AILET 2024 LLM Question Paper with Solution PDF is available for download. NLU Delhi has conducted AILET 2024 on December 08, 2024. The question paper comprises a total of 150 questions divided among three sections.
AILET 2024 LLM Question Paper with Solution PDFs
| AILET 2024 LLM Question Paper with Solution PDF |  Download |
Check Solution |
The concept of parliamentary form of Government in the Constitution of India is derived from the Constitution of which country?
Match the following:
i. Copyright Act a. 10 years
ii. Patent Act b. Indefinite terms
iii. Trademark Act c. 20 years
iv. Geographical Indication Act d. Life of Author + 60 years term
Laxmikant Pandey v. Union of India (AIR 1984 SC) lays down the rule regarding:
In case of suicide by a married woman, the court under section 113-A of the Indian Evidence Act 1872, may presume that suicide had been abetted by her husband, if
I. Suicide was committed by the wife within a period of seven years from the date of her marriage.
II. The wife was subjected to cruelty.
III. The wife was illiterate and from a poor family.
IV. The wife was deserted by the husband.
Select the correct option:
Which Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with allocation of seats in the Council of States?
A party cannot avail the benefit of Doctrine of Fairness to alter the terms of contract because it is presumed that if a commercial contract is taking place under a statute:
The creation of a Right by the Lapse of Time is __________ prescription.
How many amendments have been made in the Constitution of India till date?
Which Part of the Constitution of India deals with Fundamental Rights?
The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970 will be applicable on which of the following:
| Establishment X has 17 female employees since the last two years as contract labours for making papers. |
| Establishment Y has 21 female employees since the last two years as contract labours for making papers. |
| Establishment Z hires 21 female employees as contract labours for 59 days in the preceding year for destroying papers after Exams in NLUs. |
| Contractor A hires 21 female employees as contract labours for a seasonal work of preparing a sweet dish called Ghevar on occasion of Raksha Bandhan in the month of August. |
A document containing a communication from a husband to his wife in the hands of a third person is:
Which of the following is incorrect with regards to a Lok Adalat?
Pick the correct statement:
“The statement in order to constitute a ‘confession’ under the Indian Evidence Act 1872, must either admit in terms the offence or at any rate substantially all the facts which constitute the offence.” The above view was expressed by the Privy Council in which case?
The Supreme Court of India in which case dealt with the validity of the entry tax?
Find the odd one out:
Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the validity of pre-Constitution laws?
Match List I with List II and select the correct option:
List I List II
a. Section 146 IPC 1. Fabricating False Evidence
b. Section 340 IPC 2. Extortion
c. Section 192 IPC 3. Rioting
d. Section 383 IPC 4. Wrongful confinement
Whose permission is required for an Indian citizen to accept any title from any foreign State?
Any person arrested and detained in custody has to be produced before the nearest Magistrate within?
Match the following:
Type of IPR Protects the intellectual property
i. Copyright Act a. Of a seller selling geographical uniqueness of a product
ii. Patents Act b. Created by a business’ brand identity in the marketplace
iii. Trademarks Act c. Created by inventors
iv. Geographical Indications Act d. Created by artists
Under the provision of Hindu Succession Act, 1956, any property inherited by a female Hindu from her father or mother shall devolve, in absence of any son or daughter of the deceased (including the children of any pre-deceased son or daughter):
An arbitral award may not be set aside by the Court for being in conflict with the public policy of India if:
If a witness who is unable to speak, gives his evidence in writing in the open court, evidence so given shall be deemed to be:
Following applies to voidable contracts:
The most important feature of Kelsen’s pure theory is Grundnorm, which is presumed to be valid and has to be followed. Which will be considered as the Grundnorm from the following:
I. Constitution ought to be followed
II. Penal laws ought to be followed
III. Murder/thief ought to be punished
Which of the following is a Directive Principle under the Constitution of India?
What should be the composition of the Internal Committee as per POSH Act 2013?
Consider the following statements about the President of India:
I. The President shall not hold any other office of profit.
II. Any citizen can be appointed as the President of India if he has completed the age of thirty years.
III. In case of impeachment of the President of India on the ground of violation of the Constitution of India, the charge shall be preferred by either House of the Parliament.
Who determines the salaries of Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Council of States?
Rule of fair trial to marriage is mentioned under:
Which provision provides that “in determining whether a group of persons is or is not a firm, or whether a person is or is not a partner in a firm, regard shall be had to the real relation between the parties, as shown by all relevant facts taken together”?
The following individuals cannot be appointed as arbitrators unless the parties, after a dispute has arisen between them, mutually agree by an express agreement in writing to select them as arbitrators:
Dowry Prohibition law will be considered as law by:
I. Positive school of law as it is passed by the Parliament of India.
II. Sociological school of law as it represents the social fact of dowry being prohibited in India.
III. Historical school of law as it developed from the consciousness of law which realised demanding dowry as wrong.
The Supreme Court of India enjoys original jurisdiction on which of the following issues?
In which case, it was held that ‘identification parades’ do not contravene Article 20(3) of the Constitution of India, which requires that no accused shall be compelled to be witness against himself?
Part V of the Constitution of India also deals with which of the following?
Power to give a divorce can be delegated by a Muslim husband to:
Pardon may be tendered to an accomplice under Section 306 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 when:
Following is true about any hire-purchase agreement:
Who is competent under the Constitution of India to declare National Emergency?
What do you understand by the term ‘Mini Constitution’?
Olga Tellis \& Ors. v. Bombay Municipal Corporation \& Ors. (1985) 3 SCC 545 is a leading case on which issue?
Under Section 2(vii) of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act 1939, a Muslim wife shall be entitled to obtain a decree for dissolution of her marriage:
Consider the following principles:
Principle I: Copyright provides exclusive rights to the owner or creator of a literary work.
Principle II: The copyright of a work created within the scope of employment by an employee is given to the employer.
Principle III: The Copyright Act, 1957 states in its provisions that fair dealing with a literary, dramatic, musical, or artistic work that is not a computer programme is not an infringement of copyright.
Fact: P created a cartoon when she was hired by S for her magazine. X used that cartoon without prior permission of S in her class slides to simplify a topic in class. Decide.
The Constitution of India provides special provisions for which of the following States?
Which of the following assertion is incorrect?
A valid purpose of a Wakf is:
Match List I with List II:
List I List II
1. Examination of witness by police (i) Section 53A
2. Examination of person accused of rape by medical practitioner (ii) Section 161
3. Medical examination of the victim of rape (iii) Section 200
4. Examination of complainant (iv) Section 164A
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(b) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(c) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(d) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
The Supreme Court of India recently asked whether it should reconsider its 45 years landmark decision on the definition of ‘industry’ in which the triple test was laid down. Which case is being referred here for reconsideration?
Compulsory education to all children of the age of six to eighteen years falls under which category?
Following statements are correct about the Sale of Goods Act, 1930:
Evolution and development of natural law theory may be studied under the following heads:
Which schedule of the Constitution of India contains special administration and control provisions for Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes?
Write the correct sequence as enshrined in the Preamble to the Constitution of India.
Which Schedule of the Constitution determines the disqualification of a person from being a Member of either House of the Parliament of India?
Which of the following are exceptions to the principles of natural justice?
Under which sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 provision regarding summary trial is given?
Which of the following is a method to control Delegated Legislation?
Match the following jural correlatives:
1. Right (i) No Right
2. Privilege (ii) Duty
3. Power (iii) Disability
4. Immunity (iv) Liability
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(b) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(c) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(d) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
Identify the correct pair(s).
I. I.C. GolakNath v. State of Punjab : Supervision of Tribunals
II. L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India : Right to Information
III. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India : Post decisional hearing
IV. P. V. Narasimha Rao v. State : Doctrine of Colourable Legislation
The term ‘Ombudsman’ originated in which country?
There is no jurisdiction to grant bail under Section 438 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 in:
Consider the following international instruments and arrange them in chronological order:
I. Convention Relating to the Status of Refugees
II. ILO Convention No. 97 (Migration for Employment Convention (Revised))
III. International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families
IV. Declaration on the Human Rights of Individuals who are not nationals of the country in which they live
Which of the following is not applicable to a registered trade union?
I. The Societies Registration Act, 1860 (21 of 1860)
II. The Co-operative Societies Act, 1912 (2 of 1912)
III. The Companies Act, 1956
The writ of Mandamus can be issued against which of the following?
Pick the correct statement about oppression and mismanagement:
What is not an essential ingredient of ‘Gift’ as defined under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
What is the duration of a lease for an immovable property for agricultural purpose in the absence of any contract or local law?
Match the following:
A. Sexual intercourse by husband with minor wife I. State of Punjab v. Gurmit Singh
B. In-camera trial of rape case II. Vishakha v. State of Rajasthan
C. Sexual harassment of women at workplace III. Sakshi v. UOI
D. In-camera trial of a case under sections 354 and 377, IPC IV. Independent Thought v. UOI
(a) I II III IV
(b) II III IV I
(c) III II I IV
(d) IV I II III
Which of the following is true about passing off with respect to trademark?
I. The passing off is providing protection to registered goods and services.
II. The passing off is providing protection to unregistered goods and services.
III. In passing off, it is not essential for the plaintiff to establish that the disputed mark has a distinctive identity for the user of the plaintiff ’s goods or services.
Consider the following Statements in relation to Principle 21 of the Stockholm Declaration
Statement I: Principle 21 is reiterated in Principle 3 of the Rio Declaration
Statement II: Principle 21 is comprised of two elements
Statement III: Principle 21 reflects Customary International Law
Which of these statement(s) is/are correct?
As per the new Industrial Relations Code 2020, gratuity will be given to fixed term employees if they render service for a minimum of __ unlike the old law which provided minimum criteria for claiming gratuity to be __?
When does a contingent interest become a vested interest under the provisions of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
Which of the following statement(s) are correct in relation to Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC) in the context of Article 4 of the 2015 Paris Agreement?
I. State parties to the Paris Agreement are legally obligated to prepare, communicate and maintain NDC and achieve their NDC.
II. State parties to the Paris Agreement are legally obligated to communicate a NDC every 5 years.
III. Least Developing Nations are exempt from the mandate to prepare and submit NDC.
Select the correct option:
Following is true about malicious prosecution:
‘Attested’ as interpreted under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 implies:
General Practice which is a constituent element of Customary International Law refers to:
I. Practice of States
II. Conduct of NGOs
III. Conduct of Private Individuals
IV. Practice of International Organisations
Select the correct option:
Company N slightly altered an already existing medicine ‘M’ and wants to get it patented. Decide:
Pick the correct statement:
Following is not correct about the Board of Directors:
The Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020 has subsumed how many major labour laws into one Code?
According to which theory, new states are established by the will and consent of already existing states?
A judgement:
A prosecutes B for adultery with C, A’s wife. B denies that C is A’s wife, but the Court convicts B for adultery. Afterwards, C is prosecuted for bigamy in marrying B during A’s lifetime. C says that she never was A’s wife. The judgement against B is:
Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the precautionary principle in international environmental law?
Gaurav, an accused, wants to submit carbon copy of the suicide note as secondary evidence. The original is with the opposite party and he has failed to produce the same in the court. The suicide was not within the knowledge of the accused prior to the receipt of the carbon copy. Which of the following will hold true for the case?
Assertion (A): Article 19 of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties (1969) provides that the States have the right to make reservation circumscribed by three exceptions.
Reason (R): The making of reservations is incident upon the sovereignty and equality of states.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List I List II
(i) Tukaram v. State of Maharashtra 1. General A.S. Vaidya Case
(ii) State of Tamil Nadu v. Nalini 2. Mathura Rape Case
(iii) Varendra Kumar Ghosh v. Emperor 3. Post-Master Murder Case
(iv) State of Maharashtra v. Sukh Deo Singh 4. Rajeev Gandhi Murder Case
The following statement highlighting the Espoo Convention as an “exemplary standard” for conducting Environmental Impact Assessment was made in the:
“In my respectful view, what appears to be missing in this analysis by the Court is what specific obligations arise during stage two of this process. In attempt to fill this lacuna, the present opinion will offer suggestions as to appropriate minimum standards that should be fulfilled by any nation State conducting an EIA. In this regard, the Convention on Environmental Impact Assessment in a Transboundary Context (“Espoo Convention”) drafted by the United Nations Economic Commission for Europe (“UNECE”) provides, in my view, an exemplary standard for the process to be followed when conducting an EIA.”
Following principles are considered as settled while interpreting taxation statutes:
Following is not included within the ambit of ‘consumer rights’:
Assertion (A): An accomplice shall be a competent witness against an accused person.
Reason (R): An accomplice is unworthy of credit, unless he is corroborated in material particulars.
Nemo judex in causa sua implies which of the following?
In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court of India identify both Precautionary and Polluter Pays principles as essential features of sustainable development?
Consider the following principles:
Principle A: International humanitarian law aims to protect the civilian population and civilian objects, and establishes the distinction between combatants and non-combatants. States must never make civilians the object of attack and must consequently never use weapons that are incapable of distinguishing between civilian and military targets.
Principle B: International humanitarian law prohibits causing of unnecessary suffering to combatants; it is accordingly prohibited to use weapons causing them such harm or uselessly aggravating their suffering. Therefore, states do not have unlimited freedom of choice of means in the weapons they use.
Following matters or disputes can be referred to mediation under the Mediation Act 2023:
Following is not correct about the ‘same word same meaning’ rule:
“Article 36, paragraph 1(b), of the Vienna Convention provides that if a national of the sending State is arrested or detained, and ‘if he so requests’, the competent authorities of the receiving State must, ‘without delay’, inform the consular post of the sending State.” [Jadhav Case (India v. Pakistan)]
In the context of this case, the International Court of Justice understood the expression ‘without delay’ as:
Following is true about further issue of share capital:
Comments