MHT CET 2025 13 April Shift 1 Question Paper (Available): Download Question Paper (PCB) with Answers PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Updated 3+ months ago

The MHT CET 2025 question paper for April 13 Shift 1 (PCB group) is available here with Solution PDF. The MHT CET 2025 question paper consists of 200 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) totaling 200 marks divided in 4 sections, Physics, Chemistry, Biology (Zoology, Botany) and 50 questions in each subject

Students who are appearing for MHT CET upcoming shifts can check the MHT CET April 13 Shift 1 Question Paper Pdf to understand the difficulty level of the exam.

Also Check:  MHT CET 2025 13 April Shift 2 Question Paper with Solutions 

MHT CET 2025 13 April Shift 1 PCB Question Paper PDF Download

MHT CET 2025 PCB Question Paper With Answer Key Download Check Solution

 
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Question 1:

Which acid is responsible for enlargement of ovary into fruit?

  • (1) Auxin
  • (2) Cytokinin
  • (3) Gibberellin
  • (4) Abscisic acid
Correct Answer: (1) Auxin
View Solution

Question 2:

What is the period of mammals called?

(Geological time scale)

  • (1) Mesozoic Era
  • (2) Cenozoic Era
  • (3) Paleozoic Era
  • (4) Precambrian Era
Correct Answer: (2) Cenozoic Era
View Solution

Question 3:

The rete testis arises from which of the following?

  • (1) Epididymis
  • (2) Seminiferous tubules
  • (3) Vas deferens
  • (4) Urethra
Correct Answer: (2) Seminiferous tubules
View Solution

Question 4:

Which of the following is required for the growth of both plants and seeds?

  • (1) Copper
  • (2) Zinc
  • (3) Chlorine
  • (4) Iron
Correct Answer: (4) Iron
View Solution

Question 5:

What is the role of fructose in human reproduction?

  • (1) Provides energy to sperm cells
  • (2) Protects sperm DNA from damage
  • (3) Regulates hormone levels in the female reproductive system
  • (4) Stimulates egg release from the ovary
Correct Answer: (1) Provides energy to sperm cells
View Solution

Question 6:

Which of the following hormone is antitranspirant?

  • (1) Auxin
  • (2) Abscisic acid
  • (3) Cytokinin
  • (4) Ethylene
Correct Answer: (2) Abscisic acid
View Solution

Question 7:

According to Chargaff's Rule, in a DNA molecule, the amount of adenine (A) is always equal to the amount of ______.

  • (1) Cytosine (C)
  • (2) Guanine (G)
  • (3) Thymine (T)
  • (4) Uracil (U)
Correct Answer: (3) Thymine (T)
View Solution

Question 8:

What is the artificial method of vegetative propagation?

  • (1) Seed formation
  • (2) Grafting
  • (3) Pollination
  • (4) Fertilization
Correct Answer: (2) Grafting
View Solution

Question 9:

In developed ovary, how many primordial cells are present?

  • (1) 1-2 million
  • (2) 500,000
  • (3) 10,000
  • (4) 50,000
Correct Answer: (1) 1-2 million
View Solution

Question 10:

Function of vegetative and generative cell.

  • (1) Vegetative cell forms pollen tube; generative cell forms two male gametes
  • (2) Both cells form pollen tubes
  • (3) Both cells form male gametes
  • (4) Generative cell forms pollen tube; vegetative cell forms male gametes
Correct Answer: (1) Vegetative cell forms pollen tube; generative cell forms two male gametes
View Solution

Question 11:

Adventive embryony is seen in which plants?

  • (1) Pea and Mustard
  • (2) Citrus and Mango
  • (3) Rice and Wheat
  • (4) Sunflower and Marigold
Correct Answer: (4) Sunflower and Marigold
View Solution

Question 12:

Which of the following is excretory material in birds?

  • (1) Ammonia
  • (2) Urea
  • (3) Uric acid
  • (4) Creatinine
Correct Answer: (3) Uric acid
View Solution

Question 13:

In the Miller-Urey experiment, what was the ratio of gases used to simulate primitive Earth's atmosphere?

  • (1) 2:1:1 (H\(_2\): NH\(_3\): CH\(_4\))
  • (2) 1:1:1 (CH\(_4\): NH\(_3\): H\(_2\))
  • (3) 1:1:2 (CH\(_4\): NH\(_3\): H\(_2\))
  • (4) 1:2:1 (NH\(_3\): H\(_2\): CH\(_4\))
Correct Answer: (1) 2:1:1 (H\(_2\): NH\(_3\): CH\(_4\))
View Solution

Question 14:

In oogenesis after meiosis I, which of the following is formed?

  • (1) Ovum and polar body
  • (2) Secondary oocyte and first polar body
  • (3) Two polar bodies
  • (4) Primary oocyte
Correct Answer: (2) Secondary oocyte and first polar body
View Solution

Question 15:

A projectile is fired with an initial velocity of 20 m/s at an angle of 30\(^\circ\) with the horizontal. Calculate the maximum height reached by the projectile.

  • (1) 10 m
  • (2) 15 m
  • (3) 20 m
  • (4) 25 m
Correct Answer: (2) 15 m
View Solution

Question 16:

A force of 10 N is applied to move a body of mass 5 kg over a distance of 3 meters. Find the work done by the force.

  • (1) 20 J
  • (2) 30 J
  • (3) 40 J
  • (4) 50 J
Correct Answer: (2) 30 J
View Solution

Question 17:

A 5 kg block is placed on a horizontal surface. A force of 10 N is applied to the block. The coefficient of friction between the block and the surface is 0.2. Find the acceleration of the block.

  • (1) \( 0.6 \, m/s^2 \)
  • (2) \( 1.0 \, m/s^2 \)
  • (3) \( 2.0 \, m/s^2 \)
  • (4) \( 1.5 \, m/s^2 \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( 0.6 \, \text{m/s}^2 \)
View Solution

Question 18:

A body of mass 10 kg is moving with a speed of 4 m/s. It is brought to rest by a force in 5 seconds. Calculate the work done by the force.

  • (1) 40 J
  • (2) 80 J
  • (3) 60 J
  • (4) 100 J
Correct Answer: (3) 60 J
View Solution

Question 19:

The gravitational potential energy of a 2 kg object at a height of 5 m above the surface of the Earth is?

  • (1) 100 J
  • (2) 150 J
  • (3) 50 J
  • (4) 25 J
Correct Answer: (1) 100 J
View Solution

Question 20:

A current of 2 A flows through a conductor with a resistance of 5 \(\Omega\). Calculate the potential difference across the conductor.

  • (1) 10 V
  • (2) 5 V
  • (3) 2 V
  • (4) 20 V
Correct Answer: (1) 10 V
View Solution

Question 21:

A light ray is passing from air (refractive index \( \mu_1 = 1.0 \)) into water (refractive index \( \mu_2 = 1.33 \)). If the angle of incidence in air is 30°, what is the angle of refraction in water?

  • (1) 22.5°
  • (2) 19.5°
  • (3) 25.0°
  • (4) 20.0°
Correct Answer: (1) 22.5°
View Solution

Question 22:

A gas is compressed from an initial volume of 10 L to 5 L. The pressure during the compression is constant at 2 atm. Calculate the work done on the gas.

  • (1) 10 L·atm
  • (2) 20 L·atm
  • (3) 5 L·atm
  • (4) 15 L·atm
Correct Answer: (2) 20 L·atm
View Solution

Question 23:

The rate constant of a first-order reaction is \( 2 \times 10^{-3} \, s^{-1} \). What is the half-life of the reaction?

  • (1) 0.347 s
  • (2) 1.4 s
  • (3) 0.693 s
  • (4) 2.0 s
Correct Answer: (1) 0.347 s
View Solution

Question 24:

What is the pH of a 0.001 M NaOH solution?

  • (1) 11
  • (2) 12
  • (3) 13
  • (4) 14
Correct Answer: (3) 13
View Solution

Question 25:

What is the standard electrode potential for the reduction half-reaction \( Cu^{2+} + 2e^- \rightarrow Cu \)?

  • (1) +0.34 V
  • (2) -0.34 V
  • (3) +0.72 V
  • (4) -0.72 V
Correct Answer: (1) +0.34 V
View Solution

Question 26:

The enthalpy of vaporization of water is 40.79 kJ/mol. How much heat is required to vaporize 2 moles of water at its boiling point?

  • (1) 40.79 kJ
  • (2) 81.58 kJ
  • (3) 20.39 kJ
  • (4) 10.39 kJ
Correct Answer: (2) 81.58 kJ
View Solution

Question 27:

Which of the following compounds exhibits ionic bonding?

  • (1) H\(_2\)O
  • (2) NaCl
  • (3) CO\(_2\)
  • (4) CH\(_4\)
Correct Answer: (2) NaCl
View Solution

Expected Minimum Cut off Marks for MHT CET 2025

The Maharashtra Common Entrance Test (MHT CET) 2025 is an important test for students who want to participate in undergraduate programs like engineering and pharmacy in Maharashtra. The cut-off marks will be published after the exam by the official request. However, based on past years' data and current analysis, we can provide expected minimum cut-off marks:

Category Expected Minimum Marks (Out of 200)
General (Open Category) 145–160
Other Backward Classes (OBC) 135–145
Scheduled Castes (SC) 120–135
Scheduled Tribes (ST) 110–125
Economically Weaker Section (EWS) 145–155
Persons with Disabilities (PWD) 95–110

According to previous year data, in MHT CET 2024 it was found that out of 675,377 candidates, only 37 scored 100 percentile from which 34 were from PCM and 3 were from PCB. This indicates that just 0.009% of PCM candidates, 0.001% of PCB candidates, and 0.005% overall, were focussed and achieved a perfect score.

MHT-CET 2025 Topper’s Strategy: Scoring 90 Percentile

MHT CET Marking Scheme 2025

Section Total Questions Marks per Question Total Marks
Physics 50 1 50
Chemistry 50 1 50
Biology 100 1 100
Total 200 200

Each correct answer is awarded with 1 mark. There is no negative marking in MHT CET 2025.

Also Check:

MHT CET Previous Year Question Papers

MHT CET Questions

  • 1.
    Find the ratio of K.E. and P.E. when a particle performs SHM when it is at \( \frac{1}{n} \) times of its amplitude from the mean position.

      • \( \frac{n^2}{2} \)
      • \( n^2 + 1 \)
      • \( n^2 - 1 \)
      • \( n^2 \)

    • 2.
      The potential energy of a simple harmonic oscillator, when the particle is half way to its end point is (where $ E $ is the total energy)

        • $ \frac{1}{4}E $
        • $ \frac{1}{2}E $
        • $ \frac{2}{3}E $
        • $ \frac{1}{8}E $

      • 3.
        The iron blade has a ring in which the wooden handle is fixed. The ring is slightly smaller in size than a wooden handle. The ring is heated. When the ring cools, it ______________ and tightly fits on the handle.

          • (A) Contracts
          • (B) Expands
          • (C) Evaporates
          • (D) Condenses

        • 4.
          A rod of mass M and length L is pivoted about its end O as shown in the figure. Find the period of SHM.

            • (A) 2π3L2g
            • (B) 2π2L3g
            • (C) 2πE9
            • (D) 2πL3g

          • 5.
            An object of mass $ 0.5 \, \text{kg} $ is moving with a velocity of $ 10 \, \text{m/s} $. What is the momentum of the object?

              • \( 5 \, \text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s} \)
              • \( 10 \, \text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s} \)
              • \( 50 \, \text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s} \)
              • \( 0.5 \, \text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s} \)

            • 6.
              A transformer is used to light a 100W and 110V lamp from 220V mains. If the main current is 0.5 amp, the efficiency of the transformer is approximately:

                • (A) 50%
                • (B) 90%
                • (C) 10%
                • (D) 30%

              Fees Structure

              Structure based on different categories

              CategoriesState
              General800
              Women800
              sc600
              pwd600
              Others600

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