Download AILET LLM 2026 Question Paper with Solutions & Answer Key PDF – Available Now

“Delegated legislation is a growing child called upon to relieve the parent of the strain of overwork and capable of attending to minor matters, while the parent manages the main business” is a metaphor by:

• (A) Sir Carleton Kemp Allen
• (B) Sir John William Salmond
• (C) James Finn Garner
• (D) Sir Cecil Carr

The Droit administratif is of model.

• (A) Indian
• (B) French
• (C) Britain
• (D) German

‘The Path of the Law’ is the most famous essay by:

• (A) Lon L. Fuller
• (B) David Kennedy
• (C) Oliver Wendell Holmes Jr
• (D) William W. Fisher

‘Law as a Means to an End’ is the famous work of:

• (A) Friedrich Carl Von Savigny
• (B) Rudolf Von Ihering
• (C) Eugen Ehrlich
• (D) Karl Heinrich Marx

Which of the following code regarding the expression ‘Counterfeit’ defined under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is true?

• (A) Imitation should be exact
• (B) Imitation should be partly exact
• (C) Imitation should be reasonably exact
• (D) It is not essential that imitation should be exact

In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court of India held that the Governor must perform his role of a friend, philosopher and guide with dispassion, guided not by considerations of political expediency but by the sanctity of the constitutional oath he undertakes?

• (A) State of Kerala v. The Governor for State of Kerala, WPC 1264/2023
• (B) State of Tamil Nadu v. Governor of Tamil Nadu, 2025 INSC 48
• (C) B.P. Singhal v. Union of India, (2010) 6 SCC 331
• (D) Shivraj Singh Chouhan v. Speaker, Madhya Pradesh Legislative Assembly, (2020) INSC 335

Under the Factories Act, 1948 which of the following statements is correct about overtime and its calculation?

• (A) Piece-rated workers are excluded from overtime calculations under all circumstances
• (B) Overtime is payable only if a worker works more than ten hours a day
• (C) Overtime for work beyond nine hours a day or forty-eight hours a week is payable at twice the ordinary rate; the definition of “ordinary rate” includes basic wages and certain allowances but excludes bonuses and overtime itself
• (D) State Governments have no power to prescribe registers or compute cash equivalents of concessional supplies when calculating ordinary rate

Which of the following statement is correct regarding the powers of the High Court under Section 528 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 for quashing the proceedings emanating from application under Section 12(1) of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005?

• (A) Remedy is not available for quashing the proceedings
• (B) Interference of High Court is warranted only in case of gross illegality or gross abuse of the process of law
• (C) Proceedings are predominantly of a civil nature therefore the provisions of Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 do not apply
• (D) High Court must adopt a hands-off approach while dealing with welfare legislation specially enacted to give justice to women who suffer from domestic violence

Criminal trials and proceedings held under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 in electronic mode, by use of electronic communication or use of audio-video electronic means are .

• (A) permissible as a rule of convenience
• (B) not permissible
• (C) expressly provided
• (D) implicit

An advocate who practices in the Court of any Magistrate .

• (A) may sit as a Magistrate in that Court
• (B) may sit as a Magistrate in any Court within the local jurisdiction of that Court
• (C) may sit as a Magistrate in that Court or in any Court within the local jurisdiction of that Court with special permission of High Court
• (D) shall not sit as a Magistrate in that Court or in any Court within the local jurisdiction of that Court

In exercise of power vested under Section 524 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the State Government may, after consultation with the High Court, by notification, direct that references in Sections to an Executive Magistrate shall be construed as references to a Judicial Magistrate of the first class.

• (A) 125, 126, 135, 164 and 166
• (B) 127, 128, 129, 164 and 166
• (C) 137, 138, 139, 164 and 166
• (D) 153, 154, 155, 164 and 166

In computing the period of limitation under the provisions of Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, in relation to an offender, the day from which such period is to be computed .

• (A) shall be excluded
• (B) shall be included
• (C) may be included
• (D) may be excluded

According to Section 49 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, in criminal proceedings, the fact that the accused has a bad character is , unless evidence has been given that he has a good character in which case it becomes .

• (A) admissible, not admissible
• (B) not admissible, admissible
• (C) relevant, irrelevant
• (D) irrelevant, relevant

According to Section 61 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, admissibility of electronic or digital record in the evidence, have the same as other document.

• (A) relevancy, admissibility and enforceability
• (B) legal effect, validity and enforceability
• (C) reliability, validity and enforceability
• (D) relevancy, admissibility and validity

Consider the following statements:

(i) The identification of an accused by a witness in court is substantive evidence.

(ii) The evidence of identification in test identification parade is primary evidence but not substantive evidence.

(iii) Test identification parade can be used only to corroborate identification of the accused by a witness in the court.


Choose the correct answer.

• (A) (i) and (ii) are correct but (iii) incorrect
• (B) (i) and (ii) are incorrect but (iii) is correct
• (C) (i) and (iii) are correct but (ii) incorrect
• (D) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Which of the following Latin maxims is related to relevancy of dying declaration?

• (A) Actus Curias Neminem Gravabit
• (B) Nemo Moriturus Praesumitur Mentiri
• (C) Nullum Tempus Aut Locus Occurrit Regi
• (D) Lex Non Cogit Ad Impossibilia

Choose the correct answer regarding the doctrine of restitution under Section 144 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908:

• (A) The expression ‘restitution’ is clearly defined under Section 144 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
• (B) Section 144 confers a new substantive right on the parties for the tortious act caused due to erroneous decree or order passed by the court
• (C) Section 144 does not confer any new substantive right. It merely regulates the power of the court to restore the parties so far as they can be restored
• (D) The courts do not have the inherent power to make restitution under Section 144 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

Which of the following maxims is not related to the doctrine of res judicata?

• (A) Nemo Debet Bis Vexari Pro Una Et Eadem Causa
• (B) Nemo Tenetur Se Ipsum Prodere
• (C) Interest Reipublicae Ut Sit Finis Litium
• (D) Res Judicata Pro Veritate Accipitur

Where the court has passed a decree for the payment of money and the decree is silent with respect to the payment of interest during the period from the date of the decree to the date of payment, it shall be deemed that

• (A) Court has refused such interest and therefore no separate suit shall be instituted for the payment of interest
• (B) Court has refused such interest; however, a separate suit may be instituted for the payment of interest
• (C) Court has not refused such interest; however, a separate suit may be instituted for the payment of interest
• (D) Court has not refused such interest but adjusted the payment of interest in the cost of the suit

All questions relating to executability or non-executability of a decree have been conferred within the exclusive jurisdiction of the court executing the decree by virtue of the provision of of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.

• (A) Section 10
• (B) Section 11
• (C) Section 33
• (D) Section 47

Section 135 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals with the provision for the assignment of rights under the policy of insurance.

• (A) Life
• (B) Marine
• (C) Fire
• (D) Agriculture

‘X’ transfers his property in favor of an unborn person ‘Y’ in accordance with the principle of Section 13 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882. ‘Y’ acquires interest in the property upon his birth, although ‘Y’ is not entitled to enjoy the property immediately on his birth. The interest of ‘Y’ in the property is

• (A) Contingent interest
• (B) Vested interest
• (C) Future interest
• (D) Irregular interest

The general rule for the apportionment of income between the transferor and transferee under Section 36 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is that such income shall be deemed to accrue due from

• (A) Day to day basis
• (B) Every fortnight basis
• (C) Monthly basis
• (D) Yearly basis

Choose the correct answer regarding the doctrine of part performance.

• (A) The transferee, being already in possession, merely continuing in possession of the property is sufficient to constitute a part performance of the contract in his favor
• (B) It is to be shown that the person claiming the benefit of part performance was not willing to perform his part of the contract, even though he is entitled for the protection of doctrine of part performance
• (C) It is obligatory upon the person claiming the benefit of part performance to show that he was ready and willing to perform his part of the contract
• (D) It is sufficient to show that the transferor had orally or in writing contracted to transfer for consideration any immovable property and the transferee has taken possession of the property

The Universal Donee is liable for

• (A) All the debts and liabilities of the donor at the time of the gift to the extent of the property comprised therein
• (B) All the debts and liabilities of the donor undertaken by the donee irrespective of the value of the gift
• (C) All the debts of the donor at the time of the gift to the extent of the half of the value of the gift
• (D) All the debts and liabilities of the donor at the time of the gift to the extent of the three-fourth of the value of the gift

Which of the statements regarding the characteristics of ‘Charges’ given under Section 100 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, is not true?

• (A) A charge may be created on the property by act of parties
• (B) A charge may be created on the property by operation of law
• (C) A charge on the property amounts to a mortgage
• (D) All the provisions of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 relating to simple mortgage shall, so far as may be, apply to charge

Which of the following is not required to prove a Will?

• (A) Will is executed by the testator
• (B) It was the last will executed by the testator
• (C) It must pass test of satisfaction of prudent mind
• (D) It must pass test of mathematical accuracy

Who is not a domestic worker under the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013?

• (A) Woman who is directly employed to do household work for remuneration in cash
• (B) Woman who is employed to do household work for remuneration in cash through any agency on a temporary basis
• (C) Woman who is a member of employer’s family and directly employed to do household work for remuneration in cash
• (D) Woman who is employed to do household work for remuneration in kind

Which of the following statement is false regarding settlement of matter through conciliation under the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013?

• (A) Settlement may be initiated at the request of the aggrieved woman
• (B) Monetary settlement can be made as a basis of conciliation
• (C) Monetary settlement cannot be made as a basis of conciliation
• (D) Once a settlement is arrived, no further inquiry shall be conducted by the Internal Committee

Taking measurements of convicts for the purposes of identification and investigation in criminal matters is expressly authorized under the .

• (A) The Constitution of India
• (B) Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
• (C) Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023
• (D) The Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act, 2022

The child born through assisted reproductive technology shall be deemed to be a biological child of .

• (A) Donor couple
• (B) Commissioning couple
• (C) Woman who approaches assisted reproductive technology clinic
• (D) Aggrieved biological mother

Which of the following is not a commercial surrogacy under the Surrogacy (Regulation) Act, 2021?

• (A) Trading the services of surrogate motherhood by way of giving payment
• (B) Trading the services of surrogate motherhood by way of giving incentives in kind
• (C) Insurance coverage for the surrogate mother during the process of surrogacy
• (D) Buying of human embryo

The Parliament has enacted an Act to provide for the constitution of the Commission for the purpose of protecting and improving the quality of the air in the National Capital Region and adjoining areas. The name of the Act is

• (A) The Air Quality Management in National Capital Region Act, 2021
• (B) The Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021
• (C) The Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region Act, 2021
• (D) The Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021

Which of the following is not a Social Security Organisation under the Code on Social Security, 2020?

• (A) The Central Board of Trustees of Employees’ Provident Fund
• (B) The Life Insurance Corporation
• (C) The Employees’ State Insurance Corporation
• (D) The National Social Security Board for Unorganised Workers

Person with intersex variations means a person who at birth shows variation in his or her primary sexual characteristics, external genitalia, chromosomes or hormones from of male or female body.

• (A) biological standard
• (B) social standard
• (C) normative standard
• (D) legal standard

‘Harm’, in relation to a product liability under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 does not include

• (A) Damage to any property on account of breach of warranty conditions
• (B) Damage to any property, other than the product itself
• (C) Emotional distress attendant to damage to property
• (D) Mental agony attendant to damage to property

The definition of ‘Wages’ under the Code on Wages, 2019 includes

• (A) Conveyance allowance
• (B) Retaining allowance
• (C) House rent allowance
• (D) Overtime allowance

An offence punishable under the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019 is .

• (A) cognizable and compoundable
• (B) non-cognizable and compoundable
• (C) cognizable and non-compoundable
• (D) non-cognizable and non-compoundable

Any pronouncement of talaq by a Muslim husband upon his wife, in any manner shall be .

• (A) void and invalid
• (B) void and illegal
• (C) voidable and illegal
• (D) voidable and immoral

According to India International Arbitration Centre Act, 2019, the India International Arbitration Centre is an institution of importance.

• (A) public
• (B) commercial
• (C) national
• (D) economic

Under the Mental Healthcare Act, 2017, offering an option for treatment or a setting for treatment which meets the person’s treatment needs and imposes the least restriction on the person’s rights is called

• (A) Least restrictive alternative
• (B) Least restrictive environment
• (C) Less restrictive option
• (D) All the above

Which of the following is not a principle for empowerment of persons with disabilities adopted by the United Nations General Assembly on 13 December 2006 in its Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities?

• (A) Equality of opportunity
• (B) Accessibility
• (C) Freedom of Religion
• (D) Equality between men and women

Which court is designated to be a Special Court to try the offences under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016?

• (A) Chief Judicial Magistrate
• (B) Court of Session
• (C) Metropolitan Magistrate
• (D) District Court

The term ‘claim’ defined under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 includes right to remedy for .

• (A) breach of contract
• (B) breach of trust
• (C) breach of fundamental rights
• (D) tort

Which of the following entity is not expressly named as a ‘financial sector regulator’ under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016?

• (A) Reserve Bank of India
• (B) World Bank
• (C) Securities and Exchange Board of India
• (D) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India

Which section of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 is not related to extortionate credit transactions?

• (A) Section 50
• (B) Section 51
• (C) Section 167
• (D) Section 173

If a bankrupt dies, the bankruptcy proceedings shall .

• (A) become barred
• (B) cease
• (C) continue as if the deceased were alive
• (D) cease against the deceased and continue against the other debtors

Which of the following range of age is provided for aftercare under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015?

• (A) 16 to 21
• (B) 18 to 21
• (C) 16 to 18
• (D) 15 to 18

According to Section 2(34) of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, the ‘inter-country adoption’ means

• (A) Adoption of a child from one country to another country
• (B) Adoption of a child from any country by an Indian resident
• (C) Adoption of a child from India by a nonresident Indian
• (D) Adoption of a child from any country by an Indian citizen

In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court of India has directed to install CCTV cameras and recording equipment in the office of agency which carries out interrogations and holding of accused takes place in the same manner as it would in a police station?

• (A) State of Maharashtra v. Keshao Vishwanath Sonone, 2020 SCC OnLine SC 1040
• (B) Paramvir Singh Saini v. Baljit Singh, AIR 2020 SC 64
• (C) Rohtas v. State of Haryana, AIR 2012 SC 2297
• (D) Chaman Lal v. State of Himachal Pradesh, AIR 2021 SC 46

‘Solidarite par similitude’ means:

• (A) Society rests on the need for satisfying common interests
• (B) Need for division of work
• (C) No judge is free to refuse to decide a case on the ground that legal authority provides no precise answer
• (D) Answer to every conceivable legal problem is implicit in social facts

Auguste Comte in his famous work ‘The Course in Positive Philosophy’ developed an idea of the law of the progression of three stages of sociology. Which of the following is not part of three stages notion of Auguste Comte?

• (A) Theological Stage
• (B) Political Stage
• (C) Metaphysical Stage
• (D) Positive Stage

Consider the following statements:

(i) Prorogation puts an end to a session of the House and the same House cannot meet again after prorogation.

(ii) The power to prorogue a House is formally vested in the President, but he acts on the advice of the Prime Minister.

(iii) A Bill pending in the House gets lapsed by the prorogation of the House.


Choose the correct answer from the options provided below:

• (A) (i) and (ii) are correct but (iii) incorrect
• (B) (i) and (ii) are incorrect but (iii) correct
• (C) (i) and (iii) are correct but (ii) incorrect
• (D) (i) and (iii) are incorrect but (ii) correct

Consider the below given statements:

(i) Reservation provided for women in public employment is characterized as ‘horizontal reservation’.

(ii) Reservation provided for women in public employment is characterized as ‘vertical reservation’.

(iii) Reservation provided for Other Backward Class in public employment is characterized as ‘horizontal reservation’.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (A) (i) and (ii) are true, but (iii) is untrue
• (B) (i) and (iii) are true, but (ii) is untrue
• (C) (ii) and (iii) are untrue, but (i) is true
• (D) (i) and (iii) are untrue, but (ii) is true

One person is said to be of another if the two are related by blood or adoption wholly through males.

• (A) Cognate
• (B) Agnate
• (C) Uterine blood
• (D) Full blood

Consider the given statements:

(i) After the commencement of the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005, the court shall not recognise any pious obligation of a son under the Hindu law to discharge any debt due from his father.

(ii) Right of creditor to proceed against a son to recover any debt due from his father solely on the ground of the pious obligation under the Hindu law shall not be affected if the debt was contracted before the commencement of the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

• (A) Both (i) and (ii) are true
• (B) Both (i) and (ii) are untrue
• (C) (i) true and (ii) untrue
• (D) (ii) true and (i) untrue

Consider the given statements:

(i) The expression ‘Property’ in Article 300A of the Constitution of India includes land and building.

(ii) The expression ‘Property’ in Article 300A of the Constitution of India includes intangibles like copyrights and other intellectual property.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

• (A) (i) true and (ii) untrue
• (B) (ii) true and (i) untrue
• (C) Both (i) and (ii) are true
• (D) Both (i) and (ii) are untrue

Which of the following is not necessary for the expression ‘religious denomination’ considered under Article 26 of the Constitution of India?

• (A) Collection of individuals who have a common faith
• (B) Common organization
• (C) Designation of a distinctive name
• (D) Common community or societal status

Which of the following philosopher made a famous argument usually called as the ‘function argument’?

• (A) Aristotle
• (B) Socrates
• (C) Saint Augustine
• (D) Jeremy Bentham

Mr. Rao holds 99.9% of the equity of Timber Co. Ltd. Timber Co.’s timber stock was insured in Mr. Rao’s individual name and was destroyed by fire. Timber Co. sues the insurer for the loss. Which outcome is most consistent with the well-settled principle of separate corporate personality?

• (A) The insurer must pay Mr. Rao because he is the beneficial owner of the shares
• (B) The claim fails because courts will always pierce the veil where one shareholder controls a company
• (C) Mr. Rao and Timber Company are jointly liable; each must bear a portion of the loss
• (D) Timber Company can recover because the company is a separate legal person and alone owns the insured property

Definition of ‘Plant’ given under Section 43(3) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 does not include

• (A) Tea bushes used for the purposes of the business or profession
• (B) Ships used for the purposes of the business or profession
• (C) Vehicles used for the purposes of the business or profession
• (D) Scientific apparatus and surgical equipment used for the purposes of the business or profession

The standard of care to be taken by a bailee for the goods bailed is same as

• (A) Owner takes care of his own goods
• (B) Man of ordinary prudence takes care of his own goods
• (C) Man of ordinary prudence is expected to take care of the goods of others
• (D) Man of high prudence takes care of his own goods

Consider the given statements:

(i) The payment of compensation for the violation of fundamental rights is not to be understood as it is generally understood in a civil action for damages under private law.

(ii) The relief of monetary compensation allowed by the court in proceedings under Article 32 of the Constitution of India are exemplary damages.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

• (A) Both (i) and (ii) are true
• (B) Both (i) and (ii) are untrue
• (C) (i) true and (ii) untrue
• (D) (ii) true and (i) untrue

In which of the landmark judgment of the Supreme Court of India held that the principle of res judicata applies to a petition filed under Article 32 of the Constitution if a similar petition, on the same cause of action, has already been dismissed on merits by a High Court under Article 226?

• (A) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India, AIR 1978 SC 821
• (B) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras, AIR 1952 SC 115
• (C) Kharak Singh v. State of U.P., AIR 1965 SC 342
• (D) Daryao v. State of Uttar Pradesh, AIR 1961 SC 1457

A suit for recovery of possession of immovable property under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 can be instituted by a person who has been dispossessed .

• (A) without their consent
• (B) by due process of law
• (C) with their consent
• (D) by a court order

A suit for ‘rectification of instruments’ can be filed under Section 26 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 when instrument .

• (A) is void
• (B) does not express the true intention of the parties
• (C) is illegal
• (D) is for an immoral purpose

The remedy of ‘rescission of a contract’ is available under the Specific Relief Act, 1963 when the contract is .

• (A) Voidable
• (B) Void
• (C) Illegal
• (D) Unenforceable

Under Section 10 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 a court can enforce specific performance of a contract when .

• (A) act agreed to be done is one which an ordinary person can do
• (B) there is no standard for ascertaining the actual damage caused by the non-performance
• (C) contract is for sale of a movable property
• (D) act agreed to be done is one which an ordinary person cannot do

Which provision of the Charter of the United Nations provides for the codification and progressive development of International Law?

• (A) Article 10
• (B) Article 21
• (C) Article 13(1)(a)
• (D) Article 25

In which year the International Law Commission (ILC) was established?

• (A) 1930
• (B) 1945
• (C) 1947
• (D) 1950

The Hague Codification Conference of 1930 mainly dealt with which of the following topics?

• (A) Nationality, territorial waters, responsibility of States for damage done in their territory to the persons or property of foreigners
• (B) Trade law, maritime piracy, environmental law
• (C) Human rights, war crimes, international courts
• (D) Intellectual property, space law, environmental treaties

Which of the following is true regarding the term ‘honourable acquittal’?

• (A) Honourable acquittal is statutorily defined term
• (B) An acquittal of accused on disbelieving the prosecution evidence in toto
• (C) An acquittal of accused on benefit of doubt
• (D) An acquittal of accused on compassion of the prosecution

Under what circumstances the benefit of doubt can be accepted?

• (A) By establishing preponderance of evidences in favour of the accused
• (B) By establishing equal preponderance of evidences in favour and against the accused
• (C) Due to the failure of prosecution to establish guilt of the accused beyond reasonable doubt
• (D) Only by discretion of the court

Which of the following international conventions co-ordinates cybercrime investigations among States parties?

• (A) United Nations Convention Against Transnational Organized Crime
• (B) Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court
• (C) Agreement on the Enforcement of Sentences with the International Criminal Court
• (D) Budapest Convention on Cybercrime

Which of the following international agreements provides an international registration system for appellations of origin?

• (A) Agreement on Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS)
• (B) Lisbon Agreement for the Protection of Appellations of Origin and their International Registration
• (C) Madrid Agreement Concerning the International Registration of Appellations of Origin
• (D) Paris Convention for the Registration of Appellations of Origin

In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court of India directed the Central Government to constitute a National Tribunals Commission (NTC), an independent body to supervise the functioning of tribunals in India?

• (A) Madras Bar Association v. Union of India (2021) 7 SCC 369
• (B) Union of India v. Debts Recovery Tribunal Bar Association (2013) 2 SCC 574
• (C) National Company Law Tribunal Bar Association v. Union of India, 2022 SCC OnLine SC 985
• (D) Registrar General, High Court of Judicature at Madras v. Tamil Nadu Public Service Commission, 2017 SCC OnLine SC 514

Which of the following is the basis for social contract?

• (A) Pactum subjectionis
• (B) Pactum unionis
• (C) Both (A) and (B)
• (D) Pacta sunt servanda

Appointing a person as director to act in place of a director of a company during his absence for a period of not less than three months from India is known as:

• (A) Alternate Director
• (B) Additional Director
• (C) Resident Director
• (D) Nominee Director

The process of legal analysis requires

• (A) Quality to appreciate legal facts
• (B) Critical vision towards law and social science
• (C) Determination of what law applies to a legal question and how it applies
• (D) Determination of procedure of enactment of the statute

A company creates a charge on plant and machinery on Day 1 but files particulars with the Registrar on Day 60. Meanwhile, the company defaults and the chargeholder seeks to enforce the security. Under the Companies Act, 2013, which is most likely?

• (A) The charge is valid and enforceable despite late registration
• (B) The charge is void ab initio and unenforceable because registration was not made within 30 days
• (C) The charge is valid as between parties but the unregistered status affects priority against a liquidator or subsequent purchasers
• (D) The charge automatically crystallises on Day 31 and is enforceable

Consider the following Assertion [A] and Reasoning [R]:

[A] The Supreme Court of India ordinarily does not interfere with order of acquittal passed by the High Court in the favor of accused.

[R] The power vested in the Court under Article 136 of the Constitution is plenary, hence the Court itself set the limits by permitting invocation of this power in very exceptional circumstances.


Choose the most suitable answer from the below given options.

• (A) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is a correct explanation of [A]
• (B) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not a correct explanation of [A]
• (C) [A] is true and [R] is false
• (D) [A] is false and [R] is true

Which of the following statement is true, regarding a document which is deemed admitted under Order XII, Rule 2-A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

• (A) Admitted document is conclusive proof as to its contents
• (B) Admitted document can only be used to contradict the party by whom it is deemed admitted, not otherwise
• (C) Court may require any such deemed admitted document to be proved otherwise than by such admission
• (D) Court shall not require any such deemed admitted document to be proved otherwise than by such admission

Under the Companies Act, 2013, which combination of liabilities attaches to a person who authorised the issue of a prospectus containing a material untrue statement?

• (A) Civil liability to compensate subscribers, and criminal liability under the Act unless defenses available are proved
• (B) Only civil liability, criminal sanctions were abolished
• (C) Only criminal liability, civil claims must be pursued against the company alone
• (D) No liability if the person is a non-executive director

Within legal positivism, substantial effort has been devoted for analysing fundamental legal concepts and such analysis serves the basis for

• (A) Carrying out the process of legal interpretation
• (B) Conceptual framework for legal dogmatics and philosophy of law
• (C) Both (A) and (B) are correct
• (D) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect

A captain’s throwing cargo overboard to stop his ship going down: he might well claim, in mitigation, that he had no choice. The excusing condition argued reflecting the source of action as

• (A) External force
• (B) Internal choice
• (C) Mixed action
• (D) Involuntary mixed action

Mother’s right to care and custody of a child under Muslim law is known as

• (A) Hazina
• (B) Hizanat
• (C) Dower
• (D) Kadela

Which relief is not among those that may be sought in a class-action or oppression/mismanagement application to the Tribunal?

• (A) Restraining the company from acting on a resolution obtained by suppression or misstatement of material facts
• (B) Declaring void any alteration of memorandum procured by fraud
• (C) Ordering the company’s immediate deregistration without hearing the company
• (D) Claiming damages or compensation from directors for fraudulent or unlawful conduct

Distinction between the ‘sale’ and ‘agreement to sell’ is necessary to determine

• (A) Rights and liabilities of the parties
• (B) Nature of goods
• (C) Description of property
• (D) Price

The ‘right to development’ and ‘right to a healthy environment’ have been considered as

• (A) First generation rights
• (B) Second generation rights
• (C) Third generation rights
• (D) Fourth generation rights

The expression ‘Capital asset’ given under Section 2(14) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, does not include:

• (A) Raw materials held for the purposes of business or profession of an assessee
• (B) Securities held by a Foreign Institutional Investor, who has invested in accordance with the regulations made under the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992
• (C) Precious stones sewn into a wearing apparel
• (D) Agricultural land in India, situated within the jurisdiction of a municipality

The provision regarding the appointment of income-tax authorities is given under of the Income Tax Act, 1961.

• (A) Section 115
• (B) Section 116
• (C) Section 117
• (D) Section 118

For the purposes of Section 13A of the Income Tax Act, 1961, the word ‘Political party’ means a political party registered under .

• (A) Section 139(4B) of the Income Tax Act, 1961
• (B) Section 16 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950
• (C) Schedule 10 of the Constitution of India, 1950
• (D) Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951

‘Ex-debito justitiae’ means

• (A) Repayment of debt
• (B) From a debt of justice
• (C) Former debt payment is uncertain
• (D) Time barred debt

In which of the following cases, the concept of curative petition was evolved by the Supreme Court of India?

• (A) Union of India v. K.P.S. Gill Raghuwanshi, AIR 2017 SC 3258
• (B) Savita Kumari v. Union of India, (1993) 2 SCC 357
• (C) P.N. Ishwar Iyer v. Registrar, Supreme Court of India, AIR 1982 SC 808
• (D) Rupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra, AIR 2002 SC 1771

Which of the following statement regarding the application of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is not true?

• (A) Provision of the Sanhita shall apply to any offence committed by any person in any place without and beyond India committing offence targeting a computer resource located in India
• (B) Provision of the Sanhita shall not apply to any offence committed by any person in any place without and beyond India committing offence targeting a computer resource located in India
• (C) Provision of the Sanhita shall apply to any offence committed by any citizen of India in any place without and beyond India
• (D) The word ‘Offence’ includes every act committed outside India, which if committed in India, would be punishable under this Sanhita

Which of the following communication does not come within the meaning of ‘Electronic communication’ as defined under the Bharatiya Nagrik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?

• (A) Communication of content transmitted or transferred from one person to another by means of an electronic device or electronic form as may be specified by notification, by the respective governments
• (B) Communication of content transmitted or transferred from one device to another by means of an electronic device or electronic form as may be specified by notification, by the Central Government
• (C) Communication of content transmitted or transferred from a person to a device by means of an electronic device or electronic form as may be specified by notification, by the Central Government
• (D) Communication of content transmitted or transferred from a device to a person by means of an electronic device or electronic form as may be specified by notification, by the Central Government

Which of the following is not an act included in the exclusive rights of performers under Section 38A(1) of the Copyright Act, 1957?

• (A) Making a sound or visual recording of the performance
• (B) Broadcasting the performance to the public
• (C) Selling or renting copies of the recording
• (D) Translating the lyrics of a song performed

Which of the following statement is not true regarding the object of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010?

• (A) Protection of Right to healthy environment construed as a part of the right to life under Article 21 of the Constitution by judicial pronouncements
• (B) Implementation of the Directive Principles of the State Policy under Article 39 of the Constitution of India
• (C) Enforcement of any legal right relating to environment and giving relief and compensation for damages to person or property
• (D) To take appropriate steps for the protection and improvement of the human environment in pursuance of the decision taken at United Nations Conference on the Human Environment held at Stockholm in June, 1972

What must be shown before the court to obtain an injunction to stop nuisance?

• (A) Convenience of applicant
• (B) Guilt of defendant
• (C) No alternative legal remedy exists
• (D) Gravity and permanent character of injury complained

Match the following:



I. Chief Election Commissioner \hfill A. Elected by Rajya Sabha

II. Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha \hfill B. Elected by Members of Lok Sabha

III. Speaker of Lok Sabha \hfill C. Appointed by the President

IV. Chairman of Public Accounts Committee \hfill D. Appointed by the Speaker of Lok Sabha

• (A) I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-D
• (B) I-A, II-C, III-B, IV-D
• (C) I-C, II-B, III-A, IV-D
• (D) I-A, II-B, III-D, IV-C