MHT CET 2025 9 April Shift 2 Question Paper (Available): Download Question Paper (PCB) with Answers PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Updated 3+ months ago

The MHT CET 2025 question paper for April 9 Shift 2 (PCB group) is available here with solutions pdf. The MHT CET 2025 question paper consists of 200 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) totaling 200 marks divided in 4 sections, Physics, Chemistry, Biology (Zoology, Botany) and 50 questions in each subject. MHT CET April 9 Shift 2 was held from 2 PM to 5 PM.

Students who are appearing for MHT CET upcoming shifts can check the MHT CET April 9 Shift 2 Question Paper Pdf to understand the difficulty level of the exam.

Also Check:  MHT CET 2025 April 9 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solutions

MHT CET 2025 9 April Shift 2 PCB Question Paper PDF Download

MHT CET 2025 PCB Question Paper With Answer Key Download PDF Check Solution

Question 1:

A wire of length \( L \) and resistance \( R \) is falling vertically through Earth's horizontal magnetic field \( B \). What is the current induced in the wire when it has fallen a height \( L \)? (Take acceleration due to gravity as \( g \))

  • (a) \( \frac{BL\sqrt{2gL}}{R} \)
  • (b) \( \frac{B\sqrt{2gL}}{R} \)
  • (c) \( \frac{BL^2\sqrt{2g}}{R} \)
  • (d) \( \frac{BLg}{R} \)
Correct Answer: (a) \( \frac{BL\sqrt{2gL}}{R} \)
View Solution

Question 2:

The mass of an object is measured as \( (28 \pm 0.01) \) g and its volume as \( (5 \pm 0.1) \) cm\(^3\). What is the percentage error in density?

  • (A) 1.20%
  • (B) 2.04%
  • (C) 0.35%
  • (D) 0.71%
Correct Answer: (C) 0.35%
View Solution

Question 3:

At a height \( h \) above the Earth's surface, the acceleration due to gravity becomes \( \frac{g}{\sqrt{3}} \). What is the value of \( h \) in terms of the Earth's radius \( R \)?

  • (a) \( R \)
  • (b) \( \sqrt{2}R \)
  • (c) \( 2R \)
  • (d) \( \frac{R}{2} \)
Correct Answer: (a) \( R \)
View Solution

Question 4:

A block slides down a smooth inclined plane, and its acceleration is found to be \( \frac{g}{8} \). If \( g \) is the acceleration due to gravity, what is the angle of inclination \( \theta \) of the plane?

  • (a) \( \tan^{-1} \left( \frac{1}{8} \right) \)
  • (b) \( \tan^{-1} \left( \frac{1}{2} \right) \)
  • (c) \( \tan^{-1} \left( \frac{1}{4} \right) \)
  • (d) \( \tan^{-1} \left( \frac{1}{16} \right) \)
Correct Answer: (a) \( \tan^{-1} \left( \frac{1}{8} \right) \)
View Solution

Question 5:

An AC voltage \( V = 50\sqrt{2} \sin(100t) \) is applied across a capacitor of capacitance \( C = 1 \mu F \). What is the rms value of the current through the capacitor?

  • (a) \( 0.0025 \, A \)
  • (b) \( 0.01 \, A \)
  • (c) \( 0.005 \, A \)
  • (d) \( 0.007 \, A \)
Correct Answer: (c) \( 0.005 \, \text{A} \)
View Solution

Question 6:

Two black bodies emit the same amount of radiation per second. The radius of the first is \( R_1 = 2 \, m \) and its temperature is \( T_1 = 400 \, K \). If the second body has a radius \( R_2 = 4 \, m \), what is its temperature \( T_2 \) in Kelvin?

  • (a) \( 200 \, K \)
  • (b) \( 300 \, K \)
  • (c) \( 250 \, K \)
  • (d) \( 400 \, K \)
Correct Answer: (b) \( 300 \, \text{K} \)
View Solution

Question 7:

What is the ratio of the wavelength of the Lyman series limit to that of the Paschen series limit in the hydrogen spectrum?

  • (a) \( \frac{9}{9} \)
  • (b) \( \frac{1}{4} \)
  • (c) \( \frac{9}{3} \)
  • (d) \( \frac{2}{2} \)
Correct Answer: (a) \( \frac{9}{9} \)
View Solution

Question 8:

A photon and an electron have the same energy \( E \). If \( \lambda_p \) is the wavelength of the photon and \( \lambda_e \) is the de Broglie wavelength of the electron, then the ratio \( \frac{\lambda_p}{\lambda_e} \) is:

  • (a) \( \frac{E}{mc^2} \)
  • (b) \( \frac{\sqrt{2mE}}{c^2} \)
  • (c) \( \frac{\sqrt{2mE}}{c} \)
  • (d) \( \frac{\sqrt{2mE}}{R} \)
Correct Answer: (c) \( \frac{\sqrt{2mE}}{c} \)
View Solution

Question 9:

What is the ratio of the wavelength of the Lyman series limit to that of the Paschen series limit in the hydrogen spectrum?

  • (a) \( \frac{9}{9} \)
  • (b) \( \frac{1}{4} \)
  • (c) \( \frac{9}{3} \)
  • (d) \( \frac{2}{2} \)
Correct Answer: (a) \( \frac{9}{9} \)
View Solution

Question 10:

A photon and an electron have the same energy \( E \). If \( \lambda_p \) is the wavelength of the photon and \( \lambda_e \) is the de Broglie wavelength of the electron, then the ratio \( \frac{\lambda_p}{\lambda_e} \) is:

  • (a) \( \frac{E}{mc^2} \)
  • (b) \( \frac{\sqrt{2mE}}{c^2} \)
  • (c) \( \frac{\sqrt{2mE}}{c} \)
  • (d) \( \frac{\sqrt{2mE}}{R} \)
Correct Answer: (c) \( \frac{\sqrt{2mE}}{c} \)
View Solution

Question 11:

A mass of 0.5 kg is attached to a spring of force constant 200 N/m. What is the time period of oscillation?

  • (a) 0.25 s
  • (b) 0.50 s
  • (c) 1.00 s
  • (d) 2.00 s
Correct Answer: (a) 0.25 s
View Solution

Question 12:

A solid cylinder and a hollow cylinder, each of mass \( M \) and radius \( R \), are rotating with the same angular velocity \( \omega \). What is the ratio of their rotational kinetic energies \( \left( \frac{K_{hollow}}{K_{solid}} \right) \)?

  • (a) 1
  • (b) 2
  • (c) 3
  • (d) 3/2
Correct Answer: (b) 2
View Solution

Question 13:

A uniform circular disc of mass 2 kg and radius 0.5 m is mounted on a frictionless axle. A force of 4 N is applied tangentially at the rim for 2 seconds. Find the angular velocity acquired by the disc at the end of 2 seconds.

  • (a) 8 rad/s
  • (b) 10 rad/s
  • (c) 12 rad/s
  • (d) 16 rad/s
Correct Answer: (d) 16 rad/s
View Solution

Question 14:

A circular loop of radius 0.2 m carries a current of 4 A. What is the magnetic field at a point on the axis of the loop at a distance 0.2 m from the center?

  • (a) \( \frac{4 \times 10^{-6}}{4 \times 10^{-7}} \) T
  • (b) \( \sqrt{2} \, T \)
  • (c) \( 4 \times 10^{-7} \, T \)
  • (d) \( (0.2)^2 \, T \)
Correct Answer: (b) \( \sqrt{2} \, \text{T} \)
View Solution

Question 15:

An electron enters a magnetic field of magnitude 0.05 T at a speed of \(3 \times 10^6\) m/s making an angle of 30° with the field direction. What is the magnitude of magnetic force on it? (Charge of electron = \(1.6 \times 10^{-19}\) C)

  • (a) \(2.4 \times 10^{-14}\) N
  • (b) \(1.2 \times 10^{-14}\) N
  • (c) \(3.0 \times 10^{-14}\) N
  • (d) \(4.8 \times 10^{-14}\) N
Correct Answer: (b) (1.2 \times 10^{-14}\) N
View Solution

Question 16:

A spherical air bubble is formed inside a liquid (like water). The radius of the bubble is 0.5 mm, and the surface tension of the liquid is 0.072 N/m. What is the pressure inside the bubble relative to the outside pressure?

  • (a) \(1.44 \times 10^3 \, Pa\) more
  • (b) \(1.44 \times 10^2 \, Pa\) more
  • (c) \(2.88 \times 10^3 \, Pa\) more
  • (d) \(2.88 \times 10^2 \, Pa\) more
Correct Answer: (d)  \(2.88 \times 10^2 \, \text{Pa}\) more
View Solution

Question 17:

A particle on a string undergoes a transverse wave motion given by: \[ y = 5 \sin \left( 4 \pi t - \frac{\pi x}{2} \right) \]
(All quantities in SI units.)
How much time does a particle at \( x = 0 \) take to go from mean position to extreme (maximum displacement) for the first time?

  • (a) \( \frac{1}{4} \) S
  • (b) \( \frac{1}{8} \) S
  • (c) \( \frac{1}{2} \) S
  • (d) \( \frac{1}{16} \) S
Correct Answer: (b) \( \frac{1}{8} \) S
View Solution

Question 18:

Assertion (A):
When two waves of equal amplitude and a phase difference of \( \frac{\pi}{2} \) interfere, the resulting intensity is equal to the intensity of one wave.

Reason (R):
In interference, the resultant intensity is always the sum of individual intensities if the phase difference is non-zero.

  • (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
  • (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  • (c) A is true, but R is false.
  • (d) A is false, but R is true.
Correct Answer: (d) A is false, but R is true.
View Solution

Question 19:

Two resistors, 4Ω and 6Ω, are connected in parallel, and this combination is connected in series with a 2Ω resistor to a 12V battery. What is the total power dissipated?

  • (a) 32.7 W
  • (b) 28.8 W
  • (c) 24.0 W
  • (d) 36.0 W
Correct Answer: (a) 32.7 W
View Solution

Question 20:

A small object is tied to a string and whirled in a vertical circle of radius L. What should be the minimum speed at the topmost point of the circle so that the string just remains taut?

  • (a) \( \sqrt{2gL} \)
  • (b) \( \sqrt{gL} \)
  • (c) \( \sqrt{3gL} \)
  • (d) Zero
Correct Answer: (b) \( \sqrt{gL} \)
View Solution

Question 21:

The reverse saturation current (I0) of a silicon diode at 27°C is \( 10^{-6} \) A. What will be the approximate value of I0 at 67°C? (Assume \( I_0 \) doubles for every 10°C rise in temperature)

  • (a) \( 1.6 \times 10^{-6} \) A
  • (b) \( 4.0 \times 10^{-6} \) A
  • (c) \( 8.0 \times 10^{-6} \) A
  • (d) \( 1.6 \times 10^{-5} \) A
Correct Answer: (b) \( 4.0 \times 10^{-6} \) A
View Solution

Question 22:

A conducting rod of length L and mass m falls vertically under gravity through a region of uniform magnetic field B, directed into the plane of the page. The rod is placed on two smooth, vertical conducting rails connected at the bottom by a resistor R. Assuming no friction or air resistance, and the rod quickly reaches a constant terminal velocity, find the expression for v in terms of B, L, m, R.

  • (a) \( \frac{mgR}{B^2 L^2} \)
  • (b) \( \frac{mg}{B^2 L^2} \)
  • (c) \( \frac{mgR}{B^2 L} \)
  • (d) \( \frac{mR}{gB^2 L} \)
Correct Answer: (a)  \( \frac{mgR}{B^2 L^2} \)
View Solution

Question 23:

A gas undergoes a process \( PV^2 = constant \). Initially, pressure = 2 atm, volume = 1 L. It expands to 2 L. Find the work done by the gas in joules.

  • (a) 50.5 J
  • (b) 10.1 J
  • (c) 202 J
  • (d) 303 J
Correct Answer: (b) 10.1 J
View Solution

Question 24:

Three point charges +Q, +Q, and -Q are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle of side a. What is the total electrostatic potential energy of the system?

  • (a) \( \frac{kQ^2}{a} \)
  • (b) 0
  • (c) \( \frac{a}{3kQ^2} \)
  • (d) \( \frac{a}{3Q^2} \)
Correct Answer: (c) \( \frac{a}{3kQ^2} \)
View Solution

Question 25:

A passenger is sitting in a fast moving train. The engine of the train blows a whistle of frequency N. If the apparent frequency of sound heard by the passengers is \( N' \), then:

  • (a) \( N' = N \)
  • (b) \( N' < N \)
  • (c) \( N' > N \)
  • (d) \( N' N = 1 \)
Correct Answer: (a) \( N' = N \)
View Solution

Question 26:

An object is dropped from a helicopter flying horizontally at 360 km/h. It falls from a height of 2 km and reaches the ground in 20 seconds. What is the displacement of the package relative to the helicopter's position when it was dropped?

  • (a) 2 km
  • (b) \( 2\sqrt{2} \) km
  • (c) 4 km
  • (d) \( 8 \) km
Correct Answer: (b) \( 2\sqrt{2} \) km
View Solution

Question 27:

In adiabatic compression, which of the following is true?

  • (a) Temperature increases
  • (b) Temperature decreases
  • (c) Pressure remains constant
  • (d) Amount of heat exchanged with surround
Correct Answer: (a) Temperature increases
View Solution

Question 28:

In a vertical circle of radius r, at what point in its path does a particle have tension equal to zero if it is just able to complete the vertical circle?

  • (a) Lowest point
  • (b) Highest point
  • (c) Horizontal point
  • (d) Any point
Correct Answer: (b) Highest point
View Solution

Question 29:

In Young's double slit experiment, we get 15 fringes per cm on the screen, using light of wavelength 5600 \AA. For the same setting, how many fringes per cm will be obtained with light of wavelength 7000 \AA?

  • (a) 10
  • (b) 12
  • (c) 15
  • (d) 18
Correct Answer: (b) 12
View Solution

Question 30:

A uniform circular disc of mass 2 kg and radius 0.5 m is mounted on a frictionless axle. A force of 4 N is applied tangentially at the rim for 2 seconds. Find the angular velocity acquired by the disc at the end of 2 seconds.

  • (a) 8 rad/s
  • (b) 10 rad/s
  • (c) 12 rad/s
  • (d) 16 rad/s
Correct Answer: (d) 16 rad/s
View Solution

Question 31:

An electron enters a magnetic field of magnitude 0.05 T at a speed of \( 3 \times 10^6 \) m/s, making an angle of 30° with the field direction. What is the magnitude of magnetic force on it?
% Charge of electron = \( 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \) C

  • (a) \( 2.4 \times 10^{-14} \, N \)
  • (b) \( 1.2 \times 10^{-14} \, N \)
  • (c) \( 3 \times 10^{-14} \, N \)
  • (d) \( 4.8 \times 10^{-14} \, N \)
Correct Answer: (b) \( 1.2 \times 10^{-14} \, \text{N} \)
View Solution

Question 32:

Two resistors, 4 ohm and 6 ohm, are connected in parallel, and this combination is connected in series with a 2 ohm resistor to a 12V battery. What is the total power dissipated?

  • (a) 32.7 W
  • (b) 28.8 W
  • (c) 24.0 W
  • (d) 36.0 W
Correct Answer: (a) 32.7 W
View Solution

Question 33:

How much time does a particle at \( x = C \) take to go from the mean position to the extreme (maximum displacement) for the first time?

  • (a) \( T/2 \)
  • (b) \( T/4 \)
  • (c) \( T/3 \)
  • (d) \( T \)
Correct Answer: (b) \( T/4 \)
View Solution

Question 34:

A transverse wave along a string is given by \( y = 2 \sin \left( 2\pi (3t - x) + \frac{\pi}{4} \right) \), where \( x \) and \( y \) are in cm and \( t \) in second. Find the acceleration of a particle located at \( x = 4 \) cm at \( t = 1 \) s.

  • (a) \( 36 \, cm^2/s^2 \)
  • (b) \( 36 \, cm/s^2 \)
  • (c) \( -36 \, cm^2/s^2 \)
  • (d) \( -36 \, cm/s^2 \)
Correct Answer: (c) \( -36 \, \text{cm}^2/\text{s}^2 \)
View Solution

Question 35:

Three-point charges \( Q \), \( q \), and \( -q \) are kept at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side \( L \). What is the total electrostatic potential energy of the system?

  • (a) \( \frac{kQ^2}{a} \)
  • (b) \( 0 \)
  • (c) \( -\frac{kQ^2}{3a} \)
  • (d) \( \frac{a}{3kQ^2} \)
Correct Answer: (c) \( -\frac{kQ^2}{3a} \)
View Solution

Question 36:

Two resistors, \( 4 \Omega \) and \( 6 \Omega \), are connected in parallel, and this combination is connected in series with a \( 2 \Omega \) resistor to a 12V battery. What is the total power dissipated?

  • (a) 32.7 W
  • (b) 28.8 W
  • (c) 24.0 W
  • (d) 36.0 W
Correct Answer: (a) 32.7 W
View Solution

Question 37:

A block slides down a smooth inclined plane and its acceleration is found to be half the acceleration due to gravity. What is the angle of inclination \( \theta \) of the plane?

  • (a) \( 45^\circ \)
  • (b) \( 60^\circ \)
  • (c) \( 30^\circ \)
  • (d) \( 90^\circ \)
Correct Answer: (c) \( 30^\circ \)
View Solution

Question 38:

A uniform circular disc of mass 2 kg and radius 0.5 m is mounted on a frictionless axle. A force of 4 N is applied tangentially at the rim for 2 seconds. Find the angular velocity acquired by the disc at the end of 2 seconds.

  • (a) 8 rad/s
  • (b) 10 rad/s
  • (c) 12 rad/s
  • (d) 16 rad/s
Correct Answer: (d) 16 rad/s
View Solution

Question 39:

A mass of 0.5 kg is attached to a spring of force constant 200 N/m. What is the time period of oscillation?

  • (a) 0.314 s
  • (b) 0.451 s
  • (c) 0.567 s
  • (d) 0.789 s
Correct Answer: (a) 0.314 s
View Solution

Question 40:

In Young's double slit experiment, we get 15 fringes per cm on the screen, using light of wavelength 5600 Å. For the same setting, how many fringes per cm will be obtained with light of wavelength 7000 Å?

  • (a) 10
  • (b) 12
  • (c) 15
  • (d) 18
Correct Answer: (b) 12
View Solution

Question 41:

The clarity of the image formed on the retina of the eye depends on the ____

  • (a) visual angle
  • (b) environmental condition
  • (c) distance of eye-lens from retina
  • (d) material of the object whose image is observed
Correct Answer: (c) distance of eye-lens from retina
View Solution

Question 42:

Which of the following reagents is used in Rosenmund reduction?

  • (a) H\(_2\)/Pd - BaSO\(_4\) (poisoned)
  • (b) Zn/HCl
  • (c) LiAlH\(_4\)
  • (d) NaBH\(_4\)
Correct Answer: (b) Zn/HCl
View Solution

Question 43:

Which reagent will best convert alcohol to aldehyde selectively?

  • (a) KMnO\(_4\)
  • (b) PCC
  • (c) K\(_2\)Cr\(_2\)O\(_7\)
  • (d) HNO\(_3\)
Correct Answer: (b) PCC
View Solution

Question 44:

How many isomers are possible for C\(_4\)H\(_8\)Cl\(_2\) (including chain and positional)?

  • (a) 6
  • (b) 7
  • (c) 8
  • (d) 9
Correct Answer: (b) 7
View Solution

Question 45:

Which of the following shows resonance but not hyperconjugation?

  • (a) Propene
  • (b) Aniline
  • (c) Toluene
  • (d) Ethylbenzene
Correct Answer: (b) Aniline
View Solution

Question 46:

Which compound gives white precipitate with AgNO\(_3\) in ethanol?

  • (a) CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)Br
  • (b) C\(_6\)H\(_5\)CH\(_2\)Cl
  • (c) (CH\(_3\))\(_3\)CCl
  • (d) CH\(_3\)Cl
Correct Answer: (b) C\(_6\)H\(_5\)CH\(_2\)Cl
View Solution

Question 47:

Which of the following is most reactive towards nucleophilic substitution?

  • (a) Vinyl chloride
  • (b) Allyl chloride
  • (c) Benzyl chloride
  • (d) Tert-butyl chloride
Correct Answer: (c) Benzyl chloride
View Solution

Question 48:

Which of the following shows resonance but not hyperconjugation?

  • (a) Propene
  • (b) Aniline
  • (c) Toluene
  • (d) Ethylbenzene
Correct Answer: (b) Aniline
View Solution

Question 49:

"A given compound always contains the same proportion of elements" is a statement of

  • (a) Law of combining volumes of gases
  • (b) Law of conservation of mass
  • (c) Law of multiple of mass
  • (d) Law of definite proportions
Correct Answer: (d) Law of definite proportions
View Solution

Question 50:

What is the molar mass of the third member of the homologous series if the molar mass of the first member is 46 g?

  • (a) 60 g
  • (b) 74 g
  • (c) 138 g
  • (d) 80 g
Correct Answer: (b) 74 g
View Solution

Question 51:

Which of the following pairs of compounds cannot demonstrate the law of multiple proportions?

  • (a) NO, NO\(_2\)
  • (b) CO, CO\(_2\)
  • (c) H\(_2\)O, H\(_2\)O\(_2\)
  • (d) Na\(_3\)S, NaF
Correct Answer: (d) Na\(_3\)S, NaF
View Solution

Question 52:

Which law is illustrated by compounds H\(_2\)O and H\(_2\)O\(_2\) formed from two different elements, H and O?

  • (a) Law of Constant proportion
  • (b) Law of Conservation of mass
  • (c) Law of Multiple proportion
  • (d) Avogadro's law
Correct Answer: (c) Law of Multiple proportion
View Solution

Question 53:

Which of the following has the maximum percentage of gas in the air?

  • (a) Carbon dioxide
  • (b) Oxygen
  • (c) Hydrogen
  • (d) Nitrogen
Correct Answer: (d) Nitrogen
View Solution

Question 54:

Which of the following is the strongest acid?

  • (a) Trichloroacetic acid
  • (b) Acetic acid
  • (c) Dichloroacetic acid
  • (d) Chloroacetic acid
Correct Answer: (a) Trichloroacetic acid
View Solution

Question 55:

Which of the following compounds gives a secondary alcohol upon reaction with methylmagnesium bromide?

  • (a) Butyl formate
  • (b) 3-pentanone
  • (c) Pentanal
  • (d) Methyl butanoate
Correct Answer: (c) Pentanal
View Solution

Question 56:

A sample of gas occupies 10 L at 300 K and 2 atm. What will be its volume at 400 K and 1 atm?

  • (a) 15 L
  • (b) 20 L
  • (c) 25 L
  • (d) 30 L
Correct Answer: (b) 20 L
View Solution

Question 57:

The solubility of BaSO\(_4\) is 1.1 x 10\(^{-5}\) mol/L. What is its Ksp?

  • (a) 1.21 x 10\(^{-9}\)
  • (b) 1.21 x 10\(^{-10}\)
  • (c) 2.42 x 10\(^{-10}\)
  • (d) 2.1 x 10\(^{-11}\)
Correct Answer: (b) 1.21 x 10\(^{-10}\)
View Solution

Question 58:

A solution is made by mixing 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl and 100 mL of 0.2 M NaOH. pH of resulting solution is:

  • (a) 12.0
  • (b) 11.0
  • (c) 7.0
  • (d) 10.0
Correct Answer: (d) 10.0
View Solution

Question 59:

For a reaction A \(\rightarrow\) B, the rate doubles when temperature increases from 298 K to 308 K. What is the activation energy (Ea)?

  • (a) 52 kJ/mol
  • (b) 48 kJ/mol
  • (c) 62 kJ/mol
  • (d) 66 kJ/mol
Correct Answer: (b) 48 kJ/mol
View Solution

Question 60:

Which of the following solutions will show highest freezing point depression?

  • (a) 1 M glucose
  • (b) 1 M NaCl
  • (c) 1 M AlCl3
  • (d) 1 M MgCl2
Correct Answer: (c) 1 M AlCl3
View Solution

Question 61:

Which reagent will best convert alcohol to aldehyde selectively?

  • (a) KMnO4
  • (b) PCC
  • (c) K2Cr2O7
  • (d) HNO3
Correct Answer: (b) PCC
View Solution

Question 62:

How many molecules of carbon dioxide are formed when 0.6 g carbon is burnt in air?

  • (a) 3.01 \(\times\) 10\(^{22}\)
  • (b) 2.01 \(\times\) 10\(^{23}\)
  • (c) 6.02 \(\times\) 10\(^{23}\)
  • (d) 5.06 \(\times\) 10\(^{23}\)
Correct Answer: (c) 6.02 \(\times\) 10\(^{23}\)
View Solution

Question 63:

What is the volume of oxygen required for complete combustion of 0.25 mole of methane at S.T.P.?

  • (a) 22.4 L
  • (b) 5.6 L
  • (c) 11.2 L
  • (d) 7.46 L
Correct Answer: (a) 22.4 L
View Solution

Question 64:

Calculate the mass in kg of 4.48 dm\(^3\) carbon dioxide at STP.

  • (a) 2.2 \(\times\) 10\(^{-3}\) kg
  • (b) 4.4 \(\times\) 10\(^{-3}\) kg
  • (c) 6.6 \(\times\) 10\(^{-3}\) kg
  • (d) 8.8 \(\times\) 10\(^{-3}\) kg
Correct Answer: (b) 4.4 \(\times\) 10\(^{-3}\) kg
View Solution

Question 65:

What is the volume occupied by 1 molecule of water, if its density is 1 g/cm\(^3\)?

  • (a) 9.09 \(\times\) 10\(^{-23}\) cm\(^3\)
  • (b) 2.98 \(\times\) 10\(^{-23}\) cm\(^3\)
  • (c) 4.03 \(\times\) 10\(^{-23}\) cm\(^3\)
  • (d) 5.50 \(\times\) 10\(^{-23}\) cm\(^3\)
Correct Answer: (b) 2.98 \(\times\) 10\(^{-23}\) cm\(^3\)
View Solution

Question 66:

Calculate number of moles present in 9.10 \(\times\) 10\(^{16}\) kg of water.

  • (a) 0.9
  • (b) 1.8
  • (c) 4.5
  • (d) 5
Correct Answer: (d) 5
View Solution

Question 67:

Which of the following is the correct decreasing order of electronegativity?

  • (a) F > Cl > O > N
  • (b) F > O > N > Cl
  • (c) O > Cl > F > N
  • (d) F > Cl > N > O
Correct Answer: (b) F > O > N > Cl
View Solution

Question 68:

The IUPAC name of glyoxal is:

  • (a) 1,2-ethanedione
  • (b) ethane-1,2-dione
  • (c) ethane-1,2-dial
  • (d) Ethano-1,2-dial
Correct Answer: (b) ethane-1,2-dione
View Solution

Question 69:

Electronegativity of chlorine is less than oxygen because:

  • (a) Oxygen has larger size than chlorine
  • (b) Oxygen has smaller size and more effective nuclear charge
  • (c) Chlorine has higher nuclear charge
  • (d) Both have same electronegativity
Correct Answer: (b) Oxygen has smaller size and more effective nuclear charge
View Solution

Question 70:

Which of the following halogens has the highest electronegativity?

  • (a) Iodine
  • (b) Bromine
  • (c) Chlorine
  • (d) Fluorine
Correct Answer: (d) Fluorine
View Solution

Question 71:

Among 2nd period elements, correct electronegativity trend is:

  • (a) B \(<\) C \(<\) N \(<\) O \(<\) F
  • (b) F \(<\) O \(<\) N \(<\) C \(<\) B
  • (c) N \(<\) C \(<\) O \(<\) F \(<\) B
  • (d) F \(<\) N \(<\) C \(<\) B
Correct Answer: (a) B \(<\) C \(<\) N \(<\) O \(<\) F
View Solution

Question 72:

Which of the following reactions is an example of the Finkelstein reaction?

  • (a) C\(_6\)H\(_5\)Br + AgNO\(_3\) \(\rightarrow\) C\(_6\)H\(_5\)NO\(_3\) + AgBr
  • (b) C\(_6\)H\(_5\)Br + NaI \(\rightarrow\) C\(_6\)H\(_5\)I + NaBr
  • (c) CH\(_3\)Cl + KOH \(\rightarrow\) CH\(_3\)OH + KCl
  • (d) C\(_6\)H\(_5\)Br + Mg \(\rightarrow\) C\(_6\)H\(_5\)MgBr
Correct Answer: (b) C\(_6\)H\(_5\)Br + NaI \(\rightarrow\) C\(_6\)H\(_5\)I + NaBr
View Solution

Question 73:

The oxidation number of oxygen in peroxides is __.

  • (a) -1
  • (b) -2
  • (c) +1
  • (d) 0
Correct Answer: (a) -1
View Solution

Question 74:

Which of the following compound has high melting point?

  • (a) 1-Bromopropane
  • (b) 1-Bromopropane
  • (c) 1-Bromobutane
  • (d) 1-Bromo-2-methylpropane
Correct Answer: (c) 1-Bromobutane
View Solution

Question 75:

The decomposition of a compound A follows first-order kinetics. The concentration of A at time t = 0 is 1.0 mol L\(^{-1}\) . After 60 minutes, it reduces to 0.25 mol L\(^{-1}\). What is the initial rate of the reaction at t = 0? (Take ln 2 = 0.693)

  • (a) 0.0115 mol L\(^{-1}\) min\(^{-1}\)
  • (b) 0.0173 mol L\(^{-1}\) min\(^{-1}\)
  • (c) 0.277 mol L\(^{-1}\) min\(^{-1}\)
  • (d) 0.0364 mol L\(^{-1}\) min\(^{-1}\)
Correct Answer: (a) 0.0115 mol L\(^{-1}\) min\(^{-1}\)
View Solution

Question 76:

Which of the following compounds can exhibit geometrical isomerism, and why?
1) 2-butene 2) 1-butene 3) Pent-2-ene 4) But-2-yne

  • (a) Only 2 and 3
  • (b) Only 1 and 3
  • (c) Only 1, 2 and 3
  • (d) All of the above
Correct Answer: (a) Only 2 and 3
View Solution

Question 77:

Which of the following alkyl chloride will have the lowest boiling point?

  • (a) CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)Br
  • (b) C\(_6\)H\(_5\)CH\(_2\)Cl
  • (c) (CH\(_3\))\(_2\)CHCl
  • (d) CH\(_3\)Cl
Correct Answer: (d) CH\(_3\)Cl
View Solution

Question 78:

What is the oxidation number of sulfur in sulfuric acid (H\(_2\)SO\(_4\))?

  • (a) 4
  • (b) 6
  • (c) 8
  • (d) None of the above
Correct Answer: (b) 6
View Solution

Question 79:

Which alkane would have only the primary and tertiary carbon?

  • (a) Pentane
  • (b) 2-Methylbutane
  • (c) 2,2-Dimethylpropane
  • (d) 3,3-Dimethylbutane
Correct Answer: (d) 3,3-Dimethylbutane
View Solution

Question 80:

Which of the following is a primary amine?

  • (a) 1-Butylamine
  • (b) Isobutylamine
  • (c) N-Butylamine
  • (d) All of these
Correct Answer: (d) All of these
View Solution

Question 81:

In 2-chloro-3,4-dimethylhexane, how many chiral C atoms are present?

  • (a) 3
  • (b) 6
  • (c) 4
  • (d) 1
Correct Answer: (a) 3
View Solution

Question 82:

What will be pH of aqueous salt solution of AB if pKa of weak acid HA is 4 and pKb of weak acid BOH is 5?

  • (a) 5
  • (b) 6.5
  • (c) 7.5
  • (d) 11.5
Correct Answer: (c) 7.5
View Solution

Question 83:

If the total volume of a simple cubic unit cell is 6.817 \(\times\) 10\(^{-23}\) cm\(^3\), what is the volume occupied by particles in the unit cell?

  • (a) 3.57 \(\times\) 10\(^{-23}\) cm\(^3\)
  • (b) 4.57 \(\times\) 10\(^{-23}\) cm\(^3\)
  • (c) 5.57 \(\times\) 10\(^{-23}\) cm\(^3\)
  • (d) 6.57 \(\times\) 10\(^{-23}\) cm\(^3\)
Correct Answer: (a) 3.57 \(\times\) 10\(^{-23}\) cm\(^3\)
View Solution

Question 84:

IUPAC name of the following compound:

  • (a) 3,4-dimethylpentanol
  • (b) 2,3-dimethyl-5-pentanol
  • (c) 2,3-dimethylpentanol
  • (d) 3,4-dimethyl-1-pentanol
Correct Answer: (a) 3,4-dimethylpentanol
View Solution

Question 85:

Which is the inner transition element of the following?

  • (a) Eu
  • (b) Zn
  • (c) Hg
  • (d) Sc
Correct Answer: (a) Eu
View Solution

Question 86:

Plasmodium that affects humans

  • (a) P. Vivax
  • (b) P. Ovale
  • (c) P. Malaria
  • (d) All of the above
Correct Answer: (a) P. Vivax
View Solution

Question 87:

How many dehydrogenation reactions in Krebs cycle?


% Answer
Answer: 4 Dehydrogenation reactions per cycle

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 88:

Which water is absorbed by plants?

% Answer
Answer: Capillary water

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 89:

How many time needed for PCR?

% Answer
Answer: 45 minutes to an hour

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 90:

What is the primary function of Bowman’s capsule in nephron?

% Answer
Answer: Filtration of blood from the glomerular capillaries

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Question 91:

The first step in plant growth is

  • (a) Dispersal of seed
  • (b) Germination of seed
  • (c) Formation of fruit
  • (d) Formation of zygote
Correct Answer: (b) Germination of seed
View Solution

Question 92:

Which part of root absorb mineral, which part of root absorb mineral?

  • (a) Root hairs
  • (b) Root tips
  • (c) Root cap
  • (d) Root cortex
Correct Answer: (a) Root hairs
View Solution

Question 93:

Which of the following is false regarding adsorption?

  • (a) "Adsorption is the process where particles are attracted to the surface of another material."
  • (b) "The adsorbate binds directly to the adsorbent surface."
  • (c) "Particle size of the adsorbent will not affect the amount of adsorption."
  • (d) "Adsorption can be physical or chemical."
Correct Answer: (c) "Particle size of the adsorbent will not affect the amount of adsorption."
View Solution

Question 94:

Identify linear polymer from following

  • (a) Nylon
  • (b) Poly-vinyl chloride (PVC)
  • (c) High-density polyethylene (HDPE), and polystyrene
  • (d) None of these
Correct Answer: (a) Nylon
View Solution

Question 95:

Which of the following converting a testis originates from peritoneum?

  • (a) Tunica vaginalis
  • (b) Tunica albuginea
  • (c) Epididymis
  • (d) Spermatic cord
Correct Answer: (a) Tunica vaginalis
View Solution

Question 96:

Disorder caused due to accumulation of amyloid proteins in CNS.

Correct Answer: Alzheimer’s disease (AD), but also cerebral amyloid angiopathy (CAA).
View Solution

Question 97:

Germ pores of pollen grains are useful for

  • (a) Helps in the formation of the pollen tube and the release of the male gametes during fertilisation
  • (b) Germination of the seed
  • (c) Growth of the pollen tube
  • (d) Helps in the formation of female gametes
Correct Answer: (a) Helps in the formation of the pollen tube and the release of the male gametes during fertilisation
View Solution

Question 98:

In genetic engineering the Foreign DNA is called

  • (a) Recombinant DNA
  • (b) Exogenous DNA
  • (c) Mutated DNA
  • (d) Transferred DNA
Correct Answer: (a) Recombinant DNA
View Solution

Question 99:

Stomatal transpiration takes place during day time in the following plants except

  • (a) Succulent plants
  • (b) Desert plants
  • (c) Aquatic plants
  • (d) All plants during day time
Correct Answer: (a) Succulent plants
View Solution

Question 100:

In a dihybrid cross, 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio denotes

  • (a) Independent assortment of two genes
  • (b) Linkage between genes
  • (c) Epistasis
  • (d) Incomplete dominance
Correct Answer: (a) Independent assortment of two genes
View Solution

Question 101:

Which is not a prime element?

  • (a) Carbon
  • (b) Nitrogen
  • (c) Hydrogen
  • (d) An element that can be factored into non-unit factors
Correct Answer: (d) An element that can be factored into non-unit factors
View Solution

Question 102:

Which of the following is a commercial blood cholesterol lowering agent?

  • (a) Statins
  • (b) Aspirin
  • (c) Antibiotics
  • (d) Antioxidants
Correct Answer: (a) Statins
View Solution

Question 103:

Which is an intensive property?

  • (a) Temperature
  • (b) Density
  • (c) Color
  • (d) Pressure
Correct Answer: (b) Density
View Solution

Question 104:

What is an example of chiropterophily?

  • (a) Pollination by birds
  • (b) Pollination by insects
  • (c) Pollination by bats
  • (d) Pollination by wind
Correct Answer: (c) Pollination by bats
View Solution

Question 105:

What is the typical voltage of the resting membrane potential in a neuron?

  • (a) +70 mV
  • (b) -70 mV
  • (c) 0 mV
  • (d) +30 mV
Correct Answer: (b) -70 mV
View Solution

Question 106:

Match the columns and select the right option from the given codes:

  • (a) A (iii), B (iv), C (ii), D (ii)
  • (b) A (iv), B (iii), C (ii), D (ii)
  • (c) A (ii), B (ii), C (iii), D (ii)
  • (d) A (i), B (ii), C (ii), D (ii)
Correct Answer: (a) A (iii), B (iv), C (ii), D (ii)
View Solution



To solve this type of matching question, match the appropriate terms from each column based on their definitions, properties, or relationships. Each column (A, B, C, D) represents a specific entity, and the codes are used to indicate the correct pairing of those entities. Quick Tip: In matching questions, always try to find the definitions or relationships first, then logically match them with the options given.


Question 107:

Which of the following organisms or organelles contain 70S ribosomes?

  • (a) Animal cell cytoplasm
  • (b) Mitochondria
  • (c) Plant cell cytoplasm
  • (d) Nucleus
Correct Answer: (b) Mitochondria
View Solution

Question 108:

Which of the following acts as hemoglobin (Hb) in the blood buffer system?

  • (a) NaHCO₃
  • (b) H₂Hb
  • (c) HbCO₂
  • (d) HbCl
Correct Answer: (b) H₂Hb
View Solution

Question 109:

Which of the following events occurs only during meiosis and not in mitosis?

  • (a) Chromosome condensation
  • (b) Spindle formation
  • (c) Separation of sister chromatids
  • (d) Synapsis and crossing over of homologous chromosomes
Correct Answer: (d) Synapsis and crossing over of homologous chromosomes
View Solution

Question 110:

In which of the following phases of karyokinesis do chromosomes align at the equatorial plate, and spindle fibres are completely formed?

  • (a) Prophase
  • (b) Metaphase
  • (c) Anaphase
  • (d) Telophase
Correct Answer: (b) Metaphase
View Solution

Question 111:

During which phase of karyokinesis does the disappearance of the nucleolus and nuclear envelope occur?

  • (a) Prophase
  • (b) Metaphase
  • (c) Anaphase
  • (d) Telophase
Correct Answer: (a) Prophase
View Solution

Question 112:

In karyokinesis of meiosis - I, which of the following separates?

  • (a) Sister chromatids
  • (b) Homologous chromosomes
  • (c) Sister chromatids and homologous chromosomes
  • (d) Spindle poles
Correct Answer: (b) Homologous chromosomes
View Solution

Expected Minimum Cut off Marks for MHT CET 2025

The Maharashtra Common Entrance Test (MHT CET) 2025 is an important test for students who want to participate in undergraduate programs like engineering and pharmacy in Maharashtra. The cut-off marks will be published after the exam by the official request. However, based on past years' data and current analysis, we can provide expected minimum cut-off marks:

Category Expected Minimum Marks (Out of 200)
General (Open Category) 145–160
Other Backward Classes (OBC) 135–145
Scheduled Castes (SC) 120–135
Scheduled Tribes (ST) 110–125
Economically Weaker Section (EWS) 145–155
Persons with Disabilities (PWD) 95–110

According to previous year data, in MHT CET 2024 it was found that out of 675,377 candidates, only 37 scored 100 percentile from which 34 were from PCM and 3 were from PCB. This indicates that just 0.009% of PCM candidates, 0.001% of PCB candidates, and 0.005% overall, were focussed and achieved a perfect score.

MHT-CET 2025 Topper’s Strategy: Scoring 90 Percentile

MHT CET Marking Scheme 2025

Section Total Questions Marks per Question Total Marks
Physics 50 1 50
Chemistry 50 1 50
Biology 100 1 100
Total 200 200

Each correct answer is awarded with 1 mark. There is no negative marking in MHT CET 2025.

Also Check:

MHT CET Previous Year Question Papers

Fees Structure

Structure based on different categories

CategoriesState
General800
Women800
sc600
pwd600
Others600

In case of any inaccuracy, Notify Us! 

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