| Updated On - Nov 9, 2024
CLAT 2024 UG Question Paper Set C with Answer Key and Solution PDF is available for download. The Consortium of NLUs conducted the exam on December 3, 2023. Candidates were required to answer a total of 120 objective-type questions carrying 1 mark each covering five major sections: English Language, Current Affairs & General Knowledge, Legal Reasoning, Logical Reasoning and Quantitative Techniques.
CLAT 2024 UG Question Paper with Answer Key PDF Set C
CLAT 2024 UG Question Paper with Answer Key PDF (Set C) | Download PDF | Check Solutions |
CLAT UG 2024 Questions with Solution (Set C)
Question No. | Question (with Options) | Answer | Solution |
---|---|---|---|
1 | What does the protagonist’s preference for “barrenness” and “starkness” at Carignano suggest about her personality? (A) She enjoys a bustling and vibrant environment. (B) She values simplicity and minimalism in her surroundings. (C) She prefers lush and colorful landscapes. (D) She seeks constant stimulation and variety in her life. |
(B) She values simplicity and minimalism in her surroundings. | The protagonist’s satisfaction with the barrenness of Carignano suggests that she prefers a simple, unadorned environment, focusing on the essential, unspoiled elements of nature. |
2 | What do you get to know about the protagonist’s state of mind from her reaction towards the postman? (A) She feels grateful for his presence and the assistance he offers. (B) She dislikes any disturbance or interruption in her solitude. (C) She feels suspicious and is interested in the lives of others. (D) She is disinterested and generally unaffected by the presence of others. |
(B) She dislikes any disturbance or interruption in her solitude. | The protagonist’s cold and piercing stare at the postman, coupled with her desire to be left alone, indicates that she is irritated by any disruption to her solitude. |
3 | What does the protagonist’s desire to be mistaken for a pine tree reveal about her mindset? (A) She desires to be appreciated and noticed by others in society. (B) She has a deep admiration for the beauty of the pine trees. (C) She feels a sense of superiority over other living beings. (D) She yearns to be one with nature and escape from her human identity. |
(D) She yearns to be one with nature and escape from her human identity. | The protagonist’s wish to merge with the pine trees symbolizes her desire to escape her human identity and become part of the natural world, reflecting a longing for peace and unity with nature. |
4 | The protagonist’s description of the nestlings’ screams as “shrill and maddening” shows that: (A) She perceives the sounds to be out of tune yet soothing. (B) She considers the nestlings to be symbols of new life and vitality. (C) She finds the nestlings to be vexatious and irritating. (D) She feels a sense of protectiveness and care towards the nestlings. |
(C) She finds the nestlings to be vexatious and irritating. | The use of words like “shrill and maddening” reflects the protagonist’s annoyance and irritation with the nestlings, showing her inability to appreciate their vitality. |
5 | Which of the following statements are true about the protagonist’s overall state of mind in Carignano? Statement I: She experienced a sense of constant restlessness and anguish. Statement II: She felt isolated and disconnected from her environment. Statement III: She was content, fulfilled, and at peace with her surrounding. (A) Statement I and II (B) Statement II and III (C) Only Statement II (D) Only Statement III |
(D) Only Statement III | The protagonist, while experiencing isolation, found a sense of contentment and peace in Carignano, as she appreciated the solitude and tranquility of the environment. The restlessness and anguish were not central to her experience. |
6 | In the light of above passage, what role does nature play in the protagonist’s life at Carignano? (A) It provides her with a source of creativity. (B) It offers her solace, peace, and a sense of belonging. (C) It serves as a reminder of the harsh realities of life. (D) It serves as a constant source of distraction and intrusion for her. |
(B) It offers her solace, peace, and a sense of belonging. | The protagonist is at peace with the natural barrenness of Carignano, finding solace in its simplicity and sense of belonging, as evidenced by her deep satisfaction with her surroundings. |
7 | In contemporary literature, how is the relationship between character and setting described in the passage? (A) It is non-existent; characters and settings are entirely separate entities. (B) It is a complex interplay where the setting influences the plot and character development. (C) Characters and settings are interchangeable. (D) Settings are insignificant in contemporary literature. |
(B) It is a complex interplay where the setting influences the plot and character development. | In contemporary literature, the passage describes the relationship between character and setting as a complex interplay. The setting is not just a backdrop but influences the plot and character development, reflecting the emotions and struggles of characters, such as in "The Namesake" and "Macbeth." |
8 | In the novel "The Namesake" by Jhumpa Lahiri, what does the barren desert landscape symbolize? (A) A thriving community. (B) The protagonist’s sense of isolation and identity crisis. (C) A lush, vibrant setting. (D) A happy, carefree life. |
(B) The protagonist’s sense of isolation and identity crisis. | In "The Namesake," the barren desert landscape symbolizes Gogol’s inner turmoil and sense of isolation as he struggles with his identity. The arid and desolate setting mirrors his feelings of alienation in a foreign land. |
9 | What role does the Scottish moors play in Shakespeare’s "Macbeth"? (A) It serves as a beautiful, serene landscape. (B) It has no influence on the characters’ actions. (C) It is an ever-present omen of impending tragedy. (D) It is a place for the characters to relax. |
(C) It is an ever-present omen of impending tragedy. | In "Macbeth," the Scottish moors create an eerie and foreboding atmosphere, symbolizing the looming tragedy. The mist and darkness of the moors are metaphors for the moral confusion and doom that surrounds the characters. |
10 | What does the term “interplay” refer to in the context of the passage? (A) A lack of interaction between characters and setting. (B) A complex relationship where the setting influences the narrative. (C) An insignificant connection between characters and setting. (D) A complete separation of characters and setting. |
(B) A complex relationship where the setting influences the narrative. | The term "interplay" in the passage refers to the intricate relationship between setting and character in literature. The setting often influences the emotions, decisions, and development of characters, as shown through the examples of the desert in "The Namesake" and the Scottish moors in "Macbeth." |
11 | Which of the following words best describes the setting in "The God of Small Things"? (A) Boring. (B) Lush and vibrant. (C) Insignificant. (D) Dark and foreboding. |
(B) Lush and vibrant. | The passage describes the Kerala backwaters in "The God of Small Things" as "lush" and "vibrant." The setting plays an active role in the narrative, reflecting the complexity of relationships and secrets within the story. |
12 | What is the main theme discussed in the passage? (A) The characters in contemporary literature are not influenced by their settings. (B) Setting in literature is unimportant. (C) In literature, settings can be as influential as characters in shaping the narrative. (D) Settings have no role in character development. |
(C) In literature, settings can be as influential as characters in shaping the narrative. | The passage emphasizes the idea that the setting in literature is more than just a backdrop—it plays a crucial role in shaping the narrative by influencing character development and the unfolding of events. |
13 | Who is often regarded as the greatest playwright in the history of the English language? (A) Jane Austen (B) William Wordsworth (C) William Shakespeare (D) George Orwell |
(C) William Shakespeare | William Shakespeare is celebrated as the greatest playwright in the history of the English language, known for his exploration of human nature, love, ambition, and tragedy. |
14 | Which of Jane Austen’s novels is known for its social commentary and witty portrayal of romance? (A) Nineteen Eighty-Four (B) Sense and Sensibility (C) “I Wandered Lonely as a Cloud” (D) “The Rime of the Ancient Mariner” |
(B) Sense and Sensibility | Jane Austen’s "Sense and Sensibility" is renowned for its wit and keen social commentary on romance and relationships. |
15 | Who are the Romantic poets mentioned in the passage known for celebrating nature and intense human emotions? (A) William Shakespeare and Virginia Woolf (B) George Orwell and Samuel Taylor Coleridge (C) William Wordsworth and Samuel Taylor Coleridge (D) Jane Austen and Arundhati Roy |
(C) William Wordsworth and Samuel Taylor Coleridge | Wordsworth and Coleridge were leading poets of the Romantic era, celebrating nature and the emotional depth of human experience. |
16 | What is the title of Virginia Woolf’s novel known for its modernist narrative style? (A) Pride and Prejudice (B) Nineteen Eighty-Four (C) Mrs. Dalloway (D) The God of Small Things |
(C) Mrs. Dalloway | "Mrs. Dalloway" by Virginia Woolf is known for its modernist narrative style, delving into the inner thoughts and experiences of its characters. |
17 | Identify the 20th-century novel mentioned in the passage that provides a warning about the dangers of totalitarianism. (A) Nineteen Eighty-Four (B) Romeo and Juliet (C) Sense and Sensibility (D) “I Wandered Lonely as a Cloud” |
(A) Nineteen Eighty-Four | George Orwell’s "Nineteen Eighty-Four" is a dystopian novel that warns about the dangers of totalitarianism and the loss of individual freedoms. |
18 | What does the passage highlight as the enduring power of English literature? (A) Its ability to win literary awards (B) The diversity of its authors, themes, and styles (C) Its ability to captivate and inspire only British readers (D) The decline of storytelling |
(B) The diversity of its authors, themes, and styles | The passage emphasizes the vast diversity of English literature, from its authors to the themes and literary styles, contributing to its global influence and enduring power. |
19 | What is the central thesis of the above extract? (A) The practice of untouchability takes various forms in modern India. (B) The imagination of justice for the rich and poor is vastly different. (C) Addressing judge strength and case-load management does not affect the performance of the judicial system. (D) Protecting the livelihood of traditional taxi drivers is contrary to the goals of ease of doing business. |
(B) The imagination of justice for the rich and poor is vastly different. | The passage highlights how the middle class and the masses have different perspectives on justice. The middle class seeks reasonable access to the judicial system, while the poor see the system as exploitative and avoid it. |
20 | What does the author mean by ‘docket-excluded’ in the second paragraph? (A) The poor do not have easy access to the justice system. (B) Courts do not list bail petitions of poor undertrial prisoners who populate the country’s jails. (C) The poor reject the judicial system as being alien to their language and logic. (D) The rich are excluded from the country’s prisons, which are mostly populated by the poor. |
(A) The poor do not have easy access to the justice system. | The term "docket-excluded" refers to the poor being excluded from the justice system. They are often unable to access justice due to economic and social barriers, and thus, they avoid the judicial system. |
21 | Which of the following words best describes the experience of different segments of people with the justice system as described in the third paragraph? (A) Symbiotic (B) Affective (C) Conflicting (D) Inter-dependent |
(C) Conflicting | The passage describes how different segments of society have conflicting experiences with the justice system. While the middle class sees it as a protector of rights, the poor view it as a place of punishment. |
22 | Which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree with? (A) The judicial system reflects the same power relationships as those that exist in society. (B) Access to the judicial system is determined more by a person’s economic status such as wealth and income, than by their social status, such as religion and caste. (C) The judicial system was made by the rich, for the rich, of the rich. (D) None of the above. |
(A) The judicial system reflects the same power relationships as those that exist in society. | The author discusses how the judicial system favors the middle class and often excludes the poor, reflecting the same power dynamics seen in society at large. |
23 | Which of the following statements is the author most likely to disagree with? (A) A truly representative democracy would ensure that the interests of the poor are also represented in the judicial system. (B) The Law ensures equality both in text and in practice. (C) The poor suffer most at the hands of lawyers and touts, compared to judges who might still pronounce judgments in their favor from time to time. (D) All of the above. |
(B) The Law ensures equality both in text and in practice. | The author suggests that the justice system is biased against the poor and that the law, in practice, does not ensure equality, especially for marginalized groups. |
24 | What makes reform of judicial administration a ‘neutral’ area? (A) Persons across socio-economic strata agree on the need to reform judicial administration. (B) There is consensus among political parties across the ideological and regional spectrum on reforms to judicial administration. (C) Reforms to judicial administration do not favor one class of people over another. (D) Reform of judicial administration is mandated by the Constitution, and thus lies beyond political considerations. |
(C) Reforms to judicial administration do not favor one class of people over another. | The author explains that reforms to judicial administration focus on neutral areas like process reform, technology, and case management, which do not favor any particular class or social group. |
25 | In what did India become the fourth country in the world? (A) Sending a spacecraft to the moon (B) Landing a spacecraft on the moon (C) Landing a man on the moon (D) Crashlanding (impacting) a spacecraft on the moon |
(B) Landing a spacecraft on the moon | India became the fourth country to successfully land a spacecraft on the moon, after the United States, Russia, and China. |
26 | What is the role of Pragyan? (A) To move around the moon, leaving footprints (B) To take photographs of the moon, while moving (C) Showing these pictures to the world (D) To record the laser radiation |
(B) To take photographs of the moon, while moving | Pragyan, the rover, is designed to take photographs of the moon while moving across its surface. This capability allows for the collection of high-quality visual data for further analysis. |
27 | Name one institution that played a major role in bringing India to the forefront. (A) Tata Industries (B) Indian Oil Corporation (C) ISRO (D) Reliance Industries |
(C) ISRO | ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation) played a major role in India’s success in space exploration, including the Chandrayaan missions. |
28 | What is the name of the moon lander and the rover? (A) Vikram and Pragyan (B) Pragyan-2 and Vikram (C) Chandrayaan and Vikram (D) Chandrayaan and Pragyan |
(A) Vikram and Pragyan | The moon lander is named Vikram, and the rover is named Pragyan, both part of the Chandrayaan 3 mission. |
29 | Whom did the Prime Minister address this to? (A) To the people of India (B) To the world (C) To the students (D) To the scientists of ISRO |
(D) To the scientists of ISRO | The Prime Minister addressed this speech to the scientists of ISRO, acknowledging their contributions to the success of the Chandrayaan 3 mission. |
30 | Which of the following countries in the world had touched the surface of the moon? (A) United States of America, USSR, China, India (B) United States of America, Russia, China, India (C) United States of America, USSR, France, India (D) United States of America, Russia, Israel, India |
(A) United States of America, USSR, China, India | The United States, USSR, China, and India are the only countries that have successfully landed on the moon and touched its surface. |
31 | Which incident is described in the passage? (A) Baisakhi festival at Amritsar, April 1919 (B) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre, April 1919 (C) Congress Protests of April 1919 (D) Non-Cooperation movement, April 1919 |
(B) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre, April 1919 | The passage describes the tragic events of the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre, where General Dyer ordered the firing on a peaceful gathering in Amritsar. |
32 | Why did General Dyer order to fire on the crowd? (A) To bring the crowd under control (B) To scatter the crowd (C) To teach the crowd a lesson (D) To enforce the martial law |
(C) To teach the crowd a lesson | General Dyer’s action was an attempt to assert control and send a message to the public, rather than responding to any immediate threat. |
33 | In the light of the above passage, what was the intention of the speaker? (A) To praise General Dyer (B) To expose the deeds of General Dyer (C) To get sympathy for the Indians who died (D) All of the above |
(B) To expose the deeds of General Dyer | The speaker, Col. Wedgwood, aims to expose the inhumane actions of General Dyer and to make the British public aware of the brutal treatment of innocent civilians. |
34 | After the incident, who helped the injured and the dying people? (A) The army (B) The police (C) The civil administration (D) Some people who lived nearby |
(D) Some people who lived nearby | The wounded and dying were cared for by local people who lived nearby, as the authorities and the military did not offer any assistance. |
35 | What would be the feelings of the Indian children brought up to the spot? (A) Friendliness to the British rule (B) Bitterness about the British rule (C) A sense of helplessness (D) None of the above |
(B) Bitterness about the British rule | The children brought to the site would likely feel bitterness and resentment towards British rule due to the legacy of violence and injustice left behind by the massacre. |
36 | What was the full name of General Dyer? (A) Reginald Murree Harry Dyer (B) Reginald Royce Harry Dyer (C) Reginald Edward Harry Dyer (D) Reginald Coleman Harry Dyer |
(C) Reginald Edward Harry Dyer | General Dyer’s full name was Reginald Edward Harry Dyer, and he is infamously known for his role in the Jallianwala Bagh massacre. |
37 | What was the reason for Hamas-led Palestinian militants’ attack on Israel? (A) To retaliate against Israeli settler violence against Palestinians (B) In response to the desecration of the Western Wall (C) To protest against the construction of Palestinian settlements in the West Bank (D) To seek an end to the Gaza Strip blockade |
(A) To retaliate against Israeli settler violence against Palestinians | Hamas launched the attack in response to perceived injustices, including Israeli settler violence and actions related to Palestinian grievances. |
38 | What was the reaction of the international community to the killing of Israeli civilians? (A) Condemned as terrorism by 44 countries (B) Ignored by most of the countries (C) Supported by the UN (D) Praised as a necessary measure by 10 countries |
(A) Condemned as terrorism by 44 countries | The international community, especially Western nations, condemned the massacres as acts of terrorism, with many calling it unjustifiable violence against civilians. |
39 | Which of the following is not true about the historical context of the Israel-Hamas conflict? (A) The Palestinian refugees started settling under Ottoman rule in the late 19th Century (B) Hamas emerged during the first Intifada in the late 1980s (C) Hamas was formally known as the Islamic Resistance Movement (D) First Intifada was a Palestinian uprising against Israeli rule |
(A) The Palestinian refugees started settling under Ottoman rule in the late 19th Century | While Palestinian refugees did settle in the region during Ottoman rule, this was not the key event that shaped the modern Israel-Palestine conflict, which saw a significant shift after the British Mandate and the formation of Israel. |
40 | What has been the response of the Israeli military to the Hamas-led attack? (A) Declared a state of war and launched a ground invasion (B) Conducted an aerial bombardment campaign only (C) Asked for international intervention (D) Captured and imprisoned the militants responsible |
(A) Declared a state of war and launched a ground invasion | In response to the attack, Israel declared a state of war and initiated a full-scale military operation, including aerial bombings and a ground invasion of Gaza. |
CLAT Questions
1. There are some advantages of the Digital Personal Data Protection Act (DPDPA), 2023. For instance, for the first time, personal data belonging to or identifying children will have to be classified separately, with such data carrying a greater degree of security and privacy. The law also seeks to reduce the rate and impact of data breaches targeting Indian businesses. The Digital Personal Data Protection law, however, goes a step beyond by imposing penalties for cases where data is breached as a result of a lack of implementation of adequate security controls. However, it could be said that the law isn’t balanced, because it provides wide exemptions to the processing of personal data to the government. For instance, data can be processed “in the interest of prevention, detection, investigation or prosecution of any offence … in India.” These kinds of exemptions are dangerous as they stand to legitimise widespread and unwarranted collection of data under the guise that such collection and processing may ultimately be useful for preventing or deterring a crime.
Security agencies will have significant authority to collect and retain any data whatsoever, as is typically the case with exemptions relating to the maintenance of sovereignty, integrity, security of the state, preservation of public order, prevention of offences, and incitement to commit offences. The law also exempts processing of personal data held outside of India. The government is also exempt from being required to delete any data that it possesses, regardless of the purpose it may have been collected for, on the request of an individual, or by way of a prescribed data retention period.
The government is not bound by purpose limitations, allowing data collected for one specified purpose be used for a new, incompatible purpose, which stands in contrast to the regulations imposed on businesses.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions from “Digital Personal Data Protection Law Raises Questions About Consistency with Right to Privacy Ruling” published in The Wire dated 22-08-2023]
There are some advantages of the Digital Personal Data Protection Act (DPDPA), 2023. For instance, for the first time, personal data belonging to or identifying children will have to be classified separately, with such data carrying a greater degree of security and privacy. The law also seeks to reduce the rate and impact of data breaches targeting Indian businesses. The Digital Personal Data Protection law, however, goes a step beyond by imposing penalties for cases where data is breached as a result of a lack of implementation of adequate security controls. However, it could be said that the law isn’t balanced, because it provides wide exemptions to the processing of personal data to the government. For instance, data can be processed “in the interest of prevention, detection, investigation or prosecution of any offence … in India.” These kinds of exemptions are dangerous as they stand to legitimise widespread and unwarranted collection of data under the guise that such collection and processing may ultimately be useful for preventing or deterring a crime.
Security agencies will have significant authority to collect and retain any data whatsoever, as is typically the case with exemptions relating to the maintenance of sovereignty, integrity, security of the state, preservation of public order, prevention of offences, and incitement to commit offences. The law also exempts processing of personal data held outside of India. The government is also exempt from being required to delete any data that it possesses, regardless of the purpose it may have been collected for, on the request of an individual, or by way of a prescribed data retention period.
The government is not bound by purpose limitations, allowing data collected for one specified purpose be used for a new, incompatible purpose, which stands in contrast to the regulations imposed on businesses.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions from “Digital Personal Data Protection Law Raises Questions About Consistency with Right to Privacy Ruling” published in The Wire dated 22-08-2023]
Security agencies will have significant authority to collect and retain any data whatsoever, as is typically the case with exemptions relating to the maintenance of sovereignty, integrity, security of the state, preservation of public order, prevention of offences, and incitement to commit offences. The law also exempts processing of personal data held outside of India. The government is also exempt from being required to delete any data that it possesses, regardless of the purpose it may have been collected for, on the request of an individual, or by way of a prescribed data retention period.
The government is not bound by purpose limitations, allowing data collected for one specified purpose be used for a new, incompatible purpose, which stands in contrast to the regulations imposed on businesses.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions from “Digital Personal Data Protection Law Raises Questions About Consistency with Right to Privacy Ruling” published in The Wire dated 22-08-2023]
2. The 18th G20 Summit, in which the heads of states and governments will meet, on September 9 and 10 will be held in India’s national capital New Delhi. Over 25 world leaders along with other delegates are going to attend this mega event.
One of the largest multilateral summits, the G20 Summit presents a significant diplomatic opportunity for India, which will convene with the adoption of a joint declaration by all the member states/
India assumed the G20 Presidency on December 1 last year. The 18th G20 Summit in New Delhi is scheduled to be held on September 9-10. ……
The Group of Twenty (G20) comprises 19 countries …. and the European Union. The G20 members represent around 85% of the global GDP, over 75% of the global trade, and about two-thirds of the world population.
World leaders from several countries and institutions will mark their presence at the event. They include US President Joe Biden, UK Prime Minister Rishi Sunak, Australian Prime Minister Anthony Albanese, Canadian Prime Minister Justin Trudeau and French President Emmanuel Macron.
However, Russian President Vladimir Putin has opted out of the summit and foreign minister Sergei Lavrov will represent the country in his place. Chinese President Xi Jinping has also decided to skip the event and will send country’s Premier Li Qiang instead, according to sources.
The G20 Summit 2023 is being held under the theme – Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam (One Earth. One Family. One Future) – centered around the value of all life including human, animal, plant, and microorganisms and their interconnectedness on the planet Earth and in the wider universe.
India’s presidency of the summit holds significance as it aims to become a voice for the ‘less developed’ global South in a world dominated by developed nations of the West. It is also likely to take up the issue of border tension with China. India, for its part, may attempt to straighten out its diplomatic intricacies with the West after it faced challenges due to the Russia-Ukraine conflict. [Extracted, with edits and revisions, from “India gears up for G20 Summit: Check event venue, guest list, special invitees”, Hindustan Times]
The 18th G20 Summit, in which the heads of states and governments will meet, on September 9 and 10 will be held in India’s national capital New Delhi. Over 25 world leaders along with other delegates are going to attend this mega event.
One of the largest multilateral summits, the G20 Summit presents a significant diplomatic opportunity for India, which will convene with the adoption of a joint declaration by all the member states/
India assumed the G20 Presidency on December 1 last year. The 18th G20 Summit in New Delhi is scheduled to be held on September 9-10. ……
The Group of Twenty (G20) comprises 19 countries …. and the European Union. The G20 members represent around 85% of the global GDP, over 75% of the global trade, and about two-thirds of the world population.
World leaders from several countries and institutions will mark their presence at the event. They include US President Joe Biden, UK Prime Minister Rishi Sunak, Australian Prime Minister Anthony Albanese, Canadian Prime Minister Justin Trudeau and French President Emmanuel Macron.
However, Russian President Vladimir Putin has opted out of the summit and foreign minister Sergei Lavrov will represent the country in his place. Chinese President Xi Jinping has also decided to skip the event and will send country’s Premier Li Qiang instead, according to sources.
The G20 Summit 2023 is being held under the theme – Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam (One Earth. One Family. One Future) – centered around the value of all life including human, animal, plant, and microorganisms and their interconnectedness on the planet Earth and in the wider universe.
India’s presidency of the summit holds significance as it aims to become a voice for the ‘less developed’ global South in a world dominated by developed nations of the West. It is also likely to take up the issue of border tension with China. India, for its part, may attempt to straighten out its diplomatic intricacies with the West after it faced challenges due to the Russia-Ukraine conflict. [Extracted, with edits and revisions, from “India gears up for G20 Summit: Check event venue, guest list, special invitees”, Hindustan Times]
One of the largest multilateral summits, the G20 Summit presents a significant diplomatic opportunity for India, which will convene with the adoption of a joint declaration by all the member states/
India assumed the G20 Presidency on December 1 last year. The 18th G20 Summit in New Delhi is scheduled to be held on September 9-10. ……
The Group of Twenty (G20) comprises 19 countries …. and the European Union. The G20 members represent around 85% of the global GDP, over 75% of the global trade, and about two-thirds of the world population.
World leaders from several countries and institutions will mark their presence at the event. They include US President Joe Biden, UK Prime Minister Rishi Sunak, Australian Prime Minister Anthony Albanese, Canadian Prime Minister Justin Trudeau and French President Emmanuel Macron.
However, Russian President Vladimir Putin has opted out of the summit and foreign minister Sergei Lavrov will represent the country in his place. Chinese President Xi Jinping has also decided to skip the event and will send country’s Premier Li Qiang instead, according to sources.
The G20 Summit 2023 is being held under the theme – Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam (One Earth. One Family. One Future) – centered around the value of all life including human, animal, plant, and microorganisms and their interconnectedness on the planet Earth and in the wider universe.
India’s presidency of the summit holds significance as it aims to become a voice for the ‘less developed’ global South in a world dominated by developed nations of the West. It is also likely to take up the issue of border tension with China. India, for its part, may attempt to straighten out its diplomatic intricacies with the West after it faced challenges due to the Russia-Ukraine conflict. [Extracted, with edits and revisions, from “India gears up for G20 Summit: Check event venue, guest list, special invitees”, Hindustan Times]
3. Words remain an enigma, their presence within human sphere is a unique mystery. They form the intricate tapestry that convinces us of our existence, blurring lines between fact and fiction. An engagement with words is the most captivating, enchanting, and sometimes daunting encounter with the world. A word, a symbolic entity formed from the ethereal, exists neither as animate nor inanimate, yet pulsates with life. It can emanate warmth or coldness, absorb emotions, or stand as dry as a rock. Words can provoke smiles and elicit joy. They are like glow-worms, momentarily dispelling the surrounding darkness and act as life-saving rafts amid the tumultuous ocean waves. Words grant us the ability to explore the universe, and “to see a world in a grain of sand.” as William Blake noted. They impart a semantic existence to the lifeless, and bestow aesthetic form upon the formless. Scriptures say the word is the world. I say the world within the word is the abode of faith.
Words remain an enigma, their presence within human sphere is a unique mystery. They form the intricate tapestry that convinces us of our existence, blurring lines between fact and fiction. An engagement with words is the most captivating, enchanting, and sometimes daunting encounter with the world. A word, a symbolic entity formed from the ethereal, exists neither as animate nor inanimate, yet pulsates with life. It can emanate warmth or coldness, absorb emotions, or stand as dry as a rock. Words can provoke smiles and elicit joy. They are like glow-worms, momentarily dispelling the surrounding darkness and act as life-saving rafts amid the tumultuous ocean waves. Words grant us the ability to explore the universe, and “to see a world in a grain of sand.” as William Blake noted. They impart a semantic existence to the lifeless, and bestow aesthetic form upon the formless. Scriptures say the word is the world. I say the world within the word is the abode of faith.
4. In a world where aspirations for upward mobility are fervent, the opportunities for achieving such dreams remain limited. When one generation falls short, the mantle of ambition passes to the next, embedding within it a heavy burden of responsibility. Failing to meet these expectations can lead to profound sorrow, and in the direst cases, even to suicide. It’s in this landscape that coaching institutes assume a significant role, cultivating an atmosphere of uncertainty among students and parents. A stark discrepancy emerges between preparation for board examinations and competitive tests, amplifying the inequalities that plague the education system. The coaching industry’s massive marketing campaigns further exacerbate the situation, with some strategies veering into ethical grey areas. The tests themselves, designed to be more challenging than standardised exams, set the stage for feelings of inadequacy and self-doubt when not conquered. Our educational system is tailored to gauge an individual’s merit through examinations. Eminent thinker Michael J Sandel dubs this system the “tyranny of merit”, a sentiment echoed by the Supreme Court of India. Upholding the OBC reservation judgment, the Court called for a deeper evaluation of the “idea of merit”, highlighting its nuanced nature. Merit as a concept remains shrouded in misunderstanding and often goes unexamined within school curriculum. Adapting to new living arrangements, sourcing nourishing meals, battling isolation, and grappling with commutes form the backdrop against, which education unfolds. For marginalised communities and gender minorities, these hurdles are often amplified. Social media algorithms exacerbate mental health concerns, sowing loneliness and impeding attention spans and creativity. Technology emerges as a potential equaliser in this landscape. Online platforms now offer preparation opportunities from the comfort of one’s home. Government-curated or market-driven content could usher in a new era of accessibility.
In a world where aspirations for upward mobility are fervent, the opportunities for achieving such dreams remain limited. When one generation falls short, the mantle of ambition passes to the next, embedding within it a heavy burden of responsibility. Failing to meet these expectations can lead to profound sorrow, and in the direst cases, even to suicide. It’s in this landscape that coaching institutes assume a significant role, cultivating an atmosphere of uncertainty among students and parents. A stark discrepancy emerges between preparation for board examinations and competitive tests, amplifying the inequalities that plague the education system. The coaching industry’s massive marketing campaigns further exacerbate the situation, with some strategies veering into ethical grey areas. The tests themselves, designed to be more challenging than standardised exams, set the stage for feelings of inadequacy and self-doubt when not conquered. Our educational system is tailored to gauge an individual’s merit through examinations. Eminent thinker Michael J Sandel dubs this system the “tyranny of merit”, a sentiment echoed by the Supreme Court of India. Upholding the OBC reservation judgment, the Court called for a deeper evaluation of the “idea of merit”, highlighting its nuanced nature. Merit as a concept remains shrouded in misunderstanding and often goes unexamined within school curriculum. Adapting to new living arrangements, sourcing nourishing meals, battling isolation, and grappling with commutes form the backdrop against, which education unfolds. For marginalised communities and gender minorities, these hurdles are often amplified. Social media algorithms exacerbate mental health concerns, sowing loneliness and impeding attention spans and creativity. Technology emerges as a potential equaliser in this landscape. Online platforms now offer preparation opportunities from the comfort of one’s home. Government-curated or market-driven content could usher in a new era of accessibility.
5. In India, the legal landscape surrounding online defamation is a subject of significant interest and debate. With the rise of social media, and online platforms, cases of online defamation have become increasingly common. Defamation refers to making false statements about someone that harm their reputation. Online defamation includes defamatory statements made on the internet, including social media, blogs, forums, and other online platforms.
One critical aspect of online defamation is determining the liability of intermediaries, such as social media platforms or websites, for defamatory content posted by users. Section 79 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, provides a safe harbor for intermediaries, stating that they are not liable for third-party content if they act as intermediaries and follow due diligence in removing or disabling access to the content once notified.
However, determining whether an intermediary has fulfilled its due diligence obligations can be complex. The Indian judiciary has been actively interpreting this provision. One significant case is the Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, in which the Supreme Court clarified that intermediaries are required to act upon a valid court order or government directive for content removal, not upon private complaints.
The court also emphasized that the intermediaries should not take a proactive role in monitoring content, as this could potentially infringe on free speech. While the law provides a safe harbor, it does not absolve intermediaries from their responsibilities.
Online defamation cases often involve a balancing act between the right to freedom of expression and the right to reputation. The Indian legal system requires a careful examination of the content, context, and intent of the statements to determine whether they qualify as defamatory. Additionally, the plaintiff in an online defamation case must prove that the statement was false, damaging to their reputation, and made with a degree of fault, such as negligence or actual malice.
In India, the legal landscape surrounding online defamation is a subject of significant interest and debate. With the rise of social media, and online platforms, cases of online defamation have become increasingly common. Defamation refers to making false statements about someone that harm their reputation. Online defamation includes defamatory statements made on the internet, including social media, blogs, forums, and other online platforms.
One critical aspect of online defamation is determining the liability of intermediaries, such as social media platforms or websites, for defamatory content posted by users. Section 79 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, provides a safe harbor for intermediaries, stating that they are not liable for third-party content if they act as intermediaries and follow due diligence in removing or disabling access to the content once notified.
However, determining whether an intermediary has fulfilled its due diligence obligations can be complex. The Indian judiciary has been actively interpreting this provision. One significant case is the Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, in which the Supreme Court clarified that intermediaries are required to act upon a valid court order or government directive for content removal, not upon private complaints.
The court also emphasized that the intermediaries should not take a proactive role in monitoring content, as this could potentially infringe on free speech. While the law provides a safe harbor, it does not absolve intermediaries from their responsibilities.
Online defamation cases often involve a balancing act between the right to freedom of expression and the right to reputation. The Indian legal system requires a careful examination of the content, context, and intent of the statements to determine whether they qualify as defamatory. Additionally, the plaintiff in an online defamation case must prove that the statement was false, damaging to their reputation, and made with a degree of fault, such as negligence or actual malice.
One critical aspect of online defamation is determining the liability of intermediaries, such as social media platforms or websites, for defamatory content posted by users. Section 79 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, provides a safe harbor for intermediaries, stating that they are not liable for third-party content if they act as intermediaries and follow due diligence in removing or disabling access to the content once notified.
However, determining whether an intermediary has fulfilled its due diligence obligations can be complex. The Indian judiciary has been actively interpreting this provision. One significant case is the Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, in which the Supreme Court clarified that intermediaries are required to act upon a valid court order or government directive for content removal, not upon private complaints.
The court also emphasized that the intermediaries should not take a proactive role in monitoring content, as this could potentially infringe on free speech. While the law provides a safe harbor, it does not absolve intermediaries from their responsibilities.
Online defamation cases often involve a balancing act between the right to freedom of expression and the right to reputation. The Indian legal system requires a careful examination of the content, context, and intent of the statements to determine whether they qualify as defamatory. Additionally, the plaintiff in an online defamation case must prove that the statement was false, damaging to their reputation, and made with a degree of fault, such as negligence or actual malice.
6. The Indian legal system places a significant emphasis on protecting the rights and welfare of children. The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, is a vital piece of legislation in this regard. It is designed to ensure that children in conflict with the law receive special care, protection, and treatment, with the ultimate goal of their rehabilitation and reintegration into society.
One of the key provisions of the Act is the establishment of Juvenile Justice Boards (JJBs) at the district level. These boards consist of a Metropolitan Magistrate or Judicial Magistrate of the first class and two social workers, at least one of whom should be a woman. The primary function of the JJB is to determine the age of the juvenile, the circumstances in which the offense was committed, and whether the juvenile should be sent to a special home or released on probation.
The Act makes a clear distinction between a “child in conflict with the law” and a “child in need of care and protection.” A child in conflict with the law is one who has committed an offense, while a child in need of care and protection is a child who is vulnerable or at risk and requires special care and support.
The Act introduces a unique approach to dealing with children who are in conflict with the law. For children between the ages of 16 and 18, who have committed heinous offenses, they can be tried as adults, subject to a preliminary assessment by the Juvenile Justice Board. This assessment considers the child’s mental and physical capacity to commit such an offense. If the board determines that the child should be tried as an adult, the case is transferred to the regular criminal courts.
The Act also places restrictions on the publication of information that could lead to the identification of a juvenile offender. This is done to protect the privacy and future prospects of the child.
The Indian legal system places a significant emphasis on protecting the rights and welfare of children. The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, is a vital piece of legislation in this regard. It is designed to ensure that children in conflict with the law receive special care, protection, and treatment, with the ultimate goal of their rehabilitation and reintegration into society.
One of the key provisions of the Act is the establishment of Juvenile Justice Boards (JJBs) at the district level. These boards consist of a Metropolitan Magistrate or Judicial Magistrate of the first class and two social workers, at least one of whom should be a woman. The primary function of the JJB is to determine the age of the juvenile, the circumstances in which the offense was committed, and whether the juvenile should be sent to a special home or released on probation.
The Act makes a clear distinction between a “child in conflict with the law” and a “child in need of care and protection.” A child in conflict with the law is one who has committed an offense, while a child in need of care and protection is a child who is vulnerable or at risk and requires special care and support.
The Act introduces a unique approach to dealing with children who are in conflict with the law. For children between the ages of 16 and 18, who have committed heinous offenses, they can be tried as adults, subject to a preliminary assessment by the Juvenile Justice Board. This assessment considers the child’s mental and physical capacity to commit such an offense. If the board determines that the child should be tried as an adult, the case is transferred to the regular criminal courts.
The Act also places restrictions on the publication of information that could lead to the identification of a juvenile offender. This is done to protect the privacy and future prospects of the child.
One of the key provisions of the Act is the establishment of Juvenile Justice Boards (JJBs) at the district level. These boards consist of a Metropolitan Magistrate or Judicial Magistrate of the first class and two social workers, at least one of whom should be a woman. The primary function of the JJB is to determine the age of the juvenile, the circumstances in which the offense was committed, and whether the juvenile should be sent to a special home or released on probation.
The Act makes a clear distinction between a “child in conflict with the law” and a “child in need of care and protection.” A child in conflict with the law is one who has committed an offense, while a child in need of care and protection is a child who is vulnerable or at risk and requires special care and support.
The Act introduces a unique approach to dealing with children who are in conflict with the law. For children between the ages of 16 and 18, who have committed heinous offenses, they can be tried as adults, subject to a preliminary assessment by the Juvenile Justice Board. This assessment considers the child’s mental and physical capacity to commit such an offense. If the board determines that the child should be tried as an adult, the case is transferred to the regular criminal courts.
The Act also places restrictions on the publication of information that could lead to the identification of a juvenile offender. This is done to protect the privacy and future prospects of the child.
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