MHT CET 2025 16 April Shift 2 Question Paper (Available): Download Question Paper (PCB) with Answers PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Updated 3+ months ago

The MHT CET 2025 question paper for April 16 Shift 2 (PCB group) is available here with solution pdf. The MHT CET 2025 question paper consists of 200 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) totaling 200 marks divided in 4 sections, Physics, Chemistry, Biology (Zoology, Botany) and 50 questions in each subject.

Students who are appearing for MHT CET upcoming shifts can check the MHT CET April 16 Shift 2 Question Paper Pdf to understand the difficulty level of the exam.

Also Check MHT CET 2025 April 16 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solutions

MHT CET 2025 16 April Shift 2 PCB Question Paper PDF Download

MHT CET 2025 PCB Question Paper With Answer Key Download Check Solution

 

MHT CET 2025 April 16 Shift 2 Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

A simple pendulum of length 1 m is oscillating with a small amplitude. If the acceleration due to gravity is \( 9.8 \, m/s^2 \), what is the time period of the pendulum?

  • (1) \( 1.0 \, s \)
  • (2) \( 2.0 \, s \)
  • (3) \( 3.0 \, s \)
  • (4) \( 4.0 \, s \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( 2.0 \, \text{s} \) >View Solution

Question 2:

A wire of length 2 m and resistance 8 \(\Omega\) is stretched to double its original length, keeping the volume constant. What is the new resistance of the wire?

  • (1) \( 16 \, \Omega \)
  • (2) \( 32 \, \Omega \)
  • (3) \( 8 \, \Omega \)
  • (4) \( 4 \, \Omega \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( 32 \, \Omega \)
View Solution

Question 3:

A ball is thrown vertically upwards with an initial velocity of 20 m/s. If the acceleration due to gravity is \( 10 \, m/s^2 \), what is the maximum height reached by the ball?

  • (1) \( 10 \, m \)
  • (2) \( 20 \, m \)
  • (3) \( 40 \, m \)
  • (4) \( 80 \, m \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( 20 \, \text{m} \)
View Solution

Question 4:

Two point charges +4  and -2 are separated by a distance of 0.3 m in air. What is the magnitude of the electrostatic force between them? (Given: Coulomb’s constant \( k = 9 \times 10^9 \, N·m^2/C^2 \))

  • (1) \( 8 \, N \)
  • (2) \( 16 \, N \)
  • (3) \( 24 \, N \)
  • (4) \( 32 \, N \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( 24 \, \text{N} \)
View Solution

Question 5:

A convex lens has a focal length of 20 cm. An object is placed 30 cm in front of the lens. What is the image distance from the lens?

  • (1) \( 12 \, cm \)
  • (2) \( 60 \, cm \)
  • (3) \( 15 \, cm \)
  • (4) \( 30 \, cm \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( 60 \, \text{cm} \)
View Solution

Question 6:

A block of mass 5 kg is pulled along a horizontal surface by a force of 20 N at an angle of 30° to the horizontal. If the coefficient of friction between the block and the surface is 0.2 and the acceleration due to gravity is \( 10 \, m/s^2 \), what is the work done by the applied force in moving the block 10 m?

  • (1) \( 100 \, J \)
  • (2) \( 173.2 \, J \)
  • (3) \( 200 \, J \)
  • (4) \( 346.4 \, J \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( 173.2 \, \text{J} \)
View Solution

Question 7:

A copper block of mass 2 kg is heated from 20°C to 100°C. If the specific heat capacity of copper is \( 400 \, J/kg°C \), how much heat energy is absorbed by the block? (Assume no phase change occurs.)

  • (1) \( 6400 \, J \)
  • (2) \( 16000 \, J \)
  • (3) \( 32000 \, J \)
  • (4) \( 64000 \, J \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( 32000 \, \text{J} \)
View Solution

Question 8:

A circular coil of 50 turns, each of radius 0.1 m, carries a current of 2 A. If the coil is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.5 T perpendicular to its plane, what is the magnitude of the torque acting on the coil?

  • (1) \( 0.157 \, N·m \)
  • (2) \( 0.785 \, N·m \)
  • (3) \( 1.57 \, N·m \)
  • (4) \( 3.14 \, N·m \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( 0.785 \, \text{N·m} \)
View Solution

Question 9:

What volume of oxygen gas at STP is required to completely burn 12 g of methane (\( CH_4 \))? (Molar mass of \( CH_4 = 16 \, g/mol \), 1 mole of gas at STP occupies \( 22.4 \, L \)).

  • (1) \( 11.2 \, L \)
  • (2) \( 22.4 \, L \)
  • (3) \( 33.6 \, L \)
  • (4) \( 44.8 \, L \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( 44.8 \, \text{L} \)
View Solution

Question 10:

In an electrochemical cell, the standard electrode potential of \( Zn^{2+}/Zn \) is \( -0.76 \, V \) and that of \( Cu^{2+}/Cu \) is \( +0.34 \, V \). What is the standard EMF of the cell formed by these electrodes?

  • (1) \( 0.42 \, V \)
  • (2) \( 1.10 \, V \)
  • (3) \( -1.10 \, V \)
  • (4) \( -0.42 \, V \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( 1.10 \, \text{V} \)
View Solution

Question 11:

Which of the following compounds will give a positive iodoform test?

  • (1) Methanol
  • (2) Ethanol
  • (3) Propan-1-ol
  • (4) Propan-2-ol
Correct Answer: (4) Propan-2-ol
View Solution

Question 12:

The enthalpy change for the reaction \( C_2H_4 (g) + 3O_2 (g) \rightarrow 2CO_2 (g) + 2H_2O (l) \) is \( -1410 \, kJ/mol \). If the standard enthalpies of formation of \( CO_2 (g) \) and \( H_2O (l) \) are \( -393.5 \, kJ/mol \) and \( -286 \, kJ/mol \) respectively, what is the standard enthalpy of formation of \( C_2H_4 (g) \)?

  • (1) \( +52 \, kJ/mol \)
  • (2) \( -52 \, kJ/mol \)
  • (3) \( +104 \, kJ/mol \)
  • (4) \( -104 \, kJ/mol \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( +52 \, \text{kJ/mol} \)
View Solution

Question 13:

What is the molarity of a solution prepared by dissolving 5.85 g of NaCl in water to make 250 mL of solution? (Molar mass of NaCl = \( 58.5 \, g/mol \)).

  • (1) \( 0.1 \, M \)
  • (2) \( 0.2 \, M \)
  • (3) \( 0.4 \, M \)
  • (4) \( 1.0 \, M \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( 0.4 \, \text{M} \)
View Solution

Question 14:

The rate constant for a first-order reaction is \( 0.0693 \, min^{-1} \). What is the half-life of the reaction?

  • (1) \( 5 \, min \)
  • (2) \( 10 \, min \)
  • (3) \( 15 \, min \)
  • (4) \( 20 \, min \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( 10 \, \text{min} \)
View Solution

Question 15:

The energy of an electron in the second orbit of a hydrogen atom is \( -3.4 \, eV \). What is the energy of the electron in the third orbit? (Given: Energy of an electron in the \( n \)-th orbit of hydrogen is \( E_n = -\frac{13.6}{n^2} \, eV \)).

  • (1) \( -1.51 \, eV \)
  • (2) \( -2.27 \, eV \)
  • (3) \( -3.4 \, eV \)
  • (4) \( -6.04 \, eV \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( -1.51 \, \text{eV} \)
View Solution

Question 16:

For the reaction \( N_2 (g) + 3H_2 (g) \rightleftharpoons 2NH_3 (g) \), the equilibrium constant \( K_c \) is \( 4.0 \times 10^{-2} \) at a certain temperature. If the equilibrium concentrations are \( [N_2] = 0.5 \, M \) and \( [H_2] = 1.5 \, M \), what is the equilibrium concentration of \( NH_3 \)?

  • (1) \( 0.075 \, M \)
  • (2) \( 0.15 \, M \)
  • (3) \( 0.30 \, M \)
  • (4) \( 0.60 \, M \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( 0.15 \, \text{M} \)
View Solution

Question 17:

Which of the following coordination compounds exhibits geometrical isomerism?

  • (1) \( [Co(NH_3)_6]Cl_3 \)
  • (2) \( [Co(NH_3)_4Cl_2]Cl \)
  • (3) \( [Co(NH_3)_5Cl]Cl_2 \)
  • (4) \( [Co(Cl)_4]^{2-} \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( [\text{Co}(\text{NH}_3)_4\text{Cl}_2]\text{Cl} \)
View Solution

Question 18:

In plants, which of the following hormones is primarily responsible for promoting cell elongation in stems?

  • (1) Cytokinin
  • (2) Gibberellin
  • (3) Abscisic acid
  • (4) Ethylene
Correct Answer: (2) Gibberellin
View Solution

Question 19:

Which part of the human nephron is primarily responsible for the reabsorption of glucose and amino acids?

  • (1) Bowman’s capsule
  • (2) Proximal convoluted tubule
  • (3) Loop of Henle
  • (4) Distal convoluted tubule
Correct Answer: (2) Proximal convoluted tubule
View Solution

Question 20:

In recombinant DNA technology, which enzyme is used to cut DNA at specific recognition sites to produce restriction fragments?

  • (1) DNA polymerase
  • (2) Restriction endonuclease
  • (3) Ligase
  • (4) Reverse transcriptase
Correct Answer: (2) Restriction endonuclease
View Solution

Question 21:

Which of the following is a pioneer species in the primary succession of a bare rock?

  • (1) Grasses
  • (2) Lichens
  • (3) Shrubs
  • (4) Trees
Correct Answer: (2) Lichens
View Solution

Question 22:

In flowering plants, the process of double fertilization results in the formation of which two structures?

  • (1) Embryo and endosperm
  • (2) Embryo and seed coat
  • (3) Endosperm and pollen grain
  • (4) Seed coat and ovule
Correct Answer: (1) Embryo and endosperm
View Solution

Question 23:

In a DNA molecule, if the percentage of adenine (A) is 30%, what is the percentage of cytosine (C)?

  • (1) 20%
  • (2) 30%
  • (3) 40%
  • (4) 50%
Correct Answer: (1) 20%
View Solution

Question 24:

Which of the following microorganisms is used in the production of curd from milk?

  • (1) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
  • (2) Lactobacillus acidophilus
  • (3) Aspergillus niger
  • (4) Penicillium notatum
Correct Answer: (2) Lactobacillus acidophilus
View Solution

Question 25:

Which of the following is an example of homologous structures that provide evidence for evolution?

  • (1) Wings of a bird and wings of an insect
  • (2) Forelimbs of a human and wings of a bat
  • (3) Fins of a fish and flippers of a whale
  • (4) Stingers of a bee and spines of a porcupine
Correct Answer: (2) Forelimbs of a human and wings of a bat
View Solution

Question 26:

In the human heart, which chamber receives oxygenated blood from the lungs?

  • (1) Right atrium
  • (2) Right ventricle
  • (3) Left atrium
  • (4) Left ventricle
Correct Answer: (3) Left atrium
View Solution

Question 27:

Which organelle in a eukaryotic cell is primarily responsible for synthesizing proteins destined for secretion?

  • (1) Mitochondrion
  • (2) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
  • (3) Golgi apparatus
  • (4) Lysosome
Correct Answer: (2) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
View Solution

Question 28:

In a cross between a pea plant heterozygous for round seeds (Rr) and a plant with wrinkled seeds (rr), what is the expected phenotypic ratio of the offspring?

  • (1) 1 Round : 1 Wrinkled
  • (2) 3 Round : 1 Wrinkled
  • (3) All Round
  • (4) All Wrinkled
Correct Answer: (1) 1 Round : 1 Wrinkled
View Solution

Question 29:

In flowering plants, which structure develops into the fruit after fertilization?

  • (1) Ovary
  • (2) Ovule
  • (3) Anther
  • (4) Stigma
Correct Answer: (1) Ovary
View Solution

Expected Minimum Qualifying Marks for MHT CET 2025

The Maharashtra Common Entrance Test (MHT CET) 2025 is an important test for students who want to participate in undergraduate programs like engineering and pharmacy in Maharashtra. The cut-off marks will be published after the exam by the officials. However, based on past years' data and current analysis, we can provide expected minimum cut-off marks:

Category Expected Minimum Marks (Out of 200)
General (Open Category) 145–160
Other Backward Classes (OBC) 135–145
Scheduled Castes (SC) 120–135
Scheduled Tribes (ST) 110–125
Economically Weaker Section (EWS) 145–155
Persons with Disabilities (PWD) 95–110

According to previous year data, in MHT CET 2024 it was found that out of 675,377 candidates, only 37 scored 100 percentile from which 34 were from PCM and 3 were from PCB. This indicates that just 0.009% of PCM candidates, 0.001% of PCB candidates, and 0.005% overall, were focussed and achieved a perfect score.

MHT-CET 2025 Topper’s Strategy: Scoring 90 Percentile

MHT CET Marking Scheme 2025

Section Total Questions Marks per Question Total Marks
Physics 50 1 50
Chemistry 50 1 50
Biology 100 1 100
Total 200 200

Each correct answer is awarded with 1 mark. There is no negative marking in MHT CET 2025.

Also Check:

MHT CET Previous Year Question Papers

MHT CET Questions

  • 1.
    A car of mass 1000 kg is moving in a circular path of radius 50 m with a speed of 20 m/s. Calculate the centripetal force acting on the car.

      • \( 4000 \, \text{N} \)
      • \( 2000 \, \text{N} \)
      • \( 5000 \, \text{N} \)
      • \( 10000 \, \text{N} \)

    • 2.
      A 0.2 kg ball is thrown vertically upwards with an initial velocity of \( 10 \, \text{m/s} \). What is the maximum height reached by the ball? (Acceleration due to gravity \( g = 9.8 \, \text{m/s}^2 \))

        • \( 5 \, \text{m} \)
        • \( 10 \, \text{m} \)
        • \( 20 \, \text{m} \)
        • \( 2 \, \text{m} \)

      • 3.
        An object of mass $ 0.5 \, \text{kg} $ is moving with a velocity of $ 10 \, \text{m/s} $. What is the momentum of the object?

          • \( 5 \, \text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s} \)
          • \( 10 \, \text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s} \)
          • \( 50 \, \text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s} \)
          • \( 0.5 \, \text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s} \)

        • 4.
          The time period of SHM is \( 2 \, \mathrm{s} \) with mass \( m \). If an additional mass of \( 40 \, \mathrm{g} \) is added, the time period increases by \( 3 \, \mathrm{s} \). What is \( m \) (in grams)?

            • \( 7.64 \, \mathrm{g} \)
            • \( 40 \, \mathrm{g} \)
            • \( 50 \, \mathrm{g} \)
            • \( 60 \, \mathrm{g} \)

          • 5.
            A 1.5 kg block is placed on a frictionless surface and attached to a spring with a spring constant of 100 N/m. If the block is displaced by 0.2 m from its equilibrium position, what is the potential energy stored in the spring?

              • \( 2.0 \, \text{J} \) 
                 

              • \( 1.0 \, \text{J} \) 
                 

              • \( 0.5 \, \text{J} \)
              • \( 3.0 \, \text{J} \)

            • 6.
              A particle is moving with a constant velocity of \( 5 \, \text{m/s} \) in a circular path of radius \( 2 \, \text{m} \). What is the centripetal acceleration of the particle?

                • \( 1.25 \, \text{m/s}^2 \)
                • \(12.5 \, \text{m/s}^2 \) 
                   

                • \( 5 \, \text{m/s}^2 \)
                • \( 10 \, \text{m/s}^2 \)

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