CLAT UG Question Paper 2024 Set C (Available)- Download Solutions and Answer Key pdf

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CLAT 2024 UG Question Paper Set C with Answer Key and Solution PDF is available for download. The Consortium of NLUs conducted the exam on December 3, 2023. Candidates were required to answer a total of 120 objective-type questions carrying 1 mark each covering five major sections: English Language, Current Affairs & General Knowledge, Legal Reasoning, Logical Reasoning and Quantitative Techniques.

CLAT 2024 UG Question Paper with Answer Key PDF – Set C

CLAT 2024 UG Question Paper with Answer Key PDF (Set C)	Download PDF	Check Solutions

CLAT UG 2024 Questions with Solution (Set C)

Question 1:

What does the protagonist’s preference for “barrenness” and “starkness” at Carignano suggest about her personality?

(A) She enjoys a bustling and vibrant environment.
(B) She values simplicity and minimalism in her surroundings.
(C) She prefers lush and colorful landscapes.
(D) She seeks constant stimulation and variety in her life.

Correct Answer:(B) She values simplicity and minimalism in her surroundings.
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Question 2:

What do you get to know about the protagonist’s state of mind from her reaction towards the postman?

(A) She feels grateful for his presence and the assistance he offers.
(B) She dislikes any disturbance or interruption in her solitude.
(C) She feels suspicious and is interested in the lives of others.
(D) She is disinterested and generally unaffected by the presence of others.

Correct Answer:(B) She dislikes any disturbance or interruption in her solitude.
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Question 3:

What does the protagonist’s desire to be mistaken for a pine tree reveal about her mindset?

(A) She desires to be appreciated and noticed by others in society.
(B) She has a deep admiration for the beauty of the pine trees.
(C) She feels a sense of superiority over other living beings.
(D) She yearns to be one with nature and escape from her human identity.

Correct Answer:(D) She yearns to be one with nature and escape from her human identity.
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Question 4:

The protagonist’s description of the nestlings’ screams as “shrill and maddening” shows that:

(A) She perceives the sounds to be out of tune yet soothing.
(B) She considers the nestlings to be symbols of new life and vitality.
(C) She finds the nestlings to be vexatious and irritating.
(D) She feels a sense of protectiveness and care towards the nestlings.

Correct Answer:(C) She finds the nestlings to be vexatious and irritating.
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Question 5:

Which of the following statements are true about the protagonist’s overall state of mind in Carignano?
Statement I: She experienced a sense of constant restlessness and anguish.
Statement II: She felt isolated and disconnected from her environment.
Statement III: She was content, fulfilled, and at peace with her surrounding.

(A) Statement I and II
(B) Statement II and III
(C) Only Statement II
(D) Only Statement III

Correct Answer:(D) Only Statement III
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Question 6:

In the light of above passage, what role does nature play in the protagonist’s life at Carignano?

(A) It provides her with a source of creativity.
(B) It offers her solace, peace, and a sense of belonging.
(C) It serves as a reminder of the harsh realities of life.
(D) It serves as a constant source of distraction and intrusion for her.

Correct Answer:(B) It offers her solace, peace, and a sense of belonging.
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Question 7:

In contemporary literature, how is the relationship between character and setting described in the passage?

(A) It is non-existent; characters and settings are entirely separate entities.
(B) It is a complex interplay where the setting influences the plot and character development.
(C) Characters and settings are interchangeable.
(D) Settings are insignificant in contemporary literature.

Correct Answer:(B) It is a complex interplay where the setting influences the plot and character development.
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Question 8:

In the novel "The Namesake" by Jhumpa Lahiri, what does the barren desert landscape symbolize?

(A) A thriving community.
(B) The protagonist’s sense of isolation and identity crisis.
(C) A lush, vibrant setting.
(D) A happy, carefree life.

Correct Answer:(B) The protagonist’s sense of isolation and identity crisis.
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Question 9:

What role does the Scottish moors play in Shakespeare’s "Macbeth"?

(A) It serves as a beautiful, serene landscape.
(B) It has no influence on the characters’ actions.
(C) It is an ever-present omen of impending tragedy.
(D) It is a place for the characters to relax.

Correct Answer:(C) It is an ever-present omen of impending tragedy.
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Question 10:

What does the term “interplay” refer to in the context of the passage?

(A) A lack of interaction between characters and setting.
(B) A complex relationship where the setting influences the narrative.
(C) An insignificant connection between characters and setting.
(D) A complete separation of characters and setting.

Correct Answer:(B) A complex relationship where the setting influences the narrative.
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Question 11:

Which of the following words best describes the setting in "The God of Small Things"?

(A) Boring.
(B) Lush and vibrant.
(C) Insignificant.
(D) Dark and foreboding.

Correct Answer:(B) Lush and vibrant.
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Question 12:

What is the main theme discussed in the passage?

(A) The characters in contemporary literature are not influenced by their settings.
(B) Setting in literature is unimportant.
(C) In literature, settings can be as influential as characters in shaping the narrative.
(D) Settings have no role in character development.

Correct Answer:(C) In literature, settings can be as influential as characters in shaping the narrative.
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Question 13:

Who is often regarded as the greatest playwright in the history of the English language?

(A) Jane Austen
(B) William Wordsworth
(C) William Shakespeare
(D) George Orwell

Correct Answer:(C) William Shakespeare
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Question 14:

Which of Jane Austen’s novels is known for its social commentary and witty portrayal of romance?

(A) Nineteen Eighty-Four
(B) Sense and Sensibility
(C) “I Wandered Lonely as a Cloud”
(D) “The Rime of the Ancient Mariner”

Correct Answer:(B) Sense and Sensibility
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Question 15:

Who are the Romantic poets mentioned in the passage known for celebrating nature and intense human emotions?

(A) William Shakespeare and Virginia Woolf
(B) George Orwell and Samuel Taylor Coleridge
(C) William Wordsworth and Samuel Taylor Coleridge
(D) Jane Austen and Arundhati Roy

Correct Answer:(C) William Wordsworth and Samuel Taylor Coleridge
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Question 16:

What is the title of Virginia Woolf’s novel known for its modernist narrative style?

(A) Pride and Prejudice
(B) Nineteen Eighty-Four
(C) Mrs. Dalloway
(D) The God of Small Things

Correct Answer:(C) Mrs. Dalloway
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Question 17:

Identify the 20th-century novel mentioned in the passage that provides a warning about the dangers of totalitarianism.

(A) Nineteen Eighty-Four
(B) Romeo and Juliet
(C) Sense and Sensibility
(D) “I Wandered Lonely as a Cloud”

Correct Answer:(A) Nineteen Eighty-Four
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Question 18:

What does the passage highlight as the enduring power of English literature?

(A) Its ability to win literary awards
(B) The diversity of its authors, themes, and styles
(C) Its ability to captivate and inspire only British readers
(D) The decline of storytelling

Correct Answer:(B) The diversity of its authors, themes, and styles
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Question 19:

What is the central thesis of the above extract?

(A) The practice of untouchability takes various forms in modern India.
(B) The imagination of justice for the rich and poor is vastly different.
(C) Addressing judge strength and case-load management does not affect the performance of the judicial system.
(D) Protecting the livelihood of traditional taxi drivers is contrary to the goals of ease of doing business.

Correct Answer:(B) The imagination of justice for the rich and poor is vastly different.
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Question 20:

What does the author mean by ‘docket-excluded’ in the second paragraph?

(A) The poor do not have easy access to the justice system.
(B) Courts do not list bail petitions of poor undertrial prisoners who populate the country’s jails.
(C) The poor reject the judicial system as being alien to their language and logic.
(D) The rich are excluded from the country’s prisons, which are mostly populated by the poor.

Correct Answer:(A) The poor do not have easy access to the justice system.
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Question 21:

Which of the following words best describes the experience of different segments of people with the justice system as described in the third paragraph?

(A) Symbiotic
(B) Affective
(C) Conflicting
(D) Inter-dependent

Correct Answer:(C) Conflicting
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Question 22:

Which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree with?

(A) The judicial system reflects the same power relationships as those that exist in society.
(B) Access to the judicial system is determined more by a person’s economic status such as wealth and income, than by their social status, such as religion and caste.
(C) The judicial system was made by the rich, for the rich, of the rich.
(D) None of the above.

Correct Answer:(A) The judicial system reflects the same power relationships as those that exist in society.
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Question 23:

Which of the following statements is the author most likely to disagree with?

(A) A truly representative democracy would ensure that the interests of the poor are also represented in the judicial system.
(B) The Law ensures equality both in text and in practice.
(C) The poor suffer most at the hands of lawyers and touts, compared to judges who might still pronounce judgments in their favor from time to time.
(D) All of the above.

Correct Answer:(B) The Law ensures equality both in text and in practice.
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Question 24:

What makes reform of judicial administration a ‘neutral’ area?

(A) Persons across socio-economic strata agree on the need to reform judicial administration.
(B) There is consensus among political parties across the ideological and regional spectrum on reforms to judicial administration.
(C) Reforms to judicial administration do not favor one class of people over another.
(D) Reform of judicial administration is mandated by the Constitution, and thus lies beyond political considerations.

Correct Answer:(C) Reforms to judicial administration do not favor one class of people over another.
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Question 25:

In what did India become the fourth country in the world?

(A) Sending a spacecraft to the moon
(B) Landing a spacecraft on the moon
(C) Landing a man on the moon
(D) Crashlanding (impacting) a spacecraft on the moon

Correct Answer:(B) Landing a spacecraft on the moon
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Question 26:

What is the role of Pragyan?

(A) To move around the moon, leaving footprints
(B) To take photographs of the moon, while moving
(C) Showing these pictures to the world
(D) To record the laser radiation

Correct Answer:(B) To take photographs of the moon, while moving
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Question 27:

Name one institution that played a major role in bringing India to the forefront.

(A) Tata Industries
(B) Indian Oil Corporation
(C) ISRO
(D) Reliance Industries

Correct Answer:(C) ISRO
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Question 28:

What is the name of the moon lander and the rover?

(A) Vikram and Pragyan
(B) Pragyan-2 and Vikram
(C) Chandrayaan and Vikram
(D) Chandrayaan and Pragyan

Correct Answer:(A) Vikram and Pragyan
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Question 29:

Whom did the Prime Minister address this to?

(A) To the people of India
(B) To the world
(C) To the students
(D) To the scientists of ISRO

Correct Answer:(D) To the scientists of ISRO
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Question 30:

Which of the following countries in the world had touched the surface of the moon?

(A) United States of America, USSR, China, India
(B) United States of America, Russia, China, India
(C) United States of America, USSR, France, India
(D) United States of America, Russia, Israel, India

Correct Answer:(A) United States of America, USSR, China, India
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Question 31:

Which incident is described in the passage?

(A) Baisakhi festival at Amritsar, April 1919
(B) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre, April 1919
(C) Congress Protests of April 1919
(D) Non-Cooperation movement, April 1919

Correct Answer:(B) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre, April 1919
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Question 32:

Why did General Dyer order to fire on the crowd?

(A) To bring the crowd under control
(B) To scatter the crowd
(C) To teach the crowd a lesson
(D) To enforce the martial law

Correct Answer:(C) To teach the crowd a lesson
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Question 33:

In the light of the above passage, what was the intention of the speaker?

(A) To praise General Dyer
(B) To expose the deeds of General Dyer
(C) To get sympathy for the Indians who died
(D) All of the above

Correct Answer:(B) To expose the deeds of General Dyer
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Question 34:

After the incident, who helped the injured and the dying people?

(A) The army
(B) The police
(C) The civil administration
(D) Some people who lived nearby

Correct Answer:(D) Some people who lived nearby
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Question 35:

What would be the feelings of the Indian children brought up to the spot?

(A) Friendliness to the British rule
(B) Bitterness about the British rule
(C) A sense of helplessness
(D) None of the above

Correct Answer:(B) Bitterness about the British rule
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Question 36:

What was the full name of General Dyer?

(A) Reginald Murree Harry Dyer
(B) Reginald Royce Harry Dyer
(C) Reginald Edward Harry Dyer
(D) Reginald Coleman Harry Dyer

Correct Answer:(C) Reginald Edward Harry Dyer
View Solution

Question 37:

What was the reason for Hamas-led Palestinian militants’ attack on Israel?

(A) To retaliate against Israeli settler violence against Palestinians
(B) In response to the desecration of the Western Wall
(C) To protest against the construction of Palestinian settlements in the West Bank
(D) To seek an end to the Gaza Strip blockade

Correct Answer:(A) To retaliate against Israeli settler violence against Palestinians
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Question 38:

What was the reaction of the international community to the killing of Israeli civilians?

(A) Condemned as terrorism by 44 countries
(B) Ignored by most of the countries
(C) Supported by the UN
(D) Praised as a necessary measure by 10 countries

Correct Answer:(A) Condemned as terrorism by 44 countries
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Question 39:

Which of the following is not true about the historical context of the Israel-Hamas conflict?

(A) The Palestinian refugees started settling under Ottoman rule in the late 19th Century
(B) Hamas emerged during the first Intifada in the late 1980s
(C) Hamas was formally known as the Islamic Resistance Movement
(D) First Intifada was a Palestinian uprising against Israeli rule

Correct Answer:(A) The Palestinian refugees started settling under Ottoman rule in the late 19th Century
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Question 40:

What has been the response of the Israeli military to the Hamas-led attack?

(A) Declared a state of war and launched a ground invasion
(B) Conducted an aerial bombardment campaign only
(C) Asked for international intervention
(D) Captured and imprisoned the militants responsible

Correct Answer:(A) Declared a state of war and launched a ground invasion
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CLAT Questions

1.
Four teams – Red (R), Blue (B), Green (G), and Yellow (Y) – are competing in the final four rounds of the Inter-School Science Olympiad, labeled Round A, Round B, Round C, and Round D. Each round consists of one match between two teams, and every team plays exactly two matches. No team plays the same opponent more than once.
The final schedule must adhere to the following rules:
- Rule 1 (Consecutive Play): The Green team (G) must play their two matches in consecutive rounds.
- Rule 2 (Fixed Appearance): The Yellow team (Y) must play in Round B.
- Rule 3 (Positional Constraint): The Red team (R) must play against the Blue team (B) in a round that is immediately before a round in which neither R nor B is playing.
- Rule 4 (Timing): The Blue team's (B) first match must occur in an earlier round than the Green team's (G) first match.
- Rule 5 (Opponent Link): The team that plays against the Red team (R) in the round that is not against the Blue team (B), is the same team that plays in Round D.
(193 words)
2.
Air India stands in solidarity with the families and those affected by the AI-171 accident. We continue to mourn their loss and remain fully committed to providing support during this difficult time. Over a month ago, Air India started releasing interim payment of Rs 25 lakh to the affected families, to help them meet their immediate financial needs. The interim payment will be adjusted against any final compensation.
Air India has, so far, released the interim compensation to the families of 147 of the 229 deceased passengers and also the 19 who lost their lives at the accident site. In addition, the requisite documents of 52 others have been verified, to whose families the interim compensation will be released progressively. The Tata Group has also registered 'The AI-171 Memorial and Welfare Trust', dedicated to the victims of the unfortunate accident. The Trust has pledged an ex-gratia payment of Rs 1 crore in respect of each of the deceased, and support for rebuilding the B.J. Medical College Hostel infrastructure, which was damaged in the accident.
The Trust will also provide aid and assistance for alleviation of any trauma or distress suffered by the first responders, medical and disaster relief professionals, social workers, and governmental staff who provided invaluable institutional support and service in the aftermath of the accident. (217 words)
(Excerpts from the Press Release published by Air India, on July 26, 2025)
3.
One of the central motifs of the past decade of governance under Indian Prime Minister has been the embrace of policy measures that seek to apply uniform solutions to disparate policy dilemmas facing the country. These measures, often termed One Nation policies, are motivated by a desire to replace the existing patchwork of state-specific policies, regulations, and regimes with measures that are identical across the length and breadth of India.
There are numerous examples of such One Nation policies being propagated and, in several cases, implemented in the eleven years since this Government came to power. For instance, in 2016, Parliament passed a series of constitutional amendments to introduce a new Goods and Services Tax (GST), which introduced a unified value-added tax in place of state-specific levies. This reform, known informally as One Nation, One Tax, had been debated and discussed for nearly two decades and was widely touted as an important precursor to forging a common market across India’s twenty-eight states.
In a similar vein, the government rolled out a new initiative to allow Indian citizens to take advantage of subsidized food rations irrespective of their state of residence. This scheme, commonly termed One Nation, One Ration Card, was intended to increase access to welfare benefits, especially for the millions of internal migrants in India without a fixed place of residence.
Earlier this year, the government announced the launch of a new online portal that will provide students, faculty, and researchers across the country’s public higher education institutions with open access to international scholarly journals and articles under a scheme it has dubbed One Nation, One Subscription.
Most notably, the government recently signalled its intention to pursue a monumental One Nation policy that has been long discussed but only recently outlined in detail. This measure, known as One Nation, One Election, would do away with India’s current system of staggered elections for state and national assemblies, replacing it with a framework of simultaneous elections. The proposal, which has featured in many of PM’s speeches in the past, was advanced by a high-level committee (HLC) established by the government in 2023. (351 words)
4.
On the night of October 12th, the "Sunburst Medallion" was stolen from the highly secured display case in the city museum. The theft occurred sometime between the museum closing at 10:00 PM and the night guard, Mr. Hemant, completing his final round at 1:00 AM. Three primary suspects were identified, all of whom had recently been dismissed from their museum positions: Anjali, the former curator; Bharat, the former security expert; and Chitra, the former exhibits designer.
Here are the established facts and their alibis:
- The security system logs show that the display case was opened using a specific five-digit code, which only Anjali and the museum director (who was out of the country) knew.
- Bharat's alibi is that he was at a distant relative's birthday party from 8:00 PM to 1:30 AM. Multiple independent witnesses confirmed his presence throughout the entire period.
- Chitra's alibi is that she was working late at a downtown graphic design studio. A time-stamped security camera from the studio's entrance shows her entering at 7:00 PM and exiting at 11:45 PM. The studio is a 20-minute drive from the museum.
- Mr. Hemant, the night guard, stated he checked the medallion at 10:30 PM, and it was still there.
Further investigation revealed that a small, distinctive silver button was found near the display case. Anjali is known to frequently wear a coat with similar unique silver buttons. The security expert, Bharat, had previously boasted that he could remotely disable a certain type of magnetic lock—the same type used on the medallion's case—without needing the code, though the log suggests the code was used. (269 words)
5.
I may here trace the history of the shaping of the Preamble because this would show that the Preamble was in conformity with the Constitution as it was finally accepted. Not only was the Constitution framed in the light of the Preamble but the Preamble was ultimately settled in the light of the Constitution. In the earliest draft the Preamble was something formal and read: "We, the people of India, seeking to promote the common good, do hereby, through our chosen representatives, enact, adopt and give to ourselves this Constitution." After the plan of June 3, 1947, which led to the decision to partition the country and to set up two independent Dominions of India and Pakistan, on June 8, 1947, a joint sub-committee of the Union Constitution and Provincial Constitution Committees, took note that the objective resolution would require amendment in view of the latest announcement of the British Government. The announcement of June 3 had made it clear that full independence, in the form of Dominion Status, would be conferred on India as from August 15, 1947. After examining the implications of partition the sub-committee thought that the question of making changes in the Objectives Resolution could appropriately be considered only when effect had actually been given to the June 3 Plan. Later on July 12, 1947, the special sub-committee again postponed consideration of the matter. The Union Constitution Committee provisionally accepted the Preamble as drafted by B.N. Rao and reproduced it in its report of July 4, 1947 without any change, with the tacit recognition at that stage that the Preamble would be finally based on the Objectives Resolution. In a statement circulated to members of the Assembly on July 18, 1947 Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru inter alia, observed that the Preamble was covered more or less by the Objectives Resolution which it was intended to incorporate in the final Constitution, subject to some modification on account of the political changes resulting from partition. (327 words) [Extracted with edits and revision from B Shiva Rao's - Framing of India's Constitution]
6.
Trump's Triple Whammy on India
US president Donald Trump has landed a triple whammy on India by torpedoing the H-1B visa programme, days after revoking sanctions waiver on Chabahar port in Iran and weeks after imposing a 50% tariff on Indian exports to the US. The White House also maintained a conspicuous silence on the Pakistan-Saudi Arabia mutual defence treaty amid reports that neither country informed Washington of the pact, suggesting a growing US indifference to India's concerns. The triple blow has shaken US-India ties to the foundation, mystifying experts who expected a reset after an exchange of friendly messages between Modi and Trump. While some observers see in the crackdown on H-1B a pressure tactic to make India bend on the trade deal, sources familiar with the dynamics of the current White House say the two issues are unrelated and Trump was convinced of the need to “reform” the guest worker visa programme ever since MAGA hardliners persuaded him that American workers were being gamed out of jobs by foreign companies and US big tech acting in tandem. (174 words)
[Extracted from the newspaper, The Times of India, September 21, 2025]

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CLAT 2024 UG Question Paper with Answer Key PDF – Set C

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