: Remember the two Freudian models: \(\textbf{Topographical}\) = Levels of awareness (Conscious, Preconscious, Unconscious). \(\textbf{Structural}\) = Personality parts (Id, Ego, Superego). The Ego is a part, not a level.


Question 55:

Which statement is correct regarding skill ?

  • (A) There is a change in attitude of individual skill
  • (B) Skill is an inborn attribute
  • (C) Skill is acquired by training
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Skill is acquired by training
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

A skill is the learned ability to perform an action with determined results with good execution, often within a given amount of time, energy, or both. The question asks for the most accurate statement about the nature of skills.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) There is a change in attitude of individual skill: This statement is unclear and not a core definition of skill. While attitude can affect skill performance, this is not its definition.

(B) Skill is an inborn attribute: This is incorrect. An inborn attribute is an aptitude or talent. A skill, by definition, is developed and honed through practice, learning, and experience.

(C) Skill is acquired by training: This is the correct definition. Skills are not innate; they are developed through deliberate effort, practice, and training. For example, no one is born knowing how to play the piano or write code; these skills are acquired.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The defining characteristic of a skill is that it is learned and developed. Therefore, the statement "Skill is acquired by training" is correct.
Quick Tip: Differentiate between \(\textbf{aptitude}\) (inborn potential) and \(\textbf{skill}\) (learned ability). You are born with an aptitude for music, but you acquire the skill of playing the guitar through training.


Question 56:

The stages of Psycho-sexual development are

  • (A) 4
  • (B) 6
  • (C) 10
  • (D) 5
Correct Answer: (D) 5
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question asks for the total number of stages in Sigmund Freud's theory of psychosexual development. This theory describes how personality develops during childhood through a series of stages, each focused on a different erogenous zone.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Freud's theory outlines five distinct stages of psychosexual development:

1. Oral Stage (Birth to 1 year)
2. ***** Stage (1 to 3 years)
3. Phallic Stage (3 to 6 years)
4. Latency Stage (6 to puberty)
5. Genital Stage (Puberty to death)

Counting these stages gives a total of 5.


Step 3: Final Answer:

There are 5 stages in Freud's theory of psychosexual development.
Quick Tip: Use the mnemonic "Old Age Pensioners Love Grapes" to remember the five stages in order: Oral, *****, Phallic, Latency, Genital.


Question 57:

Which of the following is not a defence mechanism?

  • (A) Repression
  • (B) Suppression
  • (C) Projection
  • (D) Ego
Correct Answer: (D) Ego
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

In psychoanalytic theory, defense mechanisms are unconscious psychological strategies used to cope with anxiety and to protect the self-concept. The question asks to identify which option is not a defense mechanism.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Repression: An unconscious mechanism of pushing disturbing or threatening thoughts from awareness. It is a primary defense mechanism.

(B) Suppression: A conscious mechanism of pushing unwanted thoughts out of mind. While conscious, it is still considered a defense mechanism.

(C) Projection: A defense mechanism where an individual attributes their own unacceptable thoughts, feelings, and motives to another person.

(D) Ego: The Ego is one of the three components of personality in Freud's structural model (along with the Id and Superego). The Ego is the part of the personality that uses defense mechanisms to mediate between the demands of the Id, the Superego, and reality. It is not a defense mechanism itself.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Repression, Suppression, and Projection are all defense mechanisms. The Ego is the structure of the mind that employs them. Therefore, the Ego is not a defense mechanism.
Quick Tip: Remember that the Ego is the "manager" of the personality. Defense mechanisms are the "tools" the Ego uses to do its job of managing anxiety.


Question 58:

According to Freud, during Oedipus period the boy competes with his

  • (A) Father
  • (B) Brother
  • (C) Mother
  • (D) Sister
Correct Answer: (A) Father
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question refers to the Oedipus complex, a key concept in Freud's theory that occurs during the Phallic stage of psychosexual development (ages 3-6).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The Oedipus complex describes a boy's feelings of unconscious sexual desire for his mother and, as a result, feelings of jealousy, rivalry, and hostility towards his father. The boy views his father as a competitor for his mother's affection. The resolution of this conflict, through identification with the father, is crucial for the development of the superego and a mature gender identity.


Step 3: Final Answer:

During the Oedipus period, the boy competes with his father for the affection of his mother.
Quick Tip: The Oedipus complex is named after the Greek myth of Oedipus, who unknowingly killed his father and married his mother. This story helps to remember the core conflict: the boy's rivalry with his father over his mother.


Question 59:

Who propounded the 'Fight or flight response' ?

  • (A) Binet
  • (B) Hans Selye
  • (C) Cannon
  • (D) None of them
Correct Answer: (C) Cannon
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a knowledge-based question asking to identify the scientist who first described the "fight-or-flight" response. This response is an acute stress response, a physiological reaction that occurs in response to a perceived harmful event, attack, or threat to survival.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(C) Walter Cannon: In the 1920s, American physiologist Walter Cannon was the first to describe the fight-or-flight response. He recognized that upon perceiving a threat, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, releasing hormones (like adrenaline) that prepare the body to either confront the threat (fight) or escape from it (flight).

(A) Alfred Binet was a pioneer in intelligence testing.

(B) Hans Selye is famous for his work on chronic stress and the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS), which describes the body's response over a longer period of stress.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The 'Fight or flight response' was propounded by Walter Cannon.
Quick Tip: Associate key stress concepts with their proponents: \(\textbf{Cannon}\) = \(\textbf{C}\)risis (acute stress, fight-or-flight). \(\textbf{Selye}\) = \(\textbf{S}\)yndrome (chronic stress, GAS).


Question 60:

The stress produced by self is called

  • (A) Environmental stress
  • (B) Physical stress
  • (C) Psychological stress
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Psychological stress
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the term that describes stress originating from internal, mental, or emotional sources.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Environmental stress is caused by external factors in the environment, such as noise, pollution, crowding, or natural disasters.

(B) Physical stress is caused by demands on the body, such as illness, injury, intense exercise, or lack of sleep.

(C) Psychological stress is generated by our own thoughts, feelings, and perceptions. It stems from how we interpret and react to situations. Examples include worrying about the future, frustration, internal conflict, and negative self-talk. This type of stress is "produced by self."


Step 3: Final Answer:

Stress that originates from one's own thoughts and feelings is called psychological stress.
Quick Tip: Categorize stress by its source: \(\textbf{External world}\) = Environmental stress. \(\textbf{Body}\) = Physical stress. \(\textbf{Mind/Thoughts}\) = Psychological stress.


Question 61:

Normal and abnormal differ in

  • (A) Quality
  • (B) Kind
  • (C) Degree
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Degree
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question addresses the fundamental issue of how to define abnormality in psychology. The two main perspectives are the categorical model and the dimensional (or continuum) model.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Quality and (B) Kind: These options suggest a categorical view, where normal and abnormal are two distinct categories of behavior, different in their fundamental nature or kind. This view is largely considered outdated.

(C) Degree: This option represents the dimensional or continuum model, which is the prevailing view in modern psychology. This model suggests that there is no sharp dividing line between normal and abnormal. Instead, mental health and illness exist on a continuum. Abnormal behaviors are seen as exaggerations or deficits of normal psychological phenomena. For example, feeling sad is normal, but chronic, debilitating sadness that meets diagnostic criteria is depression; they differ in degree (intensity, duration, impairment), not in kind.


Step 3: Final Answer:

According to the modern continuum model of psychopathology, normal and abnormal behavior differ in degree, not in kind.
Quick Tip: Think of mental health like physical health. There isn't a simple "healthy" vs "sick" switch. It's a spectrum. A person can have mild anxiety or severe anxiety. The difference is one of degree.


Question 62:

Who is the father of Criminology?

  • (A) Sheldon
  • (B) Moreno
  • (C) Lombroso
  • (D) Kretschmer
Correct Answer: (C) Lombroso
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a knowledge-based question asking to identify the historical figure considered the founder of the field of criminology.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(C) Cesare Lombroso: An Italian physician and criminologist from the 19th century, Lombroso is widely regarded as the "father of modern criminology." He founded the Italian School of Positivist Criminology. His theory suggested that criminality was inherited and that someone "born criminal" could be identified by physical defects, which he termed "atavistic stigmata." While his theories are now largely discredited, his emphasis on scientific study of the criminal was foundational to the field.

(A) William Sheldon and (D) Ernst Kretschmer proposed theories linking personality to body type (somatotyping).

(B) Jacob L. Moreno was a psychiatrist known for developing psychodrama and sociometry.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Cesare Lombroso is known as the father of criminology.
Quick Tip: Associate foundational figures with their fields. For criminology, the key name to remember is Cesare Lombroso and his (now-outdated) theory of the "born criminal."


Question 63:

Who propounded Psychodynamic therapy ?

  • (A) Rogers
  • (B) Allport
  • (C) Freud
  • (D) Watson
Correct Answer: (C) Freud
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the founder of the psychodynamic approach to therapy. This school of thought emphasizes the influence of unconscious psychological processes on human behavior.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(C) Sigmund Freud: Freud is the founder of psychoanalysis, the original form of psychodynamic therapy. His theories about the unconscious mind, defense mechanisms, and the importance of early childhood experiences are the bedrock of all subsequent psychodynamic approaches.

(A) Carl Rogers was a founder of the humanistic approach (person-centered therapy).

(B) Gordon Allport was a prominent trait theorist of personality.

(D) John B. Watson was a founder of behaviorism.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Sigmund Freud is the person who propounded the theories and techniques that form the basis of psychodynamic therapy.
Quick Tip: Remember the "Big Four" founders: \(\textbf{Freud}\) (Psychodynamic), \(\textbf{Watson/Skinner}\) (Behaviorism), \(\textbf{Rogers/Maslow}\) (Humanistic), \(\textbf{Beck/Ellis}\) (Cognitive).


Question 64:

Dynamic aspect of mind is

  • (A) Ego
  • (B) Id
  • (C) Superego
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The term "dynamic aspect of mind" refers to Freud's structural model of personality (Id, Ego, Superego). The "dynamic" part refers to the constant interaction, conflict, and interplay among these three structures.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Freud's model is called psychodynamic precisely because it describes a dynamic system:


(B) The Id provides the raw, instinctual energy and demands immediate gratification.
(C) The Superego represents the internalized moral standards and ideals.
(A) The Ego mediates the conflict between the Id's desires, the Superego's restrictions, and the constraints of reality.

The constant struggle and negotiation among these three components constitute the dynamic aspect of the mind. Therefore, all three are part of this dynamic system.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The Id, Ego, and Superego collectively represent the dynamic aspect of the mind according to psychoanalytic theory.
Quick Tip: When you see the word "dynamic" in the context of Freudian psychology, think of the "dynamics" of a drama with three characters: the impulsive Id, the moralistic Superego, and the mediating Ego. All three are essential to the plot.


Question 65:

The total number of cards in Ink Blot Test is

  • (A) 10
  • (B) 11
  • (C) 12
  • (D) 20
Correct Answer: (A) 10
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a factual question about the standard composition of the Rorschach Inkblot Test, a well-known projective personality test.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The standard Rorschach test, developed by Hermann Rorschach, consists of a set of 10 official inkblots printed on cards. Five of the inkblots are black and white, two are black and red, and three are multicolored. The test administrator presents these 10 cards in a specific order to the subject.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The total number of cards in the Rorschach Inkblot Test is 10.
Quick Tip: For common psychological tests, it's useful to remember key numbers. Rorschach = 10 inkblots. MMPI-2 has 567 items. Wechsler intelligence scales (WAIS/WISC) typically have around 10-15 subtests.


Question 66:

Who has propounded the PASS model or theory of intelligence?

  • (A) Das, Naglieri
  • (B) Binet
  • (C) Cattell
  • (D) None of them
Correct Answer: (A) Das, Naglieri
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a knowledge-based question asking to identify the creators of the PASS theory of intelligence.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The PASS theory of intelligence is a model based on the neuropsychological work of A.R. Luria. It proposes that human intellectual functioning involves four interrelated cognitive processes:


Planning
Attention-Arousal
Simultaneous processing
Successive processing

This theory was developed by J.P. Das, Jack Naglieri, and John Kirby. The Cognitive Assessment System (CAS) is a test based on this model.

(B) Alfred Binet developed the concept of mental age.

(C) Raymond Cattell proposed the theory of fluid and crystallized intelligence.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The PASS model of intelligence was propounded by Das and Naglieri.
Quick Tip: Use the acronym PASS to link the theory to its proponents. The names Das and Naglieri might not be as famous as Binet or Cattell, making them a specific pairing to memorize for the PASS theory.


Question 67:

A child has I.Q. between 0-19. In which of the following categories will he/she be placed ?

  • (A) Idiot
  • (B) Average
  • (C) Genius
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Idiot
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question uses an early, now obsolete, classification system for levels of intellectual ability based on IQ scores. It's important to answer based on this historical context.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The historical classification system for what is now called intellectual disability used the following terms:


Idiot: IQ score below 25 (the range 0-19 falls within this). This represented the most profound level of disability.
Imbecile: IQ score from 25 to 50.
Moron: IQ score from 50 to 70.

These terms are now considered highly offensive and have been replaced in modern diagnostics (like the DSM-5) with levels of severity (Mild, Moderate, Severe, Profound) based on adaptive functioning rather than just IQ scores. However, based on the historical terminology presented in the question, an IQ of 0-19 corresponds to the "Idiot" category.

(B) Average IQ is typically 90-110.

(C) Genius is typically considered an IQ of 140 or above.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Within the historical classification system, a child with an IQ between 0-19 would be placed in the "Idiot" category.
Quick Tip: Recognize that this question uses outdated and offensive terminology. While you need to know it for historical context in exams, always use current, respectful terminology (e.g., "profound intellectual disability") in modern practice.


Question 68:

Hans Selye called the accepted stress as

  • (A) Eustress
  • (B) Distress
  • (C) Exhaustion
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Eustress
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Hans Selye, a pioneer in stress research, made a crucial distinction between different types of stress based on their effects.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Selye coined two terms to describe the two faces of stress:

(B) Distress: This is the negative form of stress. It occurs when demands exceed our coping abilities, leading to anxiety, worry, and a decrease in performance. It's the type of stress we usually mean in everyday language.

(A) Eustress: This is the positive form of stress. It is a beneficial stress that motivates us, focuses our energy, feels exciting, and can improve performance. Examples include the stress of a challenging work project, a competitive sport, or planning a wedding. Selye referred to this as "accepted" or good stress.

(C) Exhaustion is the final stage of Selye's General Adaptation Syndrome, which occurs after prolonged distress.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Hans Selye called the positive, beneficial, or "accepted" form of stress eustress.
Quick Tip: Remember the prefixes: \(\textbf{Eu-}\) (from Greek) means "good" or "well," as in euphoria. \(\textbf{Dis-}\) means "bad" or "negative," as in discomfort. So, \(\textbf{Eustress}\) = good stress, \(\textbf{Distress}\) = bad stress.


Question 69:

Which of the following is an environmental stress ?

  • (A) Frustration
  • (B) Earthquake
  • (C) Tension
  • (D) Divorce
Correct Answer: (B) Earthquake
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Stressors can be categorized by their source. An environmental stressor is a source of stress that comes from the physical environment.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Frustration and (C) Tension: These are internal psychological states; they are responses to stressors, not the environmental stressors themselves.

(D) Divorce: This is a major life event and is typically classified as a social or personal stressor, as it relates to interpersonal relationships and social roles.

(B) Earthquake: This is a large-scale event occurring in the physical environment. Natural disasters, pollution, noise, extreme temperatures, and crowding are all examples of environmental stressors.


Step 3: Final Answer:

An earthquake is a classic example of an environmental stressor.
Quick Tip: Differentiate stressors by their origin: \(\textbf{Psychological}\) (internal thoughts, conflicts), \(\textbf{Social}\) (relationships, life events like divorce), and \(\textbf{Environmental}\) (physical surroundings, natural disasters like earthquakes).


Question 70:

Cleaning of hands very frequently is a symptom of

  • (A) Obsessive compulsive neurosis
  • (B) Hysteria
  • (C) Schizophrenia
  • (D) Paranoia
Correct Answer: (A) Obsessive compulsive neurosis
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question describes a specific behavior—frequent hand cleaning—and asks for the corresponding diagnosis. This requires knowledge of the symptoms of various mental disorders.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

(A) Obsessive compulsive neurosis: This is an older term for what is now known as Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD). OCD is characterized by two main components:


Obsessions: Recurrent, intrusive, and unwanted thoughts, often about contamination or germs.
Compulsions: Repetitive, ritualistic behaviors that an individual feels driven to perform to reduce the anxiety caused by the obsessions. Frequent hand washing is a classic example of a compulsion related to an obsession with germs.

(B) Hysteria is an outdated term for conversion disorder or somatic symptom disorder.

(C) Schizophrenia is a psychotic disorder with symptoms like hallucinations and delusions.

(D) Paranoia is characterized by delusions of persecution or mistrust.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Very frequent hand cleaning is a classic compulsive behavior, which is a hallmark symptom of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (historically called Obsessive-Compulsive Neurosis).
Quick Tip: Remember the OCD cycle: \(\textbf{Obsession}\) (e.g., "My hands are contaminated!") -\(>\) \(\textbf{Anxiety}\) -\(>\) \(\textbf{Compulsion}\) (e.g., wash hands) -\(>\) \(\textbf{Temporary Relief}\). Frequent, ritualistic cleaning is a key sign of a compulsion.


Question 71:

What is hallucination?

Correct Answer:
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A hallucination is a sensory experience that appears real but is created by the mind. It is a perception in the absence of an external stimulus. Hallucinations can affect any of the five senses:


Auditory hallucinations: Hearing sounds or voices that no one else hears (most common in schizophrenia).

Visual hallucinations: Seeing things that are not there, such as people, objects, or lights.

Olfactory hallucinations: Smelling odors that are not present.

Gustatory hallucinations: Experiencing tastes that have no source.

Tactile hallucinations: Feeling sensations on the body, like something crawling on the skin or being touched, in the absence of a stimulus.


Hallucinations can be symptoms of mental health disorders (like schizophrenia), substance use, or neurological conditions.
Quick Tip: Remember to distinguish between a hallucination (a false perception) and a delusion (a false belief). Hallucinations are sensory, while delusions are cognitive.


Question 72:

Define alcoholism.

Correct Answer:
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Alcoholism, clinically known as Alcohol Use Disorder (AUD), is a chronic disease characterized by the uncontrolled consumption of alcohol and a preoccupation with it. It is considered a brain disorder and can range from mild to severe. Key features include:


Loss of Control: The inability to limit one's drinking on any given occasion.

Craving: A strong need, or compulsion, to drink.

Physical Dependence: The occurrence of withdrawal symptoms, such as nausea, sweating, or shakiness, when alcohol use is stopped after a period of heavy drinking.

Tolerance: The need to drink greater amounts of alcohol to get the same effect.

Negative Consequences: Continuing to drink despite the harm it causes to one's health, relationships, and work.
Quick Tip: For a comprehensive definition, include the key concepts of loss of control, craving, dependence, and continued use despite negative consequences.


Question 73:

What are the characteristics of Ego ?

Correct Answer:
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In Sigmund Freud's psychoanalytic theory, the Ego is one of the three components of the personality structure (along with the Id and Superego). Its primary characteristics are:


Operates on the Reality Principle: The Ego's main function is to mediate between the unrealistic demands of the Id and the external real world. It seeks to satisfy the Id's desires in ways that are realistic and socially appropriate.

The Executive of Personality: The Ego is the decision-making component of personality. It uses rational thought and problem-solving to navigate reality.

Mediator: It balances the conflicting demands of the impulsive, pleasure-seeking Id and the moralistic, judgmental Superego.

Uses Defense Mechanisms: To cope with the anxiety arising from the conflict between the Id and Superego, the Ego employs unconscious defense mechanisms like repression, denial, and projection.

Spans all levels of consciousness: The Ego has conscious, preconscious, and unconscious aspects.
Quick Tip: Think of the Ego as the "referee" or "manager" of the mind. Its job is to manage the impulsive Id and the moralistic Superego while dealing with the rules of the real world.


Question 74:

What are the characteristics of extrovert personality?

Correct Answer:
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Extroversion is one of the major personality traits in many theories, including the Big Five model. An extrovert is a person who is energized by being around other people. Key characteristics include:


Sociable and Outgoing: Extroverts enjoy social gatherings, parties, and group activities. They are often talkative and friendly.

Assertive: They tend to be confident and are comfortable taking charge in social situations.

Action-Oriented: Extroverts often enjoy being active and engaged in the external world. They may prefer action over contemplation.

Enthusiastic and Expressive: They often display positive emotions openly and are typically seen as cheerful and optimistic.

Seeks Stimulation: They thrive on excitement and stimulation from their environment and may get bored when alone.


This trait exists on a continuum, with introversion (being energized by solitude) at the opposite end.
Quick Tip: The core idea of extroversion is gaining energy from social interaction. An easy way to remember this is \(\textbf{Extro}\) = External; their focus and energy are directed outwards.


Question 75:

What is stereotype?

Correct Answer:
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A stereotype is a fixed, over-generalized belief or cognitive schema about a particular group or class of people. It is a mental shortcut that allows for quick social categorization. Key aspects of stereotypes are:


Oversimplification: They attribute a set of characteristics to all members of a group, ignoring individual differences.

Learned: Stereotypes are learned from one's culture, family, peers, and the media, not based on direct experience with all members of a group.

Can be Positive, Negative, or Neutral: While often negative (e.g., "All teenagers are rebellious"), stereotypes can also be seemingly positive (e.g., "All Asians are good at math") or neutral. However, even positive stereotypes can be harmful as they create unrealistic expectations.

Resistant to Change: Stereotypes are often resistant to new information that contradicts them.


Stereotypes are the cognitive component that can lead to prejudice (the affective/emotional component) and discrimination (the behavioral component).
Quick Tip: Remember the distinction: A \(\textbf{stereotype}\) is a belief (cognitive), \(\textbf{prejudice}\) is a feeling (affective), and \(\textbf{discrimination}\) is an action (behavioral).


Question 76:

What are the components of attitude?

Correct Answer:
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An attitude is an evaluation of an object, person, or idea. According to the widely accepted multicomponent model (also known as the ABC model), an attitude has three components:


(A) Affective Component (Feelings): This involves a person’s feelings or emotions about the attitude object. For example, a person might have a fear of spiders. The fear is the affective component of their attitude towards spiders.


(B) Behavioral Component (Action): This is the way the attitude influences how we act or behave. For example, because of their fear, the person might scream and run away when they see a spider. This action is the behavioral component.


(C) Cognitive Component (Beliefs): This involves a person’s belief or knowledge about an attitude object. For example, the person might believe that spiders are dangerous. This belief is the cognitive component.

Quick Tip: Use the mnemonic \(\textbf{ABC}\) to remember the three components: \(\textbf{A}\)ffect (Feelings), \(\textbf{B}\)ehavior (Actions), and \(\textbf{C}\)ognition (Beliefs).


Question 77:

What do you mean by social cognition ?

Correct Answer:
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Social cognition is a sub-topic of social psychology that focuses on how people process, store, and apply information about other people and social situations. It explores the mental processes involved in perceiving, interpreting, remembering, and using social information to make judgments and decisions.

Key areas of study in social cognition include:


Schemas: Mental frameworks that help us organize social information.
Attribution: The process of explaining the causes of our own and others' behavior.
Attitudes: How we form and change our evaluations of people, objects, and ideas.
Stereotypes and Prejudice: How we form oversimplified beliefs about social groups.
Impression Formation: How we form initial judgments of others.

Essentially, it is the study of the "thinking" part of social psychology.
Quick Tip: Think of social cognition as "cognition (thinking) in a social context." It's about how our brains make sense of the social world around us.


Question 78:

What do you mean by good health ?

Correct Answer:
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Good health is a holistic concept that extends beyond the mere absence of illness. The most widely accepted definition comes from the World Health Organization (WHO), which defines health as:

"A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity."

This definition emphasizes three key dimensions:


(A) Physical Health: The ability to maintain a healthy quality of life that allows us to get through our daily activities without undue fatigue or physical stress. It involves proper nutrition, exercise, and absence of physical illness.


(B) Mental Health: A state of well-being in which an individual realizes his or her own abilities, can cope with the normal stresses of life, can work productively, and is able to make a contribution to his or her community.


(C) Social Health: The ability to form meaningful relationships with other people and to interact in healthy, positive ways.



Therefore, good health is a multidimensional and positive concept, representing overall well-being.
Quick Tip: When asked to define good health, always refer to the holistic WHO definition. Remember the three pillars: \(\textbf{Physical}\), \(\textbf{Mental}\), and \(\textbf{Social}\) well-being.


Question 79:

What is conflict?

Correct Answer:
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Conflict is a state of opposition, disagreement, or incompatibility between two or more people or groups, or within oneself. It arises when individuals or groups perceive that their goals, values, or interests are being opposed or negatively affected by another party.

Conflict can be categorized in several ways:


Interpersonal Conflict: Conflict between two or more individuals.
Intrapersonal Conflict: Conflict occurring within an individual, often involving a clash between competing goals or desires. Kurt Lewin identified three types:

Approach-Approach: Choosing between two equally attractive goals.
Avoidance-Avoidance: Choosing between two equally unattractive goals.
Approach-Avoidance: A single goal has both positive and negative aspects.

Intergroup Conflict: Conflict between different groups, such as different departments in an organization or different nations.


Conflict is not always negative; it can also be a catalyst for change, innovation, and stronger relationships when managed constructively.
Quick Tip: For a complete answer, define conflict as a perceived clash of goals or interests and mention the different levels at which it can occur: within a person (intrapersonal), between people (interpersonal), and between groups (intergroup).


Question 80:

Describe the elements of creativity.

Correct Answer:
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Creativity is the ability to generate or recognize ideas, alternatives, or possibilities that may be useful in solving problems, communicating with others, and entertaining ourselves and others. Psychologists often describe creativity in terms of several key elements, particularly in the context of divergent thinking:


(A) Fluency: The ability to produce a large number of ideas or solutions to a problem in a given amount of time. It is about the quantity of ideas.


(B) Flexibility: The ability to think about a problem from multiple perspectives and to generate ideas across different categories. It is about the variety of ideas.


(C) Originality: The ability to produce novel, unique, or statistically infrequent ideas. It is about the newness or unusualness of ideas.


(D) Elaboration: The ability to add details, flesh out, and expand upon an idea. It is about the depth and complexity of ideas.



Another important element is the distinction between:


Divergent Thinking: Generating multiple possible solutions to a problem (brainstorming).
Convergent Thinking: Finding a single, best solution to a problem.

Creativity often involves a balance of both types of thinking.
Quick Tip: Remember the four core elements of divergent thinking: \(\textbf{Fluency}\) (how many?), \(\textbf{Flexibility}\) (how many types?), \(\textbf{Originality}\) (how new?), and \(\textbf{Elaboration}\) (how detailed?).


Question 81:

What is positive transference?

Correct Answer:
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Positive transference is a concept from psychoanalytic theory. It refers to the process in which a patient unconsciously displaces or transfers positive feelings, attitudes, and desires from significant relationships in their past (typically with parents or early caregivers) onto the therapist.

In this situation, the patient might idealize the therapist, develop a strong admiration or attachment, or see the therapist as a wise, caring, and trustworthy figure. These feelings are not based on the actual therapeutic relationship but are a re-enactment of past relationships.

While positive transference can help build a strong therapeutic alliance initially, the therapist's goal is to help the patient understand these feelings and their origins, which provides insight into their unresolved conflicts and relationship patterns.
Quick Tip: Remember that \(\textbf{transference}\) is about transferring past feelings onto the therapist. \(\textbf{Positive transference}\) involves "good" feelings like love and admiration, while \(\textbf{negative transference}\) involves "bad" feelings like anger and mistrust.


Question 82:

Write any three measures of reducing stress.

Correct Answer:
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There are numerous effective measures for reducing stress. Here are three common and evidence-based techniques:


(A) Relaxation Techniques: These methods help to counteract the physiological effects of the stress response (the "fight-or-flight" response).

(B) Deep Breathing (Diaphragmatic Breathing): Inhaling slowly and deeply through the nose, allowing the abdomen to expand, and exhaling slowly through the mouth. This activates the parasympathetic nervous system, which promotes a state of calm.
(C) Progressive Muscle Relaxation (PMR): Tensing and then relaxing different muscle groups throughout the body. This helps to release physical tension and increases awareness of the body.
(D) Mindfulness Meditation: Focusing on the present moment without judgment, often by paying attention to one's breath or bodily sensations. This helps to detach from stressful thoughts.

(E) Regular Physical Exercise: Aerobic exercise (like running, swimming, or cycling) is a powerful stress reliever. It reduces levels of the body's stress hormones, such as adrenaline and cortisol, and stimulates the production of endorphins, which are the body's natural mood elevators.


(F) Cognitive Restructuring: This is a technique from Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy (CBT) that involves identifying, challenging, and changing negative or irrational thought patterns that cause stress. For example, instead of thinking "I'm going to fail this exam," one might restructure the thought to "I'm worried about this exam, so I will make a study plan to do my best." This changes the emotional response to the situation.

Quick Tip: For a well-rounded answer, provide measures that target different aspects of stress: the body (\(\textbf{Exercise}\), \(\textbf{Relaxation}\)) and the mind (\(\textbf{Cognitive Restructuring}\)).


Question 83:

What is secondary group?

Correct Answer:
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A secondary group is a large, impersonal social group whose members are joined by a common interest or activity, and whose relationships are often temporary and goal-oriented. These groups are a key concept in sociology, contrasted with primary groups.

The characteristics of a secondary group include:


Impersonal Relationships: Interactions are typically formal and based on status or roles rather than personal connections.
Goal-Oriented: The group exists to accomplish a specific task or purpose. The relationships are a means to an end, not an end in themselves.
Large in Size: Secondary groups are generally much larger than primary groups, which prevents close, personal interactions among all members.
Temporary: Membership in a secondary group is often for a shorter duration and can be easily changed.

Examples of secondary groups include a college class, a workplace, and a political party.
Quick Tip: Remember the key contrast: \(\textbf{Primary groups}\) (like family) are personal, long-term, and an end in themselves. \(\textbf{Secondary groups}\) (like a workplace) are impersonal, temporary, and a means to an end.


Question 84:

What do you mean by global warming ?

Correct Answer:
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Global warming refers to the long-term increase in the Earth's average surface temperature due to human activities. It is a major aspect of climate change.

The primary cause of global warming is the enhanced greenhouse effect. This occurs when certain gases in the atmosphere, known as greenhouse gases, trap heat from the sun that would otherwise radiate back into space. While the greenhouse effect is a natural process that keeps the Earth warm enough for life, human activities have significantly increased the concentration of these gases.

Key aspects of global warming include:


Primary Cause: The burning of fossil fuels (coal, oil, and natural gas) for energy, which releases large amounts of carbon dioxide (CO2). Deforestation also contributes, as trees absorb CO2.
Key Greenhouse Gases: Carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), and nitrous oxide (N2O).
Consequences: Rising sea levels, more frequent and intense heatwaves, changes in precipitation patterns, and disruption of ecosystems. Quick Tip: A concise definition should include three points: 1) it's a long-term increase in Earth's average temperature, 2) it's caused by human activities increasing greenhouse gases, and 3) the main activity is burning fossil fuels.


Question 85:

What is mental retardation?

Correct Answer:
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"Mental retardation" is an outdated term that is no longer used in clinical practice due to its negative connotations. The current and preferred term is Intellectual Disability (ID) or Intellectual Developmental Disorder.

Intellectual Disability is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by significant limitations in two main areas, with an onset during the developmental period (before the age of 18):


(A) Limitations in Intellectual Functioning: This includes deficits in reasoning, problem-solving, planning, abstract thinking, judgment, academic learning, and learning from experience. It is typically assessed by standardized IQ tests, with a score of approximately 70 or below indicating a significant limitation.


(B) Limitations in Adaptive Functioning: This involves deficits in skills needed for daily life. It is assessed across three domains:

(C) Conceptual Skills: Language, reading, writing, math, reasoning.
(D) Social Skills: Empathy, social judgment, communication skills, ability to make friends.
(E) Practical Skills: Personal care, job responsibilities, money management, recreation.


The severity of Intellectual Disability (Mild, Moderate, Severe, Profound) is now determined by the level of impairment in adaptive functioning, not just the IQ score.
Quick Tip: When answering, it's crucial to state that "mental retardation" is an outdated term and the current term is "Intellectual Disability." Then, define it based on the two core criteria: deficits in \(\textbf{intellectual functioning}\) and \(\textbf{adaptive functioning}\).


Question 86:

What is superego?

Correct Answer:
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The superego is one of the three components of the personality structure in Sigmund Freud's psychoanalytic theory, along with the id and the ego. It is essentially the moral component of the personality.

Key characteristics of the superego include:


Internalized Morality: The superego represents the internalized ideals, values, and moral standards of society that a child acquires from their parents and culture.
Two Subsystems:

(A) The Conscience: This part of the superego includes information about things that are viewed as bad by parents and society. Behaviors that are forbidden and lead to punishment or feelings of guilt are stored here.
(B) The Ego Ideal: This includes the rules and standards for good behaviors. These are the behaviors that are approved of by parental and other authority figures. Striving for these ideals leads to feelings of pride and accomplishment.

Strives for Perfection: The superego's function is to control the id's impulses (especially sexual and aggressive ones) and to persuade the ego to turn to moralistic goals rather than simply realistic ones. It strives for perfection and can be just as irrational as the id.
Quick Tip: Think of the superego as your "inner critic" or "moral compass." It's the part of you that tells you what is right and wrong and makes you feel guilty when you violate its standards.


Question 87:

What is yoga ?

Correct Answer:
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Yoga is an ancient physical, mental, and spiritual practice that originated in India. The word "yoga" is derived from the Sanskrit root "yuj," which means "to yoke" or "to unite." The practice aims to unite the individual consciousness with the universal consciousness, indicating a perfect harmony between the mind, body, and spirit.

Modern yoga, as practiced in the West, often focuses on the physical postures, but this is only one aspect of a broader system. The classical system of yoga, as described by the sage Patanjali in the Yoga Sutras, consists of an "eight-limbed path" (Ashtanga Yoga):


Yama and Niyama: Ethical principles and observances.
Asana: Physical postures (the most well-known aspect).
Pranayama: Breath control techniques.
Pratyahara: Withdrawal of the senses.
Dharana: Concentration.
Dhyana: Meditation.
Samadhi: A state of enlightenment or union.

In contemporary terms, yoga is widely practiced for promoting physical health, flexibility, and strength, as well as for stress reduction and mental clarity.
Quick Tip: A good definition of yoga should go beyond just physical exercise. Mention its Indian origins, the meaning "to unite," and its goal of integrating body, mind, and spirit.


Question 88:

What is drug therapy ?

Correct Answer:
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Drug therapy, also known as pharmacotherapy or psychopharmacology in the context of mental health, is a form of biomedical therapy that uses psychoactive medications to treat psychological disorders. The primary goal of drug therapy is to manage or reduce symptoms by altering brain chemistry.

These medications work by influencing the levels and activity of neurotransmitters—the chemical messengers that transmit signals between nerve cells (neurons) in the brain. Different classes of drugs target different neurotransmitter systems to treat specific disorders.

Major categories of psychiatric medications include:


Antidepressants: Used to treat depression, anxiety disorders, and other conditions. They often affect neurotransmitters like serotonin and norepinephrine.
Antipsychotics: Used to manage psychosis (including delusions and hallucinations), primarily in disorders like schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. They typically work by blocking dopamine receptors.
Anxiolytics (Anti-anxiety medications): Used to treat anxiety disorders. Benzodiazepines are a common type that enhances the effect of the neurotransmitter GABA.
Mood Stabilizers: Used to treat bipolar disorder by managing mood swings.
Stimulants: Used to treat ADHD by increasing levels of dopamine and norepinephrine. Quick Tip: Define drug therapy as the use of medication to treat psychological disorders. Mention its mechanism (altering brain chemistry/neurotransmitters) and provide examples of major drug classes (e.g., antidepressants, antipsychotics).


Question 89:

Write the meaning of aggression.

Correct Answer:
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In psychology, aggression refers to any form of behavior that is intended to harm or injure another living being who is motivated to avoid such treatment. This definition has several key components:


It is a behavior, not an emotion: While aggression is often accompanied by anger, the emotion itself is not the behavior. Aggression is the action taken.
It is intentional: Accidental harm is not considered aggression. The perpetrator must intend to cause harm.
The victim wishes to avoid the harm: The definition excludes acts like sadomasochistic encounters where the recipient may desire the stimulation.

Psychologists also distinguish between two main types of aggression:


(A) Hostile (or Impulsive) Aggression: This type of aggression is driven by anger and the primary goal is to inflict harm on the victim. It is often impulsive and emotional.
(B) Instrumental Aggression: In this case, the aggression is a means to achieve some other goal, not just to cause pain. The harm is instrumental in achieving the objective. For example, a robber who harms a victim to steal their money is engaging in instrumental aggression. Quick Tip: A precise definition of aggression must include the element of \(\textbf{intent to harm}\). Also, remember to differentiate between \(\textbf{hostile aggression}\) (harm is the goal) and \(\textbf{instrumental aggression}\) (harm is a means to a goal).


Question 90:

What is counselling skill?

Correct Answer:
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Counselling skill is not a single ability but a set of interpersonal and communication competencies that a counsellor uses to build a therapeutic relationship and help a client explore their thoughts, feelings, and behaviors. These skills are used to facilitate positive change and personal growth.

Key counselling skills include:


Active Listening: Paying close attention to what the client is saying both verbally and non-verbally, without judgment. This involves giving the client one's full attention.
Empathy: The ability to understand and share the feelings of the client from their frame of reference. It involves communicating this understanding back to the client.
Effective Questioning: Using open-ended questions (e.g., starting with "What," "How," "Could you tell me more...") to encourage the client to explore their issues in depth, rather than closed questions that elicit a simple "yes" or "no."
Reflecting and Paraphrasing: Restating the client's words and feelings in a concise way to show that they have been heard and understood, and to clarify meaning.
Summarizing: Periodically pulling together the main themes and feelings discussed in a session to provide focus and show progress.
Unconditional Positive Regard: A concept from Carl Rogers, it involves accepting and valuing the client as a person, regardless of their choices or behaviors. Quick Tip: When defining counselling skills, emphasize that it's a \(\textbf{set of skills}\), not just one. Core skills like \(\textbf{Active Listening}\), \(\textbf{Empathy}\), and \(\textbf{Open Questioning}\) are essential to mention.


Question 91:

Describe the two-factor theory of intelligence.

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The two-factor theory of intelligence was proposed by British psychologist Charles Spearman in the early 20th century. After analyzing performance on various mental aptitude tests, he concluded that intelligence is composed of two main factors:


(A) The 'g' factor (General Intelligence): Spearman observed that individuals who performed well on one type of cognitive test tended to perform well on other types of tests as well. He proposed that this was due to a single, underlying general mental ability, which he called the 'g' factor. This 'g' factor represents a broad intellectual capacity that influences performance across all cognitive tasks, such as reasoning, problem-solving, and abstract thinking.


(B) The 's' factor (Specific Abilities): Spearman also recognized that performance on any given task was not solely determined by the 'g' factor. He proposed the existence of 's' factors, which represent specific abilities or skills that are unique to a particular task. For example, a person might have 's' factors for mathematical skills, verbal fluency, spatial reasoning, or musical talent.

According to this theory, a person's performance on any intellectual task is a combination of their general intelligence ('g') and their specific ability ('s') in that particular area.
Quick Tip: To remember Spearman's theory, think of 'g' for \(\textbf{G}\)eneral (a single, broad intelligence) and 's' for \(\textbf{S}\)pecific (many individual skills). Every task uses a bit of 'g' and a relevant 's'.


Question 92:

Describe the effect of noise on human behaviour.

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Noise, defined as unwanted or unpleasant sound, can have significant negative effects on human behavior, cognition, and health. The impact often depends on the characteristics of the noise, such as its intensity, predictability, and controllability.

The effects can be categorized as follows:


Physiological Effects: Exposure to loud or chronic noise can trigger the body's stress response, leading to increased heart rate, elevated blood pressure, and the release of stress hormones like cortisol. Over time, this can contribute to cardiovascular problems and other health issues.

Cognitive Effects: Noise can impair cognitive performance, particularly on tasks that require attention, concentration, and memory. It can make it difficult to read, learn, and solve complex problems. Interestingly, simple, repetitive tasks are less affected and may sometimes even be enhanced by moderate noise due to increased arousal.

Emotional and Psychological Effects: Noise is a common source of annoyance, irritability, and anxiety. Prolonged exposure can lead to feelings of helplessness and a reduced sense of well-being.

Social Effects: Research has shown that noise can negatively impact social behavior. It can increase aggression and reduce pro-social or helping behaviors. People are often less willing to help others in noisy environments. Quick Tip: Remember that the most detrimental noise is \(\textbf{unpredictable}\) and \(\textbf{uncontrollable}\). Having control over a noise source, even if you don't use it, can significantly reduce its negative effects.


Question 93:

Describe Jung's personality type.

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Swiss psychiatrist Carl Jung proposed a theory of psychological types that explains how people perceive the world and make decisions. His theory is based on two fundamental components: attitudes and functions.

1. The Two Attitudes (Orientations of Energy):

Jung identified two primary ways in which people direct their psychic energy:


Extroversion (E): An outward turning of energy. Extroverts are oriented towards the external world of people, objects, and activities. They are energized by social interaction.

Introversion (I): An inward turning of energy. Introverts are oriented towards their inner world of thoughts, feelings, and ideas. They are energized by solitude and reflection.

2. The Four Functions (Ways of Perceiving and Judging):

Jung described four basic psychological functions, which are divided into two pairs of opposites:


The Perceiving Functions (how we take in information):

Sensing (S): Focuses on information that is real and tangible, gathered through the five senses. It is concerned with the "here and now."
Intuition (N): Focuses on patterns, possibilities, and meanings beyond the information from the senses. It is concerned with the future and the abstract.

The Judging Functions (how we make decisions):

Thinking (T): Makes decisions based on logic, objective analysis, and impersonal criteria.
Feeling (F): Makes decisions based on personal values, empathy, and the impact on others.


According to Jung, each individual has a dominant attitude and a dominant function, which combine to form a distinct personality type (e.g., an "Introverted Thinker"). His work formed the basis for the popular Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI).
Quick Tip: Jung's theory is about preferences. Think of it like being right- or left-handed. Everyone uses both attitudes (Introversion/Extroversion) and all four functions, but we have a natural preference for some over others.


Question 94:

Describe the causes of abnormal behaviour.

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The causes of abnormal behavior are complex and multifaceted. Modern psychology uses a biopsychosocial model, which posits that most psychological disorders are the result of an interaction between biological, psychological, and social factors.

1. Biological Causes:

These factors relate to the body's physical and genetic makeup.


Genetics (Heredity): Many disorders, such as schizophrenia and bipolar disorder, have a genetic component, meaning a predisposition to the disorder can be inherited.
Neurochemical Imbalances: Abnormalities in the levels of neurotransmitters (e.g., serotonin, dopamine) in the brain are linked to various disorders, such as depression and anxiety.
Brain Structure and Function: Damage to or abnormalities in certain areas of the brain can lead to abnormal behavior.

2. Psychological Causes:

These factors relate to an individual's thoughts, feelings, and experiences.


Maladaptive Learning: Abnormal behaviors can be learned through classical conditioning (e.g., phobias), operant conditioning, or observational learning.
Distorted Cognitions: Faulty or irrational thought patterns and beliefs can contribute to disorders like depression and anxiety (a core focus of CBT).
Early Trauma and Unconscious Conflicts: Psychodynamic theories suggest that unresolved conflicts and traumatic experiences from early childhood can lead to abnormal behavior in adulthood.

3. Social and Cultural (Sociocultural) Causes:

These factors relate to the influence of one's environment and culture.


Family and Social Relationships: Dysfunctional family dynamics, social isolation, or poor interpersonal relationships can be significant stressors.
Socioeconomic Factors: Poverty, unemployment, and discrimination are associated with higher rates of mental illness.
Cultural Norms: What is considered "abnormal" can vary across cultures. Cultural expectations can influence both the expression and diagnosis of mental disorders.

The Diathesis-Stress Model is a popular framework that integrates these factors, suggesting that a person may have a pre-existing vulnerability (diathesis) that is triggered by a stressful life event, leading to a disorder.
Quick Tip: Remember the biopsychosocial model. For any question about the causes of abnormality, always consider the interplay of \(\textbf{Bio}\)logy (genes, brain), \(\textbf{Psycho}\)logy (thoughts, learning), and \(\textbf{Social}\) factors (family, culture).


Question 95:

Describe the causes or determinants of violence.

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Violence is a complex behavior with multiple determinants that span biological, psychological, and social domains. No single factor can explain it; rather, it results from an interaction of various risk factors.

1. Biological Determinants:


Genetics and Hormones: There may be a genetic predisposition to aggression. High levels of hormones like testosterone have been linked to increased aggressive behavior.
Neurological Factors: Abnormalities in brain regions responsible for impulse control and emotion regulation, such as the prefrontal cortex and the amygdala, can be a contributing factor.
Substance Abuse: Alcohol and certain drugs can lower inhibitions and impair judgment, increasing the likelihood of violent behavior.

2. Psychological Determinants:


Frustration and Anger: The Frustration-Aggression Hypothesis suggests that frustration can lead to aggression. Poor anger management skills can escalate conflicts into violence.
Social Learning: Albert Bandura's theory posits that violent behavior is learned by observing and imitating others, such as violent parents or media figures. If violence is seen as a rewarded or effective way to solve problems, it is more likely to be adopted.
Personality and Mental Health: Traits like low empathy, impulsivity, and a need for dominance are associated with violence. Certain mental health disorders, though not a direct cause, can increase risk if untreated.

3. Social and Environmental Determinants:


Poverty and Inequality: Socioeconomic deprivation, lack of opportunity, and high levels of inequality are strong predictors of community violence.
Exposure to Violence: Growing up in a violent family or community normalizes violence and can lead to a cycle of aggression.
Cultural Norms: Cultures or subcultures that glorify violence, emphasize honor and retribution, or have strong patriarchal norms can foster higher rates of violence. Quick Tip: A useful framework for explaining violence is the "cycle of violence." This concept highlights how being a victim of or witness to violence in childhood is a strong predictor of perpetrating violence in adulthood, linking psychological (learning) and social (environmental) factors.


Question 96:

Describe any one type of Schizophrenia.

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While the clinical subtypes of schizophrenia were removed from the official diagnostic manual (DSM-5) in 2013, they are still commonly used for descriptive purposes. One of the most well-known historical types is Paranoid Schizophrenia.

Characteristics of Paranoid Schizophrenia:

The defining features of this subtype are the prominence of positive symptoms, specifically delusions and auditory hallucinations, while cognitive functioning and emotional responses are relatively well-preserved compared to other subtypes.


Prominent Delusions: The individual holds strong, fixed, false beliefs that are resistant to reason. The content of these delusions is often persecutory or grandiose:

Persecutory Delusions: The belief that one is being tormented, followed, tricked, or spied on by others. This is the most common theme.
Grandiose Delusions: The belief that one has exceptional abilities, wealth, or fame.

Frequent Auditory Hallucinations: The individual hears things that are not there, most commonly voices. These voices are often critical, threatening, or command the person to do things.

Relative Preservation of Functioning: Unlike other types (such as disorganized schizophrenia), individuals with the paranoid subtype typically do not show marked disorganized speech, disorganized behavior, or flat affect (lack of emotional expression). Their cognitive skills and emotional responses may remain relatively intact outside the direct influence of their psychotic symptoms. Quick Tip: To remember Paranoid Schizophrenia, focus on the word "paranoid." It points to the core symptoms: paranoid (persecutory) delusions and often threatening auditory hallucinations.