AP EAPCET (AP EAMCET) 2024 Question Paper May 16 Shift 2 : Download BiPC Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

SECTION-A
BIOLOGY

Question 1:

Taxonomic keys are based on

• (1) Morphological characters
• (2) Reproductive characters
• (3) Anatomical characters
• (4) Contrasting characters

Name the plant and body showing Cup or saucer shaped ascocarp

• (1) Penicillium, Perithecium
• (2) Claviceps, Cleistothecium
• (3) Neurospora, Apothecium
• (4) Aspergillus, Ascohecium

Identify wrong matching

• (1) I and III
• (2) II and III
• (3) I and IV
• (4) II and IV

Pyriform gametes with two laterally attached flagella are found in

• (1) Laminaria and Fucus
• (2) Sargassum and Volvox
• (3) Ectocarpus and Chara
• (4) Fucus and Fumaria

Stem tubes, Corn, Rhizome, Cladophyll, Bulbil, Stolon modifications shown by this correct sequence of plants

• (1) Potato, Ginger, Turmeric, Zaminkand, Dioscorea, Nerium
• (2) Potato, Zaminkand, Turmeric, Ginger, Agave, Asparagus
• (3) Potato, Ginger, Zaminkand, Asparagus, Agave, Nerium
• (4) Potato, Ginger, Zaminkand, Asparagus, Agave, Jasmine

Match the following list

• (1) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
• (2) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-E
• (3) I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-E
• (4) I-C, II-B, III-A, IV-B

Assertion [A]: Scale leaves of rhizome of ginger are vegetative propagules.

Reason [R]: Vegetative propagules of flowering plants are capable of giving new offsprings.

• (1) A and R are correct. R is the correct explanation of A.
  (2) A and R are correct. R is not the correct explanation of A.
  (3) A is correct but R is incorrect.
  (4) A is incorrect but R is correct.

Choose the correct statements related to plant reproduction

• (1) I, II, IV
  (2) I, II, III
  (3) II, III, IV
  (4) I, III, IV

Choose the correct combinations based on their Taxonomical features

• (1) I, III
  (2) II, III
  (3) II, IV
  (4) I, IV

Choose the correct statement:

• (1) I, II, III
  (2) I, II
  (3) II, III
  (4) I, III

Match the following

• (1) I-A, II-E, III-C, IV-D
  (2) I-B, II-E, III-D, IV-B
  (3) I-B, II-E, III-A, IV-D
  (4) I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A

Match the following

• (1) I-D, II-A, III-B, IV-C
  (2) I-D, II-E, III-B, IV-A
  (3) I-E, II-A, III-B, IV-C
  (4) I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-E

Number of chromosomes in maize root cells at G1 phase, after S and M phases respectively

• (1) 20, 20, 20
  (2) 20, 40, 20
  (3) 20, 10, 20
  (4) 20, 40, 40

Identify the correct statement regarding plant tissues

• (1) Permanent tissue is composed of meristematic cells
  (2) Cork tissue is a living tissue
  (3) Secondary cortex shows sclerenchyma cells filled with chloroplasts
  (4) Interfascicular cambium is a secondary meristem

Assertion (A): Secondary growth is absent in monocots generally.

Reason (R): Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed.

• (1) A and R are correct. R is the correct explanation of A.
  (2) A and R are correct. R is not the correct explanation of A.
  (3) A is correct but R is incorrect.
  (4) A is incorrect but R is correct.

Sclerenchyma tissue is present in this portion of this structure

• (1) Above secondary phloem in dicot stem
  (2) Above primary phloem in primary dicot stem
  (3) Above secondary xylem in secondary dicot stem
  (4) Above primary xylem in primary dicot stem

Hypostomatic condition, sunken stomata and stomatal hairs are found in this leaf

• (1) Nymphaea
  (2) Nerium
  (3) Typha
  (4) Sagittaria

Match the following

• (1) A-I-iv, B-II-iii, C-III-ii, D-IV-i
  (2) A-III-ii, B-II-iii, C-IV-i, D-I-iv
  (3) A-IV-i, B-III-ii, C-II-iii, D-I-iv
  (4) A-III-ii, B-I-ii, C-IV-iii, D-II-iv

Assertion (A): Root pressure does not play a major role in water movement in tall trees.

Reason (R): Root pressure is responsible for pushing up water to small heights in stem.

• (1) A and R are correct. R is the correct explanation of A.
  (2) A and R are correct. R is not the correct explanation of A.
  (3) A is correct but R is incorrect.
  (4) A is incorrect but R is correct.

Study and match the following Lists

• (1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-V
  (2) A-III, B-V, C-II, D-I
  (3) A-V, B-III, C-II, D-I
  (4) A-III, B-V, C-I, D-II

Find incorrect statements

• (1) C, D
  (2) A, C
  (3) A, B
  (4) B, D

Study the table and find deficiency symptoms shown in plants

• (1) A: Stunted growth, B: Chlorosis, C: Necrosis
  (2) A: Chlorosis, B: Necrosis, C: Inhibition of cell division
  (3) A: Delay flowering, B: Stunted growth, C: Chlorosis
  (4) A: Premature leaf fall, B: Necrosis, C: Chlorosis

Find out the incorrect statements regarding Enzymes

• (1) Km: Approximate inverse measure of the affinity of the enzyme for a given substrate.
  (2) Km: Approximate measure of the concentration of substrate at which the reaction rate is half of the maximum rate.
  (3) Enzymes generally function in a broad range of temperature and pH.
  (4) 2.7.1.2 is enzyme code for Glucose-6-Phosphotransferase.

The ratio of ATP generated, number of ATP and NADPH + H\(^+\) needed to produce net gain of one glucose in C\(_4\) plants

• (1) 1:2:1
  (2) 3:2:1
  (3) 4:1:2
  (4) 2:3:3

Study the following and choose the correct pair

• (1) II
  (2) I
  (3) II, III
  (4) I, III

Plants do not have respiratory organs due to the following reasons

• (1) II, III, IV
  (2) I, II, III
  (3) I, III, IV
  (4) I, II, IV

Study the Lists and find correct pairs

• (1) III, IV
  (2) II, III
  (3) I, II, III
  (4) I, III, IV

Choose correct combinations

• (1) I, III
  (2) II, IV
  (3) III, IV
  (4) I, II

Study and match the following lists

• (1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  (2) A-I-iii, B-III-ii, C-II-i, D-IV-iv
  (3) A-III, B-I-ii, C-IV-i, D-II-iii
  (4) A-II, B-IV-i, C-III-iv, D-I-ii

In the progeny of dihybrid cross of pea plant, the phenotype ratio between the proportions of recombinants and parent plants respectively is

• (1) 2:4
  (2) 4:2
  (3) 3:5
  (4) 5:3

In F2 progeny of dihybrid cross in pea plant the ratio of genotypes YyRR, yyRR, YyRR, Yyrr is

• (1) 2:3:3:2
  (2) 1:1:2:2
  (3) 4:1:2:1
  (4) 3:1:1:2

The number of cytosine molecules in a typical ds DNA molecule which is having 20 coils with 480 Hydrogen bonds.

• (1) 20
  (2) 80
  (3) 110
  (4) 50

Assertion (A): Lac mRNA is synthesized in the presence of inducer.

Reason (R): The activity of repressor protein is suppressed by inducer.

• (1) A and R are correct. R is the correct explanation of A.
  (2) A and R are correct. R is not the correct explanation of A.
  (3) A is correct but R is incorrect.
  (4) A is incorrect but R is correct.

In Lac Operon Z, Y, a and i indicates the following codes

• (A) \(\beta\) galactosidase, permease, transacetylase, repressor
• (B) Inducer, promoter, operator, repressor
• (C) trp, ara, his, val
• (D) Promoter, operator, repressor, inducer

Assertion (A): DNA fragments are positively charged.

Reason (R): DNA fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis technique.

• (A) A and R are correct. R is the correct explanation of A.
• (B) A and R are correct. R is not the correct explanation of A.
• (C) A is correct but R is incorrect.
• (D) A is incorrect but R is correct.

This nutrient is present more in Golden rice when compared to conventional rice.

• (A) Vitamin C
• (B) Iron
• (C) Calcium
• (D) Beta Carotene

Identify the Algae, fungi and bacterium used as SCP in serial.

• (A) Chlorella, Scenedesmus, Methylophilus
• (B) Chlorella, Candida, Scenedesmus
• (C) Spirulina, Candida, Methylophilus
• (D) Chaetomium, Candida, Brevibacterium

Choose the incorrect pair regarding plant tissue culture.

• (A) I, II
• (B) III, IV
• (C) II, III
• (D) I, IV

Assertion (A): Biological control developed for treatment of plant diseases.

Reason (R): Trichoderma are free living fungi common in root ecosystem.

• (A) A and R are correct. R is the correct explanation of A.
• (B) A and R are correct. R is not the correct explanation of A.
• (C) A is correct but R is incorrect.
• (D) A is incorrect but R is correct.

Choose the correct pair related to Bioactive compounds.

• (A) I, II
• (B) I, IV
• (C) II, III
• (D) I, III

Book published by John Ray.

• (A) Natural History
• (B) Systema Naturae
• (C) Origin of species
• (D) Historia Generalis Plantarum

Pick up the ex-situ conservation method.

• (A) National Parks
• (B) Sanctuaries
• (C) Gene Banks
• (D) Sacred Groves

In some non chordates, during embryonic development, mesoderm occupies only a part of blastocoel adjoining ectoderm. The unoccupied portion of blastocoel persists as.

• (A) Haemocoel
• (B) Schizocoelic coelom
• (C) Enterocoelic coelom
• (D) Pseudocoelom

Assertion (A): Bilaterally symmetrical animals are more efficient in seeking food, locating mate etc.

Reason (R): Cephalization.

• (A) Both A and R are true. R is correct explanation for A
• (B) Both A and R are true. But R is not correct explanation for A
• (C) A is true. But R is false
• (D) A is false. But R is true

Match the following:

• (A) Mast cells \quad \quad \quad \quad (I) Antibodies
• (B) Histocytes \quad \quad \quad \quad (II) Serotonin
• (C) Plasma cells \quad \quad \quad (III) Fibres
• (D) Adipocytes \quad \quad \quad (IV) Phagocytic cells

Statement I: Flame cells in flat worms help in osmoregulation and excretion.

Statement II: In chilopods maxillae are modified into gnathochilarium.

• (A) Both statements I and II are correct
• (B) Both statements I and II are false
• (C) Statement I is correct, but II is false
• (D) Statement I is false, but II is correct

Study the following and pick up the correct combinations:

• (A) I, II
• (B) II, III
• (C) III, IV
• (D) I, IV

Skull is monoconclyic in

• (A) Pisces, amphibians and reptiles
• (B) Reptiles, birds and mammals
• (C) Pisces, reptiles and birds
• (D) Amphibians, reptiles and birds

Match the following

• (A) Chelone
• (B) Draco
• (C) Bungarus
• (D) Physs

Type of pseudopodia present in Euglypha

• (A) Lobopodia
• (B) Reticulopodia
• (C) Filopodia
• (D) Axopodia

In binary fission two daughter euglena develop new flagella individually

• (A) Both the statements I and II are correct
• (B) Both statements I and II are false
• (C) Statement I is correct. But II is false
• (D) Statement I is false. But II is correct

Match the following

• (A) Filariasis
• (B) Malaria
• (C) Amoebiasis
• (D) Pneumonia

Identify the sequential life stages of Plasmodium in mosquito

• (A) Sporozoites
• (B) Zygote
• (C) Oocyst
• (D) Sporocyst
• (E) Sporoblast

The muscles help in the movement of the mandibles of Periplaneta

• (A) Adductor and abductor muscles
• (B) Dorso - ventral muscles
• (C) Alary muscles
• (D) Dorso - longitudinal muscles

Comparatively these are less harmful to the organisms

• (A) Ultra violet - A rays
• (B) Ultra violet - B rays
• (C) Ultra violet - C rays
• (D) X-rays

Identify the correct statement

• (A) 90% of CO2 is found in atmosphere
• (B) 90% of CO2 is found in oceans
• (C) Nitrogen is very less in living organisms
• (D) Phosphorus cycle is an example for sedimentary cycle
• (E) Burning of fossil fuels does not increase CO2 in atmosphere

Match the following

• (A) Eutrophication \(\) Demand of oxygen
• (B) Biomagnification \(\) Natural ageing of lake by nutrient enrichment
• (C) BOD \(\) Increasing pollutant concentration at successive trophic levels in aquatic food chain
• (D) Cultural eutrophication \(\) Human activity accelerates ageing process of lake

Which of the following digestive glands are found in the wall of intestine?

• (A) Cardiac glands and pyloric glands
• (B) Pyloric glands and oxyntic glands
• (C) Fundic glands and pyloric glands
• (D) Brunner's glands and crypts of Lieberkhun

Imagine that you are dining with your friend in a hotel. Suddenly your friend starts coughing while swallowing food. This coughing is attributed to the improper movement of...

• (A) Epiglottis
• (B) Ribs
• (C) Palate
• (D) Diaphragm

Identify the correct statements:

• (A) III and IV
• (B) I and II
• (C) III only
• (D) IV only

Correct sequence of events in the formation of urine

• (A) Reabsorption → Tubular Secretion → Filtration
• (B) Filtration → Tubular Secretion → Reabsorption
• (C) Filtration → Reabsorption → Tubular Secretion
• (D) Tubular Secretion → Micturition → Reabsorption

Match the following

• (A) Zygomatic bones → IV Cheek bones
• (B) Lacrimal bones → II Smallest bones of the face
• (C) Mandible → I Strongest of all the facial bones
• (D) Sphenoid bone → III Keystone bone of the cranium

Identify the cranial nerves that are mixed among the following

• (I) Trigeminal
  (II) Hypoglossal
  (III) Vagus
  (IV) Glossopharyngeal

Assertion (A): Thymosin plays a major role in cell-mediated immunity

Reason (R): Thymosin promotes the production of antibodies

• (A) Both A and R are true. R is the correct explanation of A
• (B) Both A and R are true. But R is not the correct explanation for A
• (C) A is true. But R is false
• (D) A is false. But R is true

Removal of this gland results in the death of an individual

• (A) Adrenal cortex
• (B) Testis
• (C) Thyroid gland
• (D) Thymus gland

Proteins that help in the destruction of the infected cells are

• (A) Caspases
• (B) Lysozymes
• (C) Colostrum
• (D) Interferons

Proteins that form membrane attack complex are

• (A) Cytokines
• (B) Interferons
• (C) Interleukins
• (D) Complement proteins

Identify incorrect combinations among the following

• (A) I & II
• (B) II & III
• (C) III & IV
• (D) IV & II

Identify the incorrect statements among the following

• (A) I & IV
• (B) II & III
• (C) III & IV
• (D) II & IV

Identify different types of intra uterine devices among the following

• (A) Lippes loop
• (B) Vaults
• (C) Multiload 375
• (D) LNG-20
• (E) Diaphragms

Haplodiploidy is a mechanism of sex determination that is common in

• (A) Cockroach
• (B) Birds
• (C) Bugs
• (D) Wasps

The increased sodium and chloride content in sweat and increased resorption of sodium and water from respiratory epithelium are genetic defects of

• (A) Chronic myelogenous leukemia
• (B) Duchenne muscular dystrophy
• (C) Cystic fibrosis
• (D) Thalassemia

The sequencing of whole set of genome containing all the coding and non-coding sequences is referred as

• (A) Sequence annotation
• (B) Single nucleotide polymorphism
• (C) Expressed sequence tags
• (D) Restriction fragment length polymorphism

Assertion (A): The Y Chromosome has no role in the determination of male sex in Drosophila.

Reason (R): In XO males, sperms develop but are non-motile.

• (A) A and R are true. R is correct explanation for A.
• (B) A and R are true. But R is not correct explanation for A.
• (C) A is true. But R is false.
• (D) A is false. But R is true.

Cynognathus is an intermediate form between

• (A) Pisces – Amphibians
• (B) Amphibia – Reptilia
• (C) Reptilia – Aves
• (D) Reptilia – Mammalia

The change in the frequency of a gene that occurs merely by chance and not by selection in small populations is called

• (A) Hardy – Weinberg law
• (B) Sewall Wright effect
• (C) Founder effect
• (D) Gene flow

Toxoids are the vaccines against

• (A) Diphtheria and Tetanus
• (B) Polio and Rabies
• (C) Cholera and Plague
• (D) Rubella and Mumps

Match the following

• (A) Omega 3 fatty acids
• (B) Fish guano
• (C) Shagreem
• (D) Isinglass

Two resistors of resistances \( (20 \pm 0.2) \, \Omega \) and \( (10 \pm 0.1) \, \Omega \) are connected in series. The equivalent resistance of the combination is:

• (A) \( 10 \, \Omega \pm 1% \)
• (B) \( 30 \, \Omega \pm 2% \)
• (C) \( 30 \, \Omega \pm 1% \)
• (D) \( 10 \, \Omega \pm 1% \)

A man walks up a stationary escalator in 80 s. When this man stands on the moving escalator, he goes up in 20 s. The time taken by the man to walk up on the moving escalator in seconds is:

• (A) 5
• (B) 16
• (C) 36
• (D) 10

A boat man finds that he can save 8 s in crossing a river by quickest path than by the shortest path. If the velocity of the boat and the river flow are 13 m/s and 12 m/s respectively, then the width of the river is:

• (A) 65 m
• (B) 56 m
• (C) 75 m
• (D) 57 m

The speed of a projectile at its maximum height is \( \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \) times its initial speed. If the range of the projectile is \( n \) times the maximum height attained by it, then \( n \) is equal to:

• (1) \( \frac{4}{3} \)
• (2) \( 2\sqrt{3} \)
• (3) \( 4\sqrt{3} \)
• (4) \( 3/4 \)

A car is moving on a horizontal curved road of radius 50 m. If the friction coefficient between tyres and road is 0.34, the approximate maximum speed of the car will be nearly:

• (1) \( 3.4 \, ms^{-1} \)
• (2) \( 22.4 \, ms^{-1} \)
• (3) \( 13 \, ms^{-1} \)
• (4) \( 17 \, ms^{-1} \)

The blocks A and B weighing 100 N and 250 N respectively are placed one over the other as shown in the figure. Block B rests on a smooth surface. The coefficient of static friction between A and B is 0.4. When \( F = 250 \, N \), the acceleration of the upper block is (Take acceleration due to gravity, \( g = 10 \, m/s^2 \)):

• (1) \( 8.4 \, ms^{-2} \)
• (2) \( 25 \, ms^{-2} \)
• (3) \( 6 \, ms^{-2} \)
• (4) \( 21 \, ms^{-2} \)

The momentum of a body of mass 2 kg is 10 kg m/s. A force 2 N acts on the body in the direction of motion for 5 s. The increase in kinetic energy is:

• (1) \( 100 \, J \)
• (2) \( 75 \, J \)
• (3) \( 125 \, J \)
• (4) \( 50 \, J \)

Direct solar energy is incident on the horizontal surface at an average rate of 200 W/m². If 20% of this energy can be converted to useful electrical energy, how much area is needed to supply 8 kW?

• (1) \(1000 \, m^2 \)
• (2) \(100 \, m^2 \)
• (3) \(200 \, m^2 \)
• (4) \(2000 \, m^2 \)

A motor car is moving at 40 m/s on a circular road of radius 400 m. If its speed is increasing at the rate of 3 m/s², then its acceleration is:

• (1) \( 3 \, m/s^2 \)
• (2) \( 2.7 \, m/s^2 \)
• (3) \( 5 \, m/s^2 \)
• (4) \( 3.3 \, m/s^2 \)

Two objects of masses 2 kg and 5 kg possess velocities \( 10 \hat{i} \, m/s \) and \( 3 \hat{i} + 5 \hat{j} \, m/s \) respectively. Then the velocity of C.M. in m/s is:

• (1) \( 5 \hat{i} - 25 \hat{j} \)
• (2) \( 5 \hat{i} + \frac{25}{7} \hat{j} \)
• (3) \( \frac{5}{7} \hat{i} - 25 \hat{j} \)
• (4) \( 25 \hat{i} - \frac{5}{7} \hat{j} \)

A simple pendulum with a bob of mass \( m \) and density \( \rho \) and length \( l \) is immersed in a liquid of density \( \sigma \). If it makes small oscillations, then the time period of the pendulum is:

• (1) \( T = 2\pi \left( \frac{1}{\sqrt{g - \rho}} \right) \)
• (2) \( T = 2\pi \left( \frac{1}{\sqrt{g(1 - \rho)}} \right) \)
• (3) \( T = 2\pi \left( \frac{1}{\sqrt{g(\rho - \sigma)}} \right) \)
• (4) \( T = 2\pi \left( \frac{1}{\sqrt{g(1 - \frac{\rho}{\sigma})}} \right) \)

The period of oscillation of a particle in simple harmonic motion is 4 s, and its amplitude is 4 cm. Then the distance of the particle in \( \frac{1}{3} \) seconds after passing the mean position is:

• (1) 1.5 cm
• (2) 2 cm
• (3) 2.3 cm
• (4) 2.5 cm

The depth \( d \) at which the value of acceleration due to gravity becomes \( \frac{1}{n} \) times the value at the surface (radius of Earth \( R \)) is:

• (1) \( \frac{R}{n} \)
• (2) \( \frac{R(n - 1)}{n} \)
• (3) \( \frac{R(n)}{n + 1} \)
• (4) \( \frac{R}{n^2} \)

A block of mass 100 g is attached to the end of a string of unknown material of 50 cm long and cross-sectional area of \(2 \, cm^2\). When the block is whirled horizontally at a constant angular speed of 40 m/s, it moves along a circular path of radius 52 cm. Young's modulus of the material is:

• (1) \(6.4 \times 10^8 \, dyne cm^{-2}\)
• (2) \(16.64 \times 10^8 \, dyne cm^{-2}\)
• (3) \(4 \times 10^8 \, dyne cm^{-2}\)
• (4) \(8.32 \times 10^8 \, dyne cm^{-2}\)

The reading of a pressure-meter attached to a closed pipe (with water) is \(3.5 \times 10^5 \, Nm^{-2}\). On opening the valve of the pipe, the reading is reduced to \(3.0 \times 10^5 \, Nm^{-2}\). The speed of the water flowing out the pipe is:

• (1) \(10 \, ms^{-1}\)
• (2) \(0.1 \, ms^{-1}\)
• (3) \(1 \, ms^{-1}\)
• (4) \(5 \, ms^{-1}\)

200 g of water is heated from 40\degree C to 60\degree C. The change in its internal energy (No expansion is taken place) specific heat of water is 4200 J/kg\degree C:

• (1) 16.8 kJ
• (2) 10.8 kJ
• (3) 8.4 kJ
• (4) 14.8 kJ

A 25 kW drilling machine is drilled for 4 minutes to bore a hole in an aluminium block of mass \(20 \times 10^3\) kg. If 40% of the work done is utilized to raise the temperature of the block and if the specific heat of aluminium is \(0.9 \, kJ/kg^\circ C\), then the rise in temperature of aluminium block is:

• (1) 266.3\degree C
• (2) 66.66\degree C
• (3) 133.3\degree C
• (4) 70\degree C

A diatomic gas does a work of \( \frac{Q}{4} \) when a heat of \( Q \) is supplied to it. Then the molar heat capacity of the gas is:

• (1) \( C = 3R \)
• (2) \( C = \frac{5}{3}R \)
• (3) \( C = \frac{10}{3}R \)
• (4) \( C = \frac{5}{2}R \)

Which of the following is incorrect regarding the first law of thermodynamics?

• (1) It introduces the concept of internal energy
• (2) It introduces the concept of entropy
• (3) It is applicable to any cyclic process
• (4) It is a restatement of the law of conservation of energy

At a given temperature, arrange the gases hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen in the order of maximum rms speeds:

• (1) Hydrogen > Nitrogen > Oxygen
• (2) Nitrogen > Hydrogen > Oxygen
• (3) Oxygen > Nitrogen > Hydrogen
• (4) Hydrogen = Nitrogen = Oxygen

On a sonometer, the lengths of two wires are in the ratio \( \frac{35}{34} \), diameters are in the ratio \( \frac{4}{1} \), densities are in the ratio 1:2 and the tensions in the string are in the ratio 8:1. If the note of higher pitch has frequency of 350 Hz then find the frequency of the beats produced when sounded together:

• (1) 20 Hz
• (2) 7 Hz
• (3) 5 Hz
• (4) 10 Hz

Three glass slabs A, B, C of different media are arranged as shown in the figure. Refractive index of B is 1.3 and the refractive index of C is 1.7. If the number of waves passing through B and C are equal to the total number of waves passing through B and C, then the refractive index of slab A is:

• (1) 1.5
• (2) 1.6
• (3) 1.2
• (4) 1.0

In Young's double slit experiment, the intensity on the screen where the path difference between the two interfering waves is \( \frac{\lambda}{4} \) is \( K \). What will be the intensity at the point where the path difference is \( \frac{\lambda}{4} \)?

• (1) \( \frac{K}{4} \)
• (2) \( \frac{K}{2} \)
• (3) \( K \)
• (4) Zero

Two like charges are separated in air by a certain distance. The air is replaced with a dielectric medium of constant \( K \). Then the repulsive force between them:

• (1) Decrease by \( K \) times
• (2) Increase by \( K \) times
• (3) No change
• (4) \( K^2 \) times decreases

The resultant capacitance of parallel combination of two capacitors \( C_1 \) and \( C_2 \) is 20 µF. When these capacitors are individually connected to a voltage source of 1V, then the energy stored in \( C_2 \) is 9 times that of \( C_1 \). If these two capacitors are connected in series, the resultant capacitance value is:

• (1) 1.4 µF
• (2) 8 µF
• (3) 18 µF
• (4) 1.8 µF

A unit positive charge is moved from point A to point B by a distance of 20 cm, on an equipotential surface as shown in the figure. The work done to move this charge is:

• (1) \(2 \, J\)
• (2) \(0 \, J\)
• (3) \(0.2 \, J\)
• (4) \(0.02 \, J\)

A metallic wire of resistance 30 \( \Omega \) is bent in the form of an equilateral triangle. The resistance between any two vertices of the triangle is:

• (1) \(3.67 \, \Omega\)
• (2) \(6.36 \, \Omega\)
• (3) \(3.36 \, \Omega\)
• (4) \(6.67 \, \Omega\)

In the given circuit the currents are \( I_1 = 5A \), \( I_4 = 10A \), and \( I_5 = 15A \). Analyzing the circuit using Kirchhoff’s laws, then \( I_2 \), \( I_3 \), and \( I_6 \) values are:

• (1) \( I_2 = 15 \, A, I_3 = 10 \, A, I_6 = 5 \, A \)
• (2) \( I_2 = 15 \, A, I_3 = 5 \, A, I_6 = 15 \, A \)
• (3) \( I_2 = 2 \, A, I_3 = 4 \, A, I_6 = 15 \, A \)
• (4) \( I_2 = -15 \, A, I_3 = -5 \, A, I_6 = 5 \, A \)

A conducting rod of length \( l \) and mass \( m \) is placed over a smooth horizontal plane. A magnetic field \( B \) is acting perpendicular to the rod. If a charge \( q \) is suddenly passed through the rod and the rod acquires an initial velocity \( v \) on the plane surface, then the charge \( q \) is:

• (1) \( \frac{m v}{B l} \)
• (2) \( \frac{m}{v B l} \)
• (3) \( \frac{m v}{B l} \)
• (4) \( \frac{1 B v}{m} \)

In a Galvanometer, if the number of turns in the coil are doubled, then the electrical current sensitivity will be:

• (1) Halved
• (2) Sensitivity is independent of number of turns in coil
• (3) Doubled
• (4) Four times the initial value

Relative permeability (\(\mu_r\)) of a sample is given by \(1 < \mu_r < 1 + \epsilon\), where \(\epsilon\) is a small positive number. Then the nature of the sample is:

• (1) Diamagnetic material
• (2) Paramagnetic material
• (3) Ferro magnetic material
• (4) Super conducting material

A coil having 0.64 mH inductance and 0.8 \(\Omega\) resistance connected to a battery of 12 V. The energy stored in the magnetic field created by that coil is:

• (1) \(32 \times 10^{-3} \, J\)
• (2) \(81 \times 10^{-3} \, J\)
• (3) \(64 \times 10^{-3} \, J\)
• (4) \(72 \times 10^{-3} \, J\)

An inductor of inductive reactance 80 \(\Omega\) and a resistor of resistance 60 \(\Omega\) are connected in series to an ac source. The impedance and the power factor of the circuit are respectively:

• (1) 20 \(\Omega\), 0.4
• (2) 60 \(\Omega\), 0.6
• (3) 100 \(\Omega\), 0.4
• (4) 100 \(\Omega\), 0.6

A magnetron valve is used to produce:

• (1) Gamma rays
• (2) Microwaves
• (3) Radio waves
• (4) X-rays