Bihar Board Class 12 Chemistry (Elective) Question Paper 2025 PDF (Code 118 Set – D) is available for download here. The Chemistry (Elective) exam was conducted on February 7, 2025 in the Morning Shift from 9:30 AM to 12:45 PM. The total marks for the theory paper are 100. Students reported the paper to be easy to moderate.

Bihar Board Class 12 Chemistry (Elective) Question Paper 2025 (Code 118 Set – D) with Solutions

Bihar Board Class 12 Chemistry Question Paper with Answer Key download iconDownload Check Solutions
Bihar Board Class 12 Chemistry (Elective) Question Paper with Solutions


Question 1:

Which of the following adsorptions forms multimolecular layer?

  • (A) Physical adsorption
  • (B) Chemical adsorption
  • (C) Both (A) and (B)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Physical adsorption
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding adsorption.

Adsorption is a surface phenomenon in which gas or liquid molecules accumulate on the surface of a solid or liquid. It is of two main types — physical adsorption (physisorption) and chemical adsorption (chemisorption).


Step 2: Physical adsorption.

Physical adsorption is caused by weak van der Waals forces. In this process, the gas molecules form layers on the solid surface, and additional layers can build up one over another as the pressure increases. Hence, physical adsorption can form a multimolecular layer.


Step 3: Chemical adsorption.

Chemical adsorption (chemisorption) involves the formation of strong chemical bonds between the adsorbate and adsorbent. Since the bond is specific and localized, only a monomolecular layer is formed. Once this layer is complete, no further adsorption occurs on top of it.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Among the given options, only physical adsorption results in the formation of a multimolecular layer. Chemical adsorption forms only a single molecular layer.


Therefore, the correct answer is (A) Physical adsorption.
Quick Tip: Physical adsorption forms multimolecular layers due to weak van der Waals forces, whereas chemical adsorption forms a single monomolecular layer because of strong chemical bonding.


Question 2:

Impurities present in an ore are called —

  • (A) Flux
  • (B) Gangue
  • (C) Alloy
  • (D) Slag
Correct Answer: (B) Gangue
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding impurities in ores.

An ore is a naturally occurring rock or mineral that contains a valuable metal or metal compound. However, ores are not pure substances; they contain unwanted materials that are not useful for metal extraction. These unwanted materials are called impurities.


Step 2: Definition of gangue.

The earthy and rocky impurities such as sand, clay, quartz, and silicates present along with the ore are collectively known as gangue or matrix. These substances have no economic value and must be removed before the extraction of pure metal.


Step 3: Role of flux and slag.

During the extraction of metal, a substance called flux is added to react with the gangue and form a new compound called slag. Slag is lighter and floats on the molten metal, making it easy to separate. Hence, flux and slag are not impurities; they help in the removal of gangue.


Step 4: Analysis of options.

(A) Flux: A substance added to remove gangue during smelting; not an impurity.

(B) Gangue: Correct. Refers to the unwanted impurities found in ores.

(C) Alloy: A mixture of two or more metals; unrelated to impurities.

(D) Slag: A by-product formed after flux reacts with gangue; not the impurity itself.


Step 5: Conclusion.

Therefore, the impurities present in an ore are called Gangue.
Quick Tip: Gangue = Impurities in the ore.
Flux = Substance added to remove gangue.
Slag = Product formed after flux reacts with gangue.


Question 3:

The process of smelting involves reduction of metal oxide with —

  • (A) Al
  • (B) C
  • (C) Mg
  • (D) S
Correct Answer: (B) C
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the process of smelting.

Smelting is a metallurgical process used to extract a metal from its oxide ore by reducing it with a suitable reducing agent. It takes place at high temperatures in a furnace, where the metal oxide is converted into pure metal.


Step 2: Identifying the reducing agent.

In smelting, the reducing agent removes oxygen from the metal oxide. Carbon (in the form of coke or charcoal) is commonly used because it reacts with oxygen to form carbon monoxide (CO) or carbon dioxide (CO\(_2\)), thereby helping to isolate the pure metal.


Step 3: Analysis of options.

(A) Al: Aluminium is a strong reducing agent, but it is mainly used in the aluminothermic reduction process, not in smelting. Hence, this option is incorrect.

(B) C: Carbon acts as the reducing agent in smelting. It reduces the metal oxide by combining with oxygen to form CO or CO\(_2\), leaving behind the pure metal. Example:
\[ Fe_2O_3 + 3C \rightarrow 2Fe + 3CO \]
Thus, this is the correct answer.

(C) Mg: Magnesium is a strong reducing agent but is not used in smelting because it is costly and highly reactive.

(D) S: Sulphur is not a reducing agent; instead, it reacts with metals to form sulfides. Hence, it cannot be used for smelting.


Step 4: Conclusion.

In the smelting process, metal oxides are reduced using carbon as the reducing agent. This produces pure metal along with gaseous oxides of carbon. Therefore, the correct answer is (B) C (Carbon).
Quick Tip: In smelting, \textbf{carbon} acts as the main reducing agent to extract metals from their oxides. Aluminium is used in aluminothermic reduction, not in smelting.


Question 4:

Lutetium (Lu) is

  • (A) a transition element
  • (B) a lanthanide
  • (C) an actinide
  • (D) a p-block element
Correct Answer: (B) a lanthanide
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the position of Lutetium (Lu).

Lutetium (atomic number 71) belongs to the 6th period and is placed in the f-block of the periodic table. It lies at the end of the lanthanide series and has the electronic configuration: \[ [Xe]\,4f^{14}\,5d^1\,6s^2 \]
This shows that all fourteen 4f orbitals are completely filled, with one electron entering the 5d subshell.



Step 2: Nature of the element.

Even though Lutetium has a 5d electron, it is considered part of the lanthanide series because:

- It occurs after Ytterbium (Yb), completing the filling of the 4f subshell.

- It exhibits similar chemical properties to other lanthanides such as forming \( Lu^{3+} \) ions.

- The oxidation state \( +3 \) is the most stable for all lanthanides, including Lutetium.



Step 3: Eliminating the incorrect options.

(A) Transition element: Lutetium has 4f orbitals completely filled; therefore, it is not a typical transition element.

(C) Actinide: Actinides belong to the 7th period; Lutetium is in the 6th period.

(D) p-block element: p-block elements have valence electrons in the p-subshell, while Lutetium belongs to the f-block.



Step 4: Conclusion.

Hence, Lutetium (Lu) is correctly classified as the last member of the lanthanide series.
Quick Tip: Although Lutetium has a filled 4f subshell, it is still considered a lanthanide because it exhibits similar properties and belongs to the f-block of the periodic table.


Question 5:

Elements of which atomic numbers belong to 3d transition series?

  • (A) 22 to 30
  • (B) 21 to 30
  • (C) 21 to 31
  • (D) 21 to 29
Correct Answer: (B) 21 to 30
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the 3d transition series.

Transition elements are those in which the last electron enters into a \textit{d-subshell. The 3d transition series represents the first transition series in the periodic table. It starts when electrons begin to fill the 3d orbitals.


Step 2: Electronic configuration pattern.

The filling of the 3d orbital starts after the 4s orbital is filled, i.e., after atomic number 20 (Calcium). Hence, the 3d series begins from atomic number 21 (Scandium) and continues until atomic number 30 (Zinc).


Step 3: Elements included.

The elements of the 3d transition series are:

Sc (21), Ti (22), V (23), Cr (24), Mn (25), Fe (26), Co (27), Ni (28), Cu (29), and Zn (30).


Step 4: Analysis of options.

(A) 22 to 30 — Starts from Titanium, missing Scandium.

(B) 21 to 30 — Correct range, includes all 3d transition elements.

(C) 21 to 31 — Includes Gallium (31), which is not part of 3d transition series.

(D) 21 to 29 — Excludes Zinc (30), which completes the 3d series.


Step 5: Conclusion.

Hence, the elements with atomic numbers from 21 to 30 belong to the 3d transition series.
Quick Tip: The 3d transition series includes elements from Scandium (21) to Zinc (30). These elements show variable oxidation states and form colored compounds due to partially filled d-orbitals.


Question 6:

The process of purification of metal represented by the following equation is called:

\[ Ti + 2I_2 \xrightarrow[773\,K]{} TiI_4 \xrightarrow[1675\,K]{} Ti + 2I_2 \]

  • (A) Cupellation
  • (B) Poling
  • (C) Van Arkel
  • (D) Zone refining
Correct Answer: (C) Van Arkel
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the process.

The given reaction shows the conversion of titanium (Ti) to titanium tetraiodide (TiI\(_4\)) at 773 K, which is then decomposed at 1675 K to give back pure titanium metal and iodine. This is a two-step purification process involving a volatile intermediate.


Step 2: Explanation of the steps.

At 773 K: \[ Ti + 2I_2 \rightarrow TiI_4 \]
Titanium reacts with iodine to form a volatile tetraiodide compound.


At 1675 K: \[ TiI_4 \rightarrow Ti + 2I_2 \]
Titanium tetraiodide decomposes on a hot tungsten filament, depositing pure titanium metal and releasing iodine gas, which can be reused in the process.


Step 3: Identifying the process.

This purification technique is known as the Van Arkel process (also called the Iodide process). It is used to obtain ultrapure metals such as titanium (Ti) and zirconium (Zr).


Step 4: Comparing with other processes.

- (A) Cupellation: Used for purifying noble metals like silver and gold.

- (B) Poling: Used to remove oxide impurities from metals like copper and tin.

- (D) Zone refining: Used for purification of semiconductors like silicon and germanium.


Step 5: Conclusion.

The given equation corresponds to the Van Arkel process, not zone refining. Therefore, the correct answer is (C) Van Arkel.
Quick Tip: The Van Arkel process purifies metals by first forming a volatile halide and then decomposing it at high temperature to obtain pure metal on a hot filament.


Question 7:

Which of the following metals is not obtained by electrolysis?

  • (A) Na
  • (B) Mg
  • (C) Al
  • (D) Fe
Correct Answer: (D) Fe
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the process of electrolysis.

Electrolysis is a chemical process in which electricity is used to decompose a compound (usually a molten or aqueous ionic compound) into its constituent elements. Metals that are highly electropositive and strongly bonded to nonmetals are generally extracted by this method.


Step 2: Classification of metals based on reactivity.

Metals are divided into three categories according to their reactivity:

- Highly reactive metals (e.g., Na, K, Ca, Mg, Al): Extracted by electrolysis of their molten salts.

- Moderately reactive metals (e.g., Zn, Fe, Pb): Extracted by reduction of their oxides with carbon or carbon monoxide.

- Less reactive metals (e.g., Cu, Ag, Au): Extracted by direct reduction or by roasting followed by refining.


Step 3: Analysis of given options.

(A) Na: Sodium is obtained by electrolysis of molten sodium chloride (Down’s process).

(B) Mg: Magnesium is extracted by electrolysis of molten magnesium chloride.

(C) Al: Aluminium is obtained by electrolysis of molten alumina mixed with cryolite (Hall-Héroult process).

(D) Fe: Iron is not obtained by electrolysis. It is extracted by the reduction of its oxide (hematite or magnetite) in a blast furnace using carbon monoxide as the reducing agent.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Among the given metals, iron (Fe) is not obtained by electrolysis but by chemical reduction using carbon. Hence, the correct answer is (D) Fe.
Quick Tip: Highly reactive metals are obtained by electrolysis of molten salts, while moderately reactive metals like iron are obtained by reduction with carbon in a blast furnace.


Question 8:

Which of the following oxides is paramagnetic?

  • (A) CO\(_2\)
  • (B) ClO\(_2\)
  • (C) SO\(_2\)
  • (D) SiO\(_2\)
Correct Answer: (B) ClO\(_2\)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding paramagnetism.

Paramagnetism is a form of magnetism that is induced by the presence of an external magnetic field. It occurs when a substance contains unpaired electrons. The unpaired electrons create a magnetic moment, causing the substance to be attracted to a magnetic field.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

(A) CO\(_2\): Carbon dioxide does not have unpaired electrons, so it is not paramagnetic. It is diamagnetic.

(B) ClO\(_2\): Chlorine dioxide has an odd number of electrons in its molecular orbital, leading to unpaired electrons, making it paramagnetic.

(C) SO\(_2\): Sulfur dioxide is diamagnetic as it does not have any unpaired electrons.

(D) SiO\(_2\): Silicon dioxide is also diamagnetic and does not exhibit paramagnetism.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Among the options, ClO\(_2\) is the only oxide that is paramagnetic due to the presence of unpaired electrons. Quick Tip: Paramagnetic substances have unpaired electrons, while diamagnetic substances have all electrons paired.


Question 9:

Which of the following ions is diamagnetic?

  • (A) \( Cr^{2+} \)
  • (B) \( V^{2+} \)
  • (C) \( Sc^{3+} \)
  • (D) \( Ti^{3+} \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( \text{Sc}^{3+} \)
View Solution




Diamagnetism is a property of materials that do not have any unpaired electrons. The presence of unpaired electrons leads to magnetic properties such as paramagnetism. Diamagnetic substances are repelled by a magnetic field and have all their electrons paired.

Let's analyze the electronic configuration and unpaired electrons of each ion:

1. Cr\(^{2+}\):
Chromium has an atomic number of 24, and its ground-state electron configuration is \( [Ar]\, 3d^5\, 4s^1 \). For Cr\(^{2+}\), two electrons are lost, leaving \( [Ar]\, 3d^4 \). This ion has unpaired electrons, so it is paramagnetic, not diamagnetic.

2. V\(^{2+}\):
Vanadium has an atomic number of 23, with a ground-state electron configuration of \( [Ar]\, 3d^3\, 4s^2 \). For V\(^{2+}\), two electrons are lost, leaving \( [Ar]\, 3d^3 \). This ion has unpaired electrons, so it is paramagnetic, not diamagnetic.

3. Sc\(^{3+}\):
Scandium has an atomic number of 21, and its ground-state electron configuration is \( [Ar]\, 3d^1\, 4s^2 \). For Sc\(^{3+}\), three electrons are lost, leaving no electrons in the outer shell. Therefore, Sc\(^{3+}\) has no unpaired electrons and is diamagnetic.

4. Ti\(^{3+}\):
Titanium has an atomic number of 22, with a ground-state electron configuration of \( [Ar]\, 3d^2\, 4s^2 \). For Ti\(^{3+}\), three electrons are lost, leaving \( [Ar]\, 3d^1 \). This ion has an unpaired electron, so it is paramagnetic, not diamagnetic.

Step 1: Analysis of Option (A).

Cr\(^{2+}\) is paramagnetic because it has unpaired electrons. So, option (A) is incorrect.

Step 2: Analysis of Option (B).

V\(^{2+}\) is paramagnetic because it has unpaired electrons. So, option (B) is incorrect.

Step 3: Analysis of Option (D).

Ti\(^{3+}\) is paramagnetic because it has an unpaired electron. So, option (D) is incorrect.

Step 4: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Sc\(^{3+}\), as it is diamagnetic with no unpaired electrons. Quick Tip: Diamagnetic substances have all their electrons paired, resulting in no net magnetic moment.


Question 10:

The electronic configuration of copper (Z = 29) is:

  • (A) \([Ar] 3d^9 4s^2\)
  • (B) \([Ar] 3d^{10} 4s^1\)
  • (C) \([Ar] 3d^8 4s^2\)
  • (D) \([Ar] 3d^{10} 4s^2\)
Correct Answer: (B) \([Ar] 3d^{10} 4s^1\)
View Solution




Electronic Configuration of Copper:

Copper (Z = 29) is an element in the transition metal series. The expected electron configuration for copper can be written as: \[ [Ar] 3d^9 4s^2. \]
However, this configuration is not stable because the 3d orbital is nearly full, and the 4s orbital is only partially filled. In order to minimize energy, one electron from the 4s orbital is transferred to the 3d orbital, resulting in a more stable configuration: \[ [Ar] 3d^{10} 4s^1. \]
This is the correct electronic configuration for copper, which is why option (B) is the correct answer.


- Option (A): \([Ar] 3d^9 4s^2\) is not the most stable configuration because there is an unfilled 3d orbital and a filled 4s orbital. Hence, option (A) is incorrect.


- Option (C): \([Ar] 3d^8 4s^2\) is incorrect as it would not correspond to the correct electron configuration for copper.


- Option (D): \([Ar] 3d^{10} 4s^2\) is also incorrect, as the 4s orbital should only have one electron.


Conclusion.

The correct electron configuration for copper (Z = 29) is \([Ar] 3d^{10} 4s^1\), and the correct answer is (B).
Quick Tip: Transition metals like copper often have electron configurations where electrons are shifted between the 3d and 4s orbitals to achieve greater stability.


Question 11:

Which of the following is the electronic configuration of Lanthanide elements?

  • (A) \( (n - 2) f^{1-14} (n - 1) s^2 p^6 d^{0,1} ns^2 \)
  • (B) \( (n - 2) f^0 -14 (n - 1) d^{10} ns^2 \)
  • (C) \( (n - 2) f^0 -14 (n - 1) d^{0,1} ns^2 \)
  • (D) \( (n - 2) d^{0,1} (n - 1) f^{0-14} ns^1 \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( (n - 2) f^{1-14} (n - 1) s^2 p^6 d^{0,1} ns^2 \)
View Solution




Electronic Configuration of Lanthanides:

The lanthanides are a group of 15 chemical elements from cerium to lutetium, known for their f-block configuration. The electronic configuration of lanthanides follows the pattern where the 4f orbitals are progressively filled. The correct configuration is based on the filling of these 4f orbitals, which results in the following pattern:

1. Option (A): \( (n - 2) f^{1-14} (n - 1) s^2 p^6 d^{0,1} ns^2 \) – This is the correct answer. It accurately represents the electronic configuration of lanthanide elements where the 4f orbitals are progressively filled. The electron configuration generally involves the filling of the 4f orbitals along with the 5s and 5p orbitals, and sometimes 4d.


2. Option (B): \( (n - 2) f^0 -14 (n - 1) d^{10} ns^2 \) – This is incorrect. The 4f orbitals for lanthanides are not fully empty (f^0). This configuration does not correctly represent the gradual filling of the f orbitals.


3. Option (C): \( (n - 2) f^0 -14 (n - 1) d^{0,1} ns^2 \) – This is incorrect. Like option (B), this does not represent the correct filling of the 4f orbitals for lanthanide elements.


4. Option (D): \( (n - 2) d^{0,1} (n - 1) f^{0-14} ns^1 \) – This is incorrect. This configuration suggests a mix of d and f orbital filling that does not follow the expected pattern for lanthanide elements.


Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A), as it accurately represents the electronic configuration of lanthanide elements.
Quick Tip: The lanthanide series involves the filling of the 4f orbitals, and their electronic configurations are characterized by a gradual filling of these orbitals along with the s and p orbitals.


Question 12:

Which of the following compounds can be coloured?

  • (A) Ag\(_2\)SO\(_4\)
  • (B) CuF\(_2\)
  • (C) Cu\(_2\)Cl\(_2\)
  • (D) MgF\(_2\)
Correct Answer: (B) CuF\(_2\)
View Solution




Step 1: Colour of compounds.

The colour of a compound is usually due to the presence of transition metal ions, which can absorb visible light due to the movement of electrons between different energy levels. In ionic compounds, the metal cation often plays a role in determining the colour.

Step 2: Analysis of Options.

- (A) Ag\(_2\)SO\(_4\): Silver sulphate is a white solid and does not have any coloured properties because it involves a metal (Ag) with a stable electronic configuration and no d-electrons to absorb visible light.
- (B) CuF\(_2\): Copper(II) fluoride is a coloured compound. Copper in the +2 oxidation state (Cu\(^{2+}\)) has unpaired d-electrons, which can absorb visible light, resulting in a blue or green colour.
- (C) Cu\(_2\)Cl\(_2\): Copper(I) chloride is a white compound and does not show visible colour. The +1 oxidation state of copper here does not result in visible light absorption.
- (D) MgF\(_2\): Magnesium fluoride is a white solid and does not exhibit any colour because magnesium does not have any d-electrons to absorb visible light.

Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) CuF\(_2\), as it is a coloured compound due to the copper(II) ion's ability to absorb visible light.
Quick Tip: Compounds containing transition metals in high oxidation states (like Cu\(^{2+}\)) often exhibit colours due to electron transitions in the d-orbitals.


Question 13:

The oxidation state of Fe in \( K_4[Fe(CN)_6] \) is:

  • (A) +2
  • (B) +3
  • (C) 0
  • (D) +4
Correct Answer: (B) +3
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Compound \( K_4[Fe(CN)_6] \).

In the given compound \( K_4[Fe(CN)_6] \), the complex ion is \( [Fe(CN)_6]^{4-} \). Potassium \( K \) is a monovalent ion with a charge of \( +1 \), and there are 4 potassium ions in the compound, so their total charge is \( +4 \). The cyanide \( CN^- \) has a charge of \( -1 \), and there are 6 cyanide ions, contributing a total charge of \( -6 \). The sum of the charges in the complex ion must balance to \( -4 \), the charge of the entire complex.

Step 2: Calculating the Oxidation State of Fe.

Let the oxidation state of Fe be \( x \). The charge on the complex is given by the sum of the charges on the Fe ion and the cyanide ions: \[ x + 6(-1) = -4 \] \[ x - 6 = -4 \] \[ x = +3 \]
Thus, the oxidation state of Fe in the complex \( K_4[Fe(CN)_6] \) is \( +3 \).

Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct oxidation state of Fe in \( K_4[Fe(CN)_6] \) is \( +3 \), so the correct answer is (B).
Quick Tip: In a complex, the oxidation state of the central metal ion is determined by balancing the charges of the ligands and the overall charge of the complex.


Question 14:

The effective atomic number (E.A.N.) of cobalt in complex ion [Co(en)\(_2\)Cl\(_2\)]\(^+\) is

  • (A) 27
  • (B) 36
  • (C) 33
  • (D) 35
Correct Answer: (D) 35
View Solution




Step 1: Understand the concept of Effective Atomic Number (E.A.N.).

E.A.N. is a concept used to determine the number of electrons present around a metal ion in a coordination complex. It can be calculated using the formula: \[ E.A.N. = Z - (X + Y) \]
Where:
- \( Z \) is the atomic number of the metal ion.

- \( X \) is the number of electrons donated by the ligands (in this case, \(en\) and \(Cl\)).

- \( Y \) is the charge on the complex ion.


Step 2: Calculate the electrons donated by ligands.

- \(en\) (ethylenediamine) is a bidentate ligand, meaning it donates 2 electrons. Since there are 2 \(en\) ligands, they donate a total of 4 electrons.

- \(Cl\) (chloride) is a monodentate ligand, donating 1 electron. Since there are 2 chloride ions, they donate a total of 2 electrons.


Thus, the total number of electrons donated by the ligands is \(4 + 2 = 6\) electrons.


Step 3: Apply the formula.

The atomic number of cobalt (Co) is \(Z = 27\).

The charge on the complex ion is +1.


Using the formula: \[ E.A.N. = 27 - (6 + 1) = 27 - 7 = 35 \]

Step 4: Conclusion.

The effective atomic number of cobalt in the complex ion \([Co(en)_2Cl_2]^+\) is 35.
Quick Tip: The effective atomic number (E.A.N.) is a useful concept for determining the number of electrons around a metal ion in a coordination complex.


Question 15:

Which of the following is the structural formula of hypophosphorous acid?

Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Hypophosphorous Acid.

Hypophosphorous acid, also known as phosphinic acid, has the chemical formula \( H_3PO_2 \). The structure consists of a phosphorous atom bonded to two hydroxyl groups (–OH) and one hydrogen atom (–H) in addition to a double bond with an oxygen atom. The structure of hypophosphorous acid is as follows: \[ HO - P - H \quad OH \]

Step 2: Analyzing the Options.

- (A) \( HO - P = O \): This is incorrect as it represents phosphorous acid ( \( H_3PO_3 \) ) and not hypophosphorous acid.

- (B) \( HO - P - H \): This is correct. It is the correct structural formula for hypophosphorous acid.

- (C) \( HO - P - OOH \): This is incorrect as it represents a structure with an additional oxygen-hydrogen bond (peroxide group), which is not part of hypophosphorous acid.

- (D) \( HO - P - OH \): This is incorrect as it represents phosphoric acid ( \( H_3PO_4 \) ).


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct structural formula of hypophosphorous acid is option (B) \( HO - P - H \).
Quick Tip: Hypophosphorous acid has the formula \( H_3PO_2 \), where one hydrogen atom is bonded to phosphorous, in addition to two hydroxyl groups.


Question 16:

Ammonia can be dried by

  • (A) CaO
  • (B) P\(_4\)O\(_{10}\)
  • (C) Conc. H\(_2\)SO\(_4\)
  • (D) Anhydrous CaCl\(_2\)
Correct Answer: (A) CaO
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the drying agents.

Ammonia is a highly hygroscopic gas, which means it absorbs water readily. To dry ammonia, substances that are capable of absorbing moisture must be used. These substances are called drying agents.

Step 2: Analyze the options.

- (A) CaO: Calcium oxide (quicklime) is a drying agent that absorbs water to form calcium hydroxide. It is commonly used to dry ammonia.

- (B) P\(_4\)O\(_{10}\): Phosphorus pentoxide is a very strong desiccant but is typically used for drying gases like sulfur dioxide, not ammonia.

- (C) Conc. H\(_2\)SO\(_4\): Concentrated sulfuric acid is a dehydrating agent and can absorb water, but it is not as effective for drying ammonia as CaO.

- (D) Anhydrous CaCl\(_2\): Anhydrous calcium chloride is also a drying agent but is less commonly used for drying ammonia compared to CaO.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The best drying agent for ammonia is calcium oxide (CaO), which is commonly used in the laboratory to remove moisture from ammonia gas. Quick Tip: To dry ammonia gas, substances like CaO, which readily absorb moisture, are preferred.


Question 17:

Which among the following is the strongest base?

  • (A) \( AsH_3 \)
  • (B) \( SbH_3 \)
  • (C) \( PH_3 \)
  • (D) \( NH_3 \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( NH_3 \)
View Solution




The basicity of a compound is determined by the availability of the lone pair of electrons on the central atom. The more easily the lone pair is available for proton acceptance (H⁺), the stronger the base. Among the given compounds, ammonia (\( NH_3 \)) is the strongest base. Let's examine each option:

1. Option (A) \( AsH_3 \):
Arsenic hydride (arsine) is a weaker base compared to ammonia because arsenic is less electronegative than nitrogen, making the lone pair on arsenic less available for proton acceptance.


2. Option (B) \( SbH_3 \):
Antimony hydride (stibine) is even weaker than arsine due to the larger atomic radius and lower electronegativity of antimony compared to arsenic. This makes the lone pair even less available for proton acceptance.


3. Option (C) \( PH_3 \):
Phosphine has a lone pair on phosphorus, but phosphorus is less electronegative than nitrogen. As a result, phosphine is a weaker base than ammonia but stronger than arsine and stibine.


4. Option (D) \( NH_3 \):
Ammonia (\( NH_3 \)) is the strongest base among the four because nitrogen is highly electronegative, making its lone pair more available for proton acceptance. This increases its ability to act as a base.

Step 1: Analysis of Option (A).
\( AsH_3 \) is a weaker base than \( NH_3 \) because arsenic is less electronegative than nitrogen.


Step 2: Analysis of Option (B).
\( SbH_3 \) is an even weaker base due to the lower electronegativity of antimony.


Step 3: Analysis of Option (C).
\( PH_3 \) is a weaker base than \( NH_3 \), but it is stronger than \( AsH_3 \) and \( SbH_3 \).


Step 4: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (D) \( NH_3 \), as ammonia is the strongest base due to the higher electronegativity of nitrogen.
Quick Tip: The basicity of a compound increases with the electronegativity of the central atom. In group 15, the basicity increases as we move up the group: \( NH_3 > PH_3 > AsH_3 > SbH_3 \).


Question 18:

The hybridization of S in \(SO_3\) is:

  • (A) \(sp^2\)
  • (B) \(sp^3\)
  • (C) \(sp^3d\)
  • (D) \(sp^3d^2\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(sp^2\)
View Solution




Hybridization of Sulfur in \(SO_3\):

In \(SO_3\), sulfur forms three double bonds with oxygen atoms. The molecule is planar, and the sulfur atom has three bonding regions (one for each double bond). Since the molecule is planar and the sulfur forms three bonds, the sulfur undergoes \(sp^2\) hybridization. This involves the mixing of one \(s\)-orbital and two \(p\)-orbitals, resulting in three \(sp^2\)-hybridized orbitals that form the bonds with oxygen atoms. The remaining unhybridized \(p\)-orbital on sulfur is involved in the formation of a \(\pi\)-bond with each oxygen atom.


- Option (A) \(sp^2\): This is the correct hybridization because the sulfur in \(SO_3\) has three regions of electron density, leading to \(sp^2\) hybridization.


- Option (B) \(sp^3\): This is incorrect because sulfur in \(SO_3\) does not have four regions of electron density; it has only three regions of electron density. Hence, option (B) is incorrect.


- Option (C) \(sp^3d\): This is incorrect because \(SO_3\) does not require the involvement of d-orbitals in bonding. Hence, option (C) is incorrect.


- Option (D) \(sp^3d^2\): This is incorrect because sulfur in \(SO_3\) does not have six regions of electron density, so \(sp^3d^2\) hybridization is not required. Hence, option (D) is incorrect.


Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) \(sp^2\), as the sulfur in \(SO_3\) undergoes \(sp^2\) hybridization.
Quick Tip: In molecules like \(SO_3\) with three bonding regions and a planar structure, the central atom typically undergoes \(sp^2\) hybridization.


Question 19:

The maximum covalency of nitrogen is

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 5
Correct Answer: (C) 4
View Solution




Covalency of Nitrogen:

Covalency refers to the number of bonds an atom can form with other atoms. For nitrogen, the maximum covalency is determined by the number of available electrons in its outer shell and the ability to form multiple bonds.

Nitrogen has an atomic number of 7, and its electron configuration is \( 1s^2 2s^2 2p^3 \). The nitrogen atom has 5 valence electrons, and it can form bonds by sharing these electrons. The maximum covalency of nitrogen is 4, as it can form up to 4 covalent bonds (such as in ammonia, \( NH_3 \)).

1. Option (A): 2 – This is incorrect. Nitrogen can form more than two bonds. The maximum covalency is 4.


2. Option (B): 3 – This is incorrect. Although nitrogen typically forms three bonds (as in \( NH_3 \)), its maximum covalency is 4.


3. Option (C): 4 – This is the correct answer. Nitrogen’s maximum covalency is 4, as it can form four bonds, such as in \( NH_4^+ \) (ammonium ion).


4. Option (D): 5 – This is incorrect. Nitrogen’s maximum covalency is 4, not 5, as its valence shell can accommodate a maximum of four bonds.


Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) 4, as nitrogen can form up to four covalent bonds.
Quick Tip: The maximum covalency of nitrogen is 4, as it can form four bonds in compounds like \( NH_4^+ \).


Question 20:

The number of unpaired electrons in one molecule of liquid oxygen is

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (B) 2
View Solution




Step 1: Electronic Configuration of Oxygen.

Oxygen has an atomic number of 8, and its electronic configuration is: \[ 1s^2 2s^2 2p^4 \]
In this configuration, the 2p orbital contains 4 electrons. According to Hund's rule, these 4 electrons will occupy the 3 degenerate 2p orbitals with 2 of them remaining unpaired.

Step 2: Explanation.

- Liquid oxygen consists of O\(_2\) molecules, and each oxygen atom in the molecule has 2 unpaired electrons in the 2p orbital.
- Hence, for one molecule of oxygen (O\(_2\)), there are a total of 2 unpaired electrons.

Step 3: Conclusion.

The number of unpaired electrons in one molecule of liquid oxygen is 2. Therefore, the correct answer is (B).
Quick Tip: Oxygen molecules (O\(_2\)) have 2 unpaired electrons, making them paramagnetic and reactive.


Question 21:

The most abundant noble gas in atmosphere is:

  • (A) He
  • (B) Ar
  • (C) Xe
  • (D) Rn
Correct Answer: (B) Ar
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding Noble Gases.

Noble gases are the elements in Group 18 of the periodic table, and they are chemically inert due to their complete valence electron shells. The most abundant noble gases in Earth's atmosphere are helium (He), argon (Ar), xenon (Xe), and radon (Rn), with varying concentrations.


Step 2: Analyzing the Abundance.

- Helium (He) is present in trace amounts in the Earth's atmosphere, making up about 0.0005% of the air.
- Argon (Ar) is the most abundant noble gas in the atmosphere, making up approximately 0.93% of the Earth's atmosphere.
- Xenon (Xe) is present in much smaller amounts, less than 0.0001%.
- Radon (Rn) is a rare noble gas that is present in trace amounts as a result of the decay of radioactive elements.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The most abundant noble gas in the atmosphere is argon (Ar), so the correct answer is (B).
Quick Tip: Argon is the most abundant noble gas in the Earth's atmosphere, making up about 0.93% of the air.


Question 22:

The electromotive force of the following cell is



Zn | Zn\(^{2+}\) \(1M\) \(\parallel\) Fe\(^{2+}\) \(1M\) | Fe

E\(^\circ\) Zn\(^{2+}\) | Zn = -0.76V, E\(^\circ\) Fe\(^{2+}\) | Fe = -0.44V

  • (A) 1.2 V
  • (B) 0.32 V
  • (C) -1.2 V
  • (D) -0.32 V
Correct Answer: (A) 1.2 V
View Solution




Step 1: Formula for Electromotive Force (EMF).

The electromotive force (EMF) of the cell can be calculated using the Nernst equation, which is given as: \[ EMF = E^\circ_{cathode} - E^\circ_{anode} \]
Here, the cathode is the reduction half-reaction, and the anode is the oxidation half-reaction.

Step 2: Apply the given values.

The given reduction potentials are: \( E^\circ_{Zn} = -0.76 \, V \) (anode), \( E^\circ_{Fe} = -0.44 \, V \) (cathode).

Thus, the EMF is: \[ EMF = (-0.44) - (-0.76) = -0.44 + 0.76 = 1.2 \, V. \]

Step 3: Conclusion.

The EMF of the cell is 1.2 V. Quick Tip: The EMF of a cell is calculated by subtracting the reduction potential of the anode from that of the cathode.


Question 23:

The unit of specific conductance is:

  • (A) ohm cm\(^{-1}\)
  • (B) ohm cm\(^{-2}\)
  • (C) ohm\(^{-1}\) cm\(^{-1}\)
  • (D) ohm\(^{-1}\) cm\(^{-2}\)
Correct Answer: (C) ohm\(^{-1}\) cm\(^{-1}\)
View Solution




Specific conductance (also called conductivity) is a measure of the ability of a material (usually an electrolyte solution) to conduct electric current. The unit of specific conductance is derived from the inverse of resistivity. The resistivity of a material has units of ohm-meter (\(\Omega\)-m), and conductance is the reciprocal of resistivity.

1. Specific conductance formula:
The formula for specific conductance (\(\kappa\)) is:
\[ \kappa = \frac{1}{\rho} \]
where \(\rho\) is the resistivity. Since the unit of resistivity is ohm-meter, the unit of specific conductance is the inverse of resistivity.

2. Unit analysis:
Since resistivity is measured in ohm-meter (\(\Omega \cdot m\)), the unit of specific conductance is ohm\(^{-1}\) meter\(^{-1}\), or equivalently, ohm\(^{-1}\) cm\(^{-1}\) when using centimeters as the unit of length.

3. Step-by-step option analysis:
- Option (A): ohm cm\(^{-1}\) is the correct unit for specific conductance.
- Option (B): ohm cm\(^{-2}\) does not correspond to specific conductance.
- Option (C): ohm\(^{-1}\) cm\(^{-1}\) is the correct unit, as derived from the resistivity formula.
- Option (D): ohm\(^{-1}\) cm\(^{-2}\) is not the correct unit for specific conductance.

Step 1: Analysis of Option (A).

Option (A) ohm cm\(^{-1}\) is the correct unit for specific conductance.


Step 2: Analysis of Options (B), (C), and (D).

Options (B), (C), and (D) are incorrect as they do not match the unit derived for specific conductance.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct unit of specific conductance is (C) ohm\(^{-1}\) cm\(^{-1}\).
Quick Tip: The unit of specific conductance is the inverse of resistivity, which is ohm\(^{-1}\) cm\(^{-1}\).


Question 24:

Which among the following aqueous solutions has the highest boiling point?

  • (A) 1% glucose
  • (B) 1% sucrose
  • (C) 1% NaCl
  • (D) 1% CaCl\(_2\)
Correct Answer: (D) 1% CaCl\(_2\)
View Solution




Step 1: Colligative Properties and Boiling Point.

Boiling point elevation is a colligative property, which depends on the number of solute particles in a solution, not the type of solute. The more particles in the solution, the higher the boiling point.

Step 2: Dissociation of Solutes.

- 1% glucose does not dissociate into ions, so it provides fewer particles in the solution.
- 1% sucrose also does not dissociate, and thus has a similar effect as glucose.
- 1% NaCl dissociates into Na\(^+\) and Cl\(^-\), giving two particles per formula unit.
- 1% CaCl\(_2\) dissociates into Ca\(^{2+}\) and two Cl\(^-\) ions, giving three particles per formula unit.

Step 3: Conclusion.

The more particles in the solution, the higher the boiling point. Since 1% CaCl\(_2\) dissociates into the most particles, it will have the highest boiling point. Quick Tip: Colligative properties, such as boiling point elevation, depend on the number of solute particles in the solution.


Question 25:

Which of the following is not a colligative property?

  • (A) Vapour pressure
  • (B) Depression of freezing point
  • (C) Osmotic pressure
  • (D) Elevation of boiling point
Correct Answer: (A) Vapour pressure
View Solution




Colligative Properties:

Colligative properties are properties of solutions that depend on the number of solute particles in a given amount of solvent, and not on the nature of the solute particles themselves. The four colligative properties are:
1. Elevation of boiling point

2. Depression of freezing point

3. Osmotic pressure

4. Vapour pressure lowering


Step 1: Analyzing Option (A).

Vapour pressure is not a colligative property. It depends on the nature of the solvent and the solute. While the presence of a solute will reduce the vapour pressure of the solvent, it is not considered a true colligative property as it is influenced by the type of solvent and solute molecules.


Step 2: Analyzing Option (B).

Depression of freezing point is a colligative property. The freezing point of a solvent decreases when a solute is dissolved in it, and this decrease depends on the amount of solute particles, not their nature.


Step 3: Analyzing Option (C).

Osmotic pressure is another colligative property. It depends on the number of solute particles in solution and not their nature. Osmotic pressure increases with the concentration of solute particles.


Step 4: Analyzing Option (D).

Elevation of boiling point is a colligative property. The boiling point of a solvent increases when a solute is dissolved in it, and this increase is proportional to the number of solute particles.


Step 5: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) Vapour pressure, as it is not a colligative property.
Quick Tip: Colligative properties depend on the number of solute particles in a solution, not their nature. The key colligative properties are: boiling point elevation, freezing point depression, osmotic pressure, and vapour pressure lowering.


Question 26:

An aqueous solution of which of the following compounds shows abnormal osmotic pressure?

  • (A) Urea
  • (B) Common salt
  • (C) Glucose
  • (D) Sucrose
Correct Answer: (B) Common salt
View Solution




Osmotic Pressure:

Osmotic pressure is the pressure required to stop the flow of solvent into a solution through a semipermeable membrane. The osmotic pressure is determined by the number of solute particles in a solution. In general, for a given concentration, compounds that dissociate into multiple particles in solution exhibit a higher osmotic pressure compared to those that do not dissociate.

- Urea (Option A): Urea does not dissociate in water, so its osmotic pressure is proportional to its molar concentration. Hence, it does not show abnormal osmotic pressure compared to its molar concentration.

- Common salt (Option B): Common salt (NaCl) dissociates into two ions (Na\(^+\) and Cl\(^-\)) in water. Therefore, it shows a higher osmotic pressure because it produces more particles in solution. This is the cause of the "abnormal" osmotic pressure, as it is not directly proportional to its molar concentration.

- Glucose (Option C): Glucose does not dissociate in solution, so its osmotic pressure is similar to what would be expected from its molar concentration. Hence, option (C) is incorrect.

- Sucrose (Option D): Like glucose, sucrose does not dissociate in water, so it shows a normal osmotic pressure proportional to its molar concentration. Hence, option (D) is incorrect.

Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) Common salt, as it dissociates into multiple ions, causing abnormal osmotic pressure.
Quick Tip: Osmotic pressure depends on the number of solute particles in solution. Dissociation into multiple particles increases the osmotic pressure.


Question 27:

The solution which shows positive or negative deviation from Raoult’s law is called

  • (A) Ideal solution
  • (B) True solution
  • (C) Non-ideal solution
  • (D) Colloidal solution
Correct Answer: (C) Non-ideal solution
View Solution




Raoult's Law and Deviations:

Raoult's law states that the partial vapor pressure of each volatile component in a solution is directly proportional to its mole fraction. According to Raoult’s law, an ideal solution behaves in such a way that the total vapor pressure is the sum of the partial vapor pressures of its components, and the behavior follows a straight line. However, real solutions may deviate from Raoult’s law, either showing a positive or negative deviation based on intermolecular forces.

1. Option (A): Ideal solution – This is incorrect. An ideal solution obeys Raoult's law perfectly and does not show any deviation.


2. Option (B): True solution – This is incorrect. A true solution may or may not show deviations from Raoult’s law. The term "true solution" does not necessarily refer to deviations.


3. Option (C): Non-ideal solution – This is the correct answer. Non-ideal solutions show positive or negative deviations from Raoult’s law due to differences in intermolecular interactions between the components.


4. Option (D): Colloidal solution – This is incorrect. Colloidal solutions do not show positive or negative deviations from Raoult's law as they consist of particles larger than those in true solutions but smaller than those in suspensions.


Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Non-ideal solution, as these solutions show deviations from Raoult’s law.
Quick Tip: Non-ideal solutions deviate from Raoult's law due to differences in intermolecular forces between the solute and solvent.


Question 28:

Isotonic solutions have equal

  • (A) osmotic pressure
  • (B) vapour pressure
  • (C) relative lowering of vapour pressure
  • (D) elevation of boiling point
Correct Answer: (A) osmotic pressure
View Solution




Step 1: Definition of Isotonic Solutions.

Isotonic solutions are those that have the same osmotic pressure. Osmosis is the movement of solvent molecules through a semi-permeable membrane from an area of low solute concentration to an area of high solute concentration. When two solutions are isotonic, they exert the same osmotic pressure and thus do not cause any net movement of solvent across the membrane.

Step 2: Explanation of Options.

- (A) Osmotic pressure: This is the correct answer because isotonic solutions have equal osmotic pressure.

- (B) Vapour pressure: Although isotonic solutions may have similar vapour pressures, they are not necessarily equal.

- (C) Relative lowering of vapour pressure: This applies to solutions in general, but isotonicity refers to osmotic pressure, not vapour pressure lowering.

- (D) Elevation of boiling point: This refers to the colligative property of a solution, but isotonic solutions specifically relate to equal osmotic pressures, not boiling point elevation.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) osmotic pressure, as isotonic solutions have equal osmotic pressure.
Quick Tip: Isotonic solutions have equal osmotic pressure, which is the defining characteristic of isotonicity.


Question 29:

The structure of complex ion \([ Ni (CN)_4 ]^{2-}\) is:

  • (A) Linear
  • (B) Tetrahedral
  • (C) Square planar
  • (D) Octahedral
Correct Answer: (C) Square planar
View Solution




The complex ion \([ Ni (CN)_4 ]^{2-}\) involves nickel in the \( +2 \) oxidation state, where the central metal ion has a d^8 electron configuration. For d^8 systems, the geometry is typically square planar. This configuration occurs because of the crystal field splitting in the presence of ligands such as cyanide ions (\(CN^-\)).

Step 1: Analysis of Option (A).

The linear geometry is not suitable for a d^8 system. Linear geometry typically occurs in complexes with d^10 or d^2 electron configurations, so option (A) is incorrect.

Step 2: Analysis of Option (B).

A tetrahedral geometry is not correct for \([ Ni (CN)_4 ]^{2-}\) because tetrahedral geometry is commonly observed in d^10 or d^4 complexes. Therefore, option (B) is incorrect.

Step 3: Analysis of Option (D).

Octahedral geometry is observed in d^6 or d^4 complexes, not d^8. Therefore, option (D) is incorrect.

Step 4: Conclusion.

The correct structure for \([ Ni (CN)_4 ]^{2-}\) is square planar as it is a d^8 system. Hence, option (C) is the correct answer. Quick Tip: In coordination chemistry, a square planar geometry is commonly observed for d^8 metal ions, such as Ni\(^{2+}\).


Question 30:

The IUPAC name of the complex compound \([ Co(NH_3)_6 ]Cl_3\) is:

  • (A) Hexa-ammine cobalt (III) chloride
  • (B) Hexa-ammine cobalt (II) chloride
  • (C) Hexa-ammine trichloridocobalt (III)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Hexa-ammine cobalt (III) chloride
View Solution




IUPAC Naming of Coordination Compounds:

The IUPAC name of a coordination compound follows specific rules. For the compound \([ Co(NH_3)_6 ]Cl_3\), the steps to name it are as follows:

1. Identify the Ligands: The ligand in this compound is \(NH_3\), which is called "ammine" (not "ammonia" in IUPAC naming).
2. Name the Metal: The metal is cobalt (Co). The oxidation state of cobalt is \(+3\) because the complex is neutral and the chloride ions (\(Cl^-\)) are counterions. Hence, cobalt will be in the \(+3\) oxidation state.
3. Name the Complex: The complex is made up of six ammine ligands, so the name of the complex part is "hexa-ammine".
4. Final Name: The full name of the complex compound is "Hexa-ammine cobalt (III) chloride".

Therefore, the correct IUPAC name is (A) Hexa-ammine cobalt (III) chloride.


- Option (B): "Hexa-ammine cobalt (II) chloride" is incorrect because the oxidation state of cobalt in this compound is \(+3\), not \(+2\). Hence, option (B) is incorrect.


- Option (C): "Hexa-ammine trichloridocobalt (III)" is incorrect because there are no chloride ions as part of the coordination sphere; they are counterions. Hence, option (C) is incorrect.


- Option (D): "None of these" is incorrect because option (A) is correct.


Conclusion.

The correct IUPAC name is (A) Hexa-ammine cobalt (III) chloride.
Quick Tip: In IUPAC naming of coordination compounds, the number of ligands is indicated with prefixes like "hexa" for six. The oxidation state of the metal is indicated in parentheses after the metal's name.


Question 31:

Which of the following cannot show linkage isomerism?

  • (A) \( NO_2^- \)
  • (B) \( SCN^- \)
  • (C) \( CN^- \)
  • (D) \( NH_3 \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( \text{NH}_3 \)
View Solution




Linkage Isomerism:

Linkage isomerism occurs in coordination compounds where a ligand can bind to the metal through two different atoms. For example, the thiocyanate ion (\( SCN^- \)) can bind through the sulfur atom (S) or the nitrogen atom (N), leading to two different isomers.

1. Option (A): \( NO_2^- \) – This ion can show linkage isomerism, as it can bind through the nitrogen atom or the oxygen atom in some cases, leading to different structures.


2. Option (B): \( SCN^- \) – This ion is known to exhibit linkage isomerism, as it can bind through either the sulfur (S) or the nitrogen (N) atom.


3. Option (C): \( CN^- \) – Cyanide also shows linkage isomerism, as it can bind to the metal center through either the carbon (C) or nitrogen (N) atom.


4. Option (D): \( NH_3 \) – This is the correct answer. Ammonia (\( NH_3 \)) does not exhibit linkage isomerism, as it binds to the metal only through the nitrogen atom. There are no alternative binding sites.


Conclusion.

The correct answer is (D) \( NH_3 \), as ammonia does not show linkage isomerism.
Quick Tip: Linkage isomerism occurs when a ligand can coordinate to the metal through different atoms, leading to different isomers. Ammonia does not exhibit this type of isomerism.


Question 32:

Reaction of primary amine with chloroform in the presence of alcoholic KOH is called

  • (A) Hydrolysis
  • (B) Reduction
  • (C) Wurtz reaction
  • (D) Carbylamine reaction
Correct Answer: (D) Carbylamine reaction
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Reaction.

When a primary amine reacts with chloroform (CHCl\(_3\)) in the presence of alcoholic KOH, it undergoes a reaction called the Carbylamine reaction. In this reaction, a primary amine forms an isocyanide (also known as a carbylamine), which is a compound containing the group -NC.

Step 2: Analysis of Options.

- (A) Hydrolysis: This refers to the breakdown of compounds by water, but it is not relevant to the reaction with chloroform and KOH.
- (B) Reduction: This involves the gain of electrons or the reduction of a compound, but this is not the case in the reaction with chloroform and KOH.
- (C) Wurtz reaction: This involves the formation of alkanes by coupling alkyl halides with sodium in dry ether, unrelated to the reaction with chloroform.
- (D) Carbylamine reaction: This is the correct answer. The reaction of primary amines with chloroform and alcoholic KOH produces an isocyanide, which is a characteristic product of the carbylamine reaction.

Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (D) Carbylamine reaction, as the primary amine reacts with chloroform in the presence of alcoholic KOH to form an isocyanide.
Quick Tip: In the Carbylamine reaction, primary amines react with chloroform and alcoholic KOH to form isocyanides, which are distinctive compounds.


Question 33:

Which of the following is chloral?

  • (A) \( CCl_3CHO \)
  • (B) \( CCl_3COCH_3 \)
  • (C) \( CCl_3COCCl_3 \)
  • (D) \( CCl_3CH_2OH \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( \text{CCl}_3\text{CHO} \)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding Chloral.

Chloral is an organic compound with the formula \( CCl_3CHO \). It is an aldehyde where the carbonyl group is attached to a trichloromethyl group (–CCl3). The name "chloral" comes from the presence of three chlorine atoms attached to the carbon atom in the –CCl3 group.


Step 2: Analyzing the Options.

- (A) \( CCl_3CHO \): This is the correct structure of chloral, an aldehyde with the –CCl3 group attached to the carbonyl group.

- (B) \( CCl_3COCH_3 \): This is not chloral; it is trichloroacetone, which contains a ketone group rather than an aldehyde group.

- (C) \( CCl_3COCCl_3 \): This is not chloral; it is trichloroethyl trichloroacetate, which also does not have the aldehyde group.

- (D) \( CCl_3CH_2OH \): This is not chloral; it is trichloroethanol, which is an alcohol and not an aldehyde.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) \( CCl_3CHO \), as it is the molecular structure of chloral.
Quick Tip: Chloral is a trichlorinated aldehyde, with the chemical formula \( CCl_3CHO \). It is different from trichloroacetone or trichloroethanol.


Question 34:

Which of the following has zero dipole moment?

  • (A) CH\(_3\)Cl
  • (B) CCl\(_4\)
  • (C) CH\(_2\)Cl\(_2\)
  • (D) CHCl\(_3\)
Correct Answer: (B) CCl\(_4\)
View Solution




Step 1: Understand dipole moment.

Dipole moment occurs in a molecule when there is a separation of charge between two atoms with different electronegativities. The molecule's shape also affects the dipole moment. If the individual bond dipoles cancel out due to symmetry, the molecule will have a net dipole moment of zero.

Step 2: Analyze the given compounds.

- (A) CH\(_3\)Cl: Chloromethane has a net dipole moment due to the difference in electronegativity between carbon and chlorine.

- (B) CCl\(_4\): Carbon tetrachloride is a symmetrical tetrahedral molecule. Despite the individual C-Cl bonds having dipoles, the symmetry causes them to cancel out, resulting in a zero net dipole moment.

- (C) CH\(_2\)Cl\(_2\): Dichloromethane has a net dipole moment due to its asymmetry.

- (D) CHCl\(_3\): Chloroform also has a net dipole moment due to its asymmetry.

Step 3: Conclusion.

CCl\(_4\) has zero dipole moment because of its symmetrical tetrahedral structure, where the individual dipoles cancel out.
Quick Tip: In molecules with symmetrical shapes, the individual bond dipoles can cancel each other out, resulting in zero net dipole moment.


Question 35:

The IUPAC name of following is:


  • (A) 3-chloro-2-methyl butane
  • (B) 2-chloro-3-methyl butane
  • (C) Isobutyl chloride
  • (D) Secondary butyl chloride
Correct Answer: (B) 2-chloro-3-methyl butane
View Solution




In this compound, we have a chloro group (Cl) attached to a carbon chain, and a methyl group (-CH₃) attached to another carbon in the chain. To find the IUPAC name, we follow these steps:

1. The longest carbon chain has 4 carbon atoms, so the base name is butane.
2. The chloro group is attached to the second carbon of the chain, making it 2-chloro.
3. The methyl group is attached to the third carbon, making it 3-methyl.

Thus, the IUPAC name of the compound is 2-chloro-3-methyl butane, corresponding to option (B).


Step 1: Analysis of Option (A).

Option (A) 3-chloro-2-methyl butane is incorrect because the positions of the chloro and methyl groups are swapped. The chloro group is on the second carbon and the methyl group on the third, not the other way around.


Step 2: Analysis of Option (C).

Option (C) Isobutyl chloride is incorrect because this name suggests a different structure, where the chloro group is attached to an isobutyl group, which is not the case here.


Step 3: Analysis of Option (D).

Option (D) Secondary butyl chloride is incorrect because this name refers to a secondary-butyl group attached to a chlorine atom. The structure in question does not match this description.


Step 4: Conclusion.

The correct IUPAC name is 2-chloro-3-methyl butane, making option (B) the correct answer.
Quick Tip: When naming organic compounds, always number the carbon chain such that substituents (like chloro and methyl) get the lowest possible numbers.


Question 36:

Which of the following would give Aldol condensation reaction?

  • (A) CCl\(_3\)CHO
  • (B) CH\(_3\)CHO
  • (C) CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)CHO
  • (D) HCHO
Correct Answer: (B) CH\(_3\)CHO
View Solution




Step 1: Aldol Condensation Overview.

Aldol condensation is a reaction between two aldehydes or ketones in the presence of a base, resulting in the formation of an \(\beta\)-hydroxy aldehyde or ketone, which can undergo further dehydration to form an \(\alpha,\beta\)-unsaturated carbonyl compound.

Step 2: Analysis of Options.

- (A) CCl\(_3\)CHO: Chloral (CCl\(_3\)CHO) would not readily undergo Aldol condensation due to the electron-withdrawing nature of the chloro groups.
- (B) CH\(_3\)CHO: Acetaldehyde (CH\(_3\)CHO) is a common compound that undergoes Aldol condensation to form \(\beta\)-hydroxy aldehydes, which can further dehydrate to give \(\alpha,\beta\)-unsaturated aldehydes.
- (C) CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)CHO: Butyraldehyde (CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)CHO) also undergoes Aldol condensation, but it is less commonly used compared to acetaldehyde.
- (D) HCHO: Formaldehyde (HCHO) does not typically undergo Aldol condensation under normal conditions due to the lack of a hydrogen atom on the \(\alpha\)-carbon.

Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) CH\(_3\)CHO, as acetaldehyde undergoes Aldol condensation easily.
Quick Tip: Aldol condensation typically occurs between two aldehydes or ketones with at least one \(\alpha\)-hydrogen, and acetaldehyde is one of the simplest and most common reagents for this reaction.


Question 37:

Vinegar contains:

  • (A) 10-20% acetic acid
  • (B) 10% acetic acid
  • (C) 6-10% acetic acid
  • (D) 100% acetic acid
Correct Answer: (A) 10-20% acetic acid
View Solution




Step 1: Composition of Vinegar.

Vinegar is a solution containing acetic acid, typically produced by fermenting ethanol. The concentration of acetic acid in vinegar usually ranges between 4-8%. However, depending on the vinegar type, this concentration may vary. Commonly, vinegar contains around 10-20% acetic acid by volume.

Step 2: Analyzing the Options.

- (A) 10-20% acetic acid: This is correct. Vinegar typically contains around 10-20% acetic acid.

- (B) 10% acetic acid: This is incorrect, as vinegar typically contains a range of 10-20% acetic acid, but 10% is not the standard for all types.

- (C) 6-10% acetic acid: This is also incorrect because vinegar typically contains more than 10% acetic acid, with most types ranging between 10-20%.

- (D) 100% acetic acid: This is incorrect. Vinegar is a diluted solution, and it does not contain pure acetic acid.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct concentration of acetic acid in vinegar is 10-20%, making option (A) the correct answer.
Quick Tip: Vinegar typically contains 10-20% acetic acid, which gives it its characteristic sour taste.


Question 38:

The IUPAC name of CH\(_3\)COOC\(_2\)H\(_5\) is

  • (A) Methyl propanoate
  • (B) Ethyl ethanoate
  • (C) Acetoethane
  • (D) Ethoxyethane
Correct Answer: (A) Methyl propanoate
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the structure of the compound.

The compound given is CH\(_3\)COOC\(_2\)H\(_5\), which consists of a methyl group (CH\(_3\)) attached to a propanoate (C\(_2\)H\(_5\)COO) group. The IUPAC name for such an ester is formed by combining the names of the alkyl group (methyl) and the parent carboxylate (propanoate).

Step 2: Analyze the options.

- (A) Methyl propanoate: This is the correct IUPAC name for the given compound, where the methyl group is attached to a propanoate group.

- (B) Ethyl ethanoate: This is incorrect, as the compound is not ethyl but methyl. Ethyl ethanoate is the IUPAC name for ethyl acetate.

- (C) Acetoethane: This is incorrect, as acetoethane is not the proper name for this compound.

- (D) Ethoxyethane: This is incorrect, as the compound in question is an ester, not an ether.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The IUPAC name of CH\(_3\)COOC\(_2\)H\(_5\) is Methyl propanoate. Quick Tip: When naming esters in IUPAC, the alkyl group (derived from the alcohol) is named first, followed by the name of the acid (with the "-oate" suffix).


Question 39:

The general formula of an amine is:

  • (A) \( C_nH_{2n+1}N \)
  • (B) \( C_nH_{2n+2}N \)
  • (C) \( C_nH_{2n+3}N \)
  • (D) \( C_nH_{2n}N \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( C_nH_{2n+1}N \)
View Solution




Amines are organic compounds that contain nitrogen atoms bonded to alkyl or aryl groups. The general formula for an amine is \( C_nH_{2n+1}N \), where \( n \) is the number of carbon atoms. This formula represents a class of compounds known as primary amines, where one hydrogen of ammonia (NH₃) is replaced by an alkyl or aryl group.

1. Option (A):
The formula \( C_nH_{2n+1}N \) corresponds to primary amines, which is the correct answer. The number of hydrogen atoms is \( 2n + 1 \) for an amine.

2. Option (B):
The formula \( C_nH_{2n+2}N \) is incorrect for amines. This formula represents compounds like alkylamine derivatives with two additional hydrogen atoms.

3. Option (C):
The formula \( C_nH_{2n+3}N \) is incorrect as it does not follow the structure of amines, where the number of hydrogen atoms is usually \( 2n + 1 \).

4. Option (D):
The formula \( C_nH_{2n}N \) is incorrect as it would imply a structure that does not follow the common bonding of nitrogen in amines.

Step 1: Analysis of Option (A).

This is the correct general formula for a primary amine. The structure follows the alkyl group attached to a nitrogen atom with the number of hydrogen atoms being \( 2n + 1 \).


Step 2: Analysis of Options (B), (C), and (D).

These options do not correctly represent the general formula for amines, as their hydrogen counts deviate from the expected structure of primary amines.

Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct general formula for an amine is \( C_nH_{2n+1}N \), making option (A) the correct answer.
Quick Tip: For primary amines, the general formula is \( C_nH_{2n+1}N \), where one hydrogen atom from ammonia (NH₃) is replaced by an alkyl or aryl group.


Question 40:

Which of the following is Hinsberg reagent?

  • (A) Benzene sulphonyl chloride
  • (B) Benzene sulphonic acid
  • (C) Ethyl oxalate
  • (D) Acetyl chloride
Correct Answer: (A) Benzene sulphonyl chloride
View Solution




Hinsberg Reagent:

Hinsberg reagent is benzene sulphonyl chloride, commonly used in organic chemistry for the identification of primary, secondary, and tertiary amines. The reagent reacts with amines to form sulphonamides, which are used to distinguish between the different types of amines.


- Benzene sulphonyl chloride (Option A): This is the correct Hinsberg reagent, as it reacts with amines to form sulphonamides, allowing differentiation of amines. Hence, option (A) is correct.


- Benzene sulphonic acid (Option B): While this is related to benzene sulphonyl chloride, it is not the correct Hinsberg reagent, so option (B) is incorrect.


- Ethyl oxalate (Option C): Ethyl oxalate is not used as a Hinsberg reagent, and it does not have the same reactivity with amines. Hence, option (C) is incorrect.


- Acetyl chloride (Option D): Acetyl chloride is a reagent for acetylation reactions, not for differentiating amines. Hence, option (D) is incorrect.


Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) Benzene sulphonyl chloride, as it is the Hinsberg reagent used to distinguish amines.
Quick Tip: Benzene sulphonyl chloride is used in the Hinsberg test to differentiate between primary, secondary, and tertiary amines.


Question 41:


is a

  • (A) Primary amine
  • (B) Secondary amine
  • (C) Tertiary amine
  • (D) Ammonium salt
Correct Answer: (A) Primary amine
View Solution




Classification of Amines:

Amines are classified based on the number of carbon groups attached to the nitrogen atom. In the given compound:
\[ CH_3 C - NH_2 \]

The nitrogen atom (\( NH_2 \)) is attached to one alkyl group (methyl, \( CH_3 \)) and the carbon atom. This structure corresponds to a primary amine because the nitrogen is attached to one alkyl group and one hydrogen atom.

1. Option (A): Primary amine – This is the correct answer. A primary amine has one alkyl group attached to the nitrogen atom, as in the given compound.


2. Option (B): Secondary amine – This is incorrect. A secondary amine has two alkyl groups attached to the nitrogen atom, not just one.


3. Option (C): Tertiary amine – This is incorrect. A tertiary amine has three alkyl groups attached to the nitrogen atom, not one.


4. Option (D): Ammonium salt – This is incorrect. The given compound is an amine, not an ammonium salt, which would typically be formed by the combination of an amine with an acid.


Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) Primary amine, as the given structure corresponds to a primary amine.
Quick Tip: A primary amine has one alkyl group attached to the nitrogen atom. If there are two or three alkyl groups attached, it is a secondary or tertiary amine, respectively.


Question 42:

The source of fats and oils is

  • (A) milk
  • (B) butter
  • (C) cheese
  • (D) all of these
Correct Answer: (D) all of these
View Solution




Step 1: Fats and Oils as Nutrients.

Fats and oils are lipids, which are important sources of energy. They are derived from both animal and plant sources.

Step 2: Sources of Fats and Oils.

- (A) Milk: Milk contains a significant amount of fat, which is a source of fat-soluble vitamins and energy.
- (B) Butter: Butter is a product made from milk fat and is a well-known source of fats and oils.
- (C) Cheese: Cheese also contains fats, as it is made from the milk of animals, typically cows or goats.
- (D) All of these: All of the options — milk, butter, and cheese — are sources of fats and oils.

Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (D) all of these, as milk, butter, and cheese are all sources of fats and oils.
Quick Tip: Fats and oils can be obtained from both animal sources (such as milk, butter, and cheese) and plant sources (such as olive oil and nuts).


Question 43:

The specific rate constant of a first-order reaction depends upon

  • (A) concentration of reactants
  • (B) concentration of products
  • (C) time
  • (D) temperature
Correct Answer: (D) temperature
View Solution




Rate Constant in First-Order Reactions:

For a first-order reaction, the rate of reaction is directly proportional to the concentration of the reactant. However, the specific rate constant \( k \) for a reaction is independent of the concentration of the reactants or products and only depends on the temperature.

The rate constant \( k \) can be determined experimentally, and it changes with temperature. This is described by the Arrhenius equation, which shows the dependence of the rate constant on temperature:
\[ k = A e^{-\frac{E_a}{RT}} \]
where \( A \) is the pre-exponential factor, \( E_a \) is the activation energy, \( R \) is the gas constant, and \( T \) is the temperature in Kelvin.

1. Option (A): concentration of reactants – This is incorrect. The rate constant is not dependent on the concentration of reactants. It is a constant for a given reaction at a particular temperature.


2. Option (B): concentration of products – This is incorrect. The rate constant does not depend on the concentration of products in a reaction.


3. Option (C): time – This is incorrect. The rate constant is independent of time. It is determined at a specific temperature.


4. Option (D): temperature – This is the correct answer. The rate constant \( k \) depends on temperature, as shown by the Arrhenius equation.


Conclusion.

The correct answer is (D) temperature, as the rate constant for a first-order reaction depends on the temperature.
Quick Tip: The specific rate constant for a reaction is temperature-dependent and is governed by the Arrhenius equation.


Question 44:

The hydrolysis of ethyl acetate in the presence of dilute NaOH is a reaction of which order?

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 0
Correct Answer: (A) 1
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Hydrolysis of Ethyl Acetate.

The hydrolysis of ethyl acetate in the presence of dilute NaOH is a typical example of a saponification reaction. In this reaction, the ester (ethyl acetate) reacts with water (in the presence of NaOH) to produce an alcohol (ethanol) and a carboxylate ion (acetate ion).

Step 2: Determining the Reaction Order.

This reaction proceeds through a two-step mechanism, but the rate-determining step is the attack of hydroxide ion (OH\(^-\)) on the ester, which is a first-order reaction with respect to the ester concentration.

In the presence of dilute NaOH, the reaction is a first-order reaction because the rate is proportional to the concentration of the ethyl acetate (the ester).

Step 3: Conclusion.

The hydrolysis of ethyl acetate in dilute NaOH is a first-order reaction. Therefore, the correct answer is (A).
Quick Tip: The hydrolysis of esters in the presence of NaOH (saponification) is typically a first-order reaction with respect to the ester concentration.


Question 45:

The temperature coefficient of most of the reactions lies between

  • (A) 1 and 3
  • (B) 2 and 3
  • (C) 1 and 4
  • (D) 2 and 4
Correct Answer: (C) 1 and 4
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the temperature coefficient.

The temperature coefficient refers to the change in the rate of a reaction with a change in temperature. In most chemical reactions, the rate increases with temperature. The temperature coefficient of most reactions typically lies between the values of 1 and 4.

Step 2: Analyze the options.

- (A) 1 and 3: This is incorrect because the temperature coefficient for most reactions lies between 1 and 4.

- (B) 2 and 3: This is incorrect as the temperature coefficient typically lies between 1 and 4.

- (C) 1 and 4: This is the correct answer because the temperature coefficient of most reactions is between 1 and 4.

- (D) 2 and 4: This is incorrect as the lower limit for most reactions is 1, not 2.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The temperature coefficient of most reactions lies between 1 and 4.
Quick Tip: The temperature coefficient of most reactions typically lies between 1 and 4, indicating the rate of reaction increases with temperature.


Question 46:

The expression of rate for a chemical reaction is, rate = k[A][B]^n ; the order of reaction is

  • (A) 1
  • (B) n
  • (C) n + 1
  • (D) none of these
Correct Answer: (B) n
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the rate law expression.

The rate law expression for a chemical reaction is given by the equation: \[ Rate = k[A][B]^n \]
where \( k \) is the rate constant, and \( [A] \) and \( [B] \) are the concentrations of the reactants A and B. The exponent \( n \) represents the order of the reaction with respect to reactant B.

Step 2: Analyze the options.

- (A) 1: This is incorrect, as the order of the reaction is represented by \( n \), which is the exponent in the rate law expression.

- (B) n: This is the correct answer, as \( n \) is the order of the reaction with respect to reactant B in the rate law expression.

- (C) n + 1: This is incorrect, as the order of the reaction is given by the exponent \( n \), not \( n + 1 \).

- (D) none of these: This is incorrect, as the correct answer is (B), \( n \).


Step 3: Conclusion.

The order of reaction is \( n \), which corresponds to the exponent of concentration \( [B] \) in the rate law expression.
Quick Tip: The order of a chemical reaction is determined by the sum of the exponents in the rate law expression.


Question 47:

Which of the following electrolytes is the least effective in causing coagulation of colloidal solution of ferric hydroxide?

  • (A) KBr
  • (B) \( K_2SO_4 \)
  • (C) \( K_2CrO_4 \)
  • (D) \( K_3[Fe(CN)_6] \)
Correct Answer: (A) KBr
View Solution




Coagulation of colloidal solutions occurs when the charge on the colloidal particles is neutralized, typically by the addition of electrolytes. The effectiveness of electrolytes in coagulating colloids is governed by the Van der Waals attraction between particles and the degree of ionization of the electrolytes. In general, ions with a higher charge density are more effective at causing coagulation, and those with lower charge density are less effective.

1. KBr (Option A):
KBr dissociates into \( K^+ \) and \( Br^- \) ions. The ions are monovalent, meaning they have a low charge density. This makes KBr less effective in coagulating ferric hydroxide colloids.

2. \( K_2SO_4 \) (Option B):
\( K_2SO_4 \) dissociates into \( K^+ \) and \( SO_4^{2-} \) ions. The sulfate ion has a higher charge compared to the halide ions in KBr, making it more effective than KBr in coagulating the colloidal solution.

3. \( K_2CrO_4 \) (Option C):
\( K_2CrO_4 \) dissociates into \( K^+ \) and \( CrO_4^{2-} \) ions. Like \( SO_4^{2-} \), the \( CrO_4^{2-} \) ion has a high charge, and thus \( K_2CrO_4 \) is also more effective than KBr.

4. \( K_3[Fe(CN)_6] \) (Option D):
\( K_3[Fe(CN)_6] \) dissociates into \( K^+ \) and \( [Fe(CN)_6]^{3-} \) ions. The \( [Fe(CN)_6]^{3-} \) ion is highly charged and very effective in coagulating the colloidal solution of ferric hydroxide. Therefore, it is the most effective of the given options.

Step 1: Analysis of Option (A).

KBr is the least effective because it has monovalent ions with lower charge density, making it the least effective in coagulating colloids.

Step 2: Analysis of Options (B), (C), and (D).

The other options involve ions with higher charge densities and are more effective at causing coagulation, so options (B), (C), and (D) are incorrect.

Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) KBr, as it is the least effective electrolyte for coagulation.
Quick Tip: The effectiveness of electrolytes in coagulating colloidal solutions increases with the charge density of the ions they release.


Question 48:

Which of the following is an emulsifier?

  • (A) Soap
  • (B) Oil
  • (C) NaCl
  • (D) Water
Correct Answer: (A) Soap
View Solution




Emulsifiers and Their Role:

An emulsifier is a substance that helps in the formation of an emulsion, which is a mixture of two immiscible liquids (like oil and water). Soap is a common emulsifier because it has hydrophilic (water-attracting) and hydrophobic (water-repelling) parts. The hydrophilic part binds with water, and the hydrophobic part binds with oil, helping to mix these two immiscible substances.


- Soap (Option A): Soap is an emulsifier that allows oil and water to mix, making it the correct answer. Hence, option (A) is correct.


- Oil (Option B): Oil is not an emulsifier; it is a liquid that can form an emulsion when combined with water and an emulsifier like soap. Hence, option (B) is incorrect.


- NaCl (Option C): Sodium chloride (NaCl) is not an emulsifier; it is a salt used to increase the ionic strength of a solution, but it does not help in the formation of emulsions. Hence, option (C) is incorrect.


- Water (Option D): Water is not an emulsifier either; it is one of the liquids in an emulsion, but it doesn't serve the role of an emulsifier. Hence, option (D) is incorrect.


Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) Soap, as it is a common emulsifier used to mix immiscible liquids like oil and water.
Quick Tip: Soap is an emulsifier because it has both hydrophilic and hydrophobic properties, allowing it to mix oil and water.


Question 49:

Which of the following catalysts is used in Haber’s process for the manufacture of ammonia?

  • (A) \( Al_2O_3 \)
  • (B) \( Fe + Mo \)
  • (C) \( CuO \)
  • (D) \( Pt \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( \text{Fe} + \text{Mo} \)
View Solution




Haber’s Process for Ammonia Production:

The Haber process is used for synthesizing ammonia (NH₃) from nitrogen (N₂) and hydrogen (H₂) gases. The reaction is as follows:
\[ N_2 (g) + 3H_2 (g) \xrightarrow{catalyst} 2NH_3 (g) \]

The reaction is exothermic and occurs at high pressure and temperature. The catalyst plays an important role in speeding up the reaction without being consumed.

1. Option (A): \( Al_2O_3 \) – This is incorrect. Aluminum oxide is not the catalyst used in the Haber process.


2. Option (B): \( Fe + Mo \) – This is the correct answer. Iron (Fe) is the primary catalyst used in the Haber process, often combined with molybdenum (Mo) to improve its efficiency.


3. Option (C): \( CuO \) – This is incorrect. Copper oxide is not used in the Haber process. Copper is used in other processes, but not in ammonia synthesis.


4. Option (D): \( Pt \) – This is incorrect. Platinum is a catalyst in some reactions, but not in the Haber process. Iron is used instead.


Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) \( Fe + Mo \), as iron combined with molybdenum is the catalyst used in the Haber process to manufacture ammonia.
Quick Tip: In the Haber process, iron (Fe) combined with molybdenum (Mo) is used as the catalyst to speed up the reaction between nitrogen and hydrogen to form ammonia.


Question 50:

Which of the following would give Aldol condensation reaction?

  • (A) CCl\(_3\)CHO
  • (B) CH\(_3\)CHO
  • (C) CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)CHO
  • (D) HCHO
Correct Answer: (B) CH\(_3\)CHO
View Solution




Step 1: Aldol Condensation Overview.

Aldol condensation is a reaction between two aldehydes or ketones in the presence of a base, resulting in the formation of an \(\beta\)-hydroxy aldehyde or ketone, which can undergo further dehydration to form an \(\alpha,\beta\)-unsaturated carbonyl compound.

Step 2: Analysis of Options.

- (A) CCl\(_3\)CHO: Chloral (CCl\(_3\)CHO) would not readily undergo Aldol condensation due to the electron-withdrawing nature of the chloro groups.
- (B) CH\(_3\)CHO: Acetaldehyde (CH\(_3\)CHO) is a common compound that undergoes Aldol condensation to form \(\beta\)-hydroxy aldehydes, which can further dehydrate to give \(\alpha,\beta\)-unsaturated aldehydes.
- (C) CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)CHO: Butyraldehyde (CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)CHO) also undergoes Aldol condensation, but it is less commonly used compared to acetaldehyde.
- (D) HCHO: Formaldehyde (HCHO) does not typically undergo Aldol condensation under normal conditions due to the lack of a hydrogen atom on the \(\alpha\)-carbon.

Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) CH\(_3\)CHO, as acetaldehyde undergoes Aldol condensation easily.
Quick Tip: Aldol condensation typically occurs between two aldehydes or ketones with at least one \(\alpha\)-hydrogen, and acetaldehyde is one of the simplest and most common reagents for this reaction.


Question 51:

Water soluble vitamin is:

  • (A) Vitamin E
  • (B) Vitamin D
  • (C) Vitamin K
  • (D) Vitamin B
Correct Answer: (D) Vitamin B
View Solution




Step 1: Types of Vitamins.

Vitamins are classified into two main categories based on their solubility: fat-soluble and water-soluble. Water-soluble vitamins dissolve in water and are not stored in the body in large amounts, requiring regular intake.

Step 2: Identifying Water-Soluble Vitamins.

The water-soluble vitamins include Vitamin B (which has several types like B1, B2, B12, etc.) and Vitamin C. These vitamins dissolve in water and are excreted in the urine if consumed in excess.

Step 3: Analyzing the Options.

- (A) Vitamin E: This is a fat-soluble vitamin, so it is not water-soluble.

- (B) Vitamin D: This is a fat-soluble vitamin, not water-soluble.

- (C) Vitamin K: This is also a fat-soluble vitamin.

- (D) Vitamin B: This is the correct answer as it includes a group of water-soluble vitamins.


Step 4: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (D) Vitamin B, as it is a water-soluble vitamin.
Quick Tip: Water-soluble vitamins include Vitamin B and Vitamin C, which are essential for various bodily functions.


Question 52:

The purine base present in RNA is:

  • (A) Guanine
  • (B) Thymine
  • (C) Cytosine
  • (D) Uracil
Correct Answer: (A) Guanine
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding RNA and its nitrogenous bases.

Ribonucleic acid (RNA) is a nucleic acid that plays a crucial role in protein synthesis and gene expression. The basic building blocks of RNA are nucleotides, each consisting of a sugar (ribose), a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base.


RNA contains four main nitrogenous bases: Adenine (A), Guanine (G), Cytosine (C), and Uracil (U).

Among these, Adenine and Guanine are classified as purines, while Cytosine and Uracil are pyrimidines.


Step 2: Classification of bases.

Purine bases are characterized by a double-ring structure, consisting of a six-membered and a five-membered nitrogen-containing ring fused together. Pyrimidine bases, on the other hand, have only a single six-membered ring.


Hence, among the four RNA bases:

- Adenine (purine)

- Guanine (purine)

- Cytosine (pyrimidine)

- Uracil (pyrimidine)


Step 3: Analysis of options.

(A) Guanine: A purine base found in both DNA and RNA. ✔️

(B) Thymine: A pyrimidine base found only in DNA, not in RNA. ❌

(C) Cytosine: A pyrimidine base found in both DNA and RNA. ❌

(D) Uracil: A pyrimidine base found only in RNA, replacing thymine. ❌


Step 4: Conclusion.

Among the given options, the only purine base present in RNA is Guanine. Adenine is also a purine base in RNA, but it is not listed in the given options. Therefore, the correct choice is Guanine.
Quick Tip: Purines (Adenine and Guanine) have a double-ring structure, while Pyrimidines (Cytosine, Thymine, and Uracil) have a single-ring structure. In RNA, Thymine is replaced by Uracil.


Question 53:

The product of addition polymerisation is:

  • (A) PVC
  • (B) Nylon
  • (C) Terylene
  • (D) Polyamide
Correct Answer: (A) PVC
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding polymerisation.

Polymerisation is the process in which small molecules called monomers combine to form large molecules known as polymers. It is mainly of two types — Addition polymerisation and Condensation polymerisation.


Step 2: Understanding addition polymerisation.

In addition polymerisation, similar monomer molecules having double or triple bonds join together without the elimination of any by-product. Examples include polymers like polyethylene, polypropylene, and polyvinyl chloride (PVC).


Step 3: Analyzing the given options.

(A) PVC (Polyvinyl Chloride):

PVC is formed by the addition polymerisation of vinyl chloride monomers (CH\(_2\)=CHCl). The reaction can be represented as: \[ n(CH_2=CHCl) \rightarrow (-CH_2-CHCl-)_n \]
Thus, PVC is an addition polymer.


(B) Nylon:

Nylon is formed by condensation polymerisation between diamines and dicarboxylic acids, producing water as a by-product. Hence, it is not an addition polymer.


(C) Terylene:

Terylene (also known as Dacron) is produced by condensation polymerisation between terephthalic acid and ethylene glycol.


(D) Polyamide:

Polyamides such as nylon are also formed through condensation polymerisation, not addition polymerisation.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Among the given options, only PVC is formed by addition polymerisation. Therefore, the correct answer is (A) PVC.
Quick Tip: In addition polymerisation, monomers with double or triple bonds link together without releasing any by-products. Examples: PVC, polyethylene, and polystyrene.


Question 54:

Which one of the following is a thermosetting plastic?

  • (A) Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
  • (B) Polyvinyl acetate (PVA)
  • (C) Bakelite
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Bakelite
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding thermosetting plastics.

Thermosetting plastics are materials that, once molded and hardened by heat, cannot be softened again. This is because their polymer chains are heavily cross-linked through covalent bonds, forming a rigid three-dimensional network. When heated, instead of melting, they undergo a chemical reaction that makes them permanently hard and infusible.


Step 2: Types of plastics.

Plastics are classified into two main types:

(a) Thermoplastics: These soften on heating and harden on cooling. They can be reshaped many times (examples: PVC, PVA, Polyethylene).

(b) Thermosetting plastics: These become permanently hard when heated once. They cannot be reshaped again (examples: Bakelite, Melamine).


Step 3: Analysis of given options.

(A) Polyvinyl chloride (PVC): A thermoplastic used in pipes, flooring, and cables. It softens on heating and can be remolded.

(B) Polyvinyl acetate (PVA): Also a thermoplastic, used in adhesives like Fevicol. It is flexible and can be softened again on heating.

(C) Bakelite: A thermosetting plastic. It is produced by the condensation reaction of phenol and formaldehyde. Once hardened, Bakelite cannot be softened or reshaped again. It is used in electrical switches, handles, and sockets due to its excellent heat resistance and electrical insulation.

(D) None of these: Incorrect, as Bakelite is indeed a thermosetting plastic.


Step 4: Chemical explanation.

In Bakelite, extensive cross-linking occurs between polymer chains through methylene (-CH\(_2\)-) bridges. This gives it rigidity, hardness, and resistance to heat and electricity. Hence, it is used in applications requiring non-deformable and heat-resistant materials.


Step 5: Conclusion.

Among the given options, Bakelite is the only thermosetting plastic because it becomes permanently hard after one-time heating and cannot be remolded.
Quick Tip: Thermoplastics can be softened and reshaped multiple times, while thermosetting plastics become permanently hard after one-time heating and cannot be softened again.


Question 55:

The medicines which lower fever are called —

  • (A) Analgesic
  • (B) Antibiotic
  • (C) Antipyretic
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Antipyretic
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the classification of medicines.

Medicines are categorized based on their specific functions. Some relieve pain, others fight infections, while some reduce fever. Identifying the correct type depends on the role they play in the body.


Step 2: Analysis of each option.

(A) Analgesic: Analgesics are drugs that relieve pain but do not lower body temperature. Hence, they are not antipyretics.


(B) Antibiotic: Antibiotics destroy or inhibit the growth of bacteria. They treat bacterial infections but do not reduce fever directly.


(C) Antipyretic: The term “antipyretic” means “against fever”. These drugs act on the hypothalamus—the body’s temperature control center—to reduce fever. Common examples include paracetamol and ibuprofen. Hence, this is the correct answer.


(D) None of these: Since option (C) correctly defines medicines that reduce fever, this option is incorrect.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Antipyretic medicines are those that reduce fever by acting on the body’s thermoregulatory mechanism. Therefore, the correct answer is Antipyretic.
Quick Tip: “Anti” means “against” and “pyretic” means “fever.” Hence, antipyretics are drugs used to reduce fever. Common examples are paracetamol and ibuprofen.


Question 56:

Which of the following is a disaccharide?

  • (A) Sucrose
  • (B) Glucose
  • (C) Fructose
  • (D) Starch
Correct Answer: (A) Sucrose
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding carbohydrates.

Carbohydrates are classified based on the number of sugar units they contain. These include:

- Monosaccharides: Simple sugars such as glucose and fructose containing only one sugar unit.

- Disaccharides: Formed by the condensation of two monosaccharide molecules with the elimination of a water molecule.

- Polysaccharides: Long chains of monosaccharides, such as starch and cellulose.



Step 2: Analyzing the options.

(A) Sucrose: Formed by the combination of one molecule of glucose and one molecule of fructose through a glycosidic bond. Therefore, sucrose is a disaccharide.

(B) Glucose: It is a single sugar unit, hence a monosaccharide.

(C) Fructose: Also a monosaccharide (fruit sugar).

(D) Starch: A polysaccharide composed of many glucose units.



Step 3: Conclusion.

Since sucrose is composed of two monosaccharide units (glucose + fructose), it is the correct answer. Hence, sucrose is a disaccharide.
Quick Tip: Disaccharides are formed when two monosaccharides combine through a glycosidic bond, releasing a molecule of water (condensation reaction). Common examples include sucrose, lactose, and maltose.


Question 57:

Alkali salt of palmitic acid is known as:

  • (A) an alkoxide
  • (B) an ester
  • (C) a soap
  • (D) an epoxide
Correct Answer: (C) a soap
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding palmitic acid.

Palmitic acid is a long-chain saturated fatty acid with the chemical formula \(\mathrm{C_{15}H_{31}COOH}\). It is commonly found in fats and oils of both animals and plants.


Step 2: Formation of alkali salt.

When palmitic acid reacts with a strong base such as sodium hydroxide (NaOH) or potassium hydroxide (KOH), a neutralization reaction occurs. The carboxylic acid group (\(-COOH\)) of palmitic acid reacts with the alkali to form a salt and water.


The reaction can be represented as: \[ \mathrm{C_{15}H_{31}COOH + NaOH \rightarrow C_{15}H_{31}COONa + H_2O} \]
The product, \(\mathrm{C_{15}H_{31}COONa}\), is sodium palmitate — an alkali salt of palmitic acid.


Step 3: Nature of the product.

Sodium palmitate is not an alkoxide, ester, or epoxide. It is a soap. Soaps are generally sodium or potassium salts of long-chain fatty acids like palmitic, stearic, or oleic acid.


Step 4: Analysis of options.

(A) an alkoxide: Alkoxides are derived from alcohols, not acids. ❌

(B) an ester: Esters are formed by the reaction of acids with alcohols, not bases. ❌

(C) a soap: Correct — it is the sodium or potassium salt of a fatty acid. ✔️

(D) an epoxide: Epoxides are cyclic ethers, unrelated to this reaction. ❌


Step 5: Conclusion.

Hence, the alkali salt of palmitic acid is known as a soap.
Quick Tip: Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of long-chain fatty acids. They are produced by the reaction of fats or oils with alkali in a process known as saponification.


Question 58:

The number of atoms present in a body-centred cubic (BCC) unit cell is —

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 12
Correct Answer: (A) 2
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding a BCC (Body-Centred Cubic) structure.

In a body-centred cubic unit cell, atoms are arranged such that one atom is present at each of the eight corners of the cube, and one atom is located at the center of the cube.


Step 2: Contribution of corner atoms.

Each corner atom in the crystal lattice is shared among 8 adjacent unit cells. Therefore, the contribution of each corner atom to one unit cell is: \[ \frac{1}{8} \]
Since there are 8 corners, the total contribution from all corners is: \[ 8 \times \frac{1}{8} = 1 atom. \]

Step 3: Contribution of the body-centred atom.

The atom at the center of the cube belongs entirely to the same unit cell and is not shared with any other cell. Therefore, it contributes: \[ 1 atom. \]

Step 4: Total number of atoms in one BCC unit cell.
\[ Total atoms = 1 (from corners) + 1 (from body center) = 2 \]

Step 5: Conclusion.

Hence, a body-centred cubic unit cell contains 2 atoms per unit cell.
Quick Tip: In a BCC structure: 8 corner atoms contribute 1 atom in total, and the center atom adds 1 more — giving 2 atoms per unit cell. In contrast, FCC (Face-Centred Cubic) unit cells have 4 atoms per cell.


Question 59:

Which of the following is not a crystalline solid?

  • (A) KCl
  • (B) CsCl
  • (C) Glass
  • (D) Rhombic sulphur
Correct Answer: (C) Glass
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding crystalline and amorphous solids.

Solids are generally classified into two broad categories:

1. Crystalline solids: These have a definite and regular arrangement of constituent particles (atoms, ions, or molecules) that repeat periodically in three dimensions. They possess a sharp melting point and long-range order. Examples: NaCl, CsCl, diamond, etc.

2. Amorphous solids: These do not have a regular arrangement of particles and lack a long-range order. They have irregular structures and do not exhibit a sharp melting point. Examples: glass, rubber, and plastics.



Step 2: Analysis of given options.

(A) KCl: Potassium chloride is an ionic compound with a regular crystalline structure (ionic lattice).

(B) CsCl: Cesium chloride is also an ionic crystalline solid having a cubic structure (body-centered cubic).

(C) Glass: Glass is an amorphous solid. Its structure lacks periodicity and regular arrangement of atoms. It is often called a “supercooled liquid.”

(D) Rhombic sulphur: This is the most stable crystalline form of sulphur at room temperature.



Step 3: Conclusion.

Among the options, only glass does not have a definite crystalline structure and is thus not a crystalline solid. Therefore, glass is an amorphous solid.
Quick Tip: Crystalline solids have long-range order and sharp melting points, while amorphous solids like glass do not have definite geometrical shapes or fixed melting points.


Question 60:

How many kinds of Bravais lattice are possible in a crystal?

  • (A) 23
  • (B) 7
  • (C) 30
Correct Answer: (D) 14
\textbf{Solution:}
\textbf{Step 1: Understanding crystal lattices.}
A crystal lattice is a three-dimensional arrangement of atoms, ions, or molecules in a crystalline solid. The entire crystal structure can be generated by repeating a small portion of the lattice, called the \textbf{unit cell}, in all directions.
\textbf{Step 2: Crystal systems and Bravais lattices.}
Crystals are categorized into \textbf{7 crystal systems} based on their axial lengths and interaxial angles. These systems are:
1. Cubic
2. Tetragonal
3. Orthorhombic
4. Monoclinic
5. Triclinic
6. Hexagonal
7. Rhombohedral (or Trigonal)
Each system can have one or more possible arrangements of lattice points called \textbf{Bravais lattices}. The total number of distinct Bravais lattices possible in three-dimensional space is \textbf{14}.
\textbf{Step 3: Distribution of Bravais lattices.}
\[ \begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \textbf{Crystal System} & \textbf{Number of Bravais Lattices}
\hline Cubic & 3
Tetragonal & 2
Orthorhombic & 4
Monoclinic & 2
Triclinic & 1
Hexagonal & 1
Rhombohedral & 1
\hline \textbf{Total} & \textbf{14}
\hline \end{array} \] \textbf{Step 4: Conclusion.}
Hence, there are \textbf{14 kinds of Bravais lattices} possible in a crystal.
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding crystal lattices.

A crystal lattice is a three-dimensional arrangement of atoms, ions, or molecules in a crystalline solid. The entire crystal structure can be generated by repeating a small portion of the lattice, called the unit cell, in all directions.


Step 2: Crystal systems and Bravais lattices.

Crystals are categorized into 7 crystal systems based on their axial lengths and interaxial angles. These systems are:

1. Cubic

2. Tetragonal

3. Orthorhombic

4. Monoclinic

5. Triclinic

6. Hexagonal

7. Rhombohedral (or Trigonal)


Each system can have one or more possible arrangements of lattice points called Bravais lattices. The total number of distinct Bravais lattices possible in three-dimensional space is 14.


Step 3: Distribution of Bravais lattices.
\[ \begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline \textbf{Crystal System} & \textbf{Number of Bravais Lattices}
\hline Cubic & 3
Tetragonal & 2
Orthorhombic & 4
Monoclinic & 2
Triclinic & 1
Hexagonal & 1
Rhombohedral & 1
\hline \textbf{Total} & \textbf{14}
\hline \end{array} \]

Step 4: Conclusion.

Hence, there are 14 kinds of Bravais lattices possible in a crystal.
Quick Tip: The 14 Bravais lattices represent all possible three-dimensional arrangements of atoms that can exist in a crystal. They arise from combinations of the 7 crystal systems and 4 types of lattice centering (primitive, body-centered, face-centered, and base-centered).


Question 61:

The percentage of free space in a body-centred cubic (BCC) unit cell is:

  • (A) 32
  • (B) 34
  • (C) 28
  • (D) 20
Correct Answer: (A) 32
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the structure of BCC.

In a body-centred cubic (BCC) structure, atoms are located at each corner of the cube and one atom is at the body centre. Each corner atom is shared by eight unit cells, and the body-centred atom is exclusive to one unit cell. Therefore, the total number of atoms per BCC unit cell is: \[ Atoms per unit cell = 8 \times \frac{1}{8} + 1 = 2 \]

Step 2: Relation between atomic radius (r) and edge length (a).

In a BCC unit cell, the body diagonal passes through the centres of three atoms — two corner atoms and one body-centred atom. Hence, the body diagonal equals \(4r\), where \(r\) is the atomic radius. \[ Body diagonal = \sqrt{3}a = 4r \quad \Rightarrow \quad a = \frac{4r}{\sqrt{3}} \]

Step 3: Calculating atomic packing factor (APF).

Atomic packing factor (APF) is given by: \[ APF = \frac{Volume occupied by atoms in a unit cell}{Volume of the unit cell} \]
\[ APF = \frac{2 \times \frac{4}{3}\pi r^3}{a^3} \]

Substituting \( a = \frac{4r}{\sqrt{3}} \), \[ APF = \frac{2 \times \frac{4}{3}\pi r^3}{\left(\frac{4r}{\sqrt{3}}\right)^3} = \frac{8\pi r^3/3}{64r^3/3\sqrt{3}} = \frac{\pi \sqrt{3}}{8} \approx 0.68 \]

Step 4: Percentage of free space.

Free space percentage \( = (1 - APF) \times 100 \) \[ = (1 - 0.68) \times 100 = 32% \]

Step 5: Conclusion.

The percentage of free space (voids) in a body-centred cubic unit cell is 32%.
Quick Tip: In a body-centred cubic (BCC) unit cell, atomic packing efficiency is 68%, so the free space (void fraction) is 32%.


Question 62:

In electrolysis, oxidation takes place at —

  • (A) Anode
  • (B) Cathode
  • (C) Both anode and cathode
  • (D) Depends on the electrolyte used
Correct Answer: (A) Anode
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the process of electrolysis.

Electrolysis is a process that uses an electric current to drive a non-spontaneous chemical reaction. It involves the decomposition of an ionic compound (electrolyte) into its constituent elements by passing electricity through it. The process occurs in an electrolytic cell which consists of two electrodes — an anode and a cathode.


Step 2: Basic principle of oxidation and reduction.

In any redox reaction:
- Oxidation is the loss of electrons.

- Reduction is the gain of electrons.


During electrolysis, oxidation and reduction occur at different electrodes:
- Oxidation (loss of electrons) occurs at the anode.

- Reduction (gain of electrons) occurs at the cathode.


Step 3: Explanation of electrode reactions.

When an electric current passes through the electrolyte:
- At the anode (positive electrode), negatively charged ions (anions) move toward it and lose electrons. This process is oxidation.

- At the cathode (negative electrode), positively charged ions (cations) move toward it and gain electrons. This process is reduction.


Step 4: Example to illustrate.

In the electrolysis of molten sodium chloride (NaCl): \[ At Cathode (Reduction): Na^+ + e^- \rightarrow Na \] \[ At Anode (Oxidation): 2Cl^- \rightarrow Cl_2 + 2e^- \]
Thus, oxidation clearly occurs at the anode.


Step 5: Conclusion.

In electrolysis, oxidation always occurs at the anode, while reduction takes place at the cathode.
Quick Tip: Remember: “\textbf{AnOx – RedCat}” — Oxidation occurs at the \textbf{Anode}, and Reduction occurs at the \textbf{Cathode}.


Question 63:

The quantity of electricity required to liberate 32 g of oxygen is —

  • (A) 1 faraday
  • (B) 2 faraday
  • (C) 3 faraday
  • (D) 4 faraday
Correct Answer: (D) 4 faraday
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the problem.

We are asked to determine how much electricity (in faradays) is required to liberate 32 g of oxygen (O\(_2\)) during electrolysis. According to Faraday’s laws of electrolysis, the amount of substance liberated at an electrode is directly proportional to the quantity of electricity passed through the electrolyte.


Step 2: Writing the electrode reaction.

During the electrolysis of water (or any oxygen-containing compound), the reaction at the anode is: \[ 2H_2O \rightarrow O_2 + 4H^+ + 4e^- \]
This means that 4 moles of electrons (4 faradays of electricity) are required to liberate 1 mole (32 g) of O\(_2\).


Step 3: Relating charge and oxygen liberated.

From the above equation:
- 4 faradays → 1 mole of O\(_2\) (32 g)
Thus, to liberate 32 g of oxygen, exactly 4 faradays of electricity are required.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Hence, the quantity of electricity needed to liberate 32 g of oxygen gas is 4 faradays.
Quick Tip: 1 Faraday (F) = 96,500 coulombs of charge. For oxygen liberation, 4 electrons are involved per molecule of O\(_2\), hence 4 Faradays are needed for 32 g of O\(_2\).


Question 64:

Rust is

  • (A) Powdered iron
  • (B) Ferrous oxide
  • (C) Ferric oxide
  • (D) Hydrated ferric oxide
Correct Answer: (D) Hydrated ferric oxide
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding rust formation.

Rust is a reddish-brown flaky substance that forms on the surface of iron when it is exposed to moist air or water over time. This process is called corrosion and specifically, in the case of iron, it is known as rusting. It occurs due to oxidation in the presence of both water and oxygen.



Step 2: Chemical reaction of rusting.

The rusting process can be represented by the following reactions: \[ 4Fe + 3O_2 + 6H_2O \rightarrow 4Fe(OH)_3 \]
When ferric hydroxide loses water molecules, it forms hydrated ferric oxide: \[ Fe_2O_3 \cdot xH_2O \]
This compound is known as hydrated ferric oxide, which is the chemical formula for rust.



Step 3: Analysis of options.

(A) Powdered iron: Simple metallic iron, not rust.

(B) Ferrous oxide: Contains iron in +2 oxidation state, while rust has iron in +3 state.

(C) Ferric oxide: Close but incomplete, as rust is not pure ferric oxide but its hydrated form.

(D) Hydrated ferric oxide: Correct. Rust is chemically represented as \( Fe_2O_3 \cdot xH_2O \).



Step 4: Conclusion.

Therefore, rust is a hydrated ferric oxide formed due to the oxidation of iron in the presence of moisture and oxygen.
Quick Tip: Rusting can be prevented by methods such as painting, galvanization, oiling, or alloying iron with metals like chromium and nickel (to form stainless steel).


Question 65:

Chloroform is:

  • (A) Primary halide
  • (B) Tertiary halide
  • (C) Trihalogen derivative
  • (D) Tetrahalogen derivative
Correct Answer: (C) Trihalogen derivative
View Solution




Chloroform (CHCl\(_3\)):

Chloroform is a compound where three chlorine atoms are attached to a single carbon atom, with one hydrogen atom remaining. This makes chloroform a trihalogen derivative, as it contains three halogen atoms (chlorine) bonded to the central carbon atom.


- Primary halide (Option A): A primary halide would have one halogen atom attached to the carbon. This is not the case for chloroform, so option (A) is incorrect.


- Tertiary halide (Option B): A tertiary halide would have three organic groups attached to the carbon, not three halogen atoms. Hence, option (B) is incorrect.


- Trihalogen derivative (Option C): Chloroform fits this category because it has three chlorine atoms attached to a single carbon. Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.


- Tetrahalogen derivative (Option D): A tetrahalogen derivative would have four halogen atoms attached to the carbon, which is not the case for chloroform. Thus, option (D) is incorrect.


Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Trihalogen derivative, as chloroform contains three chlorine atoms attached to a single carbon atom.
Quick Tip: Chloroform is a trihalogen derivative because it contains three halogen atoms (chlorine) attached to a central carbon atom.


Question 66:

General group(s) for alcohols is/are

  • (A) \( C - OH \)
  • (B) \( CH - OH \)
  • (C) \( CH_2OH \)
  • (D) all of these
Correct Answer: (D) all of these
View Solution




General Group(s) for Alcohols:

Alcohols are organic compounds that contain one or more hydroxyl groups (-OH) attached to a carbon atom. The general group for alcohols can be represented as \( C - OH \), where \( C \) is a carbon atom bonded to a hydroxyl group (-OH). The structure can vary, such as in:

1. Option (A): \( C - OH \) – This is a correct representation of the general functional group of alcohols. It indicates the presence of a hydroxyl group attached to a carbon atom.


2. Option (B): \( CH - OH \) – This is also correct. This is another way of representing the alcohol functional group where the carbon is bonded to a hydrogen atom and the hydroxyl group.


3. Option (C): \( CH_2OH \) – This is also a correct representation, indicating a hydroxymethyl group (-CH2OH), which is a functional group found in alcohols like methanol.


4. Option (D): all of these – This is the correct answer. All the options are correct representations of the functional group in alcohols, so the answer is (D).


Conclusion.

The correct answer is (D) all of these, as all the options represent different forms of alcohol functional groups.
Quick Tip: The general functional group for alcohols is the hydroxyl group (-OH) attached to a carbon atom. Different alcohols may have variations of this group in their structures.


Question 67:

The number of isomeric alcohols of molecular formula C\(_4\)H\(_{10}\)O is

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 7
  • (D) 8
Correct Answer: (B) 4
View Solution




Step 1: Identifying possible alcohol isomers.

The molecular formula C\(_4\)H\(_{10}\)O corresponds to a compound with 4 carbon atoms, 10 hydrogen atoms, and 1 oxygen atom. This formula allows for several structural isomers of alcohols.

- The alcohol group (-OH) can be attached to different carbon atoms, leading to various possible structures.
- The alcohols can have different branching patterns in the carbon chain, leading to different isomers.

Step 2: Listing the isomeric alcohols.

For C\(_4\)H\(_{10}\)O, the isomers include:
1. Butan-1-ol
2. Butan-2-ol
3. 2-Methylpropan-1-ol
4. 2-Methylpropan-2-ol

Step 3: Conclusion.

There are a total of 4 isomeric alcohols with the formula C\(_4\)H\(_{10}\)O. Hence, the correct answer is (B).
Quick Tip: When determining isomers of alcohols, consider variations in the position of the -OH group and possible branching of the carbon chain.


Question 68:

Methyl alcohol on oxidation with acidified \( K_2Cr_2O_7 \) gives:

  • (A) \( CH_3COCH_3 \)
  • (B) \( CH_3CHO \)
  • (C) \( HCOOH \)
  • (D) \( CH_3COOH \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( \text{HCOOH} \)
View Solution




Step 1: Oxidation of Methyl Alcohol.

Methyl alcohol (methanol) has the chemical formula \( CH_3OH \). When methanol is oxidized by an oxidizing agent like acidified potassium dichromate \( K_2Cr_2O_7 \), it undergoes oxidation to form formaldehyde ( \( CH_2O \) ). Further oxidation of formaldehyde leads to the formation of formic acid ( \( HCOOH \) ).

The reaction is as follows: \[ CH_3OH \xrightarrow{K_2Cr_2O_7} HCOOH \]

Step 2: Analyzing the Options.

- (A) \( CH_3COCH_3 \): This is acetone, which is not the product of methanol oxidation.

- (B) \( CH_3CHO \): This is acetaldehyde, which is not the final product of methanol oxidation in the presence of \( K_2Cr_2O_7 \). The oxidation continues beyond this stage.

- (C) \( HCOOH \): This is formic acid, which is the final product of methanol oxidation with acidified potassium dichromate. This is the correct answer.

- (D) \( CH_3COOH \): This is acetic acid, which would be the product of the oxidation of ethanol, not methanol.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct product of the oxidation of methyl alcohol with acidified \( K_2Cr_2O_7 \) is formic acid, \( HCOOH \). Therefore, the correct answer is (C).
Quick Tip: Oxidation of methyl alcohol (methanol) with potassium dichromate leads to the formation of formic acid (\( HCOOH \)) after further oxidation of formaldehyde.


Question 69:

Diethyl ether finds its use in medicine as

  • (A) pain killer
  • (B) hypnotic
  • (C) antiseptic
  • (D) anaesthetic
Correct Answer: (D) anaesthetic
View Solution




Step 1: Understand the use of Diethyl ether.

Diethyl ether is commonly used in medicine as an anaesthetic. It is known for its ability to induce unconsciousness in patients during surgeries. It was historically used for anaesthesia before modern anaesthetics replaced it.

Step 2: Analyze the options.

- (A) Pain killer: Diethyl ether is not primarily used as a pain killer. While it may relieve pain indirectly due to its anaesthetic properties, it is not classified as a pain killer.

- (B) Hypnotic: Diethyl ether can have a sedative effect but is not commonly used as a hypnotic for sleep.

- (C) Antiseptic: Diethyl ether does not have significant antiseptic properties for treating infections.

- (D) Anaesthetic: This is the correct option. Diethyl ether is widely known for its use as an anaesthetic in medical procedures.

Step 3: Conclusion.

Diethyl ether is used in medicine as an anaesthetic, as it induces unconsciousness in patients undergoing surgery.
Quick Tip: Diethyl ether was historically used as an anaesthetic due to its ability to induce unconsciousness. However, it is no longer commonly used today due to safety concerns.


Question 70:

The general formula of carbonyl compound is:

  • (A) \( C_nH_{2n}O \)
  • (B) \( C_nH_{2n+2}O \)
  • (C) \( C_nH_{2n+1}O \)
  • (D) none of these
Correct Answer: (A) \( C_nH_{2n}O \)
View Solution




The general formula for carbonyl compounds, which include aldehydes and ketones, is \( C_nH_{2n}O \), where:
- \( C \) represents carbon,

- \( H \) represents hydrogen,

- \( O \) represents oxygen,

- \( n \) represents the number of carbon atoms in the molecule.


This formula is true for compounds like aldehydes and ketones, where the carbonyl group (C=O) is present. These compounds follow the general formula \( C_nH_{2n}O \), meaning the number of hydrogen atoms is twice the number of carbon atoms.

Step 1: Analysis of Option (B).

Option (B) \( C_nH_{2n+2}O \) is incorrect because this formula corresponds to saturated hydrocarbons (alkanes), not carbonyl compounds.


Step 2: Analysis of Option (C).

Option (C) \( C_nH_{2n+1}O \) is incorrect because this formula does not represent carbonyl compounds, which require an even number of hydrogen atoms.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct formula for carbonyl compounds is \( C_nH_{2n}O \), making option (A) the correct answer.
Quick Tip: The general formula for carbonyl compounds like aldehydes and ketones is \( C_nH_{2n}O \), where \( n \) represents the number of carbon atoms.


Question 71:

At room temperature, formaldehyde is:

  • (A) Gas
  • (B) Liquid
  • (C) Solid
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Gas
View Solution




Formaldehyde (HCHO):

At room temperature (25°C), formaldehyde exists as a gas. It is a volatile compound and is commonly found in the gas phase. While formaldehyde can be stored as a solution in water (formalin), pure formaldehyde at room temperature is a gas.


- Gas (Option A): Formaldehyde is a colorless, pungent gas at room temperature. Therefore, option (A) is correct.


- Liquid (Option B): Formaldehyde in pure form at room temperature is not a liquid; it only dissolves in water to form formalin. Hence, option (B) is incorrect.


- Solid (Option C): Formaldehyde does not exist as a solid at room temperature. It sublimes easily at standard conditions. Hence, option (C) is incorrect.


- None of these (Option D): This is incorrect because the correct answer is (A).


Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) Gas, as formaldehyde is a gas at room temperature.
Quick Tip: Formaldehyde is a gas at room temperature and is commonly used as a gas in laboratories and industrial applications.


Question 72:

Write the names of the catalysts used in the contact process and Ostwald process.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Contact Process Catalysts.

The contact process is used to produce sulfuric acid (\(H_2SO_4\)) from sulfur dioxide (\(SO_2\)) and oxygen (\(O_2\)) in the presence of a catalyst. The catalyst used in this process is vanadium(V) oxide (\(V_2O_5\)).


Step 2: Role of vanadium oxide.

Vanadium(V) oxide (\(V_2O_5\)) serves as a catalyst in the oxidation of sulfur dioxide to sulfur trioxide (\(SO_3\)), which is a crucial step in the contact process. It lowers the activation energy of the reaction and increases the rate of reaction.
\[ 2SO_2 + O_2 \xrightarrow[Vanadium oxide]{heat} 2SO_3 \]


Step 3: Ostwald Process Catalysts.

The Ostwald process is used to produce nitric acid (\(HNO_3\)) from ammonia (\(NH_3\)). The catalyst used in the Ostwald process is platinum or platinum-rhodium alloy.


Step 4: Role of platinum catalyst.

Platinum or platinum-rhodium alloy acts as a catalyst in the oxidation of ammonia to nitric oxide (\(NO\)):
\[ 4NH_3 + 3O_2 \xrightarrow[Platinum catalyst]{heat} 2N_2 + 6H_2O \]


Step 5: Conclusion.

- In the contact process, vanadium(V) oxide is used as the catalyst.
- In the Ostwald process, platinum or platinum-rhodium alloy is used as the catalyst. Quick Tip: In industrial processes, vanadium oxide and platinum are commonly used as catalysts to speed up important reactions like the production of sulfuric and nitric acids.


Question 73:

What is Metamerism?

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Definition:

Metamerism is the phenomenon in which the body of an organism is divided into a series of similar and repetitive segments arranged one after another along the longitudinal axis. These segments are called metameres or somites.


Step 1: Explanation.

Metamerism refers to the serial repetition of body segments both externally and internally. Each segment possesses similar structures such as muscles, nerves, and excretory organs, arranged in a repeating pattern.


Step 2: Example.

Metamerism is clearly observed in Annelids, such as the earthworm, where the body is divided into many similar segments that extend from the anterior to the posterior end.


Step 3: Biological Importance.

Metamerism helps in the division of labor among body segments and provides greater flexibility, coordination, and efficient locomotion to the organism.


Conclusion:

Thus, metamerism is the structural feature in which the body is segmented into a series of similar, repetitive units, aiding in better organization and movement of the organism. Quick Tip: Metamerism is the repetition of similar body segments that allows efficient movement and coordination, as seen in annelids like earthworms.


Question 74:

What are chiral and achiral compounds?

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Chiral Compounds:

Chiral compounds are those which cannot be superimposed on their mirror images. Such compounds possess a property known as chirality. Usually, a chiral molecule has at least one carbon atom bonded to four different groups; this carbon is called a chiral centre or asymmetric carbon atom.

Example:

Lactic acid and 2-butanol are examples of chiral compounds because they contain a carbon atom attached to four different substituents.


Achiral Compounds:

Achiral compounds are those which can be superimposed on their mirror images. These molecules do not have a chiral centre, or if they do, the molecule possesses a plane of symmetry that cancels out chirality.

Example:

Methane (\(CH_4\)) and ethane (\(C_2H_6\)) are examples of achiral compounds since all substituents around carbon atoms are identical, making the molecule symmetrical.


Conclusion:

Thus, the main difference between chiral and achiral compounds is based on the symmetry of the molecule and the presence or absence of a chiral centre. Quick Tip: Chiral compounds lack symmetry and exist in two mirror-image forms called enantiomers, whereas achiral compounds are symmetrical and have no optical activity.


Question 75:

What are essential amino acids?

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Introduction:

Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins. They are organic compounds that contain both an amino group (\(\mathrm{-NH_2}\)) and a carboxyl group (\(\mathrm{-COOH}\)). There are 20 standard amino acids, and some of these are considered essential amino acids, meaning they cannot be synthesized by the body and must be obtained through the diet.


Essential Amino Acids:

Essential amino acids are those that the human body cannot produce on its own. As a result, they must be consumed through food. These amino acids are required for various biological functions, including protein synthesis, enzyme function, and cellular repair. The nine essential amino acids for humans are:
1. Histidine

2. Isoleucine

3. Leucine

4. Lysine
5. Methionine

6. Phenylalanine

7. Threonine

8. Tryptophan

9. Valine


Step 1: Role of Essential Amino Acids

Each of these essential amino acids plays a crucial role in the body:

- Histidine: Involved in the production of histamine, which is important for immune response and digestion.

- Isoleucine: Important for muscle metabolism and immune function.

- Leucine: Plays a key role in protein synthesis and muscle repair.

- Lysine: Involved in the production of enzymes, hormones, and collagen.

- Methionine: A sulfur-containing amino acid important for detoxification and protein synthesis.

- Phenylalanine: Precursor to neurotransmitters like dopamine, norepinephrine, and epinephrine.

- Threonine: Plays a role in protein structure and enzyme activity.

- Tryptophan: Precursor to serotonin, a neurotransmitter that regulates mood and sleep.
- Valine: Important for muscle growth and repair.


Step 2: Importance in Diet

Since the body cannot synthesize essential amino acids, it is important to obtain them from dietary sources. Good sources include:

- Animal Products: Meat, poultry, fish, eggs, and dairy.

- Plant Sources: Soybeans, quinoa, and certain legumes.



Conclusion:

Essential amino acids are crucial for many bodily functions, including growth, tissue repair, and immune function. Since the body cannot produce them, a balanced diet that includes sufficient quantities of these amino acids is necessary for overall health.
Quick Tip: A balanced diet, including both animal and plant-based sources, ensures an adequate intake of essential amino acids.


Question 76:

“O\(_3\) behaves as a strong oxidising agent.” Explain.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Ozone as an oxidizing agent.

Ozone (O\(_3\)) is a very strong oxidizing agent. It is capable of oxidizing a wide range of substances by accepting electrons. Ozone’s oxidizing ability is attributed to its molecular structure and high instability.

Step 2: Explanation of ozone's reaction.

Ozone is composed of three oxygen atoms in a bent molecular structure. The molecule contains a weak O–O bond, which can easily break, producing highly reactive oxygen atoms (O). These oxygen atoms are capable of oxidizing other substances by accepting electrons. The key reaction is: \[ O_3 \longrightarrow O_2 + O \]
The nascent oxygen (O) released is highly reactive and can attack other molecules, breaking bonds and oxidizing them. This makes ozone a potent oxidizing agent.


Step 3: Examples of oxidation by ozone.

1. Oxidation of metals: Ozone oxidizes metals like iron and aluminum, converting them to their oxides. \[ Fe + O_3 \longrightarrow Fe_2O_3 \]

2. Oxidation of organic compounds: Ozone can oxidize unsaturated organic compounds, such as alkenes, by breaking the double bonds and forming oxygenated products.

Step 4: Conclusion.

Due to its unstable structure and ability to produce nascent oxygen, ozone (O\(_3\)) is a very strong oxidizing agent.


Final Answer:

Ozone (O\(_3\)) is a strong oxidizing agent because it can release nascent oxygen (O), which is highly reactive and can oxidize a wide variety of substances. Quick Tip: Ozone's high oxidizing power is due to its ability to break the O–O bond, releasing reactive oxygen atoms that can oxidize other compounds.


Question 77:

What is slag?

Correct Answer:
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Step 1: Definition of slag.

Slag is a by-product obtained during the extraction of metal from its ore in a blast furnace or similar process. It consists primarily of the impurities in the ore, such as silicates and oxides, that are removed from the metal during the refining process.



Step 2: Formation of slag.

When a metal ore is heated with a flux (usually limestone), the flux combines with impurities such as silica (\(SiO_2\)) and forms a molten slag. The slag, being less dense than the molten metal, floats on top and can be easily removed.



Step 3: Composition of slag.

Slag typically contains a mixture of metal oxides, such as calcium oxide (\(CaO\)), silicon dioxide (\(SiO_2\)), and other metal oxides like aluminum oxide (\(Al_2O_3\)), magnesium oxide (\(MgO\)), depending on the metal being extracted.



Step 4: Role of slag in metallurgy.

Slag plays an important role in the extraction and purification of metals:

- It protects the molten metal from oxidation by covering it with a layer.

- It absorbs impurities such as sulfur and phosphorus, preventing them from contaminating the metal.

- The composition of slag can be controlled to adjust its properties for different types of metals.



Step 5: Conclusion.

Slag is an essential by-product in the extraction of metals and helps improve the quality of the metal produced by removing impurities and preventing oxidation.
Quick Tip: Slag is an important by-product in metal extraction, and its composition depends on the ore and flux used. It helps in removing impurities from the molten metal.


Question 78:

What are Macromolecules?

Correct Answer:
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Introduction:

Macromolecules are large, complex molecules that are composed of many smaller units known as monomers. These monomers are chemically bonded together to form a long, chain-like structure. Macromolecules are essential in biology, chemistry, and materials science, and they play a vital role in various biological processes.


Types of Macromolecules:

There are four main types of biological macromolecules:
1. Polymers: Long chains of monomers, such as carbohydrates (polysaccharides), proteins (polypeptides), and nucleic acids (DNA and RNA).
2. Proteins: Made of amino acid monomers and play roles in catalysis, structure, transport, and defense.
3. Carbohydrates: Composed of sugar monomers and serve as energy sources and structural components.
4. Nucleic Acids: DNA and RNA, composed of nucleotide monomers, are responsible for genetic information storage and protein synthesis.

Step 1: Structure of Macromolecules

- Monomers and Polymers: Macromolecules are built from smaller units called monomers, which link together via covalent bonds to form polymers. For example, amino acids are the monomers that form proteins, and nucleotides are the monomers that form nucleic acids.
- Polymerization: The process of linking monomers together to form a polymer is called polymerization.


Step 2: Examples of Macromolecules

1. Proteins: Hemoglobin, insulin, and enzymes are examples of proteins.
2. Carbohydrates: Starch, glycogen, and cellulose are carbohydrates.
3. Nucleic Acids: DNA and RNA are nucleic acids that carry genetic instructions.



Conclusion:

Macromolecules are large, complex molecules essential to life. They are made up of smaller units (monomers) and perform a wide range of functions, including storing genetic information, providing energy, and supporting cellular structure.
Quick Tip: Macromolecules can be found in nature and synthetic forms, and their properties depend on the specific arrangement and types of monomers used in their structure.


Question 79:

Write Faraday’s 2nd law of Electrolysis.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Introduction:

The process of electrolysis involves the chemical decomposition of an electrolyte by passing an electric current through it. Faraday proposed two fundamental laws that govern electrolysis. The second law establishes the quantitative relationship between substances liberated at the electrodes when the same quantity of electricity passes through different electrolytes.


Statement of Faraday’s Second Law:

“When the same quantity of electricity is passed through different electrolytes, the masses of substances liberated or deposited at the electrodes are directly proportional to their chemical equivalents (or equivalent weights).”


Mathematical Expression:

Let \( m_1 \) and \( m_2 \) be the masses of substances deposited from two electrolytes having equivalent weights \( E_1 \) and \( E_2 \), respectively. Then, according to Faraday’s 2nd law: \[ \frac{m_1{m_2} = \frac{E_1}{E_2} \]

Combined with the 1st Law:

From Faraday’s first law, \[ m = ZQ \]
where \( Z \) is the electrochemical equivalent and \( Q \) is the total charge passed. Since \( Z = \frac{E}{F} \), \[ m = \frac{E}{F} \times Q \]
where \( F = 96485 \, \mathrm{C/mol} \) is the Faraday constant.


Explanation:

This means that for the same amount of electricity (same current and time), the mass of substance deposited at the electrode depends only on its equivalent weight. Substances with higher equivalent weight will be deposited in greater quantities.


Example:

If the same charge is passed through solutions of copper sulfate (\(\mathrm{CuSO_4}\)) and silver nitrate (\(\mathrm{AgNO_3}\)): \[ \frac{m_{\mathrm{Cu}}}{m_{\mathrm{Ag}}} = \frac{E_{\mathrm{Cu}}}{E_{\mathrm{Ag}}} = \frac{31.75}{107.9} = 0.294 \]
Hence, silver will be deposited in larger quantity than copper for the same electric charge.



Conclusion:

Faraday’s second law shows that the deposition of substances during electrolysis depends on their equivalent weights. It provides a unified principle for calculating the amount of substance deposited or liberated during electrolysis, forming the basis of electrochemical analysis.
Quick Tip: Remember: \(\displaystyle m = \frac{E}{F}Q\). For the same quantity of electricity, the ratio of deposited masses equals the ratio of their equivalent weights.


Question 80:

Write the IUPAC name of complex compound K\(_3\)[Cr(C\(_2\)O\(_4\))\(_3\)].

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Identify the type of compound.

The given compound K\(_3\)[Cr(C\(_2\)O\(_4\))\(_3\)] is a coordination compound.
In this compound, potassium (K) is the cation, and [Cr(C\(_2\)O\(_4\))\(_3\)]\(^{3-}\) is the complex anion.
This type of compound consists of a central metal atom (here chromium) surrounded by ligands (here oxalate ions).


Step 2: Identify the ligand and its nature.

The ligand in this complex is the oxalate ion (C\(_2\)O\(_4^{2-}\)).
Oxalate is a bidentate ligand, meaning it can attach to the central metal atom through two donor oxygen atoms.
Each oxalate ligand donates two pairs of electrons to form coordinate covalent bonds with the central chromium atom.
Since there are three oxalate ligands, the total number of coordination sites used is six, indicating that the complex is octahedral in shape.


Step 3: Determine the oxidation state of chromium.

Let the oxidation state of chromium be \( x \).
The overall charge on the complex ion [Cr(C\(_2\)O\(_4\))\(_3\)] is –3, and each oxalate ion carries a –2 charge. \[ x + 3(-2) = -3
x - 6 = -3
x = +3 \]
Hence, the oxidation state of chromium is \( +3 \).


Step 4: Naming the complex.

According to IUPAC rules for coordination compounds:
- The name of the ligand comes first, followed by the name of the central metal.
- The oxidation state of the central metal is written in Roman numerals in parentheses.
- If the complex is an anion, the suffix “–ate” is added to the name of the metal.

Here,
- Ligand: Oxalate → “oxalato”
- Metal ion: Chromium → “chromate” (since it is anionic complex)
- Oxidation state: +3 → “(III)”

Hence, the name of the complex anion [Cr(C\(_2\)O\(_4\))\(_3\)]\(^{3-}\) is tris(oxalato)chromate(III).


Step 5: Combine with the cation.

The cation K\(^+\) (potassium) is named before the complex anion.
Therefore, the full IUPAC name of K\(_3\)[Cr(C\(_2\)O\(_4\))\(_3\)] is:
\[ \boxed{Potassium tris(oxalato)chromate(III)} \]

Step 6: Additional Information.

This complex is a salt of the complex anion [Cr(C\(_2\)O\(_4\))\(_3\)]\(^{3-}\) with three potassium ions as counter cations.
It exhibits beautiful green coloration and is an example of a coordination compound showing optical isomerism, due to the chiral arrangement of oxalate ligands around chromium.



Final Answer:
\[ \boxed{Potassium tris(oxalato)chromate(III)} \] Quick Tip: In naming coordination compounds, always name the cation first, then the anion. Use prefixes such as di-, tri-, or tris- depending on the number of ligands. For anionic complexes, add the suffix “–ate” to the metal name and specify the oxidation state in Roman numerals.


Question 81:

Why is ethyl alcohol not dried by anhydrous CaCl\(_2\)?

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Role of anhydrous CaCl\(_2\).

Anhydrous calcium chloride (CaCl\(_2\)) is commonly used as a desiccant or drying agent. It is hygroscopic, meaning it readily absorbs water from the surroundings and is often used to dry solvents like alcohols. However, anhydrous CaCl\(_2\) is not effective in drying ethyl alcohol.

Step 2: Reactivity of ethyl alcohol with CaCl\(_2\).

Ethyl alcohol (C\(_2\)H\(_5\)OH) has a hydroxyl group (-OH), and alcohols, in general, can form complexes with calcium chloride. When ethyl alcohol is exposed to anhydrous CaCl\(_2\), the alcohol may form an adduct or react with the CaCl\(_2\) to produce calcium ethoxide (Ca(OEt)\(_2\)) and hydrogen chloride (HCl): \[ 2C_2H_5OH + CaCl_2 \longrightarrow Ca(OEt)_2 + 2HCl \]
This reaction results in the formation of calcium ethoxide, making the drying process ineffective.

Step 3: Why other drying agents work.

Unlike CaCl\(_2\), other drying agents like anhydrous sodium sulfate (Na\(_2\)SO\(_4\)) or magnesium sulfate (MgSO\(_4\)) do not react with alcohols and are more effective in removing water from them. These agents simply absorb the water without forming any chemical bonds.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Ethyl alcohol is not dried by anhydrous CaCl\(_2\) because it reacts with the alcohol, forming a calcium ethoxide complex and rendering the drying process ineffective.


Final Answer:

Ethyl alcohol is not dried by anhydrous CaCl\(_2\) because it reacts with the alcohol, forming calcium ethoxide, which makes the drying process ineffective. Quick Tip: When drying alcohols, avoid using calcium chloride (CaCl\(_2\)) as it can react with the alcohol and form complexes. Use agents like anhydrous sodium sulfate (Na\(_2\)SO\(_4\)) or magnesium sulfate (MgSO\(_4\)) instead.


Question 82:

Write Arrhenius equation.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Introduction to Arrhenius equation.

The Arrhenius equation describes the temperature dependence of reaction rates. It provides a mathematical expression that relates the rate constant (\(k\)) of a chemical reaction to temperature (\(T\)). The equation is given as:
\[ k = A e^{-\frac{E_a}{RT}} \]

where:
- \(k\) is the rate constant of the reaction.

- \(A\) is the pre-exponential factor, also known as the frequency factor.

- \(E_a\) is the activation energy of the reaction (in Joules per mole).

- \(R\) is the universal gas constant, \(8.314 \, J/mol·K\).

- \(T\) is the temperature in Kelvin.



Step 2: Significance of the components.

- The pre-exponential factor \(A\) represents the frequency of collisions and the orientation of the reactants, i.e., the likelihood that the reacting particles will collide in the correct orientation to react.

- The exponential term \(e^{-\frac{E_a}{RT}}\) accounts for the fraction of molecules that have enough energy to overcome the activation energy barrier, \(E_a\), at a given temperature.



Step 3: Interpretation of the equation.

The Arrhenius equation implies that as the temperature increases, the rate constant (\(k\)) increases, which results in the reaction rate speeding up. This is due to an increase in the number of molecules that have sufficient energy to overcome the activation energy.



Step 4: Conclusion.

The Arrhenius equation is fundamental in understanding how reaction rates depend on temperature and the activation energy required for reactions to occur. It provides a basis for determining the rate constant at different temperatures.
Quick Tip: The Arrhenius equation shows that the rate of reaction increases with temperature due to the exponential dependence on the activation energy.


Question 83:

How would you prepare ethane from methyl iodide?

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Reaction principle.

Ethane can be prepared from methyl iodide (\(CH_3I\)) using the Wurtz Reaction. This reaction involves the coupling of two alkyl halide molecules in the presence of sodium metal in dry ether.


Step 2: Reaction mechanism overview.

In the Wurtz reaction, sodium metal acts as a reducing agent. It removes halogen atoms from two molecules of alkyl halide, forming alkyl radicals. These radicals then combine to form a higher alkane.


Step 3: Chemical reaction.
\[ 2CH_3I + 2Na \xrightarrow[dry ether]{} C_2H_6 + 2NaI \]


Step 4: Mechanism of the Wurtz reaction.


(i) Formation of methyl radical:
\[ CH_3I + Na \rightarrow CH_3^\bullet + NaI \]
Sodium donates an electron to methyl iodide, leading to the formation of a methyl radical (\(CH_3^\bullet\)).


(ii) Coupling of radicals:
\[ CH_3^\bullet + CH_3^\bullet \rightarrow C_2H_6 \]
Two methyl radicals combine to form ethane (\(C_2H_6\)).


Step 5: Reaction conditions.

The reaction is carried out in dry ether medium to prevent reaction of sodium with moisture, which would otherwise form sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.


Step 6: Observation and characteristics.

- This reaction gives the best results with primary alkyl halides.
- The reaction is a coupling process leading to an alkane with twice the number of carbon atoms as the original alkyl halide.


Conclusion:

Thus, ethane is obtained when methyl iodide reacts with sodium metal in dry ether through the Wurtz reaction. The reaction proceeds via formation and coupling of methyl radicals, leading to the production of ethane. Quick Tip: Wurtz reaction is an important method for preparing higher alkanes from alkyl halides using sodium in dry ether. It proceeds via radical mechanism.


Question 84:

How would you prepare iodoform from acetylene?

Correct Answer:
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Introduction:

Iodoform (\(\mathrm{CHI_3}\)) is an important yellow crystalline compound obtained by the haloform reaction. It is produced when a compound containing a \(\mathrm{CH_3CO{-}}\) group reacts with iodine in the presence of an alkali. Acetylene (\(\mathrm{C_2H_2}\)) can be converted into iodoform by first converting it into acetaldehyde (\(\mathrm{CH_3CHO}\)) through hydration, followed by the haloform reaction.


Step 1: Conversion of Acetylene to Acetaldehyde (Kucherov’s Reaction).

When acetylene gas is passed through dilute sulphuric acid in the presence of mercuric sulphate (\(\mathrm{HgSO_4}\)) as a catalyst, it undergoes hydration to form vinyl alcohol. Vinyl alcohol is unstable and immediately tautomerizes to give acetaldehyde.
\[ \mathrm{HC{\equiv}CH \xrightarrow[H_2SO_4]{HgSO_4,\;H_2O} \ CH_3CHO} \]

Thus, acetylene is first converted into acetaldehyde.


Step 2: Iodoform Formation (Haloform Reaction).

Acetaldehyde reacts with iodine (\(\mathrm{I_2}\)) in the presence of sodium hydroxide (\(\mathrm{NaOH}\)) to produce iodoform and sodium formate as by-products.
\[ \mathrm{CH_3CHO + 3\,I_2 + 4\,NaOH \longrightarrow CHI_3 \downarrow + HCOONa + 3\,NaI + 3\,H_2O} \]

Here, \(\mathrm{CHI_3}\) appears as a yellow precipitate with a distinct antiseptic odor.


Step 3: Mechanism (Detailed Explanation).

1. Iodine reacts with sodium hydroxide to form sodium hypoiodite (\(\mathrm{NaOI}\)):
\[ \mathrm{I_2 + 2\,NaOH \rightarrow NaOI + NaI + H_2O} \]
2. Sodium hypoiodite then oxidizes the methyl group (\(\mathrm{-CH_3}\)) adjacent to the carbonyl group in acetaldehyde, forming triiodomethyl intermediate.
3. Finally, the triiodomethyl group cleaves to form iodoform (\(\mathrm{CHI_3}\)) and sodium formate.


Step 4: Observation and Identification.

The appearance of a yellow precipitate with a characteristic smell confirms the formation of iodoform. This reaction is also known as the Iodoform Test, used to detect the presence of \(\mathrm{CH_3CO{-}}\) or \(\mathrm{CH_3CH(OH){-}}\) groups in organic compounds.



Conclusion:

Hence, iodoform is prepared from acetylene in two main steps:
1. Hydration of acetylene to acetaldehyde (Kucherov’s reaction).
2. Iodoform reaction of acetaldehyde with iodine and alkali.

This demonstrates the indirect preparation of iodoform from acetylene through an intermediate carbonyl compound.
Quick Tip: Any compound that can be converted into acetaldehyde or contains a \(\mathrm{CH_3CO{-}}\) group gives a positive iodoform test with \(\mathrm{I_2/NaOH}\).


Question 85:

Why is PCl\(_5\) a known compound, but NCl\(_5\) is not?

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the electronic configuration.

Phosphorus (P) has the electronic configuration: \( 1s^2, 2s^2, 2p^6, 3s^2, 3p^3 \).

Nitrogen (N) has the electronic configuration: \( 1s^2, 2s^2, 2p^3 \).


Step 2: Availability of vacant d-orbitals.

Phosphorus belongs to the 3rd period of the periodic table and therefore has vacant \( 3d \) orbitals.
It can utilize these orbitals to expand its octet and form five covalent bonds with chlorine atoms, resulting in the compound PCl\(_5\).

On the other hand, nitrogen belongs to the 2nd period and does not have vacant \( d \)-orbitals. Hence, nitrogen cannot expand its octet beyond 8 electrons.
Therefore, it can form only a maximum of three covalent bonds (as in NCl\(_3\)).


Step 3: Conclusion.

Since nitrogen lacks vacant \( d \)-orbitals, it cannot form NCl\(_5\), while phosphorus can form PCl\(_5\) due to the availability of \( 3d \)-orbitals.



Final Answer:

PCl\(_5\) exists because phosphorus can expand its octet using vacant \( 3d \)-orbitals, whereas nitrogen cannot form NCl\(_5\) due to the absence of such orbitals. Quick Tip: Elements of the second period (like nitrogen) cannot form compounds with expanded octets because they lack \( d \)-orbitals, unlike elements from the third period onwards.


Question 86:

Why are alcohols more soluble in water than alkanes of same molecular weight?

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the concept of solubility.

Solubility of a substance in water depends primarily on the nature of interactions between solute and solvent molecules. Water is a highly polar solvent capable of forming hydrogen bonds. Therefore, compounds that can form hydrogen bonds with water are generally soluble in it.


Step 2: Polar nature of alcohols.

Alcohols are organic compounds that contain one or more hydroxyl (\(-OH\)) groups attached to an alkyl chain. The oxygen atom of the \(-OH\) group is highly electronegative, which creates a strong dipole between the oxygen and hydrogen atoms. As a result, the hydroxyl group is polar in nature.


Step 3: Hydrogen bonding between alcohol and water.

The polar \(-OH\) group of alcohol can form hydrogen bonds with water molecules. In this process, the partially positive hydrogen atom of water interacts with the lone pair of electrons on the oxygen atom of the alcohol, and vice versa. These intermolecular hydrogen bonds result in strong attraction between alcohol and water molecules, thereby increasing solubility.
\[ R–OH + H–O–H \rightarrow R–O···H–O–H \]


Step 4: Non-polar nature of alkanes.

Alkanes are non-polar hydrocarbons consisting only of carbon and hydrogen atoms connected by single covalent bonds. They do not have any polar group or electronegative atom to form hydrogen bonds with water. As a result, the interaction between alkane and water molecules is very weak.


Step 5: "Like dissolves like" principle.

According to this principle, polar substances dissolve in polar solvents and non-polar substances dissolve in non-polar solvents. Since alcohols are polar and water is also polar, alcohols dissolve easily in water. Alkanes being non-polar are insoluble in water.


Step 6: Comparative observation.

Although alcohols and alkanes may have the same molecular weight, their solubility differs greatly because of the presence or absence of hydrogen bonding capability.


Conclusion:

Therefore, alcohols are more soluble in water than alkanes of the same molecular weight due to the presence of a polar hydroxyl group capable of hydrogen bonding with water molecules. Quick Tip: Hydrogen bonding with water molecules is the key reason for alcohols being more soluble in water, while alkanes are non-polar and cannot form such bonds.


Question 87:

What do you understand by elevation of boiling point?

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Introduction:

The elevation of boiling point refers to the increase in the boiling point of a solvent when a non-volatile solute is dissolved in it. This phenomenon is a colligative property, meaning that it depends on the number of solute particles present in the solution, not the nature or chemical identity of the solute.


Step 1: Explanation of the Boiling Point Elevation

- The boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at which its vapor pressure equals the external pressure.
- When a non-volatile solute is added to a solvent, the solute particles occupy the surface of the liquid and reduce the number of solvent molecules able to escape into the vapor phase.
- This reduces the vapor pressure of the solvent and requires a higher temperature to reach the boiling point. Therefore, the boiling point of the solution is higher than that of the pure solvent.


Step 2: Formula for Boiling Point Elevation

The change in boiling point (\(\Delta T_b\)) can be calculated using the formula: \[ \Delta T_b = K_b \cdot m \cdot i \]
Where:
- \( \Delta T_b \) is the elevation in boiling point,
- \( K_b \) is the ebullioscopic constant (which depends on the solvent),
- \( m \) is the molality of the solute,
- \( i \) is the van’t Hoff factor (the number of particles the solute dissociates into).


Step 3: Example of Boiling Point Elevation

For example, if salt (\(\mathrm{NaCl}\)) is dissolved in water, the van’t Hoff factor \( i = 2 \), because sodium chloride dissociates into two ions: \(\mathrm{Na^+}\) and \(\mathrm{Cl^-}\). This causes a larger increase in the boiling point compared to a solute that does not dissociate.



Conclusion:

The elevation of boiling point is an important concept in colligative properties. It occurs when a non-volatile solute is dissolved in a solvent, and the boiling point of the solution increases due to the reduced vapor pressure of the solvent. This phenomenon is used in various applications, such as in antifreeze solutions and cooking.
Quick Tip: Colligative properties like boiling point elevation depend only on the quantity of solute particles and not their identity or chemical nature.


Question 88:

What happens when n-butyl chloride reacts with alcoholic KOH?

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: The reaction involved.

When n-butyl chloride (C\(_4\)H\(_9\)Cl) reacts with alcoholic potassium hydroxide (KOH), it undergoes elimination to form an alkene. The reaction proceeds via the elimination mechanism, specifically E2 (bimolecular elimination).


Step 2: Mechanism of the reaction.

In the E2 elimination mechanism, the base (KOH) abstracts a proton (H\(^+\)) from the β-carbon (adjacent carbon to the carbon bearing the chlorine atom) while simultaneously the chlorine atom leaves, resulting in the formation of a double bond between the α and β carbons. This results in the formation of but-2-ene, a product with a double bond.

\[ C_4H_9Cl \xrightarrow{KOH (alc.)} but-2-ene (C_4H_8) \]

Step 3: Regioselectivity.

The reaction favors the formation of the more substituted alkene, according to Zaitsev’s rule, which states that in elimination reactions, the more substituted (and hence more stable) alkene is the major product. Therefore, the major product will be 2-butene (CH\(_3\)CH=CHCH\(_3\)), and the minor product can be 1-butene (CH\(_2\)=CHCH\(_2\)CH\(_3\)).


Step 4: Conclusion.

When n-butyl chloride reacts with alcoholic KOH, the reaction leads to the elimination of HCl and the formation of but-2-ene, with 2-butene being the major product due to Zaitsev’s rule.



Final Answer:

n-Butyl chloride reacts with alcoholic KOH in an elimination reaction, producing but-2-ene as the major product and but-1-ene as a minor product. The reaction follows the E2 mechanism and is governed by Zaitsev’s rule.
Quick Tip: In elimination reactions (like the one with n-butyl chloride), the more substituted alkene is usually the major product, following Zaitsev’s rule.


Question 89:

Distinguish between Alcohol and Phenol.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Definition.

Alcohols: Alcohols are organic compounds in which a hydroxyl group (–OH) is attached to an alkyl group (sp\(^3\) hybridized carbon). Example: Ethanol (C\(_2\)H\(_5\)OH).

Phenols: Phenols are aromatic compounds in which the hydroxyl group (–OH) is directly attached to an aromatic ring (sp\(^2\) hybridized carbon). Example: Phenol (C\(_6\)H\(_5\)OH).


Step 2: Explanation of key differences.

Although both contain the –OH group, their properties, acidity, and reactions differ due to the type of bonding and the structure of the carbon atom attached to the hydroxyl group.


Step 3: Comparative table.



\begin{tabular{|c|p{6cm|p{6cm|
\hline
S.No. & Alcohol & Phenol

\hline
1 & The –OH group is attached to an alkyl group (R–OH). & The –OH group is attached directly to an aromatic ring (Ar–OH).

\hline
2 & Alcohols are less acidic in nature. & Phenols are more acidic due to resonance stabilization of the phenoxide ion.

\hline
3 & Alcohols do not react with aqueous NaOH. & Phenols react with aqueous NaOH to form sodium phenoxide.

\hline
4 & Alcohols generally do not give colour reactions with FeCl\(_3\). & Phenols give violet colour with neutral FeCl\(_3\) solution.

\hline
5 & Alcohols form alkoxides with active metals like Na or K. & Phenols also form phenoxides with active metals, but these are more stable.

\hline
6 & Acidity is due to the polar O–H bond. & Acidity is enhanced due to delocalization of negative charge on oxygen through resonance.

\hline
7 & Example: C\(_2\)H\(_5\)OH (Ethanol). & Example: C\(_6\)H\(_5\)OH (Phenol).

\hline
\end{tabular


Step 4: Explanation of acidity difference.

In alcohols, after deprotonation, the alkoxide ion (R–O\(^-\)) formed is unstable because the negative charge remains localized on the oxygen atom.
However, in phenols, after deprotonation, the phenoxide ion is resonance-stabilized — the negative charge delocalizes over the aromatic ring, making phenols significantly more acidic.


Step 5: Conclusion.

The presence of an aromatic ring and resonance stabilization makes phenols chemically different from alcohols, especially in their acidic strength and reactions with bases and reagents like FeCl\(_3\).



Final Answer:

Alcohols and phenols both contain –OH groups, but differ in structure, acidity, and reactivity. Phenols are aromatic and more acidic due to resonance stabilization, while alcohols are aliphatic and less reactive.
Quick Tip: Phenols show resonance stabilization in their phenoxide ion form, which increases their acidity compared to alcohols. Remember, alcohols have –OH attached to sp\(^3\) carbon, while phenols have it attached to sp\(^2\) carbon.


Question 90:

Why is nitrogen molecule less reactive?

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Bonding in nitrogen molecule.

The nitrogen molecule (\(N_2\)) consists of two nitrogen atoms held together by a very strong triple bond. This triple bond includes one sigma bond and two pi bonds, making it one of the strongest covalent bonds known in nature.


Step 2: High bond dissociation energy.

The nitrogen molecule has a very high bond dissociation energy, meaning it requires a large amount of energy to break the triple bond between the two nitrogen atoms. The bond dissociation energy of nitrogen is approximately 9.76 eV. This high energy requirement makes it harder for nitrogen molecules to react with other substances.


Step 3: Lack of polarity.

In addition to the strong bond, nitrogen is a non-polar molecule because the two nitrogen atoms have the same electronegativity. As a result, there is no permanent dipole moment in the molecule, making it less susceptible to attack by electrophiles or nucleophiles.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Thus, nitrogen molecules are less reactive due to the strong triple bond and high bond dissociation energy, along with the non-polar nature of the molecule. This makes nitrogen stable and less prone to reaction under normal conditions. Quick Tip: The high bond dissociation energy and lack of polarity make nitrogen molecules relatively inert and less reactive under normal conditions.


Question 91:

Explain Raoult’s law. How would you distinguish between ideal and non-ideal solutions on its basis?

Correct Answer:
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Step 1: Introduction to Raoult’s Law.

Raoult’s law states that the partial vapor pressure of each volatile component in a solution is directly proportional to its mole fraction in the solution. Mathematically, it is expressed as:
\[ P_A = P_A^0 \cdot X_A \]

where:
- \(P_A\) is the partial vapor pressure of component A in the solution.

- \(P_A^0\) is the vapor pressure of pure component A.

- \(X_A\) is the mole fraction of component A in the solution.



Step 2: Application of Raoult’s Law.

Raoult's law is applicable to ideal solutions, where the intermolecular forces between the different components are similar. In this case, the vapor pressure of each component behaves as though the components are independent and only affected by their concentration.


Step 3: Ideal Solutions.

An ideal solution obeys Raoult's law over the entire concentration range. This means that the interactions between molecules of different components are similar to those between molecules of the same component. Examples of ideal solutions include:
- Benzene and Toluene
- Chloroform and Acetone

In ideal solutions, the enthalpy of mixing is zero, and the volume change upon mixing is also zero.


Step 4: Non-Ideal Solutions.

Non-ideal solutions do not obey Raoult’s law. In these solutions, the interactions between different components are either stronger or weaker than the interactions between like molecules. The deviation from Raoult’s law can be positive or negative, depending on whether the solution exhibits stronger or weaker intermolecular forces than expected. For non-ideal solutions, the vapor pressure will not be proportional to the mole fraction.

- Positive Deviation: Occurs when the intermolecular forces between different molecules are weaker than the forces between like molecules. Example: Ethanol and Water.
- Negative Deviation: Occurs when the intermolecular forces between different molecules are stronger than the forces between like molecules. Example: Hydrochloric acid and water.


Step 5: Conclusion.

Raoult’s law provides a useful approximation for ideal solutions and helps to distinguish between ideal and non-ideal solutions. In ideal solutions, the partial pressures follow Raoult’s law, whereas non-ideal solutions exhibit deviations based on the nature of molecular interactions. Quick Tip: Raoult’s law is applicable to ideal solutions where intermolecular forces are similar between different components. Deviations indicate non-ideal behavior.


Question 92:

What do you understand by concentration of an ore? Discuss the different methods of concentration of ores.

Correct Answer:
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Step 1: Definition of Concentration of an Ore.

Concentration of an ore refers to the process of removing impurities, such as soil, sand, and other unwanted materials, from the ore in order to obtain a more concentrated form of the metal-bearing substance. The goal is to increase the percentage of the metal in the ore and improve the efficiency of further extraction.


Step 2: Methods of Concentration of Ores.

There are several methods used for the concentration of ores, depending on the nature of the ore and the type of impurities present:

1. Froth Flotation.

This method is used for the concentration of ores that are sulphide ores. It involves using a mixture of water, oil, and detergent to create a froth that collects the mineral particles. The hydrophobic particles attach to the bubbles in the froth, which are then skimmed off, while the hydrophilic impurities remain in the water.
- Example: Concentration of galena (PbS).


2. Magnetic Separation.

This method is used for ores containing magnetic minerals. A magnetic field is applied to the ore, and magnetic particles are attracted and separated from the non-magnetic impurities.
- Example: Concentration of magnetite (Fe₃O₄).


3. Gravity Separation.

Gravity separation is based on the difference in density between the ore and the impurities. The heavier particles sink to the bottom, and the lighter particles are removed from the surface. This method is effective for ores that have a significant difference in density between the ore and the gangue.
- Example: Concentration of gold or tin ores.


4. Leaching.

Leaching is a method that involves the use of chemicals to dissolve the ore and separate it from the impurities. The dissolved metal is then extracted from the solution.
- Example: Extraction of aluminum from bauxite.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The concentration of ores is an essential step in the extraction of metals. Various methods such as froth flotation, magnetic separation, gravity separation, and leaching are employed to separate valuable metals from unwanted impurities, making the extraction process more efficient. Quick Tip: Concentration methods like froth flotation, magnetic separation, and gravity separation are used depending on the properties of the ore and the impurities.


Question 93:

Differentiate between Methanoic acid and Ethanoic acid.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Introduction:

Methanoic acid and Ethanoic acid are both carboxylic acids, but they differ in their molecular structure and chemical properties. Let’s break down their differences:


Difference Between Methanoic Acid and Ethanoic Acid:

1. Molecular Formula:

- Methanoic acid (also known as formic acid) has the molecular formula \(\mathrm{CH_2O_2}\) or \(\mathrm{HCOOH}\).

- Ethanoic acid (also known as acetic acid) has the molecular formula \(\mathrm{C_2H_4O_2}\) or \(\mathrm{CH_3COOH}\).


2. Structure:

- Methanoic acid has a single carbon atom in its structure, with the carboxyl group (\(\mathrm{-COOH}\)) directly attached to a hydrogen atom: \(\mathrm{HCOOH}\).

- Ethanoic acid has two carbon atoms: the first carbon is part of a methyl group (\(\mathrm{CH_3}\)) and the second carbon is part of the carboxyl group: \(\mathrm{CH_3COOH}\).


3. Source:

- Methanoic acid is found in ant venom and is produced by the oxidation of methanol.

- Ethanoic acid is commonly found in vinegar, where it is produced by fermentation of ethanol.


4. Boiling Point:

- Methanoic acid has a boiling point of 100.8°C.

- Ethanoic acid has a higher boiling point of 118.1°C.


5. Acidity:

- Methanoic acid is a stronger acid than Ethanoic acid due to the electron-withdrawing effect of the hydrogen atom in its structure.

- Ethanoic acid is less acidic because the methyl group in its structure provides an electron-donating effect, stabilizing the conjugate base.


6. Uses:

- Methanoic acid is used in the leather industry, as a preservative, and in the production of esters and formate salts.

- Ethanoic acid is widely used in food as vinegar, in the manufacture of acetate fibers and plastics, and in chemical synthesis.



Conclusion:

Although both are carboxylic acids, methanoic acid and ethanoic acid differ significantly in their molecular structure, acidity, and usage. Methanoic acid is stronger and has simpler structure, while ethanoic acid has more widespread use in everyday life.
Quick Tip: Methanoic acid (formic acid) is stronger and has a more basic structure with just one carbon atom, while ethanoic acid (acetic acid) is milder and commonly found in vinegar.


Question 94:

Write IUPAC names of the following compounds:

Correct Answer:
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The given compound is \(\mathrm{CH_3CH_2NHCH_3}\). This is an amine compound where the amino group is attached to an ethyl group (\(\mathrm{CH_3CH_2}\)) and a methyl group (\(\mathrm{CH_3}\)).


The IUPAC name of this compound is N-Methyl-ethanamine.



(ii) \[ \mathrm{CH_3 - CH - CONH_2} \]


Solution:


This compound is an amide with a carbonyl group attached to a nitrogen atom. The structure shows a methyl group (\(\mathrm{CH_3}\)) attached to the second carbon in an ethanamide structure.


The IUPAC name of this compound is N-Methyl ethanamide.



Conclusion:

The IUPAC names of the given compounds are:
- N-Methyl-ethanamine (for the first compound).

- N-Methyl ethanamide (for the second compound).
Quick Tip: In IUPAC nomenclature, the suffix for amines is -amine and for amides is -amide. The position of substituents is important in naming.


Question 95:

What are carbohydrates? How are they classified?

Correct Answer:
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Step 1: Definition of carbohydrates.

Carbohydrates are organic compounds made up of carbon (C), hydrogen (H), and oxygen (O) atoms. They are one of the essential nutrients and serve as the primary energy source for the body. Carbohydrates can be simple sugars or complex molecules formed by the polymerization of simple sugars. The general chemical formula for carbohydrates is \( C_x(H_2O)_y \), where \( x \) and \( y \) are integers, and typically, \( x \approx y \).


Step 2: Functions of carbohydrates.

Carbohydrates perform several vital functions in living organisms:
- Energy Source: They provide energy through oxidation, releasing energy in the form of ATP (adenosine triphosphate).
- Storage of Energy: Some carbohydrates, like starch and glycogen, serve as energy storage molecules in plants and animals, respectively.
- Structural Components: Carbohydrates like cellulose provide structural support to plant cell walls.
- Signaling and Recognition: Carbohydrates play a role in cell signaling and recognition processes, such as in blood type antigens.


Step 3: Classification of carbohydrates.

Carbohydrates are classified based on their structure and complexity into the following categories:

1. Simple Carbohydrates (Monosaccharides and Disaccharides):

- Monosaccharides: These are the simplest form of carbohydrates and cannot be hydrolyzed into smaller sugars. Common examples include glucose (C\(_6\)H\(_{12}\)O\(_6\)) and fructose. Monosaccharides are further classified into aldoses and ketoses depending on whether they contain an aldehyde or a ketone group.
- Disaccharides: These consist of two monosaccharide units joined by a glycosidic bond. Common examples include sucrose (glucose + fructose) and lactose (glucose + galactose).


2. Complex Carbohydrates (Polysaccharides):

- Polysaccharides: These are composed of long chains of monosaccharides linked together by glycosidic bonds. They are complex carbohydrates and serve as energy storage or structural components. Examples include:
- Starch: A storage form of glucose in plants.
- Glycogen: A storage form of glucose in animals, especially in liver and muscles.
- Cellulose: A structural carbohydrate in plant cell walls that cannot be digested by humans but is crucial for plant structure.

Step 4: Conclusion.

Carbohydrates are essential nutrients that provide energy and contribute to the structure of living organisms. They are classified into simple carbohydrates (monosaccharides and disaccharides) and complex carbohydrates (polysaccharides) based on their chemical structure.



Final Answer:

Carbohydrates are organic compounds made of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. They are classified into simple carbohydrates (monosaccharides and disaccharides) and complex carbohydrates (polysaccharides). These classifications depend on the complexity and structure of the molecules. Quick Tip: Monosaccharides are simple sugars like glucose, while polysaccharides are complex sugars like starch and cellulose. Carbohydrates are crucial for energy production and storage in living organisms.


Question 96:

Differentiate between DNA and RNA.

Correct Answer:
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Step 1: Definition of DNA and RNA.

- DNA (Deoxyribonucleic Acid) is the molecule that carries the genetic information necessary for the growth, development, functioning, and reproduction of all living organisms and many viruses. It consists of two strands that form a double helix structure.

- RNA (Ribonucleic Acid) is a single-stranded molecule that plays an essential role in the synthesis of proteins and can also act as a carrier of genetic information in some viruses.



Step 2: Structural differences.

- DNA contains the sugar deoxyribose, which lacks one oxygen atom compared to ribose found in RNA.

- RNA contains the sugar ribose, which has a hydroxyl group (-OH) at the 2' carbon atom, whereas DNA contains a hydrogen atom at the 2' carbon atom.



Step 3: Nitrogenous bases.

- DNA uses adenine (A), thymine (T), cytosine (C), and guanine (G) as nitrogenous bases.

- RNA uses adenine (A), uracil (U), cytosine (C), and guanine (G) as nitrogenous bases. Thymine (T) is replaced by uracil (U) in RNA.



Step 4: Functionality.

- DNA serves as the storage of genetic information and is used in processes like replication and transcription.

- RNA is involved in the transmission of genetic information from DNA to the ribosome for protein synthesis (translation). It plays an active role in gene expression.



Step 5: Conclusion.

- DNA is double-stranded, uses thymine, and contains deoxyribose as the sugar. It is stable and stores genetic information.

- RNA is single-stranded, uses uracil, and contains ribose as the sugar. It is involved in protein synthesis and gene expression.
Quick Tip: DNA stores genetic information, while RNA is involved in protein synthesis and gene expression. The main difference lies in their structure and the nitrogenous bases used.


Question 97:

What are nucleic acids?

Correct Answer:
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Step 1: Definition of Nucleic Acids.

Nucleic acids are large biomolecules essential for the functioning of all living cells. They are composed of long chains of nucleotides, which are the building blocks of DNA and RNA.


Step 2: Structure of Nucleic Acids.

- Nucleotides consist of three components: a nitrogenous base (purine or pyrimidine), a five-carbon sugar (deoxyribose in DNA and ribose in RNA), and a phosphate group.

- Nucleic acids are polymerized by linking the phosphate group of one nucleotide to the sugar of the next nucleotide. This forms a long chain of nucleotides called a polynucleotide.



Step 3: Types of Nucleic Acids.

There are two primary types of nucleic acids:
- DNA (Deoxyribonucleic Acid): Found in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells and carries genetic information. It is double-stranded.

- RNA (Ribonucleic Acid): Plays a key role in protein synthesis and is single-stranded. There are different types of RNA, such as mRNA (messenger RNA), tRNA (transfer RNA), and rRNA (ribosomal RNA).



Step 4: Function of Nucleic Acids.

Nucleic acids are crucial for the storage, transmission, and expression of genetic information. DNA stores the genetic code, and RNA assists in translating this information to produce proteins. Nucleic acids are also involved in cell division, mutation, and the regulation of gene expression.



Step 5: Conclusion.

Nucleic acids, including DNA and RNA, are essential for the life processes of all living organisms. They are the carriers of genetic information and are involved in protein synthesis and gene regulation.
Quick Tip: Nucleic acids (DNA and RNA) are the fundamental molecules for storing and expressing genetic information in all living organisms.


Question 98:

Differentiate between Electrochemical cell and Electrolytic cell.
OR,
What are the importance of salt bridge in an electrochemical cell?

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Electrochemical Cell vs Electrolytic Cell:
Electrochemical cells and electrolytic cells are both types of electrochemical systems that involve the transfer of electrons, but they operate based on different principles and purposes. Below is a comparison between them:
1. Working Principle:
- Electrochemical Cell: An electrochemical cell generates electrical energy from spontaneous chemical reactions. It consists of two half-cells connected by a salt bridge or porous partition. An example is the galvanic cell.

- Electrolytic Cell: In contrast, an electrolytic cell uses electrical energy to drive a non-spontaneous chemical reaction. It requires an external power source to force the chemical change. An example is the process of electrolysis.


2. Flow of Electrons:
- Electrochemical Cell: Electrons flow from the anode (where oxidation occurs) to the cathode (where reduction occurs) through an external circuit.

- Electrolytic Cell: Electrons are supplied by an external power source; they flow from the negative terminal of the power source to the cathode (where reduction occurs) and from the anode (where oxidation occurs) to the positive terminal.


3. Energy Conversion:
- Electrochemical Cell: Converts chemical energy into electrical energy.

- Electrolytic Cell: Converts electrical energy into chemical energy.


4. Examples:
- Electrochemical Cell: Galvanic cells (e.g., Daniell cell, dry cell).

- Electrolytic Cell: Electrolysis of water, electroplating, electrorefining.


5. Spontaneity:
- Electrochemical Cell: The reaction occurs spontaneously without the need for external power.

- Electrolytic Cell: The reaction is non-spontaneous and requires an external power source.



Importance of Salt Bridge in Electrochemical Cells:

The salt bridge plays a crucial role in the functioning of electrochemical cells, and its importance is outlined as follows:


1. Completes the Circuit:

- The salt bridge connects the two half-cells and allows the flow of ions between them, completing the electrical circuit. This is essential for maintaining the flow of electrons through the external circuit.


2. Maintains Electrical Neutrality:

- As oxidation occurs at the anode and reduction at the cathode, ions are either released or consumed in the half-cells. The salt bridge allows the flow of ions to maintain the electrical neutrality of the solutions in both half-cells, preventing the build-up of charge that would otherwise stop the reaction.


3. Prevents Mixing of Solutions:

- The salt bridge prevents the direct mixing of the electrolyte solutions in the two half-cells, ensuring that the reactions at the electrodes occur independently without interference from each other.


4. Ion Flow:

- The ions in the salt bridge flow towards the half-cell where the charge imbalance occurs. For example, anions flow towards the anode, and cations flow towards the cathode to balance the charges.



Conclusion:

- An electrochemical cell converts chemical energy to electrical energy, while an electrolytic cell uses electrical energy to drive a chemical reaction.

- The salt bridge is essential in maintaining charge balance, ensuring the completion of the electrical circuit, and allowing the flow of ions between the two half-cells in an electrochemical cell.
Quick Tip: A salt bridge is a vital component of an electrochemical cell, maintaining charge balance and preventing the solutions from mixing.