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CLAT UG Question Paper 2024 Set B (Available)- Download Solutions and Answer Key pdf
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Bhavishya Rao

| Updated On - Nov 9, 2024

CLAT 2024 UG Question Paper Set B with Answer Key and Solution PDF is available for download. The exam was conducted by the Consortium of NLUs on December 3, 2023. Candidates were required to answer a total of 120 objective-type questions carrying 1 mark each covering five major sections: English Language, Current Affairs & General Knowledge, Legal Reasoning, Logical Reasoning and Quantitative Techniques.

CLAT 2024 UG Question Paper with Answer Key and Solution PDF Set B

CLAT 2024 UG Question Paper with Answer Key PDF (Set B) Download PDF Check Solution

CLAT 2024 UG Questions with Solution

Question No. Question (with Options) Answer Solution
1 Who is often regarded as the greatest playwright in the history of the English language?
(A) Jane Austen
(B) William Wordsworth
(C) William Shakespeare
(D) George Orwell
(C) William Shakespeare William Shakespeare is celebrated as the greatest playwright in the history of the English language, known for his exploration of human nature, love, ambition, and tragedy.
2 Which of Jane Austen’s novels is known for its social commentary and witty portrayal of romance?
(A) Nineteen Eighty-Four
(B) Sense and Sensibility
(C) "I Wandered Lonely as a Cloud"
(D) "The Rime of the Ancient Mariner"
(B) Sense and Sensibility Jane Austen’s "Sense and Sensibility" is renowned for its wit and keen social commentary on romance and relationships.
3 Who are the Romantic poets mentioned in the passage known for celebrating nature and intense human emotions?
(A) William Shakespeare and Virginia Woolf
(B) George Orwell and Samuel Taylor Coleridge
(C) William Wordsworth and Samuel Taylor Coleridge
(D) Jane Austen and Arundhati Roy
(C) William Wordsworth and Samuel Taylor Coleridge Wordsworth and Coleridge were leading poets of the Romantic era, celebrating nature and the emotional depth of human experience.
4 What is the title of Virginia Woolf’s novel known for its modernist narrative style?
(A) Pride and Prejudice
(B) Nineteen Eighty-Four
(C) Mrs. Dalloway
(D) The God of Small Things
(C) Mrs. Dalloway "Mrs. Dalloway" by Virginia Woolf is known for its modernist narrative style, delving into the inner thoughts and experiences of its characters.
5 Identify the 20th-century novel mentioned in the passage that provides a warning about the dangers of totalitarianism.
(A) Nineteen Eighty-Four
(B) Romeo and Juliet
(C) Sense and Sensibility
(D) "I Wandered Lonely as a Cloud"
(A) Nineteen Eighty-Four George Orwell’s "Nineteen Eighty-Four" is a dystopian novel that warns about the dangers of totalitarianism and the loss of individual freedoms.
6 What does the passage highlight as the enduring power of English literature?
(A) Its ability to win literary awards
(B) The diversity of its authors, themes, and styles
(C) Its ability to captivate and inspire only British readers
(D) The decline of storytelling
(B) The diversity of its authors, themes, and styles The passage emphasizes the vast diversity of English literature, from its authors to the themes and literary styles, contributing to its global influence and enduring power.
7 What does the protagonist’s preference for “barrenness” and “starkness” at Carignano suggest about her personality?
(A) She enjoys a bustling and vibrant environment.
(B) She values simplicity and minimalism in her surroundings.
(C) She prefers lush and colorful landscapes.
(D) She seeks constant stimulation and variety in her life.
(B) She values simplicity and minimalism in her surroundings. The protagonist’s satisfaction with the barrenness of Carignano suggests that she prefers a simple, unadorned environment, focusing on the essential, unspoiled elements of nature.
8 What do you get to know about the protagonist’s state of mind from her reaction towards the postman?
(A) She feels grateful for his presence and the assistance he offers.
(B) She dislikes any disturbance or interruption in her solitude.
(C) She feels suspicious and is interested in the lives of others.
(D) She is disinterested and generally unaffected by the presence of others.
(B) She dislikes any disturbance or interruption in her solitude. The protagonist’s cold and piercing stare at the postman, coupled with her desire to be left alone, indicates that she is irritated by any disruption to her solitude.
9 What does the protagonist’s desire to be mistaken for a pine tree reveal about her mindset?
(A) She desires to be appreciated and noticed by others in society.
(B) She has a deep admiration for the beauty of the pine trees.
(C) She feels a sense of superiority over other living beings.
(D) She yearns to be one with nature and escape from her human identity.
(D) She yearns to be one with nature and escape from her human identity. The protagonist’s wish to merge with the pine trees symbolizes her desire to escape her human identity and become part of the natural world, reflecting a longing for peace and unity with nature.
10 The protagonist’s description of the nestlings’ screams as “shrill and maddening” shows that:
(A) She perceives the sounds to be out of tune yet soothing.
(B) She considers the nestlings to be symbols of new life and vitality.
(C) She finds the nestlings to be vexatious and irritating.
(D) She feels a sense of protectiveness and care towards the nestlings.
(C) She finds the nestlings to be vexatious and irritating. The use of words like “shrill and maddening” reflects the protagonist’s annoyance and irritation with the nestlings, showing her inability to appreciate their vitality.
11 Which of the following statements are true about the protagonist’s overall state of mind in Carignano?
Statement I: She experienced a sense of constant restlessness and anguish.
Statement II: She felt isolated and disconnected from her environment.
Statement III: She was content, fulfilled, and at peace with her surrounding.
(A) Statement I and II
(B) Statement II and III
(C) Only Statement II
(D) Only Statement III
(D) Only Statement III The protagonist, while experiencing isolation, found a sense of contentment and peace in Carignano, as she appreciated the solitude and tranquility of the environment. The restlessness and anguish were not central to her experience.
12 In the light of above passage, what role does nature play in the protagonist’s life at Carignano?
(A) It provides her with a source of creativity.
(B) It offers her solace, peace, and a sense of belonging.
(C) It serves as a reminder of the harsh realities of life.
(D) It serves as a constant source of distraction and intrusion for her.
(B) It offers her solace, peace, and a sense of belonging. The protagonist is at peace with the natural barrenness of Carignano, finding solace in its simplicity and sense of belonging, as evidenced by her deep satisfaction with her surroundings.
13 What is the central thesis of the above extract?
(A) The practice of untouchability takes various forms in modern India.
(B) The imagination of justice for the rich and poor is vastly different.
(C) Addressing judge strength and case-load management does not affect the performance of the judicial system.
(D) Protecting the livelihood of traditional taxi drivers is contrary to the goals of ease of doing business.
(B) The imagination of justice for the rich and poor is vastly different. The passage highlights how the middle class and the masses have different perspectives on justice. The middle class seeks reasonable access to the judicial system, while the poor see the system as exploitative and avoid it.
14 What does the author mean by ‘docket-excluded’ in the second paragraph?
(A) The poor do not have easy access to the justice system.
(B) Courts do not list bail petitions of poor undertrial prisoners who populate the country’s jails.
(C) The poor reject the judicial system as being alien to their language and logic.
(D) The rich are excluded from the country’s prisons, which are mostly populated by the poor.
(A) The poor do not have easy access to the justice system. The term "docket-excluded" refers to the poor being excluded from the justice system. They are often unable to access justice due to economic and social barriers, and thus, they avoid the judicial system.
15 Which of the following words best describes the experience of different segments of people with the justice system as described in the third paragraph?
(A) Symbiotic
(B) Affective
(C) Conflicting
(D) Inter-dependent
(C) Conflicting The passage describes how different segments of society have conflicting experiences with the justice system. While the middle class sees it as a protector of rights, the poor view it as a place of punishment.
16 Which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree with?
(A) The judicial system reflects the same power relationships as those that exist in society.
(B) Access to the judicial system is determined more by a person’s economic status such as wealth and income, than by their social status, such as religion and caste.
(C) The judicial system was made by the rich, for the rich, of the rich.
(D) None of the above.
(A) The judicial system reflects the same power relationships as those that exist in society. The author discusses how the judicial system favors the middle class and often excludes the poor, reflecting the same power dynamics seen in society at large.
17 Which of the following statements is the author most likely to disagree with?
(A) A truly representative democracy would ensure that the interests of the poor are also represented in the judicial system.
(B) The Law ensures equality both in text and in practice.
(C) The poor suffer most at the hands of lawyers and touts, compared to judges who might still pronounce judgments in their favour from time to time.
(D) All of the above.
(B) The Law ensures equality both in text and in practice. The author suggests that the justice system is biased against the poor and that the law, in practice, does not ensure equality, especially for marginalized groups.
18 What makes reform of judicial administration a ‘neutral’ area?
(A) Persons across socio-economic strata agree on the need to reform judicial administration.
(B) There is consensus among political parties across the ideological and regional spectrum on reforms to judicial administration.
(C) Reforms to judicial administration do not favour one class of people over another.
(D) Reform of judicial administration is mandated by the Constitution, and thus lies beyond political considerations.
(C) Reforms to judicial administration do not favour one class of people over another. The author explains that reforms to judicial administration focus on neutral areas like process reform, technology, and case management, which do not favor any particular class or social group.
19 In contemporary literature, how is the relationship between character and setting described in the passage?
(A) It is non-existent; characters and settings are entirely separate entities.
(B) It is a complex interplay where the setting influences the plot and character development.
(C) Characters and settings are interchangeable.
(D) Settings are insignificant in contemporary literature.
(B) It is a complex interplay where the setting influences the plot and character development. In contemporary literature, the passage describes the relationship between character and setting as a complex interplay. The setting is not just a backdrop but influences the plot and character development, reflecting the emotions and struggles of characters, such as in "The Namesake" and "Macbeth."
20 In the novel, The Namesake by Jhumpa Lahiri, what does the barren desert landscape symbolize?
(A) A thriving community.
(B) The protagonist’s sense of isolation and identity crisis.
(C) A lush, vibrant setting.
(D) A happy, carefree life.
(B) The protagonist’s sense of isolation and identity crisis. In "The Namesake," the barren desert landscape symbolizes Gogol’s inner turmoil and sense of isolation as he struggles with his identity. The arid and desolate setting mirrors his feelings of alienation in a foreign land.
21 What role does the Scottish moors play in Shakespeare’s Macbeth?
(A) It serves as a beautiful, serene landscape.
(B) It has no influence on the characters’ actions.
(C) It is an ever-present omen of impending tragedy.
(D) It is a place for the characters to relax.
(C) It is an ever-present omen of impending tragedy. In "Macbeth," the Scottish moors create an eerie and foreboding atmosphere, symbolizing the looming tragedy. The mist and darkness of the moors are metaphors for the moral confusion and doom that surrounds the characters.
22 What does the term “interplay” refer to in the context of the passage?
(A) A lack of interaction between characters and setting.
(B) A complex relationship where the setting influences the narrative.
(C) An insignificant connection between characters and setting.
(D) A complete separation of characters and setting.
(B) A complex relationship where the setting influences the narrative. The term "interplay" in the passage refers to the intricate relationship between setting and character in literature. The setting often influences the emotions, decisions, and development of characters, as shown through the examples of the desert in "The Namesake" and the Scottish moors in "Macbeth."
23 Which of the following words best describes the setting in "The God of Small Things"?
(A) Boring.
(B) Lush and vibrant.
(C) Insignificant.
(D) Dark and foreboding.
(B) Lush and vibrant. The passage describes the Kerala backwaters in "The God of Small Things" as "lush" and "vibrant." The setting plays an active role in the narrative, reflecting the complexity of relationships and secrets within the story.
24 What is the main theme discussed in the passage?
(A) The characters in contemporary literature are not influenced by their settings.
(B) Setting in literature is unimportant.
(C) In literature, settings can be as influential as characters in shaping the narrative.
(D) Settings have no role in character development.
(C) In literature, settings can be as influential as characters in shaping the narrative. The passage emphasizes the idea that the setting in literature is more than just a backdrop—it plays a crucial role in shaping the narrative by influencing character development and the unfolding of events.
25 What is the life of contradiction referred to here?
(A) That of equality in politics but inequality in social and economic structure.
(B) That of inequality in politics but equality in social and economic structure.
(C) That of inequality in social structure but equality in economic structure.
(D) That of equality in politics and economic structure but inequality in social structure.
(A) That of equality in politics but inequality in social and economic structure. Dr. Ambedkar highlights the contradiction between political equality and social/economic inequality in the post-independence scenario.
26 What will happen, according to Dr. Ambedkar, if we continue to deny equality in our social and economic life?
(A) There will be no injustice.
(B) Our political democracy will be in danger.
(C) Equality in social and economic life will be achieved nevertheless.
(D) Our social and economic life will be in peril.
(B) Our political democracy will be in danger. Dr. Ambedkar warns that denying equality in social and economic life would endanger the survival of political democracy.
27 What might be the cause, according to Dr. Ambedkar, if things go wrong under the new Constitution?
(A) That the Constitution was ignored.
(B) That the men called upon to work the Constitution were good.
(C) That the men called upon to work the Constitution were not good.
(D) That the Constitution was bad and failed the people.
(C) That the men called upon to work the Constitution were not good. Dr. Ambedkar points out that the effectiveness of a constitution depends largely on the character of those who implement it.
28 What does social democracy mean?
(A) Equality before the Law.
(B) Equality of opportunities.
(C) Equality in social life.
(D) Equality in economic life.
(C) Equality in social life. Social democracy refers to a way of life based on the principles of liberty, equality, and fraternity, with a focus on social equality.
29 When does a bad Constitution turn out to be good?
(A) When the people called upon to work it are good.
(B) When the people called upon to work it are bad.
(C) When the Constitution is amended.
(D) None of the above.
(A) When the people called upon to work it are good. Dr. Ambedkar emphasizes that even a bad constitution can be successful if the people in charge of its implementation are virtuous and competent.
30 Which of the following statements is not correct about what Dr. B.R. Ambedkar feels about the constitution?
(A) The Constitution is workable.
(B) The Constitution is flexible.
(C) The Constitution is strong enough to hold the country together in peacetime only.
(D) The Constitution is strong enough to hold the country together both in peacetime and in wartime.
(C) The Constitution is strong enough to hold the country together in peacetime only. Dr. Ambedkar believed that the Constitution is robust enough to hold the country together both in peacetime and wartime, not just during peacetime.
31 The Group of Twenty (G20) is a forum for:
(A) International economic cooperation.
(B) International peace and security.
(C) International cooperation for combating money laundering.
(D) All of the above.
(A) International economic cooperation. The primary focus of the G20 is on international economic cooperation, bringing together major economies to address global economic challenges.
32 The G20 Summit is hosted by the incumbent ‘Presidency’. The G20 Presidency is responsible for bringing together the G20 agenda in consultation with other members and in response to developments in the global economy. Which country will hold the Presidency in 2024?
(A) India
(B) Indonesia
(C) Brazil
(D) Saudi Arabia
(C) Brazil After India, Brazil will assume the G20 Presidency in 2024, continuing the rotation of presidencies among member countries.
33 Which one of the following countries is not a member of the G20?
(A) Egypt
(B) Mexico
(C) Republic of Korea
(D) Turkiye
(A) Egypt Egypt is not a member of the G20. The G20 includes 19 countries and the European Union, but Egypt is not part of this group.
34 At every G20 summit, the host country invites countries and institutions that are not members of the G20. Which among the following denotes the correct list of countries being G20 invitees to the Summit held in New Delhi in September 2023?
(A) Nepal, Bangladesh, Egypt, Netherlands.
(B) Bhutan, Mauritius, Nigeria, Oman.
(C) Bangladesh, Singapore, Spain, Netherlands.
(D) Sri Lanka, Egypt, UAE, Mauritius.
(C) Bangladesh, Singapore, Spain, Netherlands For the 2023 summit, the G20 invited several non-member countries, including Bangladesh, Singapore, Spain, and the Netherlands, among others.
35 Which incident is described in the passage?
(A) Baisakhi festival at Amritsar, April 1919.
(B) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre, April 1919.
(C) Congress Protests of April 1919.
(D) Non-Cooperation movement, April 1919.
(B) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre, April 1919 The passage describes the tragic events of the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre, where General Dyer ordered the firing on a peaceful gathering in Amritsar.
36 Why did General Dyer order to fire on the crowd?
(A) To bring the crowd under control.
(B) To scatter the crowd.
(C) To teach the crowd a lesson.
(D) To enforce the martial law.
(C) To teach the crowd a lesson. General Dyer’s action was an attempt to assert control and send a message to the public, rather than responding to any immediate threat.
37 In the light of the above passage, what was the intention of the speaker?
(A) To praise General Dyer.
(B) To expose the deeds of General Dyer.
(C) To get sympathy for the Indians who died.
(D) All of the above.
(B) To expose the deeds of General Dyer. The speaker, Col. Wedgwood, aims to expose the inhumane actions of General Dyer and to make the British public aware of the brutal treatment of innocent civilians.
38 After the incident, who helped the injured and the dying people?
(A) The army.
(B) The police.
(C) The civil administration.
(D) Some people who lived nearby.
(D) Some people who lived nearby. The wounded and dying were cared for by local people who lived nearby, as the authorities and the military did not offer any assistance.
39 What would be the feelings of the Indian children brought up to the spot?
(A) Friendliness to the British rule.
(B) Bitterness about the British rule.
(C) A sense of helplessness.
(D) None of the above.
(B) Bitterness about the British rule. The children brought to the site would likely feel bitterness and resentment towards British rule due to the legacy of violence and injustice left behind by the massacre.
40 What was the full name of General Dyer?
(A) Reginald Murree Harry Dyer.
(B) Reginald Royce Harry Dyer.
(C) Reginald Edward Harry Dyer.
(D) Reginald Coleman Harry Dyer.
(C) Reginald Edward Harry Dyer General Dyer’s full name was Reginald Edward Harry Dyer, and he is infamously known for his role in the Jallianwala Bagh massacre.


CLAT Questions

1.
On 26th January 1950, we are going to enter into a life of contradictions. In politics, we will have equality and in social and economic structure, continue to deny the principle of one man one value. How long shall we continue to live this life of contradictions? How long shall we continue to deny equality in our social and economic life? If we continue to deny it for long, we will do so only by putting our political democracy in peril. We must remove this contradiction at the earliest possible moment else those who suffer from inequality will blow up the structure of democracy, which this Constituent Assembly has so laboriously built up.
I feel that the constitution is workable, it is flexible and it is strong enough to hold the country together both in peacetime and in wartime. Indeed, if I may say so, if things go wrong under the new Constitution, the reason will not be that we had a bad Constitution. What we will have to say is that man was vile?
The third thing we must do is not be content with mere political democracy. We must note that our political democracy cannot last unless there lies at the base of social democracy. What does social democracy mean? It means a way of life, which recognizes liberty, equality and fraternity as the principles of life.
… however, good a constitution may be, it is sure to turn out bad because those who are called to work it, happen to be a bad lot. However, bad a constitution may be, it may turn out to be good if those who are called to work it, happen to be a good lot. The working of a Constitution does not depend wholly upon the nature of the Constitution.
[Excerpts from Dr. Ambedkar’s address to the Constituent Assembly, 25 November 1949]

      2.
      Words remain an enigma, their presence within human sphere is a unique mystery. They form the intricate tapestry that convinces us of our existence, blurring lines between fact and fiction. An engagement with words is the most captivating, enchanting, and sometimes daunting encounter with the world. A word, a symbolic entity formed from the ethereal, exists neither as animate nor inanimate, yet pulsates with life. It can emanate warmth or coldness, absorb emotions, or stand as dry as a rock. Words can provoke smiles and elicit joy. They are like glow-worms, momentarily dispelling the surrounding darkness and act as life-saving rafts amid the tumultuous ocean waves. Words grant us the ability to explore the universe, and “to see a world in a grain of sand.” as William Blake noted. They impart a semantic existence to the lifeless, and bestow aesthetic form upon the formless. Scriptures say the word is the world. I say the world within the word is the abode of faith.

          3.
          The Indian legal system places a significant emphasis on protecting the rights and welfare of children. The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, is a vital piece of legislation in this regard. It is designed to ensure that children in conflict with the law receive special care, protection, and treatment, with the ultimate goal of their rehabilitation and reintegration into society.
          One of the key provisions of the Act is the establishment of Juvenile Justice Boards (JJBs) at the district level. These boards consist of a Metropolitan Magistrate or Judicial Magistrate of the first class and two social workers, at least one of whom should be a woman. The primary function of the JJB is to determine the age of the juvenile, the circumstances in which the offense was committed, and whether the juvenile should be sent to a special home or released on probation.
          The Act makes a clear distinction between a “child in conflict with the law” and a “child in need of care and protection.” A child in conflict with the law is one who has committed an offense, while a child in need of care and protection is a child who is vulnerable or at risk and requires special care and support.
          The Act introduces a unique approach to dealing with children who are in conflict with the law. For children between the ages of 16 and 18, who have committed heinous offenses, they can be tried as adults, subject to a preliminary assessment by the Juvenile Justice Board. This assessment considers the child’s mental and physical capacity to commit such an offense. If the board determines that the child should be tried as an adult, the case is transferred to the regular criminal courts.
          The Act also places restrictions on the publication of information that could lead to the identification of a juvenile offender. This is done to protect the privacy and future prospects of the child.

              4.
              There are some advantages of the Digital Personal Data Protection Act (DPDPA), 2023. For instance, for the first time, personal data belonging to or identifying children will have to be classified separately, with such data carrying a greater degree of security and privacy. The law also seeks to reduce the rate and impact of data breaches targeting Indian businesses. The Digital Personal Data Protection law, however, goes a step beyond by imposing penalties for cases where data is breached as a result of a lack of implementation of adequate security controls. However, it could be said that the law isn’t balanced, because it provides wide exemptions to the processing of personal data to the government. For instance, data can be processed “in the interest of prevention, detection, investigation or prosecution of any offence … in India.” These kinds of exemptions are dangerous as they stand to legitimise widespread and unwarranted collection of data under the guise that such collection and processing may ultimately be useful for preventing or deterring a crime.
              Security agencies will have significant authority to collect and retain any data whatsoever, as is typically the case with exemptions relating to the maintenance of sovereignty, integrity, security of the state, preservation of public order, prevention of offences, and incitement to commit offences. The law also exempts processing of personal data held outside of India. The government is also exempt from being required to delete any data that it possesses, regardless of the purpose it may have been collected for, on the request of an individual, or by way of a prescribed data retention period.
              The government is not bound by purpose limitations, allowing data collected for one specified purpose be used for a new, incompatible purpose, which stands in contrast to the regulations imposed on businesses.
              [Extracted, with edits and revisions from “Digital Personal Data Protection Law Raises Questions About Consistency with Right to Privacy Ruling” published in The Wire dated 22-08-2023]

                  5.
                  A survey was conducted about the population of a particular region having working population of three lacs and information was collected about self-employed persons, casual wage workers, regular salaries employees of both urban and rural areas of the region. Self-employment is a key source of income in both rural and urban areas but it is more prevalent in rural areas (56% of the rural population) than in urban areas (40% of the urban population). Rural population was 48% of the total population. Regular salaried workers in urban areas were 48% of the urban population whereas in rural areas, regular salaried workers constituted 12% of the rural population. During the survey, the casual wage workers were found to be more common in rural areas than in urban areas. Casual wage workers in rural areas were 32% of the rural population whereas it was 12% of the urban population in urban areas.
                  Based on the above information, answer the following questions

                      6.
                      The Supreme Court on September 1 held that a child born of a void or voidable marriage can inherit the parent’s share in a joint Hindu family property. A three-judge Bench headed by Chief Justice of India D.Y. Chandrachud however clarified that such a child would not be entitled to rights in or to the property of any other person in the family. A voidable marriage is one that is made invalid by the husband or wife through a decree. A void marriage is invalid at its very inception.
                      Chief Justice Chandrachud said the first step to the inheritance of a child from a void or voidable marriage would be to ascertain the exact share of his parent in the ancestral property. This could be done by means of conducting a “notional partition” of the ancestral property and calculating how much of the property the parent would have got immediately before his death. Once the share of the deceased parent in the property is ascertained through such a notional partition, his heirs, including his children by means of void or voidable marriage, would be entitled to their portions in the share.
                      The Chief Justice said that Section 16 of the Hindu Marriage Act has statutorily conferred legitimacy to children born out of void or voidable marriages. In fact, Chief Justice Chandrachud pointed out that Section 16(3) stipulates that children from void and voidable marriages would have a right to their parents’ property. The court said the intent of granting legitimacy to such children in the Hindu Marriage Act should also be reflected in the Hindu Succession Act, which governs inheritance. Children from void or voidable marriages come within the ambit of “legitimate kinship” and cannot be regarded as illegitimate by the Hindu Succession Act when it comes to inheritance.
                      The case before the three-judge Bench was focused on an amended provision in the Hindu Marriage Act, Section 16(3). The case was referred to a larger Bench in 2011 after a Division Bench of the apex court refused to follow past precedents and championed the cause of children born out of illegitimate marriages.
                      “With changing social norms of legitimacy in every society, including ours, what was illegitimate in the past may be legitimate today. The concept of legitimacy stems from social consensus, in the shaping of which various social groups play a vital role,” Justice Ganguly, who authored the 2011 judgment, had observed.
                      During the hearings on the reference, Chief Justice Chandrachud had agreed with the Division Bench’s findings that children from void and voidable marriages had rights over the property, whether self-acquired or ancestral, of their parents
                      [Extracted with edits and revisions from “Children from void, voidable marriages entitled to parents’ share in ancestral property: Supreme Court”, by Krishnadas Rajagopal, The Hindu, https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/children-from-void-voidable-marriages-arelegitimate-can-claim-rights-in-parents-properties-sc/article67259229.ece ]

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