BIHAR Board Class 12  Question Paper 2025 PDF with Answer Key and Solutions PDF is available for download here.

BIHAR Board Class 12  Question Paper 2025 with Solutions PDF

 BIHAR Board Class 12  Question Paper 2025 with Solutions PDF download iconDownload Check Solutions
Bihar Board Class 12 Home Science Set E

Question 1:

Absorbency is the special property of which textile?

  • (A) Cotton
  • (B) Woolen
  • (C) Silk
  • (D) Polyester
Correct Answer: (A) Cotton
View Solution

Absorbency is the ability of a material, especially a textile, to soak up or retain moisture. In the context of textiles, absorbency is a crucial property that defines how well a fabric can draw in moisture from the surrounding environment, such as sweat or water.

Among the materials listed in the options, Cotton is the most absorbent textile. This is because cotton fibers have a unique structure that allows them to absorb large amounts of water. Cotton fibers are highly porous and consist of cellulose, which is naturally hygroscopic (meaning it has a tendency to absorb water). When cotton comes into contact with moisture, the water is absorbed into the spaces between the fibers.

Let’s break down the characteristics of each fabric to understand why cotton stands out in terms of absorbency:

1. Cotton :
Cotton is a natural fiber that is made up of cellulose, which is highly capable of absorbing water. Its absorbent properties make it ideal for use in products such as towels, bathrobes, and sheets. Cotton can absorb up to 27 times its weight in water, making it the go-to fabric for items that need to soak up moisture. Additionally, cotton is breathable, which adds to its comfort, particularly in hot and humid conditions.

2. Woolen :
Wool is a natural fiber derived from the fleece of sheep. While wool is known for its warmth and insulating properties, it is less absorbent than cotton. Wool fibers do absorb moisture, but they do so without feeling wet to the touch, thanks to their structure. Wool has the ability to absorb moisture up to 30% of its weight without feeling damp, which makes it useful in colder climates. However, in terms of pure absorbency, it does not match the performance of cotton.

3. Silk :
Silk is a natural fiber produced by silkworms. It is known for its smooth texture and luxurious appearance. Silk does have some absorbent properties, but it is not as absorbent as cotton. It can absorb moisture up to 11% of its weight before it begins to feel damp. Silk is more often used for its aesthetic properties, such as in clothing, than for moisture-wicking capabilities.

4. Polyester :
Polyester is a synthetic fiber made from petrochemical products. Unlike natural fibers, polyester does not absorb moisture well. Instead, it tends to repel water and dries quickly. This makes it useful for athletic wear, where moisture management (i.e., wicking away sweat) is a priority. However, polyester is not an absorbent fabric in the same way cotton is, and it doesn't have the same moisture-retention ability.

Thus, based on the properties mentioned, Cotton is the textile that stands out for its superior absorbency. Quick Tip: For textiles, absorbency is often associated with the fiber's ability to hold moisture, which makes natural fibers like cotton and wool particularly suitable for products in contact with water or sweat. In contrast, synthetic fibers like polyester are designed to resist moisture absorption, making them ideal for sports and performance wear.


Question 2:

What should be the clothes worn on the occasion of mourning?

  • (A) White
  • (B) Colourful
  • (C) Flashy
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) White
View Solution

The appropriate clothing worn during mourning varies significantly across different cultures and traditions. However, there are some general conventions that are commonly followed around the world.

1. White :
In many cultures, white is the color traditionally associated with mourning. This is particularly true in cultures such as those in India, East Asia (like Japan and China), and some African nations. White clothing symbolizes purity, peace, and the transition of the soul after death. Wearing white during mourning is a way to show respect for the deceased and to represent the light or spiritual peace they have transitioned to.

For instance:
- In India, white is worn by those who are grieving the loss of a loved one. The attire is simple and unadorned, reflecting the somber mood of mourning.
- In China and Japan, mourners also wear white or off-white clothing as a mark of respect for the deceased.

2. Colourful :
Wearing colorful clothing is generally not appropriate during mourning in many cultures. Bright and vibrant colors are usually associated with celebration and happiness, making them unsuitable for a solemn occasion like mourning. However, in some cultures (for example, in certain parts of Africa or South America), colorful attire may be worn to celebrate the life of the deceased or to express joy for their life, rather than focusing on sadness.

In most contexts, though, colorful clothing is avoided during mourning, as it can be seen as disrespectful.

3. Flashy :
Flashy, elaborate, or ostentatious clothing is typically avoided during mourning. The focus during a mourning period is on humility, respect, and reverence for the deceased. Flashy attire may be considered inappropriate as it draws attention and detracts from the solemnity of the occasion.

4. None of These :
This option suggests that none of the provided clothing choices are appropriate, but given that white is traditionally worn in many cultures for mourning, this option would not be correct.

Thus, the most universally accepted color for mourning attire is white , as it symbolizes purity, peace, and respect for the deceased. Quick Tip: In different cultures, the color worn during mourning can vary. In the West, black is traditionally worn, while in many Eastern and African cultures, white or simple, unadorned clothing is more common. It’s important to consider the cultural context when choosing attire for mourning.


Question 3:

Which of the following is not an endocrine gland?

  • (A) Pituitary gland
  • (B) Thyroid gland
  • (C) Salivary gland
  • (D) Adrenal gland
Correct Answer: (C) Salivary gland
View Solution

Endocrine glands are specialized glands that secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream, rather than through ducts, in order to regulate various physiological processes in the body. The key difference between endocrine glands and exocrine glands lies in the way they release their secretions. Endocrine glands release hormones into the bloodstream to target specific organs or tissues, while exocrine glands secrete substances through ducts to an external surface or cavity (such as sweat, digestive enzymes, or saliva).

Let's analyze the options:

1. Pituitary gland (Option A) :
The pituitary gland is a small but highly important endocrine gland located at the base of the brain. It is often referred to as the "master gland" because it controls the function of other endocrine glands, such as the thyroid, adrenal glands, and gonads. It secretes hormones like growth hormone (GH), thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), and many others that regulate growth, metabolism, and reproduction.

2. Thyroid gland (Option B) :
The thyroid gland is another crucial endocrine gland located in the neck. It produces thyroid hormones (T3 and T4) that regulate metabolism, energy levels, and overall growth. The thyroid plays a key role in the body’s metabolic processes and in regulating the body's temperature and heart rate.

3. Salivary gland (Option C) :
The salivary gland , in contrast to the previous glands, is not an endocrine gland but an exocrine gland. It secretes saliva through ducts into the mouth, aiding in digestion and lubrication. Salivary glands are responsible for producing enzymes like amylase that break down carbohydrates in the mouth, and they do not release their secretions directly into the bloodstream.

4. Adrenal gland (Option D) :
The adrenal glands are endocrine glands located on top of the kidneys. These glands produce important hormones like adrenaline (epinephrine), cortisol, and aldosterone, which help regulate stress responses, metabolism, and electrolyte balance. They play a crucial role in the body's response to stress and the regulation of many vital functions.

Thus, the salivary gland (Option C) is the correct answer, as it is an exocrine gland, not an endocrine gland. Quick Tip: Endocrine glands release hormones directly into the bloodstream, whereas exocrine glands use ducts to secrete substances outside the body or into a body cavity. Examples of exocrine glands include salivary glands, sweat glands, and pancreas (for digestive enzymes).


Question 4:

On the basis of duration, which of the following is a type of budget?

  • (A) Daily budget
  • (B) Weekly budget
  • (C) Annual budget
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution

Budgets can be classified into different types based on their duration, which refers to the period of time over which the budget is planned and executed. Organizations, governments, and individuals create budgets to manage their financial resources effectively within a specific time frame.

Let’s break down the different types of budgets based on duration:

1. Daily Budget (Option A) :
A daily budget is created for a very short time frame, typically 24 hours. This type of budget is often used in situations where precise control over expenses is needed on a daily basis, such as for small businesses or personal finance management. Daily budgets are useful for tracking and controlling small-scale expenditures on a day-to-day basis.

2. Weekly Budget (Option B) :
A weekly budget is designed to cover a week’s worth of financial planning. This type of budget is commonly used by individuals, households, or businesses that want to track their expenses on a weekly basis. A weekly budget provides a bit more flexibility than a daily budget but still allows for effective short-term financial control. It helps in planning for recurring expenses like groceries, utilities, and weekly travel costs.

3. Annual Budget (Option C) :
An annual budget is a long-term financial plan that covers a full year. This type of budget is often used by governments, large organizations, and businesses to forecast their revenue and expenditures for the year ahead. It helps allocate funds for various activities and projects, ensuring that there are enough resources for operations over a 12-month period. For individuals, an annual budget is also common to plan for big expenses, like vacations, education, or investments.

4. All of these (Option D) :
All of the options listed (daily, weekly, and annual) are types of budgets based on duration. The selection of the appropriate budget type depends on the time frame for financial planning and the level of detail needed. While daily and weekly budgets are more focused on short-term planning, an annual budget takes a broader, long-term approach to managing finances.

Thus, the correct answer is All of these , as each of these types of budgets (daily, weekly, and annual) is classified based on the duration of the financial planning period. Quick Tip: Budgets can be categorized not only by duration but also by purpose (e.g., operating, capital, or cash flow budgets). The choice of budget depends on the specific needs and time horizons of the entity or individual.


Question 5:

Which of the following is a source of calcium?

  • (A) Milk
  • (B) Curd
  • (C) Paneer
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution

Calcium is an essential mineral that plays a vital role in maintaining strong bones and teeth, supporting muscle function, nerve signaling, and helping blood clotting. It is found in a variety of foods, particularly in dairy products, which are known for being rich sources of calcium. Let’s look at the sources listed in the options:

1. Milk (Option A) :
Milk is one of the most well-known sources of calcium. It is a rich source of bioavailable calcium, meaning that the body can absorb and use it efficiently. A typical serving of milk provides a significant portion of the daily recommended intake of calcium. It also contains other nutrients like protein and vitamin D, which further aid in calcium absorption and bone health.

2. Curd (Option B) :
Curd, or yogurt, is another excellent source of calcium. It is made by fermenting milk, and during this process, the calcium content remains intact. Additionally, curd contains beneficial probiotics that can promote digestive health. Like milk, curd is a great choice for increasing calcium intake.

3. Paneer (Option C) :
Paneer, a type of fresh cheese made from milk, is also a rich source of calcium. Being a dairy product, paneer contains calcium in significant amounts, making it an important source for vegetarians who may not consume other forms of animal products. Paneer also provides high-quality protein, which is beneficial for overall health.

4. All of these (Option D) :
All the options—milk, curd, and paneer—are rich sources of calcium. These dairy products are essential in many diets, particularly for bone health, and are commonly consumed to meet the body's calcium needs.

Since all three of these options (milk, curd, and paneer) are excellent sources of calcium, the correct answer is All of these . Quick Tip: In addition to dairy products, other non-dairy sources of calcium include leafy green vegetables (like spinach and kale), fortified plant-based milks (such as almond and soy milk), and calcium-fortified juices. Always ensure adequate vitamin D intake as it helps the body absorb calcium effectively.


Question 6:

Which of the following items does not have the AGMARK mark?

  • (A) Mustard oil
  • (B) Pulses
  • (C) Cereal
  • (D) Jam
Correct Answer: (C) Cereal
View Solution

AGMARK (Agricultural Mark) is a certification mark used in India to signify the quality of agricultural products. The mark ensures that the product meets the standards set by the Directorate of Marketing and Inspection (DMI), which is under the Ministry of Agriculture, Government of India. The AGMARK certification is typically used for agricultural products like oils, pulses, spices, and other commodities.

Let’s break down each of the options:

1. Mustard Oil (Option A) :
Mustard oil is a product derived from mustard seeds and is commonly used in cooking. In India, mustard oil is often certified with the AGMARK mark to ensure its quality, purity, and adherence to food safety standards. Therefore, mustard oil does have the AGMARK certification.

2. Pulses (Option B) :
Pulses such as lentils, chickpeas, and beans are commonly sold with the AGMARK certification. The certification helps in assuring the consumer that the pulses are of good quality and free from contaminants. Pulses are typically subjected to quality checks, and AGMARK is one of the marks used to guarantee their standard. So, pulses do have the AGMARK mark.

3. Cereal (Option C) :
Cereal typically refers to grains such as wheat, rice, maize, oats, and barley. While cereals are essential food items, they are not typically required to bear the AGMARK mark. Cereal grains do not fall under the scope of AGMARK certification, as the mark is primarily used for processed agricultural products. Therefore, cereals do not have the AGMARK mark.

4. Jam (Option D) :
Jam, being a processed food product made from fruits and sugar, often undergoes various quality checks and is sometimes certified by different food safety standards, including AGMARK. Since jam is a processed product, it can be certified with the AGMARK mark, which ensures that the product meets the required standards for hygiene, quality, and purity. Hence, jam does have the AGMARK mark.

Therefore, the correct answer is Cereal (Option C), as it does not typically carry the AGMARK certification. Quick Tip: AGMARK certification is important for ensuring the quality and safety of agricultural products in India. It is generally used for products like oils, spices, and pulses, but not for all food products, especially unprocessed cereals.


Question 7:

Which of the following products has the ISI mark?

  • (A) Fruits
  • (B) Iron
  • (C) Vegetables
  • (D) Cereal
Correct Answer: (B) Iron
View Solution

The ISI (Indian Standards Institution) mark is a certification mark used for products in India to indicate that they conform to the standards set by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS). The ISI mark is a symbol of quality assurance and safety, signifying that the product has undergone testing and complies with the standards prescribed by BIS.

Let’s break down the options:

1. Fruits (Option A) :
Fruits are natural products and are generally not subject to ISI certification. ISI marks are used for industrial and manufactured goods to ensure quality and safety, but they do not apply to perishable items like fruits. Fruits are inspected for quality and safety through other means (like food safety standards), but they do not have an ISI mark. So, fruits do not have the ISI mark .

2. Iron (Option B) :
Iron (in the context of products like iron rods or iron sheets) is a manufactured product and can indeed carry the ISI mark. ISI certification ensures that the iron products meet the required standards of quality, strength, and durability. Iron products such as rods and sheets used in construction are often certified with the ISI mark to indicate they comply with the specified standards. Therefore, iron products do have the ISI mark .

3. Vegetables (Option C) :
Like fruits, vegetables are also natural agricultural products and do not carry the ISI mark. They are inspected for quality, but the ISI mark is typically not used for fresh produce like vegetables. Vegetables do not have the ISI mark .

4. Cereal (Option D) :
Cereal products such as packaged cereals may have various quality certifications, but the ISI mark is generally not applicable to cereals. While some processed food items may have certifications like FSSAI (Food Safety and Standards Authority of India), ISI certification is not typically used for food products such as cereals. Therefore, cereals do not have the ISI mark .

Thus, the correct answer is Iron (Option B), as it is a manufactured product that can carry the ISI mark to indicate compliance with quality standards. Quick Tip: The ISI mark is used primarily for industrial products such as steel, electrical appliances, and construction materials. It ensures that these products meet the safety and quality standards defined by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS).


Question 8:

Clothes do not protect us from

  • (A) Weather
  • (B) Insects
  • (C) Dust
  • (D) Enemy
Correct Answer: (D) Enemy
View Solution

Clothing serves multiple protective roles for humans, helping to shield the body from various external elements and environmental factors. However, there are limitations to the protection clothes provide. Let's break down the options to understand what clothes protect us from:

1. Weather (Option A) :
Clothes are designed to protect us from different weather conditions, such as cold, heat, rain, and sun. For example:
- Winter clothing like coats, jackets, and gloves protect us from the cold by providing insulation.
- Summer clothes made from light, breathable fabrics protect us from heat and help regulate body temperature.
- Raincoats and umbrellas protect us from rain.
- Sunglasses and hats protect our eyes and face from the harmful effects of sun exposure.

Therefore, clothes do indeed protect us from weather .

2. Insects (Option B) :
Clothes also provide protection from insects, such as mosquitoes, flies, and ticks. Wearing long sleeves, pants, and other protective clothing helps prevent insect bites and reduces the risk of diseases that can be transmitted by insects. In some areas, insect-repellent clothing or mosquito nets are specifically designed to protect against insect bites.

Thus, clothes help protect us from insects .

3. Dust (Option C) :
Clothes help to some extent in protecting us from dust. For example, wearing scarves or masks (along with clothes) can protect our respiratory system from inhaling dust particles, particularly in areas with high pollution or during activities like construction. Additionally, clothes themselves can absorb some dust particles, reducing direct exposure to the skin.

Therefore, clothes do provide protection from dust .

4. Enemy (Option D) :
While clothes provide physical protection from various environmental factors, they do not offer protection from an enemy in a combat or physical confrontation. Protection from enemies requires other forms of defense, such as weapons, armor, or strategic measures. Clothes, in this case, do not offer adequate defense against hostile forces.

Hence, clothes do not protect us from enemies .

Therefore, the correct answer is (D) Enemy . Quick Tip: While clothes provide essential protection against weather, insects, and dust, physical defense against threats like enemies requires more specialized protection, such as armor or security measures.


Question 9:

Which gland is found in the neck?

  • (A) Adrenal gland
  • (B) Pituitary gland
  • (C) Thyroid gland
  • (D) Thymus gland
Correct Answer: (C) Thyroid gland
View Solution

The glands mentioned in the options are part of the endocrine system, which is responsible for producing hormones that regulate various bodily functions. Let’s review each gland and its location:

1. Adrenal Gland (Option A) :
The adrenal glands are located on top of the kidneys, not in the neck. These glands are responsible for producing hormones such as adrenaline, cortisol, and aldosterone, which help the body respond to stress, regulate metabolism, and control blood pressure.

Therefore, the adrenal glands are not found in the neck.

2. Pituitary Gland (Option B) :
The pituitary gland is located at the base of the brain, specifically within a bony structure called the sella turcica, just behind the nasal cavity. The pituitary gland is often referred to as the "master gland" because it controls other endocrine glands, such as the thyroid, adrenal glands, and gonads.

So, the pituitary gland is not found in the neck.

3. Thyroid Gland (Option C) :
The thyroid gland is located in the front of the neck, just below the Adam's apple. It is shaped like a butterfly and plays a crucial role in regulating metabolism by producing thyroid hormones (T3 and T4). The thyroid gland helps control the rate at which the body uses energy and is vital for growth, development, and overall health.

Therefore, the thyroid gland is found in the neck.

4. Thymus Gland (Option D) :
The thymus gland is located in the upper part of the chest, just behind the sternum, and above the heart. It is an important part of the immune system, particularly during childhood, as it helps in the development and maturation of T-cells, which are crucial for immune defense.

The thymus gland is not located in the neck, but rather in the chest area.

Thus, the correct answer is (C) Thyroid gland , as it is the gland located in the neck. Quick Tip: The thyroid gland plays a significant role in metabolism regulation, and its proper function is essential for maintaining energy levels and overall health. It is easily palpable in the neck area.


Question 10:

Which of the following is a food preservation method?

  • (A) Dehydration
  • (B) Freezing
  • (C) Canning
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution

Food preservation methods are techniques used to extend the shelf life of food, prevent spoilage, and maintain nutritional value, flavor, and texture. Several methods are employed to preserve food, and the options provided all fall under various techniques commonly used for food preservation.

Let’s go through each option:

1. Dehydration (Option A) :
Dehydration is a method of food preservation in which moisture is removed from food, thereby preventing the growth of bacteria, yeasts, and molds. This can be done through various methods such as air-drying, sun-drying, or using dehydrators. Common foods that are preserved through dehydration include fruits, vegetables, and meats (e.g., jerky). Dehydrated foods are lightweight, easy to store, and have a long shelf life.

2. Freezing (Option B) :
Freezing is another widely used food preservation method in which food is stored at low temperatures (usually below 0°C or 32°F). This method slows down the enzymatic and microbial activity that causes spoilage. Freezing is suitable for a wide range of foods, including fruits, vegetables, meats, and prepared dishes. Proper packaging is essential to prevent freezer burn and maintain food quality over time.

3. Canning (Option C) :
Canning involves sealing food in airtight containers (usually glass jars or metal cans) and then heating them to destroy harmful microorganisms and enzymes that cause spoilage. This method helps to preserve a variety of foods, including fruits, vegetables, meats, and sauces. The heating process also creates a vacuum seal that prevents new microorganisms from entering the container. Canning is effective in maintaining the taste and texture of food for extended periods.

4. All of These (Option D) :
As mentioned above, all three options— dehydration, freezing, and canning —are established and effective methods of food preservation. They each serve the purpose of extending the shelf life of food by slowing or halting microbial growth and enzymatic activity.

Thus, the correct answer is (D) All of these , as all of the listed methods are common and effective techniques for food preservation. Quick Tip: Food preservation not only extends shelf life but also helps maintain nutritional value. To get the best results, it’s essential to choose the right method for the type of food being preserved and follow proper procedures.


Question 11:

Which of the following is an adulterant added to milk?

  • (A) Starch
  • (B) Metanil yellow
  • (C) Argemone
  • (D) Soap stone
Correct Answer: (B) Metanil yellow
View Solution

Adulteration of food products involves the addition of harmful or foreign substances to increase the volume or alter the appearance of the product, often to deceive consumers or increase profit. In the case of milk, several types of adulterants can be added to alter its composition or appearance. Let's analyze each option:

1. Starch (Option A) :
Starch is often used as an adulterant in milk to increase its volume and give the appearance of creaminess. It can be added in small quantities, but it doesn't significantly change the nutritional properties of the milk. While starch can be used to adulterate milk, it is not as common as other adulterants like Metanil yellow or soapstone . Hence, starch is not the most prevalent or harmful adulterant for milk.

2. Metanil yellow (Option B) :
Metanil yellow is a harmful synthetic dye that is sometimes added to milk to enhance its color and make it appear fresher or richer in fat content. However, it is toxic and poses health risks, including skin allergies, gastrointestinal problems, and potential carcinogenic effects. The addition of Metanil yellow to milk is illegal and dangerous. It is the correct answer because it is a known adulterant in milk and poses significant health hazards.

3. Argemone (Option C) :
Argemone is a plant whose seeds are sometimes mixed with milk to increase volume. However, Argemone seeds contain toxins that can cause serious health issues, such as food poisoning, respiratory problems, and damage to the liver and kidneys. Although Argemone is a common adulterant in vegetable oils , it is not as commonly associated with milk adulteration as Metanil yellow or soapstone.

4. Soap stone (Option D) :
Soap stone , also known as talc powder , is sometimes added to milk to thicken it and increase its volume. However, soapstone is not commonly found in milk adulteration in large-scale cases. While it may have been used in some instances to deceive consumers, it is not as widespread as Metanil yellow in milk.

Thus, the correct answer is (B) Metanil yellow , as it is a toxic and illegal dye used as an adulterant in milk. Quick Tip: Always buy milk from reputable sources and check for certification marks like the Agmark or FSSAI to ensure that the milk is free from harmful adulterants. If in doubt, conduct tests like the colour test or starch test at home.


Question 12:

Which aspect of a food handler does not affect cooking?

  • (A) Cleanliness
  • (B) Knowledge
  • (C) Health
  • (D) Habits
Correct Answer: (C) Health
View Solution

When it comes to food handling, certain aspects are critical to ensuring that food is cooked safely and hygienically. Let’s go through each option to understand how each one affects cooking:

1. Cleanliness (Option A) :
Cleanliness is crucial for a food handler because it directly affects food safety. A clean environment, as well as clean hands and equipment, prevents the spread of harmful bacteria, viruses, and other pathogens that could contaminate the food. Dirty clothes, hands, or surfaces can transfer germs to food, causing foodborne illnesses. Therefore, cleanliness is essential for safe cooking.

2. Knowledge (Option B) :
Knowledge of food safety, cooking techniques, and hygiene practices is essential for a food handler. Knowing how to store, handle, and cook food properly ensures that harmful microorganisms are eliminated, and the food is prepared in a safe manner. For example, knowing the correct temperature to cook meat or the importance of cross-contamination can prevent foodborne illnesses.

3. Health (Option C) :
While a food handler’s health is important in the sense that a sick food handler may spread illness to others through food, it does not directly affect the cooking process itself . A food handler could be in good health but still not follow proper hygiene practices, which would affect the safety of the food. Conversely, even a healthy individual could inadvertently introduce contaminants if they lack the knowledge or skills needed for safe food preparation. Therefore, health is a factor that indirectly affects food handling, but it does not directly influence the cooking process in the way that knowledge, cleanliness, and habits do.

4. Habits (Option D) :
Habits of a food handler, such as regularly washing hands, wearing gloves, and maintaining a clean working environment, have a direct impact on the safety and quality of the cooking process. Bad habits, such as touching food with dirty hands or not properly storing raw and cooked foods separately, can lead to contamination and foodborne illness.

Thus, the correct answer is (C) Health , as it is the one aspect that does not directly affect the cooking process itself, even though it influences food safety. Quick Tip: For food safety, it’s essential that food handlers maintain cleanliness, good knowledge of food safety practices, and healthy habits. Always ensure proper hygiene, washing hands frequently, and cooking food to the correct temperature.


Question 13:

Which of the following is not an external factor for rotting of food?

  • (A) Chemical substance
  • (B) Bacteria
  • (C) Enzyme
  • (D) Unhygienic condition
Correct Answer: (C) Enzyme
View Solution

Food spoilage and rotting are caused by both external and internal factors. External factors are those that originate from outside the food, while internal factors are those that are inherent to the food itself. Let’s examine each option to understand which one is not an external factor:

1. Chemical Substance (Option A) :
Chemical substances can play a significant role in food spoilage. For instance, the presence of chemical preservatives or contaminants, such as pesticides or pollutants, can lead to the decay or degradation of food. Chemical reactions, such as oxidation, can also cause food to spoil. Therefore, chemical substances are considered an external factor because they originate from outside the food.

2. Bacteria (Option B) :
Bacteria are microorganisms that can cause food to rot. When food is exposed to bacteria (especially under unhygienic conditions), these bacteria can break down the food and cause spoilage. Bacteria are one of the primary external factors responsible for the rotting of food. Therefore, bacteria are an external factor.

3. Enzyme (Option C) :
Enzymes are proteins that are naturally present in food, especially in fruits and vegetables. They help in processes like ripening and degradation. While enzymes contribute to food spoilage, they are considered an internal factor rather than an external one because they are part of the food's natural composition. Enzymes break down food from within, leading to processes like softening or browning. Since they originate from the food itself, enzymes are not external factors.

4. Unhygienic Condition (Option D) :
Unhygienic conditions are a classic example of an external factor that causes food to spoil. If food is stored in unsanitary environments or handled improperly, it becomes vulnerable to contamination by bacteria, mold, and other microorganisms, accelerating the rotting process. Hence, unhygienic conditions are an external factor.

Thus, the correct answer is (C) Enzyme , as enzymes are an internal factor that contributes to the rotting of food, rather than an external one. Quick Tip: To prevent food spoilage, it is essential to control both external and internal factors. Proper hygiene, safe storage conditions, and managing enzyme activity (by refrigeration or freezing) can help preserve food longer.


Question 14:

Money, material goods, and property are considered

  • (A) Necessary means
  • (B) Human resource
  • (C) Physical means
  • (D) Harmful means
Correct Answer: (C) Physical means
View Solution

Money, material goods, and property are tangible assets or resources that are essential for various human activities, from economic transactions to fulfilling basic needs. Let's examine each option to understand their classification:

1. Necessary means (Option A) :
Necessary means refer to resources that are required to achieve a certain goal or fulfill a specific need. While money, material goods, and property are indeed necessary in many contexts, they don't fall under this category as a standard classification in economics or resource management. The term necessary means is generally broader and can encompass intangible resources like knowledge, skills, and time.

2. Human resource (Option B) :
Human resources refer to the labor, skills, and abilities of people that contribute to production and services. Money, material goods, and property are not human resources; instead, human resources are the individuals who use these goods or assets to achieve productive outcomes. Therefore, this option is not correct.

3. Physical means (Option C) :
Physical means refer to tangible, material resources that help fulfill human needs or serve as tools for production. Money, material goods (such as food, machinery, and tools), and property (such as land, houses, and vehicles) are all physical resources. They are physical because they are concrete and can be touched or used directly in economic or productive activities. Hence, money, material goods, and property are best classified as physical means .

4. Harmful means (Option D) :
Harmful means typically refer to resources or actions that have negative effects on the environment, health, or society. Money, material goods, and property can sometimes be used in harmful ways, but they are not inherently harmful in and of themselves. Therefore, this classification is not appropriate for the resources listed in the question.

Thus, the correct answer is (C) Physical means , as money, material goods, and property are tangible assets that serve as the physical means for achieving various goals. Quick Tip: In economics and resource management, physical means are the tangible assets required for production and economic activities, while human resources refer to the skills and labor of individuals who use those assets.


Question 15:

What type of pollution does household waste cause?

  • (A) Soil pollution
  • (B) Water pollution
  • (C) Air pollution
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution

Household waste includes a wide variety of materials such as food scraps, packaging materials, plastics, chemicals, and electronic waste. Improper disposal of these waste materials can lead to several forms of pollution. Let’s break down how household waste contributes to different types of pollution:

1. Soil Pollution (Option A) :
Household waste, particularly non-biodegradable items like plastic bags, wrappers, and certain chemicals, can end up in landfills or in open spaces, leading to soil pollution . As these waste materials decompose, they release toxins into the soil, contaminating it and harming plant life. In some cases, hazardous substances such as batteries or household cleaners can seep into the ground, affecting the soil's health and making it unsuitable for agriculture.

2. Water Pollution (Option B) :
Household waste that is improperly disposed of in water bodies, such as rivers, lakes, and oceans, can lead to water pollution . Waste like plastic bottles, food packaging, detergents, and household chemicals can pollute water sources. In addition, when garbage is dumped into drains, it can eventually find its way into nearby water bodies, disrupting aquatic ecosystems and posing a threat to wildlife and human health. The presence of harmful chemicals can also contaminate drinking water sources.

3. Air Pollution (Option C) :
Burning household waste, especially plastics and other non-organic materials, releases harmful gases such as carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, and toxic fumes into the air, leading to air pollution . In many regions, waste incineration is a common method of disposal, but this practice contributes significantly to air pollution and poses health risks to people living nearby.

4. All of These (Option D) :
Household waste, when not properly managed, can contribute to soil pollution, water pollution, and air pollution . All of these types of pollution are interconnected, and the improper disposal of waste can have a cumulative negative impact on the environment. For example, when waste is dumped in a landfill, it can leak into the soil, affect the groundwater, and even release methane gas into the atmosphere, contributing to air pollution.

Thus, the correct answer is (D) All of these , as household waste can cause soil pollution , water pollution , and air pollution . Quick Tip: To reduce pollution, it is important to practice responsible waste disposal, including recycling, composting, and avoiding the burning of waste. Reducing waste generation by using reusable items can also help minimize pollution.


Question 16:

Which of the following is a man-made cause of environmental pollution?

  • (A) Transportation
  • (B) Dust storm
  • (C) Forest fire
  • (D) Volcanic activities
Correct Answer: (A) Transportation
View Solution

Environmental pollution is caused by both natural and man-made factors. The distinction is important as it helps in identifying the sources of pollution and finding ways to mitigate it. Let's analyze each option:

1. Transportation (Option A) :
Transportation is a man-made cause of environmental pollution. The use of vehicles, planes, and ships contributes significantly to air pollution through the release of harmful gases such as carbon dioxide (CO2), nitrogen oxides (NOx), and particulate matter. Additionally, vehicles contribute to noise pollution and the degradation of the atmosphere. The widespread use of fossil fuels in transportation is one of the largest contributors to global warming and climate change.

2. Dust storm (Option B) :
A dust storm is a natural phenomenon that occurs when strong winds lift loose, dry soil and dust into the air. It can cause air pollution, but it is a natural event and not man-made. Dust storms can also result in reduced visibility, respiratory problems, and damage to crops, but they are not caused by human activities.

3. Forest fire (Option C) :
While forest fires can be triggered by human activities such as careless campfires or arson, they are often natural events caused by lightning strikes or dry weather conditions. Forest fires can lead to air pollution through the release of smoke and particulate matter into the atmosphere, but they are not always man-made. Therefore, this option is not a purely man-made cause of pollution.

4. Volcanic activities (Option D) :
Volcanic activities are natural events where volcanic eruptions release ash, gases (such as sulfur dioxide), and particulate matter into the atmosphere. These gases and particles can contribute to air pollution and may affect the climate, but volcanic activities are a natural cause of environmental pollution, not man-made.

Thus, the correct answer is (A) Transportation , as it is a major man-made source of environmental pollution, primarily through the emission of greenhouse gases and other pollutants from vehicles. Quick Tip: To reduce environmental pollution, it's essential to adopt sustainable transportation methods such as electric vehicles, carpooling, and using public transport. Reducing the dependence on fossil fuels can significantly lower pollution levels.


Question 17:

When is World Water Day celebrated?

  • (A) 20th March
  • (B) 21st March
  • (C) 22nd March
  • (D) 23rd March
Correct Answer: (C) 22nd March
View Solution

World Water Day is observed annually to highlight the importance of freshwater resources and the need for sustainable water management. It is a day to raise awareness about the global water crisis and the need to conserve and manage water resources more efficiently.

1. 20th March (Option A) :
20th March is not the correct date for World Water Day. While it is a significant date for other observances, it does not coincide with World Water Day.

2. 21st March (Option B) :
21st March is also not the correct date for World Water Day. It is the first day of the spring equinox, but it is not associated with the celebration of water conservation or awareness.

3. 22nd March (Option C) :
22nd March is indeed the date when World Water Day is celebrated. The day was designated by the United Nations in 1993 to raise awareness about the global water crisis and the critical importance of freshwater resources. Each year, the day is focused on a specific theme related to water conservation, management, and protection.

4. 23rd March (Option D) :
23rd March is not the correct date for World Water Day. While other environmental observances may fall around this time, it is not the date dedicated to water-related issues.

Thus, the correct answer is (C) 22nd March , which is the official date for World Water Day. Quick Tip: On World Water Day, consider participating in activities that promote water conservation, such as reducing water wastage, recycling water, and supporting policies aimed at sustainable water use.


Question 18:

Swachh Bharat Abhiyan was launched on the occasion of the birth of which Indian leader?

  • (A) Sardar Patel
  • (B) Mahatma Gandhi
  • (C) Subhash Chandra Bose
  • (D) Lal Bahadur Shastri
Correct Answer: (B) Mahatma Gandhi
View Solution

Swachh Bharat Abhiyan (Clean India Mission) is a nationwide cleanliness campaign initiated by the Government of India. The primary goal of this mission is to eliminate open defecation, improve solid waste management, and create a cleaner environment across the country. The campaign was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 2nd October 2014 , which is the birthday of Mahatma Gandhi .

1. Sardar Patel (Option A) :
While Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel is an iconic Indian leader known for his role in the freedom struggle and the unification of India, Swachh Bharat Abhiyan was not launched on his birthday. He is commemorated on 31st October as National Unity Day , but he is not connected to the launch of the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan.

2. Mahatma Gandhi (Option B) :
The Swachh Bharat Abhiyan was launched on 2nd October 2014 , the birthday of Mahatma Gandhi . Gandhi, who is often called the "Father of the Nation," strongly advocated for cleanliness and sanitation during the Indian independence struggle. This mission was launched to honor his legacy and promote cleanliness as a key aspect of national progress.

3. Subhash Chandra Bose (Option C) :
Subhash Chandra Bose was a prominent freedom fighter and leader, but Swachh Bharat Abhiyan was not launched on his birthday. His birthday, 23rd January , is celebrated as Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose Jayanti , but it is not associated with the launch of the cleanliness campaign.

4. Lal Bahadur Shastri (Option D) :
Lal Bahadur Shastri was a respected leader and Prime Minister of India. His birthday, 2nd October , coincides with Gandhi's birth date, but it is Mahatma Gandhi whose birthday is associated with the launch of the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan, not Shastri.

Thus, the correct answer is (B) Mahatma Gandhi , as the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan was launched on his birthday, 2nd October 2014 . Quick Tip: Swachh Bharat Abhiyan is a national initiative aimed at improving sanitation and cleanliness across India. You can contribute by keeping your surroundings clean, reducing plastic usage, and spreading awareness about proper waste management.


Question 19:

Which is the first immediate care of a newborn baby?

  • (A) Cutting of umbilical cord
  • (B) Weighing
  • (C) Medical check-up
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (A) Cutting of umbilical cord
View Solution

When a baby is born, several immediate actions are taken to ensure its safety and well-being. These steps are performed in a specific sequence to stabilize the baby and provide the necessary care. Let’s explore each option:

1. Cutting of Umbilical Cord (Option A) :
The first immediate care for a newborn baby is the cutting of the umbilical cord . After birth, the baby is still connected to the placenta via the umbilical cord, which provides oxygen and nutrients. The cord is clamped and cut after the baby is born, usually within the first few minutes, to sever this connection. This is crucial for initiating the baby’s independent circulation and breathing.

2. Weighing (Option B) :
Weighing the newborn baby is typically done after the cord is cut and the baby is cleaned up. Weighing helps the medical team assess the baby’s health and growth, but it is not the first immediate care step. It follows other procedures such as clearing the airways, ensuring the baby is breathing, and cutting the umbilical cord.

3. Medical Check-up (Option C) :
A medical check-up is conducted to evaluate the newborn’s overall health, including checking the heart rate, breathing, and reflexes. However, like weighing, this step takes place after the initial immediate care procedures, such as cutting the umbilical cord.

4. All of These (Option D) :
While all of the above steps (cutting the umbilical cord, weighing, and medical check-up) are essential, cutting the umbilical cord is the first immediate action taken after birth. Therefore, the answer is not All of these .

Thus, the correct answer is (A) Cutting of umbilical cord , as it is the first immediate care step after birth to ensure the baby’s independent survival. Quick Tip: After cutting the umbilical cord, it is important to keep the newborn warm and monitor for any signs of distress. Proper initial care is essential to ensure the baby transitions smoothly from the womb to the outside world.


Question 20:

What are the components of a balanced diet?

  • (A) Carbohydrates and proteins
  • (B) Vitamin and minerals
  • (C) Fat and water
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution

A balanced diet is one that provides all the necessary nutrients in the correct proportions to maintain health, promote growth, and provide energy. It includes a variety of food items that fulfill the body’s needs for essential nutrients. Let’s break down the components of a balanced diet:

1. Carbohydrates and Proteins (Option A) :
- Carbohydrates provide the body with energy. They are found in foods like rice, bread, pasta, and fruits. Carbohydrates are the body's main source of energy.
- Proteins are necessary for growth, repair of tissues, and immune function. They are found in foods like meat, fish, eggs, beans, and nuts. Proteins are also important for building muscles and other bodily structures.
- While both carbohydrates and proteins are vital components of a balanced diet, they do not cover all the essential nutrients.

2. Vitamins and Minerals (Option B) :
- Vitamins are crucial for various bodily functions such as vision, skin health, and immune function. They are found in fruits, vegetables, and fortified foods.
- Minerals , like calcium, iron, potassium, and zinc, play key roles in bone health, oxygen transport, and fluid balance. They are found in foods like leafy greens, dairy products, meat, and nuts.
- Vitamins and minerals are essential for overall health, but they are not the only components of a balanced diet.

3. Fat and Water (Option C) :
- Fats are necessary for energy, cell function, and the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K). Healthy fats are found in nuts, seeds, avocado, olive oil, and fatty fish.
- Water is essential for hydration, temperature regulation, digestion, and transporting nutrients in the body. The human body is composed mostly of water, and adequate hydration is key to all bodily functions.
- Both fat and water are vital components, but alone they do not constitute a complete balanced diet.

4. All of These (Option D) :
A balanced diet includes all of the above components:
- Carbohydrates for energy
- Proteins for growth and repair
- Fats for energy and nutrient absorption
- Vitamins and minerals for maintaining health and supporting metabolic processes
- Water for hydration and proper cellular function

Thus, the correct answer is (D) All of these , as a balanced diet consists of carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, minerals, and water, all of which are essential for maintaining optimal health. Quick Tip: For a balanced diet, aim to eat a variety of foods from different food groups. This ensures that you receive all the essential nutrients your body needs to function properly. A colorful plate often means a nutritious plate!


Question 21:

Deficiency of which of the following causes a disease called osteoporosis?

  • (A) Fat
  • (B) Vitamin D
  • (C) Calcium
  • (D) Protein
Correct Answer: (C) Calcium
View Solution

Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by weakened bones, which become fragile and more susceptible to fractures. This disease primarily affects older adults, especially postmenopausal women, and is commonly associated with a deficiency in certain nutrients that are crucial for bone health. Let’s look at the role of each option:

1. Fat (Option A) :
Fat is an important nutrient in the diet, but it is not directly related to the development of osteoporosis. While fats help with the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins like Vitamin D, a fat deficiency does not directly cause osteoporosis.

2. Vitamin D (Option B) :
Vitamin D plays a critical role in calcium absorption and bone health. A deficiency in vitamin D can lead to rickets in children and can contribute to osteomalacia (softening of the bones) in adults. However, osteoporosis is primarily linked to calcium deficiency. While Vitamin D is important for calcium metabolism, the direct cause of osteoporosis is usually calcium deficiency.

3. Calcium (Option C) :
Calcium is the most important mineral for maintaining bone strength. If the body does not get enough calcium, it starts to withdraw calcium from bones, leading to weakened bone structure. Over time, this can result in osteoporosis, as the bones become brittle and more prone to fractures. This makes calcium the most direct cause of osteoporosis when deficient.

4. Protein (Option D) :
While protein is essential for overall body health and helps in the repair and growth of tissues, a deficiency in protein does not directly cause osteoporosis. However, it is important for maintaining muscle mass and bone structure, but osteoporosis is mainly associated with calcium deficiency.

Thus, the correct answer is (C) Calcium , as its deficiency leads to the weakening of bones and the development of osteoporosis. Quick Tip: To prevent osteoporosis, it’s important to consume adequate amounts of calcium (found in dairy products, leafy greens, and fortified foods) and vitamin D (from sunlight and fortified foods). Regular weight-bearing exercises also help keep bones strong.


Question 22:

A consumer can get help for effective purchasing from:

  • (A) Advertisement
  • (B) Personal experience
  • (C) Experience of other people
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution

Effective purchasing involves making informed decisions, and there are several ways in which a consumer can get help in this process. Let’s break down each option:

1. Advertisement (Option A) :
Advertisements provide information about products or services, which can help consumers understand what is available in the market. They may highlight features, prices, and benefits, but they are often designed to persuade consumers to buy. While advertisements can be informative, consumers should consider them critically and in conjunction with other sources of information.

2. Personal Experience (Option B) :
Personal experience plays a crucial role in making effective purchasing decisions. If a consumer has previously bought a product or service, their own experience with its quality, performance, and value can guide their future purchases. Positive personal experiences can build trust in specific brands, while negative experiences may lead to avoiding certain products or services.

3. Experience of Other People (Option C) :
Experience of other people , such as friends, family, or online reviews, can provide valuable insights. Word-of-mouth recommendations or reviews on platforms like e-commerce sites or social media can help consumers gauge the reliability and quality of products before making a purchase. This shared experience often influences purchasing decisions more than advertisements because it comes from trusted sources.

4. All of These (Option D) :
A consumer can get help from all of the above sources. Advertisements provide a formal channel of information, personal experience offers direct knowledge of a product’s performance, and the experience of others provides a broader perspective on the product’s quality and value. Combining all these sources of information leads to more informed and effective purchasing decisions.

Thus, the correct answer is (D) All of these , as a consumer can benefit from advertisements, personal experiences, and the experiences of others when making purchasing decisions. Quick Tip: Before making a purchase, it’s always a good idea to gather information from multiple sources, including advertisements, personal experiences, and reviews from other consumers, to ensure you make the most informed decision.


Question 23:

Monthly salary comes under which family income?

  • (A) Monetary income
  • (B) Real income
  • (C) Psychic income
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Monetary income
View Solution

Family income refers to the total income earned by all members of a family, which can come from various sources like salaries, business profits, or investment returns. Different types of income are classified based on their characteristics. Let’s look at each option:

1. Monetary Income (Option A) :
Monetary income refers to income that is expressed in terms of money and typically includes salaries, wages, bonuses , and other forms of income that are paid in cash or its equivalent. A monthly salary is a perfect example of monetary income , as it represents a fixed amount of money earned by an individual in exchange for their labor. This type of income is directly quantifiable and is often used for day-to-day expenses.

2. Real Income (Option B) :
Real income refers to the purchasing power of income, considering the cost of living and inflation. It represents the quantity of goods and services that can be purchased with the money earned. While monthly salary influences real income, the salary itself is not real income—it is the monetary income . Real income adjusts for inflation and changes in living costs, whereas monetary income is the direct amount earned in terms of money.

3. Psychic Income (Option C) :
Psychic income refers to the non-material benefits or satisfaction that a person gains from their work or life situation. This can include things like job satisfaction, happiness from achieving a personal goal, or emotional fulfillment. Monthly salary does not come under psychic income as it involves financial compensation, not emotional or psychological rewards.

4. None of These (Option D) :
Since monthly salary is clearly a form of monetary income , None of these is not the correct answer.

Thus, the correct answer is (A) Monetary income , as a monthly salary is a direct monetary payment received in exchange for labor. Quick Tip: When evaluating family income, it's important to distinguish between monetary income (actual earnings), real income (purchasing power), and psychic income (emotional or psychological benefits) to fully understand a family’s financial situation.


Question 24:

Which of the following does not come under washing of clothes?

  • (A) Stain removal
  • (B) Washing clothes
  • (C) Drying clothes
  • (D) Storage
Correct Answer: (D) Storage
View Solution

The process of washing clothes typically involves several steps, each aimed at ensuring clothes are clean, fresh, and ready for use. Let’s break down each option:

1. Stain Removal (Option A) :
Stain removal is an important part of the washing process. It involves treating stains on clothes before or during the washing process to ensure that they are effectively removed. This can be done by applying specific stain removers or soaking the clothes in water before the wash cycle. Therefore, stain removal is an integral part of washing clothes.

2. Washing Clothes (Option B) :
Washing clothes is the primary step in the washing process. It involves using water, detergent, and sometimes additional cleaning agents to remove dirt, stains, and odors from the fabric. This is the most essential step in the overall washing process.

3. Drying Clothes (Option C) :
After washing, drying clothes is another critical step in the process. This can be done by air drying, using a clothes dryer, or other methods like line drying. Although drying is done after the washing process, it is still considered part of the overall task of washing clothes as it is necessary for completing the process.

4. Storage (Option D) :
Storage refers to the act of putting clothes away after they have been washed and dried, either in a closet, drawer, or wardrobe. While this is an important task in the overall laundry routine, it is not part of the washing process itself. It happens after the washing, drying, and sometimes ironing are completed.

Thus, the correct answer is (D) Storage , as it is the only task listed that does not fall under the washing of clothes. Quick Tip: When handling laundry, it’s important to follow the complete washing process, which includes stain removal, washing, drying, and then proper storage. Proper storage helps maintain the freshness of clothes and avoids wrinkles.


Question 25:

Example of adulteration is:

  • (A) Selling fake as real
  • (B) Selling by wrong labelling
  • (C) Selling by mixing prohibited colours
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution

Adulteration refers to the illegal or unethical practice of mixing, adding, or substituting inferior, harmful, or prohibited substances into a product, often without the consumer's knowledge, in order to make the product appear more valuable or to increase profit. Let’s examine each option:

1. Selling Fake as Real (Option A) :
Selling a fake product as the real one is a classic example of adulteration. This can involve substituting cheaper, inferior, or substandard ingredients or materials in a product while passing it off as a high-quality, genuine item. For example, selling imitation or synthetic jewelry as real gold or silver is a form of adulteration.

2. Selling by Wrong Labelling (Option B) :
Wrong labelling is another form of adulteration. This occurs when products are mislabeled or falsely advertised, which can mislead consumers into believing that they are buying a product of a higher quality or with different ingredients. For example, selling a product labeled as "organic" when it contains non-organic substances is a deceptive practice.

3. Selling by Mixing Prohibited Colours (Option C) :
Mixing prohibited colours (such as harmful dyes or chemicals) in food or other consumables is a form of adulteration. This is done to enhance the appearance of the product and make it more appealing, but the added chemicals could be harmful to consumers’ health. For example, adding industrial dyes to food items like sweets or beverages is a common type of food adulteration.

4. All of These (Option D) :
All of the practices described in the options above fall under the definition of adulteration . Whether it's selling fake products, mislabeling goods, or adding prohibited substances like harmful dyes, each of these actions deceives the consumer and undermines trust in product quality and safety.

Thus, the correct answer is (D) All of these , as all the options listed are examples of adulteration . Quick Tip: To avoid adulteration, always buy products from trusted sources, check labels carefully, and be cautious about offers that seem too good to be true. If you suspect adulteration, report it to the relevant authorities to protect public health.


Question 26:

What type of diet is necessary to keep a person healthy?

  • (A) Spicy
  • (B) Fried
  • (C) Rich in nutrients
  • (D) Costly
Correct Answer: (C) Rich in nutrients
View Solution

A healthy diet is essential for maintaining overall well-being, supporting bodily functions, and preventing various diseases. The type of diet you choose has a significant impact on your health. Let’s break down each option:

1. Spicy (Option A) :
While some people enjoy spicy foods, a diet that is solely spicy is not necessary for maintaining health. Spicy foods can cause digestive discomfort for some individuals, especially those with sensitive stomachs or gastrointestinal conditions. A balanced diet should focus on the overall nutritional value rather than being overly spicy.

2. Fried (Option B) :
A diet consisting mainly of fried foods can be unhealthy. Fried foods are typically high in unhealthy fats, particularly trans fats, which can lead to weight gain and increase the risk of heart disease, high blood pressure, and other health issues. While it is okay to have fried foods occasionally, they should not be a staple of a healthy diet.

3. Rich in Nutrients (Option C) :
A nutrient-rich diet is the key to good health. This includes consuming a variety of foods that provide essential nutrients such as carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, and minerals. Nutrient-rich foods like fruits, vegetables, whole grains, lean proteins, and healthy fats support the body’s metabolic processes, strengthen the immune system, and maintain healthy organs and tissues. A diet that is rich in nutrients is necessary for sustaining optimal health.

4. Costly (Option D) :
A costly diet does not necessarily equate to a healthy one. While some expensive foods (like organic produce or high-quality lean meats) can be nutritious, many healthy foods are affordable. A balanced diet can be achieved on a budget by choosing a variety of affordable, nutrient-dense foods like vegetables, legumes, and whole grains. Healthy eating is about making wise food choices, not about spending a lot of money.

Thus, the correct answer is (C) Rich in nutrients , as a nutrient-rich diet is necessary to keep a person healthy by providing the body with all the essential vitamins, minerals, and other nutrients it needs to function properly. Quick Tip: To maintain good health, focus on eating a variety of nutrient-dense foods that include fruits, vegetables, whole grains, lean proteins, and healthy fats. Balance is key to a healthy lifestyle!


Question 27:

Tertiary colour is formed by the mixture of how many colours?

  • (A) Two
  • (B) Three
  • (C) Six
  • (D) Eight
Correct Answer: (B) Three
View Solution

Tertiary colours are formed by mixing a primary colour with a secondary colour . In the standard colour wheel, there are three primary colours: red, blue, and yellow, and three secondary colours: orange, green, and purple. Secondary colours are made by mixing two primary colours.

Tertiary colours are created when you mix a primary colour with a secondary colour . For example:
- Red (primary) + Orange (secondary) = Red-Orange (tertiary)
- Yellow (primary) + Orange (secondary) = Yellow-Orange (tertiary)
- Yellow (primary) + Green (secondary) = Yellow-Green (tertiary)
- Blue (primary) + Green (secondary) = Blue-Green (tertiary)
- Blue (primary) + Purple (secondary) = Blue-Purple (tertiary)
- Red (primary) + Purple (secondary) = Red-Purple (tertiary)

Therefore, tertiary colours are formed by the mixture of three colours : one primary and one secondary colour.

Thus, the correct answer is (B) Three . Quick Tip: To create a variety of hues, try mixing primary colours with secondary colours. This gives you a broad spectrum of tertiary colours, which adds richness and depth to your palette.


Question 28:

What should be given to a person in case of dehydration?

  • (A) Boiled water
  • (B) ORS
  • (C) Cold water
  • (D) Liquid diet
Correct Answer: (B) ORS
View Solution

Dehydration occurs when the body loses more fluids than it takes in, leading to an imbalance of water and electrolytes. It can be caused by various factors, including excessive heat, illness (like diarrhea or vomiting), or inadequate fluid intake. Rehydration is essential to restore the body’s balance of fluids and electrolytes. Let’s analyze each option:

1. Boiled Water (Option A) :
While boiled water can be safe to drink, it is not the best option for someone suffering from dehydration. Boiling water kills harmful bacteria and viruses but does not replenish the body's lost electrolytes, which are critical in the case of dehydration. Drinking plain water may help rehydrate but does not restore the necessary salts and minerals that are lost.

2. ORS (Option B) :
ORS (Oral Rehydration Solution) is the best choice for rehydration during dehydration. ORS contains a specific mixture of salts and sugars designed to quickly replenish both the lost fluids and electrolytes (such as sodium and potassium). It helps the body absorb water more effectively, and is recommended by health organizations like the World Health Organization (WHO) for treating dehydration caused by conditions such as diarrhea, vomiting, or excessive sweating.

3. Cold Water (Option C) :
While cold water may feel refreshing, it is not the most effective solution for dehydration. Cold water might temporarily cool the body, but it doesn't contain the electrolytes required to restore the body’s balance. Drinking just cold water could result in faster water loss due to increased urination if the electrolytes aren’t replaced as well.

4. Liquid Diet (Option D) :
A liquid diet may include soups, broths, and juices, but while these can provide hydration, they are not as effective as ORS in replenishing electrolytes. Also, a liquid diet might be too broad and may not contain the specific electrolytes needed for proper rehydration in a person suffering from dehydration.

Thus, the correct answer is (B) ORS , as Oral Rehydration Solution is specifically designed to replenish lost fluids and electrolytes, making it the most effective treatment for dehydration. Quick Tip: In case of dehydration, it’s important to restore not just the water but also the electrolytes lost. ORS is the ideal solution because it contains both sugars and salts that help the body absorb water and stay hydrated effectively.


Question 29:

Types of line(s) is/are:

  • (A) Horizontal and Diagonal
  • (B) Vertical
  • (C) Diagonal
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution

In geometry and design, lines can be classified based on their orientation and direction. Let’s discuss each of the options:

1. Horizontal (Option A) :
A horizontal line runs from left to right (or right to left) and is parallel to the horizon. Horizontal lines are commonly seen in the design of pages, tables, and landscapes, and they are one of the fundamental types of lines used in geometry.

2. Vertical (Option B) :
A vertical line runs from top to bottom or bottom to top, perpendicular to horizontal lines. Vertical lines are used in a variety of structures and designs, and they represent upright directionality. In geometry, they are considered as the opposite of horizontal lines.

3. Diagonal (Option C) :
A diagonal line is one that connects two non-adjacent points and slants either from left to right or from right to left, at an angle. Diagonal lines are not parallel to either horizontal or vertical lines, and they are often used in art, design, and geometry to create depth or direction.

4. All of These (Option D) :
Since all three types of lines— horizontal , vertical , and diagonal —exist in geometry and design, the correct answer is (D) All of these . Each of these lines serves different purposes in various fields like mathematics, art, architecture, and design.

Thus, the correct answer is (D) All of these , as horizontal , vertical , and diagonal are all valid types of lines. Quick Tip: Understanding the different types of lines—horizontal, vertical, and diagonal—can help in visualizing and creating designs or understanding geometric concepts more clearly.


Question 30:

What effect does light produce on the human mind?

  • (A) Enthusiasm
  • (B) Joy
  • (C) Hope
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution

Light has a profound impact on the human mind and overall well-being. The effects of light are both psychological and physiological, influencing mood, energy levels, and mental states. Let’s analyze each option:

1. Enthusiasm (Option A) :
Light can stimulate the release of serotonin , a neurotransmitter that helps regulate mood and promote feelings of enthusiasm and motivation. Bright light exposure, especially natural sunlight, can help reduce feelings of lethargy and increase alertness and positive energy.

2. Joy (Option B) :
Exposure to natural light has been linked to increased levels of dopamine , a neurotransmitter associated with happiness and joy. Sunlight exposure can have a positive impact on the body's circadian rhythms, improving sleep quality, and in turn, enhancing mood and emotional well-being. This contributes to a general sense of joy and happiness.

3. Hope (Option C) :
Light can also have a psychological impact, providing a sense of hope . For instance, the arrival of daylight after a long night or the feeling of sunlight during the day can evoke feelings of optimism and hope, especially in people experiencing conditions like seasonal affective disorder (SAD) , which is linked to the lack of sunlight during the darker months.

4. All of These (Option D) :
Since light has the potential to affect the human mind in a variety of ways—through boosting enthusiasm , promoting joy , and fostering a sense of hope —the correct answer is (D) All of these . Light can positively impact mental health, influencing mood and emotional states in multiple ways.

Thus, the correct answer is (D) All of these , as light can indeed produce enthusiasm , joy , and hope . Quick Tip: Exposure to natural light is essential for maintaining mental health and well-being. Try to spend time outdoors during daylight hours, especially in the morning, to boost your mood and energy levels.


Question 31:

What is a device of investment?

  • (A) Post Office
  • (B) Bank
  • (C) Market
  • (D) Both (A) and (B)
Correct Answer: (D) Both (A) and (B)
View Solution

Investment refers to the allocation of money into assets or ventures with the expectation of generating a return in the form of income or profit. Various devices or avenues are available for making investments. Let’s examine the options:

1. Post Office (Option A) :
The Post Office provides a variety of investment options, such as Post Office Savings Accounts , Recurring Deposits , Fixed Deposits , and Public Provident Fund (PPF) . These are safe and reliable investment instruments, particularly in many countries where the post office system has a long tradition of offering investment services to the public. These are government-backed and low-risk investment options.

2. Bank (Option B) :
Banks offer several investment products, including Fixed Deposits (FDs) , Recurring Deposits (RDs) , and Savings Accounts , all of which allow individuals to invest their money safely and earn interest. Additionally, many banks facilitate investment in mutual funds and other financial products. Banks serve as key financial institutions that help individuals make secure investments.

3. Market (Option C) :
The Market , specifically referring to the stock market , is another avenue for investment, but it involves higher risk compared to post offices or banks. Investments made through the market, such as in stocks, bonds, or equity mutual funds , can offer higher returns but also come with more volatility and risk.

4. Both (A) and (B) (Option D) :
Both the Post Office and the Bank provide investment avenues, though in different forms. The post office tends to offer more conservative, low-risk investments, while banks provide a broader range of options that can vary in terms of risk and return. Therefore, both are considered devices for making investments.

Thus, the correct answer is (D) Both (A) and (B) , as both the Post Office and Bank serve as devices or avenues for investment. Quick Tip: When choosing an investment option, consider factors such as risk tolerance, return expectations, and investment horizon. Safe options like post office savings and bank fixed deposits are good for risk-averse investors.


Question 32:

Benefit(s) of life insurance is/are:

  • (A) Financial assistance on accidental death
  • (B) Exemption from income tax
  • (C) Good means of saving
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution

Life insurance is a financial tool that provides security and financial support to your beneficiaries in case of your untimely death. It offers several benefits, which make it an essential part of financial planning. Let’s analyze each option:

1. Financial assistance on accidental death (Option A) :
Life insurance policies, particularly Accidental Death Benefit (ADB) riders, provide financial assistance to the beneficiaries in case of the policyholder's accidental death . This is a crucial benefit as it ensures that the family is financially supported in the event of an unexpected tragedy. It provides additional coverage over and above the basic life insurance amount.

2. Exemption from income tax (Option B) :
One of the significant benefits of life insurance is the tax benefits it offers. In many countries, premiums paid for life insurance policies are eligible for tax deductions under specific sections of the income tax law (e.g., Section 80C in India). Additionally, the death benefit received by the beneficiaries is usually exempt from income tax . This makes life insurance not just a protective financial tool but also a way to save on taxes.

3. Good means of saving (Option C) :
Life insurance is also considered a good means of saving , especially endowment policies or whole life policies that combine insurance with investment. These policies allow the policyholder to accumulate a cash value over time, which can be used as a saving tool. Upon maturity, the policyholder can receive a lump sum amount, which may include bonuses in some cases.

4. All of these (Option D) :
All the benefits mentioned above— financial assistance on accidental death , tax exemptions , and a good means of saving —are significant advantages of life insurance. Life insurance provides both protection and financial growth , making it a well-rounded financial product.

Thus, the correct answer is (D) All of these , as life insurance offers financial assistance , tax exemptions , and can also serve as a means of saving . Quick Tip: When considering life insurance, look for policies that offer additional benefits like accidental death coverage and tax exemptions. These can provide added security and savings in the long term.


Question 33:

Which of the following is mentioned in Aadhar card?

  • (A) Name
  • (B) Age
  • (C) Address
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution

The Aadhar card is a unique identification document issued by the Indian government, which serves as proof of identity and address for Indian residents. The Aadhar card contains several important personal details of the individual. Let’s review each option:

1. Name (Option A) :
The name of the individual is clearly mentioned on the Aadhar card. This is the most basic identifying information that is required for any official document.

2. Age (Option B) :
While the age of the individual is not explicitly mentioned as a separate field, it can be deduced from the date of birth listed on the Aadhar card. The date of birth is one of the critical pieces of information provided.

3. Address (Option C) :
The address of the individual is also mentioned on the Aadhar card. It provides the residential address of the cardholder, which is used for verification purposes in various government services and schemes.

4. All of These (Option D) :
Since the Aadhar card includes the name , address , and date of birth (which can be used to calculate the age), the correct answer is (D) All of these .

Thus, the correct answer is (D) All of these , as the Aadhar card contains the name , address , and date of birth (which reflects age). Quick Tip: The Aadhar card is an essential identity document in India that helps individuals access a wide range of government services, such as subsidies, welfare programs, and financial services.


Question 34:

What information do we get from the Bank Passbook?

  • (A) Detail of account holder
  • (B) Detail of the transaction
  • (C) Account balance
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution

A bank passbook is a physical or electronic record provided by the bank to an account holder. It contains several details related to the account and transactions, making it a useful tool for tracking and managing one's banking activities. Let’s review each of the options:

1. Detail of Account Holder (Option A) :
The bank passbook contains the name of the account holder along with other details like account number and sometimes the branch where the account is held. These details help identify the account holder and link the transactions to the correct individual.

2. Detail of the Transaction (Option B) :
The passbook provides a detailed record of each transaction —both deposits and withdrawals—along with the date , amount , and transaction type . It also often includes a reference or transaction ID to track specific activities.

3. Account Balance (Option C) :
The passbook shows the current balance of the account after each transaction. It updates the account balance every time a deposit or withdrawal is made, making it easy for the account holder to check their available funds at any point in time.

4. All of These (Option D) :
Since the bank passbook includes all of the above information— account holder details , transaction history , and account balance —the correct answer is (D) All of these .

Thus, the correct answer is (D) All of these , as the bank passbook provides complete details about the account holder, the transactions, and the current balance . Quick Tip: Bank passbooks are a great way to keep track of your financial transactions and monitor your account balance. It's a good habit to regularly update your passbook and review all entries for accuracy.


Question 35:

Cotton cloth is made from which of the following fibres?

  • (A) Cotton
  • (B) Linen
  • (C) Kapok
  • (D) Jute
Correct Answer: (A) Cotton
View Solution

Cotton cloth is made from the cotton fibre , which is one of the most commonly used natural fibres in the textile industry. Let's go through each option:

1. Cotton (Option A) :
Cotton is a natural fibre derived from the seeds of the cotton plant. It is the most popular fibre used to make cotton fabric , which is soft, breathable, and comfortable. Cotton fibres are spun into yarn, which is then woven or knitted into fabric. Cotton cloth is widely used for making shirts, trousers, bed linens, and other everyday clothing items.

2. Linen (Option B) :
Linen is another natural fibre, but it is made from the flax plant . While linen is also a popular fabric, especially for summer clothing, it is distinct from cotton and is not made from cotton fibres.

3. Kapok (Option C) :
Kapok is a fibre obtained from the seed pods of the kapok tree . It is primarily used as a stuffing material in cushions, mattresses, and life jackets, but it is not used for making cloth.

4. Jute (Option D) :
Jute is a coarse fibre obtained from the jute plant , and it is commonly used to make products like sacks, bags, and ropes . It is not used for making cloth like cotton.

Thus, the correct answer is (A) Cotton , as cotton cloth is made from cotton fibres . Quick Tip: Cotton is one of the most widely used natural fibres due to its comfort, softness, and breathability. It is suitable for all types of weather, especially in warm climates.


Question 36:

What is the least polluting fuel for vehicles?

  • (A) Petrol
  • (B) Diesel
  • (C) Compressed Natural Gas (CNG)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Compressed Natural Gas (CNG)
View Solution

When comparing fuels for vehicles in terms of pollution, the key factors to consider are the emissions of harmful gases such as carbon dioxide (CO2) , nitrogen oxides (NOx) , and particulate matter (PM) . Let’s review each fuel type:

1. Petrol (Option A) :
Petrol is a widely used fuel for vehicles, but it is a fossil fuel that releases harmful gases like CO2 , NOx , and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) into the atmosphere. Although cleaner than diesel in some respects, petrol still contributes to air pollution and climate change.

2. Diesel (Option B) :
Diesel is more energy-dense than petrol, meaning vehicles running on diesel tend to be more fuel-efficient. However, diesel engines emit higher amounts of NOx and particulate matter , which can contribute significantly to air pollution and have harmful health effects. Diesel vehicles are often associated with greater environmental impact compared to petrol-powered vehicles.

3. Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) (Option C) :
Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) is considered the least polluting fuel among the three options. It produces significantly fewer emissions compared to petrol and diesel, particularly in terms of CO2 , NOx , and particulate matter . CNG is a cleaner alternative because it is made primarily of methane , which is a relatively clean-burning fuel. It also produces less smog and lower levels of harmful gases, making it an eco-friendly choice for vehicles.

4. None of these (Option D) :
Since CNG is the least polluting fuel compared to petrol and diesel, the correct answer is not "None of these."

Thus, the correct answer is (C) Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) , as it produces the least pollution and is more environmentally friendly compared to petrol and diesel. Quick Tip: Switching to CNG vehicles can significantly reduce air pollution and help combat climate change. It is one of the most sustainable and eco-friendly fuels available for transportation today.


Question 37:

Which of the following is a natural way of purification of polluted air?

  • (A) Sunlight
  • (B) Rain
  • (C) Trees and plants
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution

There are several natural processes that help in the purification of polluted air, reducing harmful pollutants and making the environment cleaner. Let's go through each option:

1. Sunlight (Option A) :
Sunlight plays a crucial role in the purification of the atmosphere. It helps in breaking down certain pollutants like ozone (O3) , volatile organic compounds (VOCs) , and other harmful gases in the atmosphere through a process called photolysis . The sun's energy can also neutralize some air pollutants by triggering chemical reactions that decompose these substances.

2. Rain (Option B) :
Rain is another natural process that helps purify the air. It acts as a scrubber by removing particulate matter, dust, and pollutants like sulfur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides (NOx) from the atmosphere. When rain falls, it traps these pollutants and brings them to the ground, thus improving air quality.

3. Trees and Plants (Option C) :
Trees and plants play a significant role in purifying the air through a process called photosynthesis . During photosynthesis, plants absorb carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere and release oxygen (O2) . They also help filter pollutants like carbon monoxide (CO) , nitrogen oxides (NOx) , and particulate matter through their leaves and roots. Forests and green spaces are particularly effective in absorbing carbon and purifying the air.

4. All of These (Option D) :
All of the processes mentioned— sunlight , rain , and trees and plants —contribute to the natural purification of polluted air. Therefore, the correct answer is (D) All of these .

Thus, the correct answer is (D) All of these , as sunlight , rain , and trees and plants all play important roles in naturally purifying the air. Quick Tip: Incorporating more green spaces in urban areas and reducing air pollution through sustainable practices can significantly improve air quality and the health of the environment.


Question 38:

What can be the adverse effect of exposure to loud noise?

  • (A) Stress
  • (B) High blood pressure
  • (C) Insomnia
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution

Exposure to loud noise can have a significant impact on both physical and mental health. Let's go through each option to understand the potential adverse effects of noise pollution:

1. Stress (Option A) :
Continuous or frequent exposure to loud noise can cause stress . Noise pollution activates the body’s stress response , leading to an increase in cortisol levels (the stress hormone). This constant state of heightened stress can affect mental well-being and lead to anxiety and frustration.

2. High Blood Pressure (Option B) :
Long-term exposure to loud noise can contribute to an increase in blood pressure . The body's response to loud or constant noise can cause the heart rate to increase and blood vessels to constrict, which may raise blood pressure over time. Chronic noise exposure is considered a risk factor for hypertension .

3. Insomnia (Option C) :
Loud noise, especially at night, can disrupt sleep patterns and lead to insomnia . The disturbance caused by noise can make it difficult to fall asleep or maintain restful sleep, leading to fatigue, irritability, and other health issues. Chronic sleep disruption has been linked to a variety of health problems, including heart disease and depression .

4. All of These (Option D) :
All the effects listed— stress , high blood pressure , and insomnia —are well-documented adverse effects of exposure to loud noise. Therefore, the correct answer is (D) All of these .

Thus, the correct answer is (D) All of these , as stress , high blood pressure , and insomnia are all adverse effects of exposure to loud noise. Quick Tip: To minimize the adverse effects of noise pollution, it is important to take measures like using ear protection, reducing exposure to loud environments, and promoting soundproofing in living spaces.


Question 39:

Which of the following is not a disease caused by contaminated water?

  • (A) Tuberculosis
  • (B) Cholera
  • (C) Dysentery
  • (D) Typhoid
Correct Answer: (A) Tuberculosis
View Solution

Contaminated water is a major source of various waterborne diseases. Let’s review each option to determine which is not caused by contaminated water:

1. Tuberculosis (Option A) :
Tuberculosis (TB) is a bacterial infection primarily affecting the lungs. It is not caused by contaminated water but is spread through the air when an infected person coughs or sneezes. While poor living conditions may increase the risk of TB, it is not classified as a waterborne disease.

2. Cholera (Option B) :
Cholera is a severe bacterial infection caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae , which is typically transmitted through contaminated water . It causes extreme diarrhea and dehydration, and is a major waterborne disease in areas with poor sanitation.

3. Dysentery (Option C) :
Dysentery refers to an infection causing inflammation of the intestines , leading to severe diarrhea, often with blood or mucus. It can be caused by bacterial or amoebic infections , and is commonly transmitted through contaminated water .

4. Typhoid (Option D) :
Typhoid fever is a bacterial infection caused by Salmonella typhi . It is primarily transmitted through contaminated food and water . Inadequate sanitation and drinking untreated water are the main risk factors for typhoid.

Thus, the correct answer is (A) Tuberculosis , as it is not caused by contaminated water. Quick Tip: To prevent waterborne diseases, always drink clean, safe water , avoid drinking from unknown or untreated sources, and practice proper hygiene and sanitation.


Question 40:

Which of the following is not a bad effect of food adulteration?

  • (A) Lathyrism
  • (B) Diarrhoea
  • (C) Proper nutrition
  • (D) Liver disease
Correct Answer: (C) Proper nutrition
View Solution

Food adulteration refers to the process of deliberately adding or mixing harmful substances to food items to increase volume, weight, or appearance. These adulterants often have harmful effects on human health. Let's review each option:

1. Lathyrism (Option A) :
Lathyrism is a disease caused by the consumption of adulterated food , particularly lathyrus (grass pea) , which contains toxins like ODAP (beta-N-oxalyl-amino-L-alanine) . When consumed in large quantities over time, it can lead to neurological damage and paralysis . This is definitely a harmful effect of food adulteration.

2. Diarrhoea (Option B) :
Diarrhoea is another common health problem caused by adulterated food , as it can contain bacteria , chemicals , or toxic substances that affect the digestive system. For instance, adulterants like non-edible colors , chemicals , or impure water can lead to food poisoning, resulting in diarrhoea .

3. Proper Nutrition (Option C) :
Proper nutrition is not a harmful effect of food adulteration. In fact, food adulteration reduces the nutritional value of food. By adding harmful substances, adulteration can make food less nutritious and affect health negatively. Proper nutrition is what people aim to achieve through consuming healthy, non-adulterated food. Thus, this is the correct answer, as it does not relate to the adverse effects of food adulteration.

4. Liver Disease (Option D) :
Liver disease can result from consuming adulterated food containing harmful chemicals, such as synthetic colors , preservatives , and toxins . Over time, these chemicals can accumulate in the liver, causing liver damage , cirrhosis , or even liver cancer . Therefore, liver disease is another harmful effect of food adulteration.

Thus, the correct answer is (C) Proper nutrition , as it is not a bad effect of food adulteration. Quick Tip: To avoid food adulteration, always purchase food from reliable sources and ensure that products are properly labeled . Avoid consuming food with unnecessary chemicals or additives, especially from street vendors.


Question 41:

Which of the following comes under personal hygiene?

  • (A) Brushing teeth
  • (B) Cutting nails
  • (C) Washing hands
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution

Personal hygiene refers to practices that individuals carry out to maintain cleanliness and promote good health. These practices help prevent the spread of germs, bacteria, and diseases, and ensure general well-being. Let’s review each option:

1. Brushing Teeth (Option A) :
Brushing teeth is an essential personal hygiene practice that helps prevent tooth decay , gum disease , and bad breath . Regular brushing removes food particles and plaque, maintaining oral health.

2. Cutting Nails (Option B) :
Cutting nails is another important hygiene habit. Keeping nails trimmed prevents the accumulation of dirt under the nails, reduces the risk of nail infections, and promotes overall cleanliness.

3. Washing Hands (Option C) :
Washing hands is one of the most effective ways to prevent the spread of germs and infections. It is essential after using the restroom, before eating, or when handling food. Clean hands help prevent diseases like diarrhea , cold , flu , and many others.

4. All of These (Option D) :
All the practices mentioned— brushing teeth , cutting nails , and washing hands —are part of good personal hygiene . They are essential to maintaining cleanliness, preventing illness, and promoting overall health.

Thus, the correct answer is (D) All of these , as brushing teeth , cutting nails , and washing hands are all practices that come under personal hygiene. Quick Tip: Maintaining personal hygiene is not just important for health, but it also boosts confidence and helps prevent the spread of infections and diseases. Regular habits like washing hands, brushing teeth, and keeping nails clean are simple yet effective ways to stay healthy.


Question 42:

Which fibre is obtained from the cocoon?

  • (A) Silk
  • (B) Wool
  • (C) Linen
  • (D) Cotton
Correct Answer: (A) Silk
View Solution

Fibres are natural or synthetic materials used to make fabrics. The fibres listed in the options come from different sources. Let's review each option to understand which one is obtained from a cocoon:

1. Silk (Option A) :
Silk is a natural fibre obtained from the cocoon of the silkworm . The silkworm (scientifically known as *Bombyx mori*) produces a fine thread or fibre during its pupal stage. This thread is then harvested and used to make fabric. Silk is known for its softness, shine, and luxurious texture.

2. Wool (Option B) :
Wool is a natural fibre obtained from the hair of sheep (and other animals like goats, alpacas, and rabbits). Unlike silk, wool is not obtained from a cocoon but from the fleece of animals.

3. Linen (Option C) :
Linen is a natural fibre derived from the flax plant . The fibre is obtained from the stalks of the flax plant, not from a cocoon.

4. Cotton (Option D) :
Cotton is a natural fibre obtained from the cotton plant . The fibre is extracted from the cotton plant's seed pods (called bolls), not from a cocoon.

Thus, the correct answer is (A) Silk , as it is the only fibre obtained from the cocoon of the silkworm. Quick Tip: Silk is one of the oldest known natural fibres and has been used for thousands of years to create luxurious textiles. It is one of the few fibres that is naturally shiny and has a smooth texture.


Question 43:

Which of the following participates in fermentation?

  • (A) Fungus
  • (B) Yeast
  • (C) Bacteria
  • (D) Virus
Correct Answer: (B) Yeast
View Solution

Fermentation is a metabolic process that produces chemical changes in organic substrates through the action of enzymes. It is commonly used in food and beverage production, as well as in certain industrial processes. Let's review each option:

1. Fungus (Option A) :
While fungi do play a role in some processes like decomposition and food spoilage , they are not primarily involved in the fermentation process. Fungi may be involved in the growth of molds and the breakdown of organic matter, but they do not typically participate in the fermentation of sugars into alcohol or other byproducts.

2. Yeast (Option B) :
Yeast , particularly Saccharomyces cerevisiae , is a type of fungus that is critical in fermentation . It is used to ferment sugars in the production of alcohol (e.g., in brewing beer and making wine) and carbon dioxide (e.g., in baking). Yeast performs alcoholic fermentation in the absence of oxygen, breaking down glucose to produce ethanol and carbon dioxide, which are key products in many fermentation processes.

3. Bacteria (Option C) :
Bacteria also participate in some types of fermentation, particularly lactic acid fermentation (e.g., in yogurt, sauerkraut, and pickles). However, yeast is the most well-known microorganism used in fermentation processes for producing alcohol . While bacteria contribute to lactic acid and butyric acid fermentation , yeast is more directly associated with fermentation in food and beverages.

4. Virus (Option D) :
Viruses do not participate in fermentation. Viruses are biological entities that require a host cell to replicate. They do not engage in metabolic processes like fermentation. Fermentation is a process that involves living microorganisms, like yeast and certain bacteria, which can break down sugars into other substances.

Thus, the correct answer is (B) Yeast , as it is a key participant in the fermentation process, particularly in the production of alcohol and carbon dioxide. Quick Tip: Yeast is widely used in baking and brewing because of its ability to ferment sugars. In baking, it helps bread rise by producing carbon dioxide, while in brewing, it produces alcohol.


Question 44:

Breastfeeding is essential

  • (A) For both baby and mother
  • (B) Only for baby
  • (C) Only for mother
  • (D) None of them
Correct Answer: (A) For both baby and mother
View Solution

Breastfeeding is a vital practice that offers numerous health benefits for both the baby and the mother. Let’s break down the benefits for both:

1. For the Baby :
- Nutritional benefits : Breast milk provides all the essential nutrients required for the baby's growth and development, including proteins, fats, vitamins, and minerals.
- Immune protection : Breast milk contains antibodies that help protect the baby from infections and diseases, boosting the baby’s immune system.
- Bonding and emotional health : Breastfeeding fosters a strong emotional bond between the mother and the baby, contributing to the baby's emotional well-being and security.

2. For the Mother :
- Physical recovery : Breastfeeding helps the mother recover after childbirth by promoting uterine contraction, which helps the uterus return to its normal size.
- Health benefits : It has been shown to lower the risk of certain diseases for the mother, such as breast cancer , ovarian cancer , and type 2 diabetes .
- Psychological benefits : Breastfeeding can enhance the mother’s emotional bond with the child and foster a sense of fulfillment and attachment.

Thus, breastfeeding is beneficial to both the baby and the mother , making (A) For both baby and mother the correct answer. Quick Tip: Breastfeeding should be initiated within the first hour after birth and continued exclusively for the first 6 months, as it is the best source of nutrition and immunity for the baby.


Question 45:

Which vitamin is found in abundance in lemon?

  • (A) Vitamin A
  • (B) Vitamin B
  • (C) Vitamin C
  • (D) Vitamin D
Correct Answer: (C) Vitamin C
View Solution

Lemons are widely known for their high content of a particular vitamin that is essential for good health. Let's examine each option:

1. Vitamin A (Option A) :
Vitamin A is crucial for vision , immune function , and skin health . However, lemons are not particularly rich in Vitamin A . Carrots and sweet potatoes are much better sources of Vitamin A.

2. Vitamin B (Option B) :
Vitamin B is a group of water-soluble vitamins that play important roles in cell metabolism. While lemons contain small amounts of Vitamin B6 and folate , they are not abundant sources of Vitamin B in general.

3. Vitamin C (Option C) :
Vitamin C , also known as ascorbic acid , is found in abundance in lemons . Lemons are a well-known source of this powerful antioxidant, which plays a key role in immune function , wound healing , and the maintenance of healthy skin . Lemons have high Vitamin C content , making them a great choice for boosting immunity and overall health.

4. Vitamin D (Option D) :
Vitamin D is essential for bone health and calcium absorption . While some foods like fish and fortified dairy contain Vitamin D, lemons are not a significant source of this vitamin.

Thus, the correct answer is (C) Vitamin C , as lemons are particularly rich in this vitamin. Quick Tip: Lemon is an excellent source of Vitamin C , which helps strengthen the immune system, improve skin health, and fight free radicals due to its antioxidant properties.


Question 46:

Which of the following working persons requires more calories?

  • (A) Sedentary worker
  • (B) Moderate worker
  • (C) Heavy worker
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Heavy worker
View Solution

The number of calories a person requires depends on several factors, such as their activity level , age , and overall health . Let’s analyze each option:

1. Sedentary Worker (Option A) :
A sedentary worker is someone who does not engage in much physical activity during the day. This could include office workers or people whose jobs involve sitting for long periods. These individuals generally require fewer calories compared to those who are more physically active because their energy expenditure is lower.

2. Moderate Worker (Option B) :
A moderate worker is someone who engages in moderate physical activity at work, such as walking, light lifting, or standing for extended periods. While their calorie requirement is higher than that of a sedentary worker, it is still less than that of a heavy worker.

3. Heavy Worker (Option C) :
A heavy worker is someone who performs physically demanding tasks, such as construction work, manual labor, or jobs that involve heavy lifting and long hours of intense physical activity. These individuals require more calories because their bodies burn more energy due to the physical nature of their work. The higher the physical activity level, the more calories the body needs to fuel itself.

4. None of These (Option D) :
This option is not correct because we know that the amount of calories required directly correlates with the level of physical activity, and heavy workers indeed require more calories.

Thus, the correct answer is (C) Heavy worker , as they require more calories to meet the energy demands of their physically intense work. Quick Tip: For individuals with higher physical activity levels, such as heavy workers, it's essential to consume enough calories and nutrients to support their energy needs, promote muscle recovery, and maintain overall health.


Question 47:

Cushion is used for

  • (A) Sleeping on bed
  • (B) Sleeping on carpet
  • (C) Sitting comfortably on sofa
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Sitting comfortably on sofa
View Solution

A cushion is a soft, padded object that is commonly used to provide comfort and support. Let's evaluate the options:

1. Sleeping on bed (Option A) :
Cushions are not typically used for sleeping on a bed , as beds are already designed to provide comfort through the use of mattresses and pillows . A pillow, not a cushion, is generally used for supporting the head and neck during sleep.

2. Sleeping on carpet (Option B) :
Cushions are also not typically used for sleeping on a carpet . While you might use a cushion for added comfort when sitting or resting on the floor, it is not a primary item for sleeping.

3. Sitting comfortably on sofa (Option C) :
Cushions are often used for sitting comfortably on a sofa . They provide additional comfort and support when sitting and are commonly placed on couches to enhance seating comfort. They are also used as decorative items.

4. None of these (Option D) :
Since cushions are used for sitting comfortably on sofas (and sometimes for decorative purposes), this option is incorrect.

Thus, the correct answer is (C) Sitting comfortably on sofa , as cushions are most commonly used for providing extra comfort when sitting on a sofa. Quick Tip: Cushions not only enhance comfort but also serve as a great way to add a decorative touch to furniture like sofas and chairs. They come in various shapes, sizes, and materials to suit different needs.


Question 48:

What is necessary for the absorption of calcium in the body?

  • (A) Vitamin D
  • (B) Protein
  • (C) Fat
  • (D) Vitamin A
Correct Answer: (A) Vitamin D
View Solution

The absorption of calcium in the body is a crucial process for bone health and several other physiological functions. Let’s examine each option:

1. Vitamin D (Option A) :
Vitamin D is essential for the absorption of calcium in the intestines. It facilitates the calcium-binding proteins that help the body absorb calcium efficiently. Without enough vitamin D, the body cannot absorb calcium properly, even if calcium is available in the diet. This can lead to bone-related issues like rickets in children and osteoporosis in adults. Therefore, Vitamin D is necessary for optimal calcium absorption.

2. Protein (Option B) :
Protein is important for overall health, and while it plays a role in muscle repair and the structure of bones, it is not directly responsible for calcium absorption. Protein is important in maintaining bone structure but does not affect calcium absorption as directly as Vitamin D .

3. Fat (Option C) :
Fat is needed for the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins like Vitamin A, D, E, and K , but it does not directly affect the absorption of calcium. In fact, an excess of fat, especially unhealthy fats, can interfere with calcium absorption, so it's not a necessary factor for calcium absorption.

4. Vitamin A (Option D) :
Vitamin A is essential for overall health, including vision and immune function. However, Vitamin A does not play a significant role in the absorption of calcium . While it's important for bone health, it is Vitamin D that is crucial for calcium absorption.

Thus, the correct answer is (A) Vitamin D , as Vitamin D is necessary for the absorption of calcium in the body. Quick Tip: To enhance calcium absorption, it is recommended to spend some time in sunlight (which helps the body produce Vitamin D) and include Vitamin D-rich foods like fish, fortified milk, and eggs in your diet.


Question 49:

Refrigerator is used for

  • (A) Fermentation
  • (B) Refrigeration
  • (C) Dehydration
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Refrigeration
View Solution

A refrigerator is an appliance used to store food and beverages at low temperatures in order to preserve them for longer periods of time. Let’s break down the options:

1. Fermentation (Option A) :
Fermentation is a biological process in which microorganisms like bacteria or yeast break down sugars to produce gases or alcohol. While a refrigerator may slow down the fermentation process by keeping temperatures low, it is not used for fermentation. In fact, refrigeration typically halts fermentation to prevent food from spoiling.

2. Refrigeration (Option B) :
The primary purpose of a refrigerator is refrigeration , which is the process of lowering the temperature of food and drinks to slow down the growth of bacteria, mold, and yeast. This helps preserve food and prevents spoilage. So, the correct use of a refrigerator is for refrigeration .

3. Dehydration (Option C) :
Dehydration is the process of removing moisture from food to preserve it, and it usually involves heat or air circulation, not cooling. A refrigerator is not designed for dehydration; in fact, it does the opposite by retaining moisture in food to prevent it from drying out.

4. None of these (Option D) :
Since the correct function of a refrigerator is to maintain low temperatures for refrigeration , this option is incorrect.

Thus, the correct answer is (B) Refrigeration , as refrigerators are designed for the refrigeration of food and beverages. Quick Tip: To maximize the lifespan of perishable foods, ensure your refrigerator is set to a temperature below 40°F (4°C) to slow bacterial growth and maintain freshness.


Question 50:

Dry cleaning is used for which types of clothes?

  • (A) Cotton
  • (B) Silk
  • (C) Jute
  • (D) Synthetic
Correct Answer: (B) Silk
View Solution

Dry cleaning is a method of cleaning clothes that uses solvents instead of water. It is especially useful for fabrics that may shrink, distort, or lose their texture when washed with water. Let’s evaluate each option:

1. Cotton (Option A) :
Cotton fabrics are usually washed with water and detergent. They are generally durable and can handle the water-based cleaning process. Cotton is not typically dry cleaned , although some cotton clothes with special finishes may require dry cleaning to preserve their shape or color.

2. Silk (Option B) :
Silk is a delicate fabric that can easily get damaged when washed with water. Dry cleaning is the preferred method for cleaning silk , as it helps preserve the fabric's texture and sheen. The solvents used in dry cleaning are much gentler on silk compared to water and detergent.

3. Jute (Option C) :
Jute is a coarse, natural fiber often used for making bags, ropes, or sacks. It is not typically a fabric that requires dry cleaning. Jute fibers are often cleaned by hand washing or brushing off dirt .

4. Synthetic (Option D) :
Synthetic fabrics like polyester, nylon, and acrylic are generally machine washable and do not require dry cleaning. These fabrics are durable and do well with water-based cleaning methods, though they may occasionally be dry cleaned if they have special finishes or embellishments.

Thus, the correct answer is (B) Silk , as silk fabrics require dry cleaning to maintain their quality. Quick Tip: When in doubt about whether an item requires dry cleaning, always check the care label on the garment. Most delicate fabrics, like silk , wool , and velvet , recommend dry cleaning to avoid damage.


Question 51:

Regular washing helps clothes to remain

  • (A) Clean
  • (B) Germ-free
  • (C) Odourless
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution

Regular washing is an essential part of maintaining the hygiene and freshness of clothes. Let’s evaluate the options:

1. Clean (Option A) :
Washing clothes regularly ensures that dirt, dust, sweat, and other impurities are removed, keeping clothes clean . Clean clothes help maintain both physical and psychological well-being.

2. Germ-free (Option B) :
Regular washing, especially with hot water and detergent, helps in removing bacteria, viruses, and other harmful germs from clothes. While washing cannot guarantee complete germ removal, it significantly reduces the risk of infections and the spread of germs.

3. Odourless (Option C) :
Washing clothes regularly also helps to remove odour-causing bacteria and sweat stains. By cleaning clothes, particularly when exposed to body odors or environmental pollutants, it helps keep clothes smelling fresh and odor-free .

4. All of these (Option D) :
Since regular washing helps clothes remain clean , germ-free , and odorless , the correct answer is (D) All of these .

Thus, the correct answer is (D) All of these , as regular washing addresses all three aspects of cleanliness, hygiene, and freshness. Quick Tip: To maintain the freshness and longevity of your clothes, always follow the care instructions on the label, and wash clothes regularly, especially after heavy use or exposure to dirt and sweat.


Question 52:

In which century did the practice of making embroidered Sujani quilts begin?

  • (A) 16th Century
  • (B) 17th Century
  • (C) 18th Century
  • (D) 19th Century
Correct Answer: (B) 17th Century
View Solution

Sujani quilts are a traditional form of embroidery that originated in Bihar , India. These quilts are known for their intricate hand-stitched designs and are made by women in rural areas. The history of Sujani embroidery dates back several centuries, with the 17th century being recognized as the period when the practice became more widespread.

1. 16th Century (Option A) :
While India has a rich tradition of textile arts, Sujani embroidery itself did not reach its peak or widespread recognition in the 16th century. During this time, other forms of Indian textiles like kalamkari and block printing were prominent.

2. 17th Century (Option B) :
The 17th century is when Sujani embroidery became established as a distinct tradition in Bihar. The embroidery style, characterized by geometric patterns and symbolic designs, was commonly used to create quilts, which were traditionally passed down through generations. During this period, the Mughal influence in Indian art and textiles likely contributed to the development of these embroidery techniques.

3. 18th Century (Option C) :
By the 18th century, Sujani embroidery had become a well-established craft. However, it was not in the 18th century that the practice first began; rather, it continued to flourish and gain recognition during this time.

4. 19th Century (Option D) :
Although Sujani quilts were still made in the 19th century, the craft had already been established much earlier. The 19th century saw Western influences on Indian textiles, which led to a shift in focus, but Sujani embroidery remained an important traditional craft.

Thus, the correct answer is (B) 17th Century , as the practice of making embroidered Sujani quilts began to take form in the 17th century . Quick Tip: Sujani embroidery is often done using cotton thread and brightly colored fabrics , making it a visually striking form of textile art. It is still practiced today, preserving its cultural significance.


Question 53:

Which of the following is a function of testes?

  • (A) Secreting testosterone hormone
  • (B) Production of sperms
  • (C) Secreting progesterone hormone
  • (D) Both (A) and (B)
Correct Answer: (D) Both (A) and (B)
View Solution

The testes (plural of testis) are the male reproductive organs that perform two important functions:

1. Secreting testosterone hormone (Option A) :
The testes secrete testosterone , which is the primary male sex hormone. Testosterone is responsible for the development of male secondary sexual characteristics such as facial hair, deep voice, muscle growth, and the production of sperm.

2. Production of sperms (Option B) :
The testes are also responsible for the production of sperm , which occurs in the seminiferous tubules within the testes. Sperm are essential for fertilization in sexual reproduction.

3. Secreting progesterone hormone (Option C) :
Progesterone is a hormone primarily associated with the female reproductive system. It is produced by the ovaries and the placenta during pregnancy, not by the testes. Therefore, this option is incorrect.

4. Both (A) and (B) (Option D) :
Since the testes are responsible for both testosterone secretion and sperm production , the correct answer is (D) Both (A) and (B) .

Thus, the correct answer is (D) Both (A) and (B) because the testes have both functions of secreting testosterone and producing sperm . Quick Tip: Testosterone plays a key role not only in sexual development but also in maintaining muscle mass, bone density, and red blood cell production in males.


Question 54:

Which of the following is used as a food preservative?

  • (A) Salt
  • (B) Oil
  • (C) Sugar
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution

Food preservation is the process of treating and handling food to stop or slow down its spoilage due to microbial growth, chemical changes, or physical damage. The following options are commonly used as preservatives:

1. Salt (Option A) :
Salt has been used as a preservative for centuries. It works by drawing out moisture from food, creating an environment where bacteria and fungi cannot thrive. It is commonly used in preserving meats, fish, and vegetables, as well as in curing and pickling.

2. Oil (Option B) :
Oil is often used to preserve food by creating a barrier between the food and air, thus limiting the growth of microorganisms. It is commonly used in the preservation of vegetables, fruits (such as olives), and in the making of pickles. Oil helps preserve the food by reducing oxidation and spoilage.

3. Sugar (Option C) :
Sugar is another common preservative. It works by drawing moisture out of food, much like salt, and by inhibiting the growth of microorganisms. It is used in the preservation of fruits, making jams, jellies, and syrups. Sugar also helps extend the shelf life of certain products by acting as a natural preservative.

4. All of these (Option D) :
Since salt , oil , and sugar are all used as food preservatives , the correct answer is (D) All of these .

Thus, the correct answer is (D) All of these , as salt , oil , and sugar all play a role in preserving food. Quick Tip: Natural preservatives like salt , sugar , and oil have been used for centuries and are effective in prolonging the shelf life of various foods, while also enhancing their flavors.


Question 55:

Which of the following is a cause of soil pollution?

  • (A) Deforestation
  • (B) Industrial waste
  • (C) Use of chemical fertilizers
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution

Soil pollution refers to the contamination of the soil with harmful substances that affect its quality and the organisms that depend on it, including plants, animals, and humans. Let’s examine each option:

1. Deforestation (Option A) :
Deforestation involves the removal of trees, which plays a significant role in increasing soil erosion. The loss of trees and vegetation reduces the natural protection that roots provide to the soil. This leads to soil degradation, which can contribute to soil pollution by allowing more pollutants to accumulate in the soil.

2. Industrial waste (Option B) :
Industrial waste is one of the leading causes of soil pollution. Factories and industries often dispose of waste products such as heavy metals, chemicals, and toxins directly into the soil, which leads to contamination. This pollution not only harms the soil but also affects plant and animal life and can have serious health implications for humans.

3. Use of chemical fertilizers (Option C) :
The excessive and improper use of chemical fertilizers can lead to the build-up of harmful chemicals in the soil. Over time, this can degrade soil quality and reduce its fertility. Chemical fertilizers can also leach into groundwater and nearby water bodies, causing additional environmental harm.

4. All of these (Option D) :
All the above factors — deforestation , industrial waste , and use of chemical fertilizers — contribute to soil pollution . Therefore, the correct answer is (D) All of these .

Thus, the correct answer is (D) All of these , as each factor listed contributes to the pollution and degradation of the soil. Quick Tip: To reduce soil pollution, it is important to adopt sustainable practices such as reforestation, responsible waste disposal, and organic farming methods that minimize the use of chemical fertilizers.


Question 56:

Which of the following diseases is not caused by air pollution?

  • (A) Nightblindness
  • (B) Skin disease
  • (C) Respiratory disease
  • (D) Headache
Correct Answer: (A) Nightblindness
View Solution

Air pollution is a major environmental risk factor that can cause a variety of health issues, particularly affecting the respiratory system and the skin. Let’s examine each option to determine which disease is not caused by air pollution:

1. Nightblindness (Option A) :
Nightblindness (also known as nyctalopia ) is a condition that impairs the ability to see in low light or at night. This condition is typically caused by a vitamin A deficiency or retinal problems , not by air pollution. Thus, nightblindness is not linked to air pollution.

2. Skin disease (Option B) :
Skin diseases can indeed be aggravated or caused by air pollution. Pollutants such as fine particulate matter (PM2.5) and toxic gases can contribute to skin problems like eczema , psoriasis , and premature aging . Thus, air pollution can be a contributing factor to skin diseases.

3. Respiratory disease (Option C) :
Respiratory diseases are among the most common health issues caused by air pollution. Exposure to pollutants such as smoke, carbon monoxide, nitrogen dioxide , and sulfur dioxide can lead to conditions like asthma , chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) , and lung infections . Air pollution is a major cause of respiratory problems.

4. Headache (Option D) :
Headaches can also be triggered by exposure to air pollution. Airborne pollutants such as carbon monoxide and ozone can cause symptoms like headaches, dizziness, and fatigue. This is especially true for individuals who are sensitive to changes in air quality.

Thus, the correct answer is (A) Nightblindness , as it is not caused by air pollution . Quick Tip: To reduce the harmful effects of air pollution, it's important to take steps such as staying indoors on days with poor air quality, wearing masks, and advocating for cleaner air policies.


Question 57:

Which nutrient helps in the formation of new cells in the body?

  • (A) Fat
  • (B) Protein
  • (C) Sodium
  • (D) Calcium
Correct Answer: (B) Protein
View Solution

The formation of new cells in the body is a vital process that is supported by several nutrients, each playing a specific role. Let’s examine each option to identify the nutrient involved in cell formation:

1. Fat (Option A) :
While fat is an essential nutrient that provides energy, supports cell structure (especially in the formation of cell membranes), and helps absorb fat-soluble vitamins, it is not directly involved in the formation of new cells. Instead, fats are more important for overall energy storage and supporting cellular function.

2. Protein (Option B) :
Proteins are the building blocks of the body. They are made up of amino acids , which are necessary for the construction of new cells, tissues, enzymes, and hormones. When the body needs to form new cells, proteins play a crucial role in this process. They help in cell growth, repair, and the synthesis of cell components, making protein the correct answer.

3. Sodium (Option C) :
Sodium is an electrolyte that helps in maintaining fluid balance, nerve function, and muscle contractions. However, sodium does not play a significant role in the formation of new cells. It is important for physiological functions but is not directly involved in cellular growth or regeneration.

4. Calcium (Option D) :
Calcium is crucial for bone health, muscle function, and nerve signaling. While calcium is vital for maintaining bone strength and supporting various cellular processes, it does not directly help in the formation of new cells . It is important for cellular signaling but not for the creation of new cells.

Thus, the correct answer is (B) Protein , as it is directly involved in the formation of new cells in the body. Quick Tip: Proteins are essential not just for growth and repair, but they also help in the formation of enzymes that regulate metabolism and cell division. Adequate protein intake is crucial for overall health and cellular regeneration.


Question 58:

Which of the following factors affects meal planning?

  • (A) Number of family members
  • (B) Age
  • (C) Gender
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution

Meal planning involves creating balanced, nutritious, and culturally appropriate meals that meet the needs of all family members. Several factors play a role in meal planning, ensuring that the diet is tailored to the specific needs of the household. Let’s review each factor:

1. Number of family members (Option A) :
The number of family members directly affects meal planning as it determines the quantity of food required. A larger family will require larger portions, whereas a smaller family will require less. Proper meal planning ensures that there is enough food to feed everyone without wastage.

2. Age (Option B) :
Age plays an important role in meal planning because different age groups have different nutritional needs. For example, children require more energy and nutrients for growth, while adults may require fewer calories and more protein for maintenance. Older adults may require meals that are easier to digest or focus on preventing age-related health conditions. Therefore, age affects the type and quantity of food prepared.

3. Gender (Option C) :
Gender can also affect meal planning. Men and women have different caloric needs due to differences in metabolism and body composition. Generally, men may need more calories, while women may need more iron, especially during menstruation or pregnancy. Specific nutrient requirements based on gender need to be considered in meal planning.

4. All of these (Option D) :
As discussed, number of family members , age , and gender all play a crucial role in determining the meal plan. They influence how much food is needed, the type of nutrients required, and the overall balance of meals. Therefore, the correct answer is (D) All of these .

Thus, the correct answer is (D) All of these , as all the listed factors affect meal planning. Quick Tip: When planning meals, consider factors like family size , age , and gender to create a balanced diet that meets everyone’s nutritional needs. Don’t forget to also factor in lifestyle and activity levels.


Question 59:

Which of the following is most comfortable while clothing a newborn body?

  • (A) Front opening
  • (B) Upper opening
  • (C) Back opening
  • (D) Lower opening
Correct Answer: (A) Front opening
View Solution

Dressing a newborn requires careful attention to comfort, ease of dressing, and minimizing any disturbance to the baby. Different clothing designs have specific benefits, especially when dressing infants. Let’s evaluate the options:

1. Front opening (Option A) :
Clothing with a front opening is generally the most comfortable and convenient option for dressing a newborn. It allows for easier dressing and undressing, especially when the baby is lying down or not yet able to hold their head up. A front opening also minimizes the effort required to lift the baby’s arms or legs, making the process gentler and less stressful for the baby.

2. Upper opening (Option B) :
Upper opening clothing could be more restrictive when dressing a newborn. Putting a baby’s head through a small opening may cause discomfort, especially if the baby is fussy or the clothes are tight. This option may not be as practical or comfortable for a newborn, as it may put strain on the baby’s neck or cause irritation.

3. Back opening (Option C) :
Clothing with a back opening is less commonly used for newborns. While it might seem like a good option for reducing friction on the front of the baby’s body, it can make dressing more cumbersome as it requires careful alignment of the clothing and may not be as convenient for quick dressing. Additionally, it might feel uncomfortable for babies who are lying on their backs, as the fabric could bunch up or rub against their skin.

4. Lower opening (Option D) :
Lower opening clothing (like onesies with snap buttons at the bottom) is great for changing diapers but is not specifically advantageous for dressing the baby as a whole. While it can help with diaper changes, it does not contribute as much to the overall ease and comfort of dressing the baby compared to the front opening.

Thus, the most comfortable option for clothing a newborn is (A) Front opening , as it allows for easy, gentle dressing and undressing without causing discomfort to the baby. Quick Tip: When dressing newborns, always opt for soft, breathable fabrics and easy-to-open clothing (like front opening) to make dressing easier and more comfortable for the baby.


Question 60:

Which of the following is not a one-time investment?

  • (A) National Savings Certificate
  • (B) Fixed Deposits
  • (C) Recurring Deposits
  • (D) Kisan Vikas Patra
Correct Answer: (C) Recurring Deposits
View Solution

Investment options can be broadly classified into two categories: one-time investments and recurring investments. A one-time investment is one where the investor makes a lump sum payment upfront and does not need to make additional contributions during the investment period. Let’s evaluate each option:

1. National Savings Certificate (NSC) (Option A) :
National Savings Certificate (NSC) is a government-backed savings scheme where the investor makes a one-time lump sum investment. Once the investment is made, no further contributions are required, and the investor receives returns at the end of the maturity period. Hence, this is a one-time investment .

2. Fixed Deposits (Option B) :
Fixed Deposits (FDs) are also a form of one-time investment. In a fixed deposit, the investor deposits a lump sum amount with the bank or financial institution for a fixed tenure, and no further contributions are needed during the term of the deposit. The investor receives interest on the principal amount at the end of the tenure. Thus, fixed deposits are also considered a one-time investment .

3. Recurring Deposits (Option C) :
A Recurring Deposit (RD) , unlike NSC and FD, is not a one-time investment. In a recurring deposit, the investor contributes a fixed amount of money every month for a fixed period, making it a recurring (monthly) investment. The total maturity value is the sum of all monthly deposits along with the interest earned. Therefore, recurring deposits are not a one-time investment.

4. Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP) (Option D) :
Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP) is a government savings scheme in which the investor makes a lump sum investment. The investment grows over time and matures at a specific date, providing returns to the investor at the end of the investment period. Since it requires a one-time lump sum investment, it qualifies as a one-time investment .

Thus, the correct answer is (C) Recurring Deposits , as they involve monthly contributions , making them a recurring investment rather than a one-time investment. Quick Tip: When choosing between investment options, it's important to differentiate between one-time and recurring investments . If you prefer a lump sum investment, NSC , FD , and KVP are suitable options. On the other hand, if you want to invest regularly, Recurring Deposits are ideal.


Question 61:

How many primary colours are there?

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 5
Correct Answer: (B) 3
View Solution

Primary colours are the fundamental colours that cannot be created by mixing other colours together. In traditional colour theory, the number of primary colours is based on the colour model being used. Let’s evaluate each option:

1. 2 Primary Colours (Option A) :
There is no standard colour model that uses only 2 primary colours. While two-colour models are used in certain contexts (such as in RGB for light), they are not considered to have just 2 primary colours in the traditional sense. Hence, this option is incorrect.

2. 3 Primary Colours (Option B) :
In most colour models, three primary colours form the foundation of colour mixing. In the RYB (Red, Yellow, Blue) model, commonly used in art and design, the primary colours are red, yellow, and blue. These colours cannot be made by mixing other colours together and are used to create all other colours by mixing them in various proportions. This is the correct answer.

3. 4 Primary Colours (Option C) :
Some colour models, like CMYK (Cyan, Magenta, Yellow, Key/Black) used in printing, use four primary colours, but this is based on a different theory for colour reproduction. It’s not a typical classification for traditional colour mixing, so this option is incorrect.

4. 5 Primary Colours (Option D) :
There is no widely recognized colour model that uses five primary colours in the context of basic colour theory. This would be an overly complex system for simple colour mixing. Thus, this option is incorrect.

Therefore, the correct answer is (B) 3 , as the traditional and most commonly accepted colour theory uses three primary colours (Red, Yellow, and Blue). Quick Tip: Primary colours are the building blocks of all other colours. Understanding how to mix them can help you create a wide variety of hues for art and design.


Question 62:

What right(s) is/are given to consumers under the Consumer Protection Act?

  • (A) Right to selection
  • (B) Right to consumer education
  • (C) Right to security
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution

The Consumer Protection Act is a law designed to safeguard the rights of consumers in India. It provides various rights to consumers to protect them from unfair trade practices and exploitation. Let’s look at the rights provided by this Act:

1. Right to selection (Option A) :
The Right to Selection refers to the consumer's right to choose from a variety of goods and services at competitive prices. The act ensures that consumers are not forced to buy a product out of necessity or monopoly. This right allows consumers to make informed choices without undue influence.

2. Right to consumer education (Option B) :
The Right to Consumer Education ensures that consumers are made aware of their rights and responsibilities. It is important for consumers to understand their legal rights so that they can make informed decisions when purchasing goods and services. The Consumer Protection Act helps facilitate consumer education through campaigns and awareness programs.

3. Right to security (Option C) :
The Right to Security ensures that consumers are protected from hazardous goods and services. This right guarantees that products offered to the public must adhere to certain safety standards to prevent harm. The act ensures that no product is sold to consumers that could potentially endanger their health or safety.

4. All of these (Option D) :
All the rights mentioned— Right to selection , Right to consumer education , and Right to security —are integral parts of the Consumer Protection Act. The Act aims to create a more equitable relationship between consumers and businesses and ensure that consumers' rights are protected across all sectors.

Thus, the correct answer is (D) All of these , as the Consumer Protection Act provides all these rights to safeguard the interests of consumers. Quick Tip: Being aware of your consumer rights helps protect you from fraud and exploitation. The Consumer Protection Act empowers you to seek redressal in case of unfair trade practices.


Question 63:

After how many months should children be given complementary food?

  • (A) 3 months
  • (B) 6 months
  • (C) 8 months
  • (D) 9 months
Correct Answer: (B) 6 months
View Solution

The World Health Organization (WHO) and other health organizations recommend that infants be exclusively breastfed for the first 6 months of life. After this period, complementary foods (such as pureed fruits, vegetables, cereals, etc.) should be introduced in addition to breastfeeding or formula feeding.

Here is why:

1. Why not 3 months (Option A)?
At 3 months, an infant's digestive system is not fully developed to handle solid foods. Breast milk or formula provides all the nutrients the infant needs for the first six months. Introducing solid foods earlier can lead to digestive issues, allergies, and improper nutrition.

2. Why 6 months (Option B)?
At 6 months , an infant’s digestive system is better developed, and they can tolerate and benefit from additional foods besides breast milk or formula. This is when the body starts requiring more nutrients like iron, which breast milk alone can no longer supply in sufficient amounts. WHO and pediatricians recommend the introduction of complementary food at this stage for proper growth and development.

3. Why not 8 months (Option C)?
Waiting until 8 months is not ideal because by this time, the infant may have missed out on important nutrients needed for proper development. Early introduction of complementary foods (around 6 months) helps ensure timely growth and development.

4. Why not 9 months (Option D)?
By 9 months , the infant would have missed the window for introducing complementary foods and could face developmental delays in chewing, swallowing, and proper nutrition. The introduction of solid food should be within the first 6 months.

Thus, the correct answer is (B) 6 months , as this is the recommended age for introducing complementary foods along with breastfeeding or formula feeding. Quick Tip: Introducing complementary foods at 6 months ensures that your child gets the necessary nutrients for growth while still benefiting from breast milk or formula. It’s crucial to follow pediatric recommendations to ensure optimal development.


Question 64:

Which of the following is not a part of the female reproductive system?

  • (A) Fallopian tubes
  • (B) Vas efferens
  • (C) Uterus
  • (D) Ovaries
Correct Answer: (B) Vas efferens
View Solution

The female reproductive system consists of several organs that play important roles in reproduction. Let's analyze the options:

1. Fallopian tubes (Option A) :
The fallopian tubes are an integral part of the female reproductive system. They are responsible for transporting the egg from the ovaries to the uterus. Fertilization typically occurs in the fallopian tube, making it essential for reproduction.

2. Vas efferens (Option B) :
The vas efferens is not a part of the female reproductive system. It is a part of the male reproductive system. The vas efferens are ducts that carry sperm from the epididymis to the vas deferens, which eventually connects to the urethra. Therefore, it is unrelated to the female reproductive system, making this option the correct answer.

3. Uterus (Option C) :
The uterus is a key part of the female reproductive system. It is where the fertilized egg implants and grows into a fetus during pregnancy. It is a crucial organ for reproduction.

4. Ovaries (Option D) :
The ovaries are also a part of the female reproductive system. They produce eggs (ova) and hormones like estrogen and progesterone, which regulate the menstrual cycle and support pregnancy.

Thus, the correct answer is (B) Vas efferens , as it is part of the male reproductive system, not the female reproductive system. Quick Tip: Understanding the anatomy of the reproductive system is key to grasping how reproduction works. The female reproductive system includes the ovaries, fallopian tubes, uterus, and vagina, while the male system has structures like the vas efferens and vas deferens.


Question 65:

Which of the following is not a hormone?

  • (A) Progesterone
  • (B) Thyroxine
  • (C) Haemoglobin
  • (D) Oestrogen
Correct Answer: (C) Haemoglobin
View Solution

Let's look at each of the options:

1. Progesterone (Option A) :
Progesterone is a hormone produced by the ovaries. It plays a key role in regulating the menstrual cycle and maintaining pregnancy. It is a chemical messenger that influences the functioning of various organs in the body.

2. Thyroxine (Option B) :
Thyroxine is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland. It helps regulate metabolism and controls the rate at which the body uses energy. It is essential for growth and development.

3. Haemoglobin (Option C) :
Haemoglobin is not a hormone. It is a protein found in red blood cells that carries oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body and brings carbon dioxide back to the lungs. It is involved in respiratory gas transport, not in hormone signaling.

4. Oestrogen (Option D) :
Oestrogen is a hormone primarily produced by the ovaries (in females) and plays a crucial role in the development and regulation of the female reproductive system and secondary sexual characteristics. It is essential for the menstrual cycle and fertility.

Thus, the correct answer is (C) Haemoglobin , as it is a protein, not a hormone. Quick Tip: Hormones are chemical messengers produced by glands in the endocrine system, like progesterone, thyroxine, and oestrogen. Haemoglobin, however, is a protein that aids in oxygen transport in the blood.


Question 66:

Which of the following is an endocrine disorder?

  • (A) Asthma
  • (B) Diabetes
  • (C) Malaria
  • (D) Stomach ache
Correct Answer: (B) Diabetes
View Solution

Let's analyze the options to identify the endocrine disorder:

1. Asthma (Option A) :
Asthma is a respiratory disorder, not an endocrine disorder. It affects the airways in the lungs, causing difficulty in breathing, wheezing, and coughing. It is related to the respiratory system, not the endocrine system.

2. Diabetes (Option B) :
Diabetes is an endocrine disorder . It occurs when the body either doesn't produce enough insulin (Type 1 diabetes) or becomes resistant to insulin (Type 2 diabetes). Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas, an endocrine gland. Diabetes affects the regulation of blood sugar levels, which is an important function of the endocrine system.

3. Malaria (Option C) :
Malaria is an infectious disease caused by a parasite transmitted through mosquito bites. It affects the red blood cells and is not an endocrine disorder. It is caused by a parasite, not a hormonal imbalance.

4. Stomach ache (Option D) :
A stomach ache is a symptom of various gastrointestinal disorders, not an endocrine disorder. It can be caused by many factors such as indigestion, infections, or stress, but it is not linked to hormone imbalances.

Thus, the correct answer is (B) Diabetes , as it is an endocrine disorder that involves the improper regulation of insulin, a hormone produced by the pancreas. Quick Tip: Endocrine disorders are conditions that affect the production or function of hormones. Diabetes, which affects insulin regulation, is one of the most common endocrine disorders. Other examples include thyroid disorders and adrenal insufficiency.


Question 67:

Which of the following hormones is the same in both men and women?

  • (A) Progesterone
  • (B) Testosterone
  • (C) Oestrogen
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Testosterone
View Solution

Let's examine each hormone and its role in both men and women:

1. Progesterone (Option A) :
Progesterone is primarily a female hormone produced by the ovaries, especially during the menstrual cycle and pregnancy. While men do produce small amounts of progesterone, it is not significant in their bodies compared to women.

2. Testosterone (Option B) :
Testosterone is present in both men and women. However, men have much higher levels of testosterone, which plays a key role in the development of male reproductive tissues and secondary sexual characteristics like muscle mass and facial hair. In women, testosterone is produced in smaller amounts by the ovaries and adrenal glands and contributes to libido and bone density.

3. Oestrogen (Option C) :
Oestrogen is primarily a female hormone responsible for the development of female secondary sexual characteristics like breast development and regulation of the menstrual cycle. Men also produce oestrogen, but in much smaller quantities.

4. None of these (Option D) :
This option is incorrect, as testosterone is indeed present in both men and women, though in different amounts.

Thus, the correct answer is (B) Testosterone , as it is the same hormone found in both men and women, though in different levels. Quick Tip: Testosterone is often associated with men due to its high levels, but it is also important in women. It helps with muscle strength, bone density, and sexual health in both genders.


Question 68:

What is the first symptom of pregnancy?

  • (A) Frequent urination
  • (B) Closure of menstrual cycle
  • (C) Morning sickness
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Closure of menstrual cycle
View Solution

Let's examine each of the options in detail to understand the first symptom of pregnancy:

1. Frequent urination (Option A) :
Frequent urination can occur during pregnancy due to hormonal changes and pressure on the bladder from the growing uterus. However, it is generally not the first symptom of pregnancy and may appear later.

2. Closure of menstrual cycle (Option B) :
The first and most common symptom of pregnancy is the absence or closure of the menstrual cycle , which is also known as a missed period. This typically happens around 2-4 weeks after conception. The body’s hormonal changes during pregnancy stop menstruation, making it one of the earliest and most reliable signs.

3. Morning sickness (Option C) :
Morning sickness, which involves nausea and vomiting, is another common pregnancy symptom, typically starting around the 6th week of pregnancy. It is not usually the first symptom, though it follows shortly after the missed period.

4. None of these (Option D) :
This option is incorrect, as the closure of the menstrual cycle is a well-known and primary indicator of pregnancy.

Thus, the correct answer is (B) Closure of menstrual cycle , as a missed period is often the earliest and most obvious symptom of pregnancy. Quick Tip: The first symptom of pregnancy is usually a missed period. However, some women may experience other early symptoms like fatigue or mild cramping before the period is missed.


Question 69:

Where does fertilization take place in the human body?

  • (A) Inside woman's body
  • (B) Inside man's body
  • (C) Both (A) and (B)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Inside woman's body
View Solution

Let's understand where fertilization occurs in the human body:

1. Inside woman's body (Option A) :
Fertilization takes place inside the woman's body, specifically in the fallopian tube . After ovulation, the egg (ova) is released by the ovary and travels into the fallopian tube, where it can meet and fuse with the sperm (which has been introduced during intercourse). This union of the sperm and egg is what is known as fertilization. Once fertilized, the egg (zygote) then moves towards the uterus for implantation.

2. Inside man's body (Option B) :
Fertilization does not occur inside the man's body. The man contributes sperm, but fertilization takes place inside the woman's body, not inside the male reproductive system.

3. Both (A) and (B) (Option C) :
This is incorrect because fertilization takes place only inside the woman's body, in the fallopian tube, not inside both the male and female bodies.

4. None of these (Option D) :
This is incorrect, as the fertilization process clearly occurs inside the woman’s body.

Thus, the correct answer is (A) Inside woman's body , as fertilization occurs in the fallopian tubes, which are part of the female reproductive system. Quick Tip: Fertilization is the union of the sperm and egg, which takes place in the fallopian tubes in women. This is where the sperm meets the egg to form a zygote, the first stage of the developing embryo.