AILET 2026 LLB Question Paper with Answer Key PDF is available for download. NLU Delhi has conducted AILET 2026 on December 14, 2025. The AILET 2026 question paper comprises a total of 150 questions divided among three sections.

AILET 2026 Question Paper with Answer Key PDFs (BA.LLB)

AILET 2026 LLB Question Paper with Answer Key PDF Download Check Solution


Question 1:

 Read the given passage and answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate response.


The integration of Artificial Intelligence (AI) into law enforcement practices has sparked a global debate on ethics, privacy, and accountability. From facial recognition systems in public spaces to predictive policing algorithms, AI is transforming how crimes are detected and prevented. However, the benefits of efficiency and data-driven decision-making are accompanied by concerns about fairness, bias, and the potential erosion of civil liberties. One of the most controversial applications is predictive policing, which uses historical crime data to forecast the times and places where crimes are likely to occur or who might commit them. Proponents argue that this allows police to allocate resources more efficiently and reduce crime rates. However, critics warn that such systems may reinforce existing societal biases. If past data reflect biased policing practices, such as over-policing in marginalized communities, then the algorithm may perpetuate these injustices by disproportionately targeting the same areas or groups. Facial Recognition Technology (FRT) is another AI-driven tool that has gained traction. While it has proven useful in identifying suspects, it raises serious concerns regarding surveillance and individual privacy. Studies have also shown that FRT is less accurate in identifying people of color and women, increasing the risk of false accusations and wrongful detentions.


The lack of transparency in how these systems operate further complicates the field of law and practice. Many AI tools used in law enforcement are developed by private companies that treat their algorithms as proprietary, meaning that even law enforcement officers may not fully understand how decisions are made by these AI tools. This is often referred to as the “Black Box” problem. This opaqueness undermines accountability, making it difficult to challenge wrongful predictions or decisions in a court of law. As AI continues to evolve, lawmakers and civil rights advocates are calling for stronger regulations, awareness that these technologies are used responsibly. Proposals include the mandatory auditing of algorithms, public disclosure of data sources, and legal safeguards to protect against discrimination. Without such measures, the unchecked use of AI could lead to a justice system that prioritizes efficiency over equity, ultimately compromising democratic values and rule of law.


AI holds the promise of revolutionizing law enforcement, its application must be guided by ethical frameworks that prioritize human rights, transparency, and fairness. Otherwise, technology intended to protect society may end up harming the very individuals it seeks to serve.

1. What is the central concern raised in the passage regarding AI in law enforcement?

  • (a) Replacing human officers
  • (b) High operational costs
  • (c) Reinforcing bias and reducing fairness
  • (d) Inability to analyze real-time data

Question 2:

Which of the following would best justify the use of predictive policing, despite the ethical concerns discussed in the passage?

  • (a) It will allow law enforcement to increase arrest quotas.
  • (b) It helps deploy police more efficiently in high-risk areas.
  • (c) It can eliminate the need for community engagement.
  • (d) It will replace the need for police training programs.

Question 3:

Based on the passage, how does facial recognition technology potentially lead to injustice?

  • (a) By exhibiting higher error rates for specific demographic groups
  • (b) By decreasing reliance on human judgment in policing
  • (c) By increasing costs and limiting deployment in critical areas
  • (d) By generating occasional misidentifications across all populations equally

Question 4:

Why does the lack of transparency in AI algorithms pose a challenge within judicial proceedings?

  • (a) It complicates efforts to scrutinize and contest algorithm-driven outcomes
  • (b) It leads to greater reliance on community surveillance
  • (c) It restricts the professional development of law enforcement personnel
  • (d) It discourages investment in emerging AI technologies for policing

Question 5:

The word "opaqueness" in the paragraph refers to:

  • (a) Clear and understandable legal processes
  • (b) Lack of visibility or understanding
  • (c) Openness and transparency in systems
  • (d) Restricted access due to security levels

Question 6:

What measure is most essential to prevent AI systems from reinforcing existing social biases?

  • (a) Training AI systems on large datasets without reviewing for fairness
  • (b) Allowing AI tools to evolve independently without human oversight
  • (c) Reviewing training data for historical bias and ensuring algorithmic accountability
  • (d) Prioritizing efficiency and rapid deployment over fairness and oversight

Question 7:

A government proposes a new AI-driven sentencing tool that assigns prison terms based on statistical models trained on past sentencing data. The tool is designed to ensure consistency and eliminate human error. Civil liberties groups oppose the tool, arguing it may encode past judicial biases. Which of the following objections is most consistent with the concerns raised in the passage?

  • (a) AI systems should not be used in criminal justice unless they are cheaper than traditional methods.
  • (b) Sentencing tools can never make mistakes if trained on real court data.
  • (c) Without transparency and bias audits, AI may reinforce systemic injustices embedded in the data.
  • (d) Automated sentencing ensures faster trials and should replace human judges entirely.

Question 8:

Which of the following assumptions, if true, would undermine concerns raised in the paragraph?

  • (a) AI models incorporate bias-correction mechanisms that adjust for historical disparities in sentencing patterns.
  • (b) The training data used by the AI model reflect systemic inequalities and disproportionate sentencing against certain communities.
  • (c) The AI system operates as a closed algorithm, with no transparency regarding how sentencing decisions are derived.
  • (d) Studies from other jurisdictions show that similar AI systems have not amplified racial and gender biases in sentencing outcomes.

Question 9:

Read the given passage and answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate response.
Urban gardening has become increasingly popular as a means to address food security, sustainability, and mental well-being in cities. By growing their own fruits, vegetables, and herbs, individuals can reduce their reliance on commercial supply chains that contribute to extensive transportation, energy consumption, and synthetic chemical use. In addition to providing fresh, nutritious food, urban gardening also contributes to environmental sustainability by mitigating urban heat island effects, improving air quality, and managing water runoff. Furthermore, it offers psychological benefits, including reduced stress, improved mood, and a sense of accomplishment. Despite its many benefits, urban gardening faces challenges like space limitations, poor soil quality, and inadequate sunlight, which gardeners overcome using innovative techniques such as vertical farming and hydroponics.

What is the "urban heat island effect" mentioned in the passage?

  • (a) The rise in temperature commonly observed in tropical urban locations.
  • (b) A condition where urban areas become warmer than rural ones due to human activity.
  • (c) The method of using retained heat energy for rooftop gardening in cities.
  • (d) The process through which cities generate and utilize renewable heat energy.

Question 10:

Which innovative method mentioned in the passage directly addresses poor soil quality?

  • (a) Collecting rainwater through harvesting systems for irrigation
  • (b) Installing rooftop gardens with specially designed green covers
  • (c) Using compost enrichment to improve the fertility of the soil
  • (d) Growing herbs and vegetables in small boxes on window ledges

Question 11:

Why might urban residents be motivated to cultivate their own food rather than rely solely on commercial sources?

  • (a) To decrease expenses related to gardening equipment
  • (b) To eliminate the need for home meal preparation
  • (c) To obtain fresher produce free from synthetic chemicals
  • (d) To outperform grocery retailers in food production

Question 12:

Which of the following best captures the combined ecological significance of urban gardening?

  • (a) It lowers city temperatures, filters polluted air, and manages rainwater.
  • (b) It reduces transport costs while expanding industrial farm production.
  • (c) It prevents further growth of infrastructure and building construction.
  • (d) It substitutes completely for natural forests in urban environments.

Question 13:

Which of the following is NOT identified in the passage as a practical challenge faced by urban gardeners?

  • (a) The lack of organized communal support for local gardening efforts
  • (b) Inadequate access to direct sunlight in densely built environments
  • (c) Spatial constraints that limit the scale of cultivation in cities
  • (d) Soil conditions that are unsuitable for traditional planting methods

Question 14:

The phrase 'symbolic reclamation of space and agency' most appropriately refers to:

(a) Transforming unused industrial spaces into productive garden plots.
(b) Using gardening practices as a subtle or direct form of civil protest.
(c) Requesting access to public land from authorities for food cultivation.
(d) Gaining emotional and psychological well-being through small-scale gardening.


Question 15:

What assumption underlies the author's argument in favor of community gardens?

  • (a) Individuals are incapable of gardening alone.
  • (b) Social cooperation enhances the benefits of gardening.
  • (c) Community gardens are more cost-effective than private ones.
  • (d) Governments support all communal gardening efforts.

Question 16:

According to the passage, what deeper motivation underlies urban gardening beyond access to fresh food?

  • (a) Competing financially with existing industrial agricultural systems.
  • (b) Seeking more autonomy over personal food and environmental choices.
  • (c) Avoiding all types of reliance on common community food networks.
  • (d) Replacing all large-scale commercial farming with individual gardens.

Question 17:

Why is urban gardening described as an act as much philosophical as it is practical?

  • (a) Because it reflects cultural traditions rather than food requirements.
  • (b) Because it is mainly a contest with large-scale commercial farming.
  • (c) Because it provides a complete substitute for rural food production.
  • (d) Because it expresses values of sustainability, choice, and connection.

Question 18:

Which of these best describes the role of 'innovation' in the success of urban gardening?

  • (a) It reduces the reliance on large public spaces for carrying out cultivation.
  • (b) It introduces creative methods to overcome space, soil, and sunlight limits.
  • (c) It eliminates the need for people to collaborate in shared gardening projects.
  • (d) It guarantees government funding to replace industrial farming completely.

Question 19:

According to Tom Bingham, the rule of law primarily serves to:

  • (a) Guarantee the enforcement of criminal sanctions and civil penalties in equal measure.
  • (b) Ensure that the exercise of public power remains fair, transparent, and subject to moral constraint.
  • (c) Promote the swift execution of governmental decisions for administrative convenience.
  • (d) Establish the authority of the judiciary over all branches of governance in perpetuity.

Question 20:

From Sandel’s argument, one may reasonably infer that he would most likely:

  • (a) Support limiting ethical debates in law to preserve neutrality in governance.
  • (b) Oppose moral discussion in legal reasoning as a source of subjective bias.
  • (c) Encourage public reasoning about moral values as essential to a democratic legal order.
  • (d) Suggest that moral philosophy and legal practice should remain entirely independent disciplines.

Question 21:

The phrase "arbitrary governance" in Bingham’s description most nearly means:

  • (a) Government based on fixed and universally accepted principles.
  • (b) Authority exercised without consistency, justification, or accountability.
  • (c) Decision-making guided by collective moral judgment and civic reason.
  • (d) Administrative action founded on transparent, legal, and rational reasoning.

Question 22:

In the context of the above passage, consider the following Assumption ((a) and Reason (R):
Assumption ((a): McBride believes that studying law is not merely about acquiring knowledge of legal rules.
Reason (R): He argues that true legal understanding requires both analytical skill and ethical reflection.

Which of the following is the correct option?

  • (a) Both ((a) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of ((a).
  • (b) Both ((a) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of ((a).
  • (c) ((a) is true, but (R) is false.
  • (d) ((a) is false, but (R) is true.

Question 23:

Which of the following conclusions can be logically deduced as a point of agreement among the perspectives of the three authors?

  • (a) Justice is attainable only when laws remain morally neutral and socially detached.
  • (b) Legal education and moral philosophy are unrelated domains of study.
  • (c) Legal authority should rest solely on codified statutes and administrative precedents.
  • (d) Law must integrate both technical precision and moral purpose to maintain legitimacy.
Correct Answer: (d) Law must integrate both technical precision and moral purpose to maintain legitimacy.
View Solution



The three authors agree on the importance of maintaining the legitimacy of law. The key conclusion that can be logically deduced from their perspectives is that legal systems should not only emphasize technical precision but also include moral considerations to be viewed as legitimate and just. Thus, option (d) is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: When evaluating statements in legal philosophy, remember that the integration of technical and moral aspects is often emphasized as essential for a balanced and legitimate legal system.


Question 24:

If McBride were to respond to Bingham's conception of the rule of law, he would most likely argue that:

  • (a) Moral ideals should not interfere with the practical application and interpretation of legal principles.
  • (b) The cultivation of ethical reasoning in lawyers strengthens, rather than weakens, the rule of law.
  • (c) Legal predictability and procedural certainty must always prevail over moral reflection.
  • (d) The ethical dimension of law remains largely irrelevant to the duties and functions of legal practitioners.

Question 25:

Which of the following can be reasonably inferred from the combined viewpoints of Bingham, Sandel, and McBride?

  • (a) Legal education should balance procedural clarity with the ethical responsibilities of those who interpret it.
  • (b) Legal education should remain separate from broader moral and civic discussions in society.
  • (c) The authority of law depends primarily on its technical accuracy and institutional hierarchy.
  • (d) The legitimacy of justice systems is secured when personal morality is excluded from legal reasoning.

Question 26:

According to the passage, which thinker most directly connects the study of law to practical skill and ethical reflection for future practitioners?

  • (a) Tom Bingham, by emphasizing moral ideals and public trust in justice.
  • (b) Michael Sandel, by analyzing competing philosophical theories of fairness and civic virtue.
  • (c) Nicholas McBride, by guiding students on case analysis, critical reasoning, and ethical judgment.
  • (d) All three equally focus on legal practice rather than theory or moral reasoning.

Question 27:

Which of the following statements best represents the philosophical core common to all three books?

  • (a) The integrity of law depends upon the harmonious integration of justice, morality, and human reason.
  • (b) The moral relevance of law diminishes when interpreted through abstract ethical theories.
  • (c) Legal philosophy and professional ethics must function independently to preserve objectivity.
  • (d) The practice of law attains legitimacy only when it excludes moral and civic considerations.

Question 28:

Read the given passage and answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate response.

Democracy, often hailed as the most equitable form of governance, is a system where power ultimately rests in the hands of the people. The word derives from the Greek words "demos" meaning people and "kratos" meaning power or rule. Democracy aims to provide equal political participation and protect the individual freedoms of all citizens. However, while the idea of democracy is simple, its practice is frequently complex and fraught with challenges. At its core, democracy functions on the principle of majority rule, yet it simultaneously guarantees the protection of minority rights.

This balance ensures that while the majority has the power to make decisions through voting, the fundamental rights of minorities are not trampled upon. Such a system requires consistent vigilance and respect for the rule of law. Without these, democracies can devolve into majoritarian tyranny or authoritarianism. The practice of democracy is not merely limited to voting in elections. It encompasses freedom of speech, an independent judiciary, free press, and protection of individual rights. These elements together create a political environment where citizens can express dissent, hold leaders accountable, and participate actively in decision-making. When any component is weakened, the democratic process becomes vulnerable.

In recent times, democratic societies worldwide have grappled with new challenges. The rise of misinformation and fake news has eroded public trust in institutions and polarized societies. Social media platforms, meant to facilitate communication, have sometimes amplified divisive narratives and falsehoods. This has resulted in voter manipulation and a growing skepticism toward democratic processes. Literacy in media and critical thinking is increasingly vital to safeguard democracy from such threats. Economic inequality poses another significant challenge. While democracy promises equal rights politically, vast disparities in wealth and opportunity undermine this ideal.


This phenomenon raises questions about whether democracy is achievable without addressing socioeconomic inequalities. Furthermore, the involvement of citizens is crucial. Democracy requires that people are informed, engaged, and willing to participate beyond casting votes. Civic education and awareness campaigns play an essential role in nurturing responsible citizenship. Apathy or disengagement weakens the democratic fabric, opening avenues for corruption and other dangers to the system. In conclusion, democracy thrives on the collective responsibility of governments and citizens to protect its pillars and ensure inclusive, fair governance.

The word "democracy" originally means:

  • (a) Rule by kings
  • (b) Power of the people
  • (c) Freedom from laws
  • (d) Majority rule only

Question 29:

What does "inclusive" mean in the phrase "inclusive, fair governance"?

  • (a) Exclusive
  • (b) Accepting
  • (c) Limited to a few
  • (d) Chaotic

Question 30:

In the context of the above passage, consider the following statements, and select the appropriate option:

Statement 1: Voting is the only element of democracy.

Statement 2: Freedom of speech and an independent judiciary are essential for democracy.

  • (a) Both statements are true and 2 is the correct explanation of 1.
  • (b) Both statements are true, but 2 is not the correct explanation of 1.
  • (c) Statement 1 is false, but statement 2 is true.
  • (d) Statement 1 is true, but statement 2 is false.

Question 31:

What does 'vulnerable' as used in the democratic process becomes vulnerable mean?

  • (a) Robust and well-protected
  • (b) Weak or exposed to harm
  • (c) Balanced and autonomous
  • (d) Completely undone and destroyed

Question 32:

Which of the following is NOT listed as a challenge faced by democracy?

  • (a) Shortage of essential natural resources impacting governance
  • (b) The spread of false information through social platforms
  • (c) Vast disparities in wealth affecting political influence
  • (d) Low levels of citizen participation and awareness

Question 33:

What role does economic inequality play in weakening democracy?

  • (a) It promotes a more equal distribution of power among citizens.
  • (b) It encourages policies that lessen disparities in economic opportunities.
  • (c) It permits the rich to exert undue influence over political decisions.
  • (d) It results in increased political engagement from all socioeconomic classes.

Question 34:

Identify the sentence in the passage that contains a participial phrase.

  • (a) Democracy aims to provide equal political participation and protect the individual freedoms of all citizens.
  • (b) Social media platforms, meant to facilitate communication, have sometimes amplified divisive narratives and falsehoods.
  • (c) This has resulted in voter manipulation and a growing skepticism towards democratic processes.
  • (d) Civic education and awareness campaigns play an essential role in nurturing responsible citizenship.

Question 35:

Which of the following best illustrates the paradox presented in the discussion of majority rule in a democracy?

  • (a) The majority rules but must respect minority rights.
  • (b) Democracies rely on citizens to choose leaders fairly.
  • (c) Economic inequality can lead to political inequality.
  • (d) Civic education helps citizens make better voting decisions.

Question 36:

Based on the passage, which statement best captures the author’s perspective on the link between democracy and inequality?

  • (a) Democracies often tolerate economic inequality to preserve individual freedom.
  • (b) Socioeconomic inequality is a consequence, not a cause, of weakened democracies.
  • (c) Democratic systems are capable of functioning fairly despite economic gaps.
  • (d) Political equality cannot be fully realized without addressing economic disparities.

Question 37:

Read the given passage and answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate response.

I have still to be brother to a Prince, though I once came near to kinship with kingdom, have been a veritable King, and was promised the reversion of a great many laws, law-courts, revenue and policy, all complete. But today, I am fairly far from my dead, and if I want a crown I must go and hunt it for myself. The beginning of everything was in a railway train upon the road to Hôm from Ajmir. There had been a deficit in the Budget, which necessitated travelling, not Second class, which is only half as dear as First class, but by Intermediate, which is very awful indeed. There are no cushions in the Intermediate class, and the population is either Intermediate, which is Eurasian, or native, which for a long night journey is nasty; or Loafer, which is amusing though intoxicating. Intermediates do not patronize refreshment rooms. They carry their food in bundles and, by a process from the native sweetmeat sellers, and drink the roadside water. The half-weather Intermediates are taken out of the carriages dead, and in all weather are most properly looked down upon. My particular Intermediate happened to be empty till I reached Nasirabad, when a young gentleman in shirt-sleeves entered, and followed a custom of Intermediates, passed the time of day. He was a wanderer and a vagabond like myself, but with a detached taste for alcohol. He told me daring tales of things he had seen and done, out of the way corners of the Empire into which he had penetrated, and of adventures in which he risked his life for a few days’ food. “If India was filled with men like you and me, not knowing more than the crows where they’d get their next day’s rations, it isn’t seventy millions of revenue that would be paying — it’s seven hundred million,” said he; and as I looked at him I was disposed to agree with him. We talked politics, the politics of Loaferdom that sees things from the underside where the bath and plaster is not smoothed off, and talked postal arrangements because my friend wanted to send a telegram back from the next station to Ajmir, which is the turning-off place from the Bombay to the Howrah line as you travel westward. He had the air of one who had seen strange countries and stranger men, yet bore himself without vanity. There was a restless light in his eyes, the sort that belongs to men who have lived too long without a fixed purpose. When he spoke of the Empire, it was not loyalty nor with bitterness, but with the detached amusement of one who has played his part and lost interest in the game. His laughter came easily, though it seemed to echo from some remembered hardship. It struck me then that his stories were less of adventure than of survival.
In the context of the passage, what does the word ‘vagabond’ mean?

  • (a) A respected officer
  • (b) Criminal on the run
  • (c) Homeless wanderer
  • (d) Spiritual Monk

Question 38:

The narrator implies that the Intermediate class is unpleasant because it lacks:

  • (a) Ventilation and windows
  • (b) Cushions and respectable company
  • (c) Hygiene and privacy
  • (d) Food and friendly passengers

Question 39:

What can we infer about the narrator’s attitude toward the man he meets?

  • (a) He sees him as arrogant and unpleasant
  • (b) He envies his wealth and contacts
  • (c) He respects his courage and past life
  • (d) He doubts the truth of his stories

Question 40:

What does the narrator mean when he refers to "politics of Loaferdom"?

  • (a) High-level political negotiations
  • (b) Corrupt behind-the-scenes dealings
  • (c) Policies crafted by beggars and thieves
  • (d) Observations from society's lowest ranks

Question 41:

What does the phrase "looked at his mouth and chin" suggest in context?

  • (a) He was assessing his character for trustworthiness
  • (b) He was noticing his facial features
  • (c) He was judging the man’s cleanliness
  • (d) He found him good looking and decent

Question 42:

The narrator perceives the stranger as a:

  • (a) Cynic disillusioned with authority yet unbroken in spirit
  • (b) Sentimental dreamer longing for recognition
  • (c) Patriot hiding disappointment under forced laughter
  • (d) Contented traveler who found peace in detachment

Question 43:

When the narrator observes that the man’s stories were "less of adventure than of survival," he most likely implies that:

  • (a) The man exaggerated his experiences for dramatic effect.
  • (b) His life excitement masked hardship and endurance.
  • (c) He sought sympathy rather than admiration from his listener.
  • (d) The narrator had grown weary of hearing tall tales of danger.

Question 44:

Read the given passage and answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate response.

The advent of social media has dramatically transformed the way individuals consume and share information. In earlier times, people largely depended on newspapers, radio, or television as their primary sources of knowledge about the world. These were institutions that followed established editorial practices and fact-checking processes. With the rise of digital platforms, however, the traditional "gatekeepers" of information have been bypassed. Today, anyone with internet access can create content, express an opinion, or broadcast an idea to a global audience within seconds. This shift has created more democratized access and given voice to communities and individuals who were often ignored by mainstream media. Yet, this democratization comes with challenges. Alongside genuine voices, social media has also amplified misinformation, rumors, and half-truths. Unlike traditional journalism, where accountability and verification are built into the system, social media thrives on speed, virality, and emotion. A misleading headline, a misinterpreted statistic, or even a doctored image can travel across the world before fact-checkers have the chance to intervene. The consequences of such unchecked information can be serious, ranging from the spread of fear and panic to the manipulation of public opinion. The impact of this transformation extends beyond individual users to institutions and democracies. Political campaigns, corporate branding, and even social movements are now shaped by algorithms that decide what people see and when they see it. These algorithms prioritize engagement, often promoting content that provokes stronger emotional reactions rather than balanced analysis. As a result, echo chambers form, online spaces where people are repeatedly exposed to opinions that mirror their own, reinforcing biases and reducing opportunities to differ perspectives. This has contributed to increasing polarization in societies across the world. Moreover, the competition for attention has blurred the line between information and entertainment, leading to the rise of sensationalism even in serious public discourse. The credibility of expertise too has been undermined, as opinions from unverified sources are given equal place on the same footing as evidence-based knowledge.


In response, governments and technology companies are exploring ways to promote digital literacy, enhance transparency in algorithms, and strengthen fact-checking collaborations. Ultimately, the challenge lies in balancing the openness of digital spaces with mechanisms that ensure public communication is responsible and trustworthy.

According to the passage, what is a key difference between traditional media and social media?

  • (a) Traditional media is more entertaining than social media
  • (b) Social media is more regulated by governments than traditional media
  • (c) Social media is based on facts; social media is driven by emotion
  • (d) Social media cannot reach a global audience as traditional media can

Question 45:

Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a consequence of the spread of unchecked information via social media?

  • (a) Spread of fear and panic
  • (b) Improvement in media literacy
  • (c) Manipulation of public opinion
  • (d) Amplification of misinformation

Question 46:

What is implied by the phrase "traditional gatekeepers of information have been bypassed"?

  • (a) Traditional media is more widely used than ever
  • (b) Social media companies have begun hiring editors
  • (c) Traditional media is no longer the sole source of information
  • (d) Fact-checking has become more robust in the digital era

Question 47:

Which of the following best captures the central idea of the passage?

  • (a) Traditional journalism has become obsolete due to the rise of social media
  • (b) Social media has made it easier to spread government propaganda
  • (c) Social media has democratized information sharing but introduced challenges such as misinformation
  • (d) People no longer rely on newspapers and television for any information

Question 48:

In the context of the above passage, consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R), and select the appropriate option:

Assertion (A): Social media allows anyone with internet access to broadcast ideas to a global audience.
Reason (R): Traditional media platforms were exclusively available to trained journalists and editors.

  • (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  • (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Question 49:

Which of the following approaches is identified in the passage as a constructive response to the challenges created by social media’s algorithm-driven information environment?

  • (a) Integrating digital literacy and promoting greater transparency in algorithms
  • (b) Encouraging governments to regulate all online content before publication
  • (c) Relying on users to self-regulate online content without institutional support
  • (d) Expanding algorithmic reach to ensure content receives maximum views

Question 50:

Which of the following best illustrates the functioning of an 'echo chamber' on social media, as described in the passage?

  • (a) Users engaging in political discussion groups with differing viewpoints
  • (b) Users seeking information from external sources for better understanding
  • (c) Posts that align with their political views getting the most attention
  • (d) Users actively discussing diverse perspectives with others

Question 51:

India’s first woman Chief Minister was:

  • (a) Nandini Satpathy
  • (b) Sucheta Kripalani
  • (c) Janaki Ramachandran
  • (d) Sheila Dikshit

Question 52:

Match the following:
 

Q 52


  • (a) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (b) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (c) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (d) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Question 53:

Which of the following is India’s first indigenously discovered antibiotic noted for its effectiveness against resistant respiratory infections?

  • (a) Biofungicin
  • (b) Cephalexin-M
  • (c) Polymyxin-N
  • (d) Nafithromycin

Question 54:

Which of the following countries has NOT formally recognised Palestine as a state?

  • (a) France
  • (b) Canada
  • (c) Australia
  • (d) Japan

Question 55:

The India-Al Impact Summit 2026 will be the first-ever global AI summit to be hosted in a Global South nation. Deliberations at the Summit will be organized around seven interconnected Chakras i.e., areas of multilateral cooperation designed to channel collective energy towards holistic societal transformation. Which of the following is NOT specifically noted as a chakra?

  • (a) Resilience, Innovation and Efficiency
  • (b) AI Governance and Regulation
  • (c) Inclusion for Social Empowerment
  • (d) Science

Question 56:

In addition to National Literary Awards, many States also confer Literary Awards. Match the following Awards with the State that presents them:


Question 56

Select the most appropriate option:

(a) A-I, B-II, C-II, D-IV
(b) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(c) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(d) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III


Question 57:

Which country instituted proceedings against Israel before the International Court of Justice, alleging that Israeli military action in Gaza violated the Genocide Convention?

(a) India
(b) Belgium
(c) France
(d) South Africa


Question 58:

Who were the officers who conducted the press briefings on Operation Sindoor?

(a) Wing Commander Vyomika Singh and Colonel Sofiya Qureshi
(b) Wing Commander Bhumika Sharma and Colonel Zainab Iqbal
(c) Wing Commander Niharika Vyas and Colonel Fatima Ahmed
(d) Wing Commander Vandana Chhatwal and Colonel Amina Khurshid


Question 59:

Who recently took charge as the first Woman Prime Minister of Japan?

  • (a) Yuriko Koike
  • (b) Sanae Takachi
  • (c) Seiko Noda
  • (d) Renho Murata

Question 60:

India recently achieved a major breakthrough in gene therapy, marking the first successful indigenous clinical trial for Hemophilia treatment. The trial was supported by Department of Biotechnology, Government of India and done in which major hospital?

  • (a) Christian Medical College, Vellore
  • (b) AIIMS, New Delhi
  • (c) Tata Memorial Hospital, Mumbai
  • (d) King George Medical College, Lucknow

Question 61:

Iga Swiatek won the Women’s Singles title at the 2025 Wimbledon Championships. Who did she defeat in the finals?

  • (a) Marketa Vondrousova
  • (b) Amanda Anisimova
  • (c) Barbora Krejcikova
  • (d) Jasmine Paolini

Question 62:

Madhubani painting is a famous art form of which Indian state?

  • (a) Rajasthan
  • (b) Bihar
  • (c) Gujarat
  • (d) West Bengal

Question 63:

The Ministry of Defense has decided to observe 2025 as the ‘Year of Reforms’ with the aim of:

  • (a) Enhancing defense manufacturing capabilities to achieve self-reliance and global competitiveness
  • (b) Strengthening inter-services collaboration for improved operational synergy and resource use
  • (c) Enhancing welfare measures for ex-servicemen and their families through comprehensive support systems, improved resettlement schemes, and better healthcare access
  • (d) Transforming the Armed Forces into a technologically-advanced combat-ready force capable of multi-domain integrated operations

Question 64:

'Chhu-faat' is a dance form associated most prominently with the state of?

  • (a) Tripura
  • (b) Sikkim
  • (c) Jharkhand
  • (d) Chhattisgarh

Question 65:

The 2025 Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to Maria Corina Machado. She received the prize for:


Question 66:

The National Quantum Mission (NQM), launched in 2023, aims to seed, nurture, and scale up scientific and industrial R&D, and create a vibrant ecosystem in Quantum Technology (QT) in India. Four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) were established under NQM to strengthen India’s position as a global leader in quantum technology. These hubs are located in:

  • (a) IISc Bengaluru; IIT Madras; IIT Bombay; IIT Delhi
  • (b) National Innovation Foundation Ahmedabad; IIT Kharagpur; IIT Delhi; SN Bose National Centre for Basic Science Kolkata
  • (c) Institute of Nano Science and Technology Mohali; IIT Roorkee; JNU Delhi; North East Centre for Technology Application and Reach Meghalaya
  • (d) IIT Madras; National Academy of Sciences Allahabad; IISc Bengaluru; Tata Institute of Fundamental Research

Question 67:

Which of the following series was awarded the Best Series 2025 at the International India Film Awards (IIFA) Digital Awards 2025, held in Jaipur?

  • (a) Patal Lok
  • (b) Bandish Bandits
  • (c) Panchayat
  • (d) Kota Factory

Question 68:

In late 2024, Google announced the development of a state-of-the-art quantum chip, which is considered to be a big step towards developing a large-scale, error-corrected quantum computer. The chip is named:

  • (a) Sentinel
  • (b) Willow
  • (c) Polaris
  • (d) Orion

Question 69:

Indian Railways has introduced a number of initiatives to improve passenger services. Match the following initiatives with their focus areas:
 

Question 69



  • (a) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (b) A-II, B-V, C-I, D-III
  • (c) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (d) A-I, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Question 70:

NITI Aayog in collaboration with DP World recently announced the ‘We Rise’ initiative. The initiative aims to:

  • (a) Promote rural women’s participation in local self-governance through leadership and digital literacy training.
  • (b) Encourage women in STEM fields through scholarships and industry-academia collaborations.
  • (c) Provide microfinance support to women-led self-help groups in aspirational districts.
  • (d) Help women entrepreneurs in India to scale their businesses globally through trade facilitation, mentorship, and strategic partnerships.

Question 71:

Recently, India announced its vision of MAHASAGAR, expanding its maritime engagement from a regional to a global outlook, with particular focus on the Global South. This initiative seeks to promote security and growth through cooperative partnerships with maritime and island states, strengthening defense, economic, and developmental collaboration, and advancing humanitarian and capacity-building efforts. What does it stand for?

  • (a) MegaRegional Alliance for Holistic Advancement of Security Across Geopolitical Areas
  • (b) Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions
  • (c) Maritime Alliance for Security and Growth Across the Regions
  • (d) Mutual Advancement for Humanitarian Aid and Security Across Geopolitical Areas

Question 72:

There is a rich diversity of regional music in India. Match the following:

 

Q 72


  • (a) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (b) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (c) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (d) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Question 73:

Which 1971 study conducted at a major US University by Philip Zimbardo, often cited in discussions on abuse of power and institutional accountability, did college students, randomly assigned contrasting social roles within a simulated correctional environment, begin exhibiting extreme behaviors that revealed the powerful influence of situational factors on human conduct and authority?

  • (a) The Milgram Obedience Experiment
  • (b) The Stanford Prison Experiment
  • (c) The Robbers Cave Experiment
  • (d) The Bobo Doll Experiment

Question 74:

Who recently took charge as the first Woman Prime Minister of Japan?

  • (a) Yuriko Koike
  • (b) Sanae Takachi
  • (c) Renho Murata
  • (d) Seiko Noda

Question 75:

International Women’s Day is celebrated on

  • (a) 8th March
  • (b) 8th May
  • (c) 8th July
  • (d) 8th December

Question 76:

Which franchise won the 2025 edition of Indian Premier League (IPL)?

  • (a) Mumbai Indians
  • (b) Royal Challengers Bengaluru
  • (c) Gujarat Titans
  • (d) Chennai Super Kings

Question 77:

GRAP framework was introduced as an emergency response mechanism to combat the extreme air quality and pollution conditions in Delhi-NCR. What does GRAP stand for?

  • (a) Generalised Response Assessment Protocol
  • (b) Graded Response against Air Pollution
  • (c) Graded Response Action Plan
  • (d) Ground-level Restoration and Action Policy

Question 78:

A first-of-its-kind organic fisheries cluster in India was launched in: \

  • (a) Jangaon, Telangana
  • (b) Soreng, Sikkim
  • (c) Nanded, Maharashtra
  • (d) Birbhum, West Bengal

Question 79:

The nPROUD initiative, aimed at collection and safe disposal of unused and expired medicines, was launched by which state? \

  • (a) Uttar Pradesh
  • (b) Telangana
  • (c) Bihar
  • (d) Kerala

Question 80:

Which state won the Best State Tableau prize at the Republic Day Parade 2025? \

  • (a) Gujarat
  • (b) Rajasthan
  • (c) Uttar Pradesh
  • (d) Madhya Pradesh

Question 81:

Oxygen : Lungs = Fuel : ? 

  • (a) Car
  • (b) Engine
  • (c) Road
  • (d) Energy

Question 82:

Author : Book = Composer : ? 

  • (a) Piano
  • (b) Symphony
  • (c) Stage
  • (d) Scorecard

Question 83:

4, 10, 18, 28, ? 

  • (a) 46
  • (b) 42
  • (c) 40
  • (d) 48

Question 84:

Shopkeepers are Big. Some Big persons violate night curfew. All who violate night curfew are fined. Anil is Big. Examine the statements:
I. Anil is a Shopkeeper
II. Anil may violate night curfew
III. Anil will definitely violate night curfew
IV. If Anil is a shopkeeper, he will get fined
V. Anil will definitely get fined

Select the correct option: 

  • (a) Only I, III and IV
  • (b) Only II
  • (c) Only I and III
  • (d) Only I and V

Question 85:

Some cyclists are marathoners. All marathoners train rigorously. Some trainees are amateurs. Which conclusion necessarily follows? \

  • (a) Some cyclists train rigorously
  • (b) All cyclists are amateurs
  • (c) No trainee is a marathoner
  • (d) Some amateurs are marathoners

Question 86:

Principle: A driver is responsible for controlling their vehicle and avoiding harm to pedestrians, unless the pedestrian acted recklessly or unlawfully.
Facts: A driver hits a pedestrian who suddenly runs across the road outside a crosswalk without looking. The driver was obeying all traffic rules.
Which of the following is correct? 

  • (a) The driver is liable for the pedestrian’s injuries
    (b) The pedestrian’s reckless action absolves the driver of liability
    (c) Both share liability equally  
    (d) The driver is always liable in pedestrian accidents 

Question 87:

Justice : Law = ?

  • (a) Medicine : Doctor
    (b) Governance : Policy
    (c) Teacher : School
    (d) Engineer : Bridge

Question 88:

Keyboard : Typist = Paintbrush : ?

  • (a) Artist
  • (b) Canvas
  • (c) Painting
  • (d) Colour

Question 89:

Roots : Tree = Foundation : ?

  • (a) House
  • (b) Wall
  • (c) Architecture
  • (d) Floor

Question 90:

Principle: A public official must avoid conflicts of interest that could undermine public trust, even if no actual wrongdoing occurs.

Facts: A city mayor awards a major construction contract to a company owned by her cousin. She discloses the relationship publicly and follows all procurement procedures.

Apply the principle and select the most appropriate option:

  • (a) Contract should proceed since procedures were followed
  • (b) Contract should be avoided to maintain public trust
  • (c) Cousin should sell the company before bidding
  • (d) Mayor should resign

Question 91:

All Emails are Messages. Some Messages are Urgent. No Urgent Messages are Casual. Which of the following conclusions necessarily follows?

I. Some Emails are Casual.

II. Some Messages are not Casual.

III. All Urgent Messages are Emails.

Select the most appropriate option:

  • (a) Only II follows
  • (b) Only III follows
  • (c) Both I and II follow
  • (d) Both I and III follow

Question 92:

Principle: Negligence may be inferred when the incident causing harm is of a kind that ordinarily does not occur without someone’s negligence, the instrumentality or control that caused the harm was under the defendant’s management, and the plaintiff did not contribute to the harm.

Fact: Anita visits a hospital for a routine check-up. While waiting in the lobby, a large ceiling fan suddenly detaches and falls, injuring her shoulder. The hospital authorities claim that the fan had been regularly serviced and no defect was known before the accident.

Applying only the given principle to the fact, is the hospital liable? Select the most appropriate option: 

  • (a) No, because Anita cannot prove which employee was responsible for the fan.
    (b) Yes, because a ceiling fan does not ordinarily fall without some negligence in its maintenance.
    (c) No, because the hospital claims regular maintenance was carried out.
    (d) Yes, but only if Anita can prove that the fan was installed more than five years ago. 

Question 93:

A city plans to replace cash bus fares with a QR-only system to reduce revenue leakage. Critics argue ridership among the elderly will drop. Which assumption best supports the critics? 

  • (a) A large proportion of elderly commuters lack smartphones or find QR payments difficult.
  • (b) Younger commuters prefer QR payment due to higher smartphone use.
  • (c) Conductors are not trained to handle QR codes.
  • (d) A study found that QR systems reduce revenue leakage in other cities with similar public transport systems.

Question 94:

Excessive sugar-sweetened beverage intake correlates with higher cavity rates. A claim is made that such beverages cause cavities. Which, if true, most weakens the causal claim? 

  • (a) Participants with high sugar-sweetened beverage consumption were also found to have poorer oral hygiene and less frequent dental check-ups compared to low-consumption participants.
  • (b) The study’s large sample size included diverse populations, which may have introduced uncontrolled variability affecting the observed correlation.
  • (c) Surveys indicate that many dental professionals believe sugar contributes to cavities, regardless of other lifestyle factors.
  • (d) Evidence shows that cavity formation depends on multiple factors, including genetics, diet, and oral microbiome, and sugar alone may not be sufficient to cause cavities.

Question 95:

Congestion pricing approach reduces peak-hour car trips in several cities. Which assumption supports using it in a new city? \

  • (a) Drivers will respond to price signals by shifting time or mode of travel.
  • (b) Public transport would be able to fulfil the demand.
  • (c) Drivers dislike road taxes and would therefore stop using cars to avoid them.
  • (d) Fuel prices will fall due to lower consumption.

Question 96:

All scientists hold Ph.D. Some engineers are scientists. No scientist works without access to the laboratory. Which of the following are the most appropriate conclusions?
I. All scientists work in the laboratory.
II. Some engineers have Ph.D.
III. All engineers are scientists. 

Select the most appropriate option: 

  • (a) I and II follow
  • (b) I and III follow
  • (c) Only I follows
  • (d) All follow

Question 97:

The phenomenon of urbanisation has led to significant changes in social structures and community interactions. As people migrate from rural areas to cities, they often face challenges such as increased cost of living, social isolation, and a disconnection from their traditional support networks. Studies indicate that urban residents tend to form new types of relationships, often relying on informal networks and community groups to adapt to their new environments. While urban living can foster innovation and economic opportunities, it can also contribute to feelings of loneliness and a decline in mental health if social connections are not established. \

If the above is true, which of the following conclusions is most contradicted by it? 

  • (a) Urbanisation creates both opportunities and challenges for individuals transitioning from rural to urban living.
  • (b) Social isolation in urban areas can negatively impact individuals’ mental health and well-being.
  • (c) People who migrate to cities typically maintain their traditional support networks from their rural communities.
  • (d) Informal networks and community groups are essential for urban residents to establish new social connections.

Question 98:

The phenomenon of urbanisation has led to significant changes in social structures and community interactions. As people migrate from rural areas to cities, they often face challenges such as increased cost of living, social isolation, and a disconnection from their traditional support networks. Studies indicate that urban residents tend to form new types of relationships, often relying on informal networks and community groups to adapt to their new environments. While urban living can foster innovation and economic opportunities, it can also contribute to feelings of loneliness and a decline in mental health if social connections are not established. 

If the above is true, which of the following can be most readily inferred from the passage? 

  • (a) The economic benefits of urbanisation outweigh its social and psychological costs for most urban residents.
  • (b) Migration to urban areas invariably leads to social isolation and deteriorating mental health among new residents.
  • (c) Urban living inherently discourages the formation of meaningful interpersonal relationships.
  • (d) Urbanisation transforms traditional social ties but compels individuals to seek alternative forms of community to sustain social well-being.

Question 99:

All teachers are creative people. All creative people are sensitive. No insensitive person is a teacher. Which of the following conclusions necessarily follows? \

I. Some sensitive people are teachers. 
II. All sensitive people are teachers. 
III. No teacher is insensitive. 

Select the correct option:

  • (a) Only I
  • (b) Only II and III
  • (c) Only I and III
  • (d) I, II and III

Question 100:

Anamika complains that in her debate club, she is always assigned to the less-preferred side of the argument, while another member consistently gets the more popular choice. Which of the following, if true, supports Anamika's complaint? \

  • (a) Assignments are rotated randomly, and Anamika's side often ends up unpopular by chance.
  • (b) The club president privately admits giving the popular side to the other member due to personal friendship.
  • (c) Both members are equally skilled in debating.
  • (d) Anamika has only recently joined the club.

Question 101:

All renewable energy sources reduce carbon emissions. Some renewable energy sources are expensive to install. Solar energy is a renewable energy resource.

Consider the following conclusions: 
I. Solar energy reduces carbon emissions. 
II. All expensive energy sources are renewable. 
III. Some renewable energy resources are not expensive. 

Select the most appropriate option:

  • (a) Only I follows.
  • (b) Both I and III follow.
  • (c) Only III follows.
  • (d) Both II and III follow.

Question 102:

Artist : Painting = ? 

  • (a) Author : Novel
  • (b) Teacher : Student
  • (c) Doctor : Prescription
  • (d) Athlete : Coach

Question 103:

All Parathas are Sustainable. Some Sustainable are Cost-Effective. All Cost-Effective are Popular. Consider the following conclusions: \
I. Some Popular are Parathas. 
II. All Parathas are Popular. 
III. Some Sustainable are Popular. 

Select the most appropriate option: 

  • (a) Only I follows
  • (b) Only III follows
  • (c) Both I and III follow
  • (d) Both II and III follow

Question 104:

Roorkee City plans to replace all diesel buses with electric buses within five years to reduce air pollution. Officials claim this will significantly improve air quality and reduce respiratory illnesses. Which of the following is an assumption made by the officials? \

  • (a) Electric buses are affordable for the city to maintain.
  • (b) Air pollution in Roorkee City is primarily caused by diesel buses.
  • (c) Residents will support the transition to electric buses.
  • (d) Other sources of pollution will also be reduced during this period.

Question 105:

Many schools have introduced digital textbooks, arguing that they are more cost-effective and environmentally friendly than printed books. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken this argument? 

  • (a) Digital textbooks require devices that many students cannot afford. 
  • (b) Printed books are more fragile than electronic devices. 
  • (c) Some teachers prefer using printed books. 
  • (d) Students find digital textbooks more engaging. 

Question 106:

Complete the series: A1B, D4E, H9I, M16N, ?

  • (a) S25T
  • (b) R25S
  • (c) R24S
  • (d) S25R

Question 107:

All Birds can Fly. All Penguins are Birds. Some Birds Migrate. Some who Migrate Swim. Which of the following conclusions necessarily follows? \

  • (a) Penguins can fly. 
  • (b) All who migrate are birds. 
  • (c) Penguins migrate long distances. 
  • (d) No birds can swim. 

Question 108:

In a certain code, LIGHT is written as NKKFR. How is CLOUD written in that code? \

  • (a) ENSSA 
  • (b) FNRRA 
  • (c) ENSSB 
  • (d) DORRB 

Question 109:

Complete the following series: B2, E4, I8, N16, ? 

  • (a) T30 
  • (b) S32 
  • (c) T32 
  • (d) U34 

Question 110:

110.
Doctor : Hospital = ? \

  • (a) Chef : Recipe \
  • (b) Driver : Engine \
  • (c) Soldier : Parade \
  • (d) Teacher : Classroom \

Question 111:

The numbers in the series 3, 9, 27, ?, 243 follow a pattern. What is the missing number? 

  • (a) 30 
  • (b) 60 
  • (c) 81 
  • (d) 90 

Question 112:

Every Mathematician is a Statistician. Some Statisticians are also Computer Scientists. No Computer Scientist is a Mathematician. Which of the following conclusions necessarily follows? 

I. Some Statisticians are not Mathematicians. 
II. All Statisticians are Computer Scientists. 
III. Some Mathematicians are Computer Scientists 

Select the most appropriate option:

  • (a) Only I
    (b) Only II and III
  • (c) Only I and III
  • (d) I, II and III

Question 113:

Research indicates that regular physical activity is crucial for maintaining overall health and preventing severe diseases. Engaging in moderate exercise can improve overall health, enhance mood, and boost immune function. Despite these benefits, many individuals remain sedentary due to a lack of motivation or resources. Studies have shown that community programmes aimed at increasing physical activity, such as group fitness classes and public parks, significantly enhance participation levels and improve community health.

Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the argument presented above?

  • (a) Individuals who engage in regular physical activity are more likely to have access to health care services.
  • (b) Communities that have implemented fitness programs report higher levels of overall satisfaction with their health on a long-term basis.
  • (c) Many people cite a lack of time as the primary reason for not participating in physical activity.
  • (d) Group fitness classes are often less expensive than personal training sessions.

Question 114:

Research indicates that regular physical activity is crucial for maintaining overall health and preventing severe diseases. Engaging in moderate exercise can improve overall health, enhance mood, and boost immune function. Despite these benefits, many individuals remain sedentary due to a lack of motivation or resources. Studies have shown that community programmes aimed at increasing physical activity, such as group fitness classes and public parks, significantly enhance participation levels and improve community health.

Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the argument above?

  • (a) Participants of community exercise programs tend to revert to sedentary habits once the programs conclude, leading to no lasting improvement in health outcomes.
  • (b) Some individuals prefer exercising alone rather than in group-based or community fitness programs.
  • (c) Communities with greater access to public parks often report higher levels of general well-being and lower stress.
  • (d) Local governments that invest in community health programs typically experience reduced long-term healthcare costs.

Question 115:

In a family, the following information is given: 
I. A is the father of B 
II. C is the son of A 
III. D is the brother of E 
IV. E is the daughter of B 

How is C related to D? 

  • (a) Brother
  • (b) Uncle
  • (c) Cousin
  • (d) Nephew

Question 116:

Online grocery stores in Delhi have reported a 50% increase in sales over the past year. Analysts attribute this to the convenience of home delivery and competitive pricing. Which of the following must be assumed for the analysts' conclusion to hold? \

  • (a) Customers in Delhi value convenience over in-store shopping.
  • (b) Grocery store employees prefer working in delivery services.
  • (c) Online grocery stores are more profitable than physical stores.
  • (d) All customers in Delhi have access to the internet.

Question 117:

Some Birds are Flightless. All Sparrows are Birds. All Birds have Beaks. Which of the following conclusions necessarily follow? \

I. All Sparrows have Beaks. 
II. Some Flightless are Sparrows. 
III. Some Beaked are Flightless. 

Select the most appropriate option:

  • (a) Only I follows
  • (b) Both I and III follow
  • (c) Both II and III follow
  • (d) Only III follows

Question 118:

118.
All Contracts are Agreements. Some Agreements are Void. No Void is Enforceable. Which of the following conclusions necessarily follow?


I. Some Contracts are not Enforceable.

II. No Enforceable is Void.

III. Some Agreements are not Enforceable.

Select the most appropriate option:

  • (a) Both II and III follow
  • (b) Only II follows
  • (c) Only I follows
  • (d) Only III follows

Question 119:

All Scripts are Code. Some Code is Optimized. No Optimized Code is Verbose. Which of the following conclusions necessarily follow? \

I. Some Scripts are Verbose.

II. Some Code is not Verbose.

III. All Scripts are Optimized.


Select the most appropriate option:

  • (a) Only II follows
  • (b) Only I follows
  • (c) Both I and II follow
  • (d) Only III follows

Question 120:

A study shows students in schools with longer library hours read more books. Policymakers conclude extending hours will increase reading everywhere. Which assumption underlies this conclusion? \

  • (a) Students will utilize the extended hours to read books.
  • (b) Students in those schools are more intelligent.
  • (c) Infrastructure costs are irrelevant.
  • (d) Reading depends only on hours, not on resources or programmes.

Question 121:

The city's new bike-sharing programme has been widely adopted, reducing traffic congestion and promoting healthy lifestyles. Which of the following is a necessary assumption? 

  • (a) The bike-sharing programme has improved air quality.
  • (b) Many residents prefer biking to driving.
  • (c) There has been a quantifiable increase in the usage of bikes by city residents.
  • (d) The city will expand the programme to all neighbourhoods.

Question 122:

Researchers claim that planting trees in urban areas can significantly reduce summer temperatures. Which of the following, if true, most strengthens this claim?

  • (a) Trees provide shade and release water vapor through transpiration.
  • (b) Planting trees is more expensive than other cooling measures.
  • (c) Urban residents enjoy spending time in green spaces.
  • (d) Trees improve air quality by absorbing pollutants.

Question 123:

Principle: A person who keeps or engages with hazardous or inherently dangerous substances or activities is liable for any or all harm resulting from their escape or impact, regardless of the precautions taken, unless the harm was caused by an act of God, act of a third party, or consent of the victim.

Fact: Seema owns a perfume factory that lawfully stores large quantities of chemicals used in fragrance production. One night, a sudden lightning strike causes a fire, leading to the release of toxic fumes that harm nearby residents. Seema had complied with all safety requirements and had fireproof storage facilities in place.

Applying only the given principle to the fact, is Seema liable?

  • (a) No, because the harm resulted from an act of God, not from her negligence.
  • (b) Yes, because the chemicals were hazardous, and she owns the factory.
  • (c) No, because she had taken all reasonable precautions to prevent such an accident.
  • (d) Yes, because she failed to anticipate natural disasters while storing dangerous substances.

Question 124:

All Samosas are Delicious. Some Delicious is Spicy. No Spicy is Steamed. Which of the following conclusions necessarily follows? \

I. Some Samosas are Spicy.

II. Some Delicious are not Steamed.

III. No Samosa is Steamed.


Select the most appropriate option:

  • (a) Only I follows
  • (b) Both I and II follow
  • (c) Only III follows
  • (d) Only II follows

Question 125:

All Engineers know Mathematics. Some Coders are Engineers. No Artist is an Engineer. Which of the following conclusions necessarily follows? \

I. Some Coders know Mathematics.

II. Some Mathematicians can also Code.

III. Some Artists know Mathematics.


Select the most appropriate option: 

  • (a) Only II follows
  • (b) Only I follows
  • (c) Both I and II follow
  • (d) Only III follows

Question 126:

Free school meals increased attendance. Which assumption is needed to claim free meals caused attendance to rise? \

  • (a) Meal distribution was the main change during the period
  • (b) Teachers were more vigilant about taking attendance
  • (c) School built new classrooms which could accommodate more students
  • (d) Local incomes doubled leading to a flux of new admissions

Question 127:

All Architects are Visionary. Some Visionary people are Designers. No Designer is a Lawyer. Which of the following conclusion necessarily follows? \

I. Some Visionary people are not Lawyers.

II. Some Architects are Designers.

III. All Designers are Visionary.
Select the most appropriate option:

  • (a) I and III follow
  • (b) Only I follows
  • (c) Only III follows
  • (d) I and II follow

Question 128:

All Astronauts are Smokers. All Drivers Ski. Some Astronauts are Drivers. Kamlesh is an Astronaut. Which of the following necessarily follows? \

I. Kamlesh Skis

II. Kamlesh does not Ski

III. Kamlesh is a Smoker

IV. Kamlesh is not a Smoker

V. Kamlesh is a Driver

VI. Kamlesh is not a Driver


Select the most appropriate response:

  • (a) Only III and VI
  • (b) Only I follows
  • (c) Only I and V
  • (d) All follow

Question 129:

Complete the following series: C, FGH, MNOPQ, ? 

  • (a) XZBDFHI
  • (b) YZBCEFG
  • (c) XYZABCD
  • (d) YZABCDF

Question 130:

All renewable energy plants are environment friendly. Some solar plants are renewable energy plants. No coal plant is environment friendly. Which of the following conclusions necessarily follows? 

I. Some solar plants are environment friendly.

II. No coal plant is a renewable energy plant.

III. Some coal plants are solar plants.


Select the most appropriate option:

  • (a) I and II follow
  • (b) Only III
  • (c) II and III follow
  • (d) Only V

Question 131:

Complete the series: B2, D4, G7, K11, ?

  • (a) O14
  • (b) N15
  • (c) P16
  • (d) Q17

Question 132:

If WORD = GVDI, then QUEEN = ?

  • (a) BCRKC
  • (b) ABQJB
  • (c) ABRKB
  • (d) ACQJD

Question 133:

An econometric study using the difference-in-differences technique finds no significant employment effect from a minimum-wage hike. Which evidence most strengthens this finding? \

  • (a) Some firms in the treated region reported difficulty in hiring, even though aggregate employment did not change significantly.
  • (b) Overall labour costs increased slightly in the treated region, but wages for most workers remained unchanged.
  • (c) Employment trends in similar regions without a minimum wage hike were nearly identical to the trends in regions with the hike before and after the policy change.
  • (d) Workers' hours declined in certain industries, despite stable employment levels.

Question 134:

Diversity may bring people to the same room, but inclusion ensures that every voice is heard, valued, and allowed to shape the conversation. It demands that institutions go beyond representation to transformation, to question who holds the power, who defines norms, and whose stories remain unheard. It is the process of turning the promise of democracy into practice, one case, one reform, and one act of courage at a time.

Based on the passage above, which of the following can be most logically inferred? 

  • (a) Inclusion requires active structural and cultural change within institutions, not merely diverse representation.
  • (b) Diversity and inclusion are interchangeable concepts referring to representation of different groups.
  • (c) Democracy automatically ensures inclusion without further institutional effort.
  • (d) Increasing the number of under-represented individuals in decision-making spaces is adequate to secure inclusion.

Question 135:

Diversity may bring people to the same room, but inclusion ensures that every voice is heard, valued, and allowed to shape the conversation. It demands that institutions go beyond representation to transformation, to question who holds the power, who defines norms, and whose stories remain unheard. It is the process of turning the promise of democracy into practice, one case, one reform, and one act of courage at a time.
Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the author's argument in the passage above? 

  • (a) Institutions that create deliberate mechanisms for inclusive participation tend to make more equitable and widely supported policy decisions.
  • (b) Employees value visible diversity in workplaces as a sign of progressive leadership.
  • (c) Efforts to improve inclusion sometimes face resistance from individuals who feel existing structures are already fair.
  • (d) In some organizations, diverse representation has increased, but decision-making continues to be dominated by a small core group.

Question 136:

A company switches to a 4-day workweek and observes no productivity drop. Leaders claim the schedule is efficient. Which assumption is needed to support the leaders' claim? \

  • (a) Productivity was measured accurately and comparably before and after the change.
  • (b) Employees prefer longer weekends due to higher tendency to burnout in longer weeks.
  • (c) Office rent decreased after the switch since people were only coming in for four days.
  • (d) Competitors already use a 4-day workweek.

Question 137:

Recruiters prefer candidates from top-tier colleges, believing they perform better. Which assumption underpins this practice? \

  • (a) Top-tier graduates always outperform others.
  • (b) Interviewers dislike screening many applicants.
  • (c) Reputation matters more than skill.
  • (d) College brand is a reliable proxy for a candidate's likely performance.

Question 138:

A survey finds most employees prefer flexible hours over a higher salary. Which inference is most reasonable? \

  • (a) Work-life balance is highly valued.
  • (b) Salary is unimportant to everyone.
  • (c) Only young workers were surveyed.
  • (d) Employees don't want promotions.

Question 139:

Complete the series: 4, 9, 19, 34, 54, ?

  • (a) 69
  • (b) 74
  • (c) 79
  • (d) 84

Question 140:

Complete the series: 3, 5, 9, 17, 33, ?

  • (a) 49
  • (b) 57
  • (c) 63
  • (d) 65

Question 141:

In a study on workplace productivity, employees with flexible schedules reported higher job satisfaction. However, productivity levels between flexible and fixed schedule employees were almost the same. Which conclusion can be logically drawn? \

  • (a) Job satisfaction always leads to higher productivity
  • (b) Productivity is influenced by factors other than work schedules
  • (c) Flexible schedules harm team coordination
  • (d) Most employees prefer fixed schedules

Question 142:

Public health officials warn that air pollution increases the risk of respiratory disease. A recent drop in pollution levels coincided with a fall in new respiratory disease cases. Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the officials’ warning? \

  • (a) Respiratory disease cases usually peak in winter
  • (b) The cities with the largest drop in pollution saw the largest fall in cases
  • (c) The decline in cases was higher in rural areas than urban areas
  • (d) There was a major health awareness campaign during the period

Question 143:

The government announced subsidies for electric vehicles (EVs) to encourage consumers to buy more EVs. However, sales of EVs remained stagnant. Which of the following, if true, would best explain the outcome? \

  • (a) Charging infrastructure for EVs remains inadequate
  • (b) EV manufacturers released new affordable models
  • (c) Petrol prices fell marginally during the period
  • (d) Public awareness about EVs increased significantly

Question 144:

A vaccine trial reports a 60% reduction in disease incidence in the trial population. Which is the safest inference? \

  • (a) The vaccine is effective in similar populations under similar conditions.
  • (b) The vaccine eliminates the disease everywhere.
  • (c) No further studies are needed.
  • (d) Effectiveness is identical across all age groups.

Question 145:

Complete the series: A2, C6, F12, J20, ?

  • (a) O30
  • (b) N32
  • (c) P32

Question 146:

All Poets write Poems. Some Poets are Critics. No Critic ignores Structure. Which of the following conclusion necessarily follows?

  • (a) Some Poets do not ignore structure
  • (b) All Critics write poems
  • (c) No Poet is a Critic
  • (d) Some Critics do not write poems

Question 147:

University examination department is attempting to devise a schedule for the end-term examination. The subjects are Constitutional Law, Taxation, Regulatory Governance, Sociology, and Criminal Law. Considerations: \
I. Regulatory Governance must follow Criminal Law

II. Sociology and Criminal Law cannot immediately precede or follow each other

III. Regulatory Governance must immediately precede Taxation

IV. Constitutional Law cannot be the first or last exam

V. Examinations for all subjects are held once.

Which of the following schedule is a valid schedule? \

  • (a) Sociology, Criminal Law, Constitutional Law, Regulatory Governance, Taxation
  • (b) Constitutional Law, Criminal Law, Regulatory Governance, Taxation, Sociology
  • (c) Sociology, Constitutional Law, Criminal Law, Regulatory Governance, Taxation
  • (d) Criminal Law, Constitutional Law, Taxation, Regulatory Governance, Sociology

Question 148:

Some Apps are Free. All Free Apps have Ads. Some Ad-supported Apps are high-rated. Which of the following conclusion necessarily follows?

  • (a) Some free apps are high-rated
  • (b) All high-rated apps have ads
  • (c) No free app is high-rated
  • (d) All ad-supported apps are free

Question 149:

Recycling bins are placed in a mall and trash volume falls. Which assumption is necessary to claim recycling caused the drop?

  • (a) People are driven towards recycling given the opportunity
  • (b) The aesthetics of the recycling infrastructure drives usage
  • (c) Mall footfall remained stable during the observation period
  • (d) Mall introduced fees for usage of bins

Question 150:

Introducing cycling lanes reduces minor collisions in a district. Which of the following more strongly supports the causal link between these events?

  • (a) Decline in collisions was largely confined to stretches of road where the new cycling lanes were introduced, with little change elsewhere in the district.
  • (b) After the introduction of the cycling lanes, the local government also launched a citywide awareness campaign promoting road safety for all commuters.
  • (c) Data from the same period show that average vehicular traffic volumes declined due to fuel price increases and the expansion of public transport routes.
  • (d) Several nearby districts, which did not introduce cycling lanes, reported similar reductions in minor collisions during that year. \